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General Anatomy
1. The name of the lymphoid tissue surrounding the blood vessels in the spleen is
known as
a. White pulp
b. Red pulp
c. Trabeculae
d. Sinusoid
2. The parotid duct opens into the
a. Vestibule
b. Antrum
c. Fauces
d. Fornix
3. The Stensons duct of the parotid gland pierces which muscle
a. Buccinator
b. Orbicularis oris
c. Obricularis oculi
d. Levator anguli oris
4. Severing the nerve of the femoral triangle creates an inability to
a. Abduct the thigh
b. Flex the leg
c. Extend the leg
d. Rotate the thigh
5. The medulla of the suprarenal glands secretes which of the following hormones
a. Aldosterone
b. Adrenalin
c. Cortisol
d. ACTH
6. Which of the following is part of the midgut
a. Stomach
b. Esophagus
c. Duodenum
d. Descending colon
7. Which muscle flexes the knee
a. Rectus femoris
b. Popliteus
c. Tibialis anterior
d. Extensor digitorum
8. Which originates from the first branchial arch
a. Malleus and incus
b. Stapes
c. Stylopharyngeus
d. Cranial nerve VII
9. Which force is most apt to cause a spondylolisthesis at L5-S1
a. Shearing
b. Torsion
c. Tension
d. Compression
10. What type of joint is fibrocartilage
a. Symphysis
b. Syndesmosis
c. Synchondrosis
d. Synovial
11. Which cranial nerve supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
a. CN 7
b. CN 5
c. CN 9
d. CN 10
12. The maxillary sinus drains into
a. Superior nasal meatus
b. Middle nasal meatus
c. Inferior nasal meatus
d. Superior sagittal sinus
13. Which ligament attaches the ovaries to the abdominal wall
a. Suspensory
b. Broad
c. Round
d. Transverse cervical
14. The iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and ischiococcygeus comprise
a. Pelvic diaphragm
b. Quadriceps
c. Hamstrings
d. Triceps surae
15. Which is a pivot joint
a. Glenohumeral
b. Proximal tibiofibular joint
c. Distal tibiofibular joint
d. Proximal radioulnar joint
16. Which creates delay in the cardiac impulse
a. Purkinje fibers
b. AV node
c. SA node
d. Bundle of His
17. The head of the pancreas is in direct contact with which structure
a. Right kidney
b. Liver surface
c. Descending duodenum
d. Ascending duodenum
18. Which bone articulates distally with the calcaneus
a. Navicular
b. Cuboid
c. Talus
d. Tibia
19. Which is a medial rotator of the shoulder
a. Subscapularis
b. Supraspinatus
c. Infraspinatus
d. Teres minor
20. The pituitary gland sits in a depression of which bone
a. Frontal
b. Sphenoid
c. Ethmoid
d. Maxillary
21. Which surrounds a muscle fascicle
a. Endomysium
b. Perimysium
c. Epimysium
d. Endoneurium
22. The musculocutaneous nerve emerges from which part of the brachial plexus
a. Posterior cord
b. Lateral cord
c. Medial cord
d. Superior trunk
23. Which is the only joint to articulate the upper extremity with the axial skeleton
a. Sternoclavicular
b. Acromioclavicular
c. Glenohumeral
d. Coracoclavicular
24. The parotid gland is innervated by which cranial nerve
a. V
b. VII
c. IX
d. X
25. Following a knee injury, the tibia moves anteriorly and the femur moves
posteriorly. What ligament is damaged
a. anterior cruciate
b. posterior cruciate
c. lateral collateral
d. medial collateral
26. Which part of the urethra goes through the urogenital diaphragm
a. spongy
b. penile
c. membranous
d. prostatic
27. Which muscle forms the diaphragm of the pelvis
a. Coccygeus
b. Obturator internus
c. Piriformis
d. Levator ani
28. Which gives anterior support to the glenohumeral joint
a. Supraspinatus
b. Infraspinatus
c. Teres minor
d. Subscapularis
29. Which bone forms the nasal septum
a. Vomer
b. Sphenoid
c. Frontal
d. Maxillary
30. Which is a synchondrosis
a. Epiphyseal plate
b. Interosseous membrane
c. Symphysis pubis
d. Intervertebral disc
31. Which is located in the middle mediastinum
a. Thoracic aorta
b. Aortic arch
c. Esophagus
d. Arch of azygous vein
32. The right coronary artery lies within which sulcus
a. Coronary sulcus
b. Anterior interventricular sulcus
c. Sulcus arteriae vertebralis
d. Sulcus costae
33. With otitis media, which is most commonly affected
a. Taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
b. Swallowing
c. Phonation
d. Taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue
34. Which ligament separates the greater sciatic foramen from the lesser sciatic
foramen
a. Sacrospinous
b. Sacrotuberous
c. Iliolumbar
d. Supraspinous
35. How many lobes in right lung
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 5
36. Which ligament provides posterior reinforcement to the fibrous capsule of the hip
joint
a. Ischiofemoral
b. Iliofemoral
c. Transverse
d. Ischiosacral
37. Which cell lines the respiratory tract
a. Simple squamous
b. Stratified squamous
c. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
d. Simple columnar
38. Which is not a border of the suboccipital triangle in the neck
a. Inferior oblique
b. Superior oblique
c. Rectus capitus posterior minor
d. Rectus capitus posterior major
39. The linea aspera is located on the ___________ shaft of the femur
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
40. Cancer of the head of the pancreas will most likely compress which structure
a. Common bile duct
b. Cystic duct
c. Hepatic artery
d. Hepatic vein
41. In which location of the stomach is gas best visualized on x-ray
a. Cardiac
b. Pylorus
c. Body
d. Fundus
42. Which bone does not articulate with the humerus
a. Scapula
b. Clavicle
c. Ulna
d. Radius
43. Which structure passes under the aortic arch and posterior to the ductus arteriosus
a. right recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. left recurrent laryngeal nerve
c. vagus nerve
d. phrenic nerve
44. Which goes through the central tendon of the diaphragm
a. Inferior vena cava
b. Aorta
c. Esophagus
d. Thoracic duct
45. Which is not attached to the posterior abdominal wall
a. Duodenum
b. Ileum
c. Jejunum
d. Pylorus
46. The larynx is derived from the ___________ branchial arch
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 4th and 6th
47. Which cell is responsible for the secretion of the osteoid
a. Osteoblasts
b. Osteocytes
c. Osteoclasts
d. Chondrocytes
48. Which artery divides into the anterior and posterior tibial arteries
a. Popliteal
b. Femoral
c. Gluteal
d. Obturator
49. The renal cells that produce rennin are located in
a. Afferent arteriole
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Renal artery
d. Segmental artery
50. Which joint has an articular disc
a. TMJ
b. Acromioclavicular
c. Coracoclavicular
d. Costosternal
51. The fundus of the gall bladder is found at the intersection of the mid-clavicular
line and the tip of what costal cartilage
a. Ninth
b. Tenth
c. Eleventh
d. Twelfth
52. Which area does the round ligament of the uterus attach to
a. Labia majora
b. Labia minora
c. Vagina
d. Cervix
53. The vagina is continuous with what part of the uterus
a. Isthmus
b. Cervix
c. Body
d. Fundus
54. The circumflex artery sits in which sulcus
a. Coronary groove
b. Posterior interventricular groove
c. Sulcus arteriae vertebralis
d. Sulcus costae
55. Which is not an intracapsular ligament
a. Anterior cruciate ligament
b. Posterior cruciate ligament
c. Coronary ligament
d. Lateral collateral ligament
56. The left fourth aortic arch gives rise to
a. Arch of aorta
b. Common carotid
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Right subclavian artery
57. Which bone articulates with the fourth and fifth metatarsal
a. Cuboid
b. Lateral cuneiform
c. Navicular
d. Medial cuneiform
58. Which is a carpal bone in the proximal row
a. Pisiform
b. Trapezium
c. Capitate
d. Hamate
59. Which artery runs over the scaphoid
a. Radial
b. Ulnar
c. Brachial
d. Axillary
60. Which separates the TMJ
a. Articular disc
b. Condyle of mandible
c. Mandibular fossa of temporal bone
d. Lateral pterygoid
61. Which attaches to the proximal scapula
a. Teres minor
b. Levator scapulae
c. Supraspinatus
d. Infraspinatus
62. The soleal line is located on the ___________ aspect of the ___________.
a. Anterior, tibia
b. Posterior, tibia
c. Anterior, fibula
d. Posterior, fibula
63. The metopic suture is found on which bone
a. Frontal
b. Parietal
c. Occipital
d. Temporal
64. Which cells are found in the stomach
a. Simple squamous
b. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar
c. Simple columnar
d. Stratified squamous
65. Which is found in the middle mediastinum
a. Vagus
b. Phrenic
c. Trachea
d. Esophagus
66. The zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculate and reticularis are part of which
a. Suprarenal gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Pituitary gland
d. Parathyroid gland
67. Which is not an infrahyoid muscle
a. Mylohyoid
b. Sternothyroid
c. Ornohyoid
d. Thyrohyoid
68. Which makes up the lateral border of the femoral triangle
a. Sartorius
b. Adductor longus
c. Adductor magnus
d. Obturator externus
69. The adductor tubercle is located on the ______
a. Medial femur
b. Lateral femur
c. Medial tibia
d. Lateral tibia
70. Muscles of the thenar eminence perform which
a. Flexion of first digit
b. Adduction of wrist
c. Extension of first digit
d. Abduction of wrist
71. Inability to flex the big toe is due to
a. Loss of the tibial nerve
b. Loss of the deep peroneal nerve
c. Loss of the superficial nerve
d. Loss of the femoral nerve
72. In which area is the sustentaculum tali found
a. Calcaneus
b. Talus
c. Navicular
d. Femur
73. Which forms the sarcomere distance
a. Between two z lines
b. I-band
c. H-band
d. A-band
74. What sits in the C-shape of the duodenum
a. Head of pancreas
b. Tail of pancreas
c. Right kidney
d. Liver
75. Which does not have valves
a. Large veins
b. Medium size veins
c. Capillaries
d. Lymphatics
76. Where are the dermal papillary folds located
a. Lips
b. Palms
c. Nose
d. Scalp
77. Which is the function of the type II alveolar cells
a. Produce pulmonary surfactant
b. Gas exchange
c. Phagocytosis
d. Mucous production
78. When the distal ileum terminates, what does it become
a. Cecum
b. Ascending colon
c. Jejunum
d. Appendix
79. Where does the pectoralis major insert
a. Greater tuberosity of humerus
b. Lesser tuberosity of humerus
c. Anatomical neck of humerus
d. Surgical neck of humerus
?
Supraspinatus inserts in greater tuberosity of humerus
Pectoralis major inserts at bicipital groove
80. What is the function of the serratus anterior muscle
a. Protraction of scapulae
b. Retraction of scapulae
c. Adduction of scapulae
d. Flexion of scapulae
81. Fracture of which will cause a loss of the axillary nerve
a. Surgical neck of humerus
b. Anatomical neck of humerus
c. Midshaft of humerus
d. Neck of ulna
82. With the action of serratus anterior, you see
a. Rotation of the glenoid fossa superiorly
b. Rotation of the glenoid fossa inferiorly
c. Flexion of scapulae
d. Extension of scapulae
83. Which is a branch of the external carotid artery
a. Maxillary
b. Internal thoracic
c. Ophthalmic
d. Inferior thyroid
84. Where does the internal thoracic come off of
a. Thyrocervical trunk
b. Subclavian artery
c. Internal carotid
d. External carotid
85. The azygous vein drains into the
a. Thoracic duct
b. Right brachiocephalic vein
c. Left brachiocephalic vein
d. Superior vena cava
86. Which has the greatest range of motion
a. Spheroidal
b. Ginglymus
c. Sellar
d. Pivot
Ginglymus – hinge
Sellar – saddle
87. The proximal dilation of the ureter is called the
a. Renal sinus
b. Bladder
c. Renal pelvis
d. Major calyx
88. Right and left lumbar lymphatic trunks combine to form
a. Cisterna chyli
b. Thoracic duct
c. Right lymphatic duct
d. Peyers patches
89. The great saphenous vein lies __________ to the fascia lata on the _______
aspect of the leg
a. Superficial, lateral
b. Superficial, medial
c. Deep, lateral
d. Deep, medial
90. Which does not form a border for the greater sciatic foramen
a. Sacrotuberous
b. Sacrospinous
c. Greater sciatic notch
d. Lesser sciatic notch
91. What forms the posterior border at the axillary fold
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Pectoralis major
c. Serratus anterior
d. Humerus
92. Paralysis of the extensor muscles of the arm, forearm, wrist, and hand are due to a
lesion of
a. Posterior cord
b. Medial cord
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Musculocutaneous nerve
93. If you lose flexion of the forearm, which nerve is involved
a. Musculocutaneous
b. Axillary
c. Radial
d. Ulnar
94. Which tendon is a landmark for finding the radial pulse
a. Flexor carpi radialis
b. Brachioradialis
c. Flexor carpi ulnaris
d. Brachialis
95. Which blends into the extensor digitorum longus muscle
a. Peroneus longus
b. Peroneus brevis
c. Peroneus tertius
d. Tibialis anterior
96. Where is the coronoid process located on the ulna
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
97. What portion of the ulna articulates with the humerus
a. Trochlear notch
b. Coronoid fossa
c. Olecranon fossa
d. Capitulum
98. Where is the SA node located in the heart
a. Right atrium
b. Right ventricle
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle
Leaky sodium channels
99. sd
100.
Which is osteogenic
Periosteum
Medullary bone
Trabeculae
Endosteum
101.
Which is the superior border of the ankle mortis joint
a. Medial malleolus
b. Lateral malleolus
c. Inferior aspect of the tibia
d. Superior aspect of the tibia
102.
Which contributes to the formation of the placenta
a. Perimetrium
b. Endometrium
c. Corpus luteum
d. Myometrium
103.
What is the origin of the long head of biceps brachii
a. Supraglenoid tubercle
b. Infraglenoid tubercle
c. Carotid tubercle
d. Caracoid process
104.
The crus of the penis is continous with
a. Corpus cavernosum
b. Corpus spongiosum
c. Bulb
d. Glans
105.
The majority of intrinsic plantar muscles of the foot are innervated by
nerves that arise from what spinal cord levels
a. L1-L2
b. L2-L3
c. S1-S2
d. S2-S3
106.
What lies posterior and lateral to the testes
a. Epidydimus
b. Vas deferens
c. Seminiferous tubules
d. Prostate
107.
Lymph from right upper limb, right head and neck, and the right half of
the thoracic cavity drains into
a. Right lymphatic duct
b. Thoracic duct
c. Right external jugular vein
d. Right brachiocephalic vein
108.
Right and left brachiocephalic veins come together to form
a. Superior vena cava
b. Inferior vena cava
a.
b.
c.
d.
c. Portal vein
d. Pulmonary vein
109.
Which gives rise to the obturator artery
a. Internal iliac
b. External iliac
c. Femoral
d. Pudendal
110.
What is the insertion of the adductor longus
a. Greater trochanter
b. Lesser trochanter
c. Linea aspera
d. Trochanteric fossa
111.
Damage to the tibial division of the sciatic will result in loss of
a. Abduction of hip
b. Lateral rotation of hip
c. Knee flexion
d. Knee extension
112.
What structure is posterior to the thyroid gland
a. Hyoid
b. Omohyoid
c. Trachea
d. Esophagus
113.
What kind of cartilage makes up the medial meniscus
a. Hyaline
b. Dense regular
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Elastic
114.
Which contributes to the formation of the anterior aspect of the trochlear
notch of the ulna
a. Coracoid process
b. Coronoid process
c. Conoid tubercle
d. Olecranon
115.
What rib level is the subcostal plane located at
a. 8th
b. 10th
c. 11th
d. 12th
116.
The knee joint is an example of a _________ joint
a. Gliding
b. Ginglymus
c. Condyloid
d. Trochoid