Download Fall 03

Systemic Anatomy Exam II
Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Fall 2003
Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this
case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your
questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the
examination. Good luck.
FORM A
1) Choose the definition which is NOT correct for the word it is associated with.
a) hypoxemia – decreased oxygen in the blood
b) anosmia – seen with paralysis or complete dysfunction of cranial nerve three
c) sphygmomanometer – a device used to measure blood pressure
d) blepharospasm – twitching or spasms of the eyelid
e) mydriasis – dilation of the pupil
2) Where would I find the auditory ossicles?
a) in the squamous portion of the temporal bone
b) medial to the tympanic membrane
c) rostral to the glabella
d) inferior to the foramen magnum
e) two of the above
3) Choose the INCORRECT match of osseous term to its definition.
a) sulcus – a groove
b) meatus – a canal
c) facet – a flattened or shallow surface articular surface
d) trochanter – a large process only found on the humerus
e) fissure – a narrow slit like opening
4) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the Haversian system.
a) osteocytes reside in the lacunae
b) canaliculi connect the lacunae to the central canal and to each other
c) lamellae are concentric rings of bone
d) the perforating canals run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone in long bones
e) compact bone forms the medullary portion of bone
5) Choose the TRUE statement.
a) as arterial CO2 rises, arterial pH also typically rises
b) hematopoiesis typically occurs in the yellow marrow of a long bone
c) Vitamin C is not a necessary precursor for hydroxyproline a precursor for collagen
d) hypocalcemia is an elevated level of calcium in the blood
e) 1 teaspoon equals 5 ccs
6) Choose the TRUE statement.
a) cranial nerve 7 exits the skull via the stylomastoid foramen
b) the internal acoustic meatus is located on the squamous portion of the temporal bone
c) the temporal lines are located on the lateral aspect of the temporal bone and serve as the origin of the
temporalis m.
d) cranial nerve 9, 10 and 11 exit the skull thru the foramen magnum
e) the dural sinus located in the groove for the sigmoid sinus exits the skull through the hypoglossal
canal as the jugular vein
page 1, SA Exam II, Q. # 1-6
7) Which of the following bones touch the sphenoid bone? (MACA)
a) lacrimal bone
b) maxillae
c) vomer bone
d) nasal bone
e) inferior nasal conchae
8) The nasal septum is formed by which of the following bones? (MACA)
a) maxillae
b) sphenoid
c) occipital
d) vomer
e) ethmoid
9) The boundaries for the vertebral foramen include which of the following? (MACA)
a) posterior portion of the vertebral body
b) the lamina
c) the pedicle
d) the IVD
e) the Z-joint
10) There is no IVD between the atlas and the epistropheus because _________________.
a) this is a false statement as there is an IVD here
b) the epistropheus is not a vertebra
c) the atlas has no body
d) there are only 23 IVD’s and 26 vertebrae
e) there is no Z joint here
11) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) the musculospiral groove runs inferior to the deltoid tuberosity
b) the lesser tubercle of the humerus is lateral to the greater tubercle
c) the medial epicondyle of the humerus is typically larger than the lateral epicondyle
d) the semilunar notch of the ulna is proximal to the coronoid process
e) the styloid process of the radius and the styloid process of the ulna are both located on the distal
aspect of each respective bone.
12) In class we learned to primarily classify joints by which of the following means?
a) according to adjacent structures limiting movement
b) the anatomic shape of the bones that form the joint
c) the type of material that holds the bones together
d) the laxity of the joint capsule
e) none of the above
13) In a suture, the boney ends are united by ________.
a) hyaline cartilage
b) fibrocartilage
c) fibrous connective tissue
d) a joint capsule
e) synovial membrane
page 2, SA Exam II, Q. # 7-13
14) Which of the following is an example of a plane suture?
a) sagittal suture
b) median palatine suture
c) squamous suture
d) lambdoidal suture
e) coronal suture
15) In the word syndesmosis, the prefix syn means ___ and the combining form desmo means ____.
a) joined or union; cartilage
b) joined or union; bone
c) joined or union; ligament
d) joined or union; osteoid
e) none of the above
16) When I ask you to classify a joint, what is the first thing you ask yourself?
a) what is the shape of the joint surface
b) what is the plane of movement
c) what type of material holds the bones together
d) is there a bursa present
e) is it really a joint or a pseudo joint
17) Which of the following is NOT typically a uniaxial joint?
a) pivot joint
b) trochoid joint
c) sellar joint
d) ginglymus
e) plane
18) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) presbycusis – diminished hearing acuity in geriatric patients
b) myringotomy – incision into the ring of cartilage which surrounds a joint
c) laminectomy – surgical removal of the lamina of a vertebra
d) otorrhea – discharge from the ear
e) diskectomy - excision of the intervertebral disc
19) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) ischemia – decreased arterial blood flow to a tissue
b) syncope – joined by an opaque membrane
c) ataxia – loss of coordination
d) paresis – weakness
e) palsy – paralysis
20) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) dysrhythmia – abnormal rhythm in the heart
b) arthrocentesis – surgical puncture into a joint
c) angina – substernal pain typically associated with myocardial ischemia
d) arthrodesis – surgical fixation of a joint
e) tinnitus – inflammation of a tendon
page 3, SA Exam II, Q.# 14-20
21) A joint that is capable of flexion and extension and has two joint surfaces which are both convex in one
plane and concave in the other would be classified as a ____ joint.
a) spheroid
b) condyloid
c) ellipsoidal
d) sellar
e) two of the above
22) Which of the following classifications apply to the temporomandibular joint? (MACA)
a) diarthrodial
b) ginglymus
c) secondary cartilaginous
d) gliding
e) amphiarthrosis
23) Which of the following classifications apply to the joint present between two adjacent vertebral bodies?
(MACA)
a) amphiarthrosis
b) plane
c) biaxial
d) secondary cartilaginous
e) symphysis
24) Looking at the odontoid process, I find two ligaments extending from the body of the process laterally to the
medial surface of the occipital condyles. Choose the TRUE statement concerning these ligaments. (MACA)
a) these ligaments are called apical ligaments
b) these ligaments are part of the cruciate ligament
c) these ligaments serve to limit rotation of the dens
d) these ligaments are called alar ligaments
e) these ligaments are part of the tectorial membrane
25) The tectorial membrane is the direct continuation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and is continuous
with the cranial dura.
a) true
b) false
26) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the uncovertebral joint.
a) exostosis due to chronic arthrosis of the uncovertebral joint can lead to encroachment of spinal nerves
b) it is located at the lateral and posterolateral margins of the IVD
c) it is a synovial joint
d) it is located between the uncinate process and a small indentation found on the superior surface of the
vertebra it articulates with
e) found typically from C3 through C6
27) Choose the CORRECT statement concerning IVD’s.
a) there are typically 26 IVD’s in the adult
b) they account for about 25% of the height of the vertebral column
c) in areas of lordotic curves the discs are thicker posteriorally
d) they adhere directly to the bone of the vertebral body
e) they form part of the superior aspect of the IVF
page 4, SA Exam II, Q.# 21-27
28) Which of the following classifications apply to the zygapophyseal joint? (MACA)
a) plane
b) amphiarthrosis
c) gliding
d) synovial
e) fibrous
29) After puberty the joint surfaces of the sacroiliac joint change their configuration so that the primary motion
the joint is capable of is ________.
a) abduction, adduction and lateral bending
b) flexion and extension
c) rotation, counter rotation and abduction and adduction
d) flexion, extension, rotation, and abduction and adduction
e) none of the above
30) In the Logan Basic technique, this ligament is typically contacted with the thumb.
a) iliolumbar ligament
b) inguinal ligament
c) sacrotuberous ligament
d) sacrospinous ligament
e) sacroiliac ligament
31) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) sternoclavicular joint – synovial, diarthrodial, plane joint
b) intra articular discs – hyaline cartilage
c) extrinsic ligaments – outside of joint capsule
d) costochondral joint of rib 1 – primary cartilaginous joint, synchondrosis
e) costovertebral joint – synovial, plane joint
32) Considering the radiate (stellate) ligaments attaching the heads of the ribs to the vertebra, which one
attaches to the IVD?
a) superior band
b) medial costotransverse ligament
c) inferior band
d) intermediate band
e) none of the above
33) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) the head of the rib 4 articulates with two vertebrae
b) the costotransverse joint of rib 12 is synovial, diarthrodial, plane joint
c) rib one only articulates with one vertebral body
d) the manubriosternal joint is typically a secondary cartilaginous joint
e) 33% of older women have a synovial lined cavity present in the angle of Louis
34) Where is the head of the humerus most likely to end up in a patient who has suffered a dislocated shoulder?
a) superior and lateral to the glenoid fossa
b) superior and medial to the glenoid fossa
c) inferior and lateral to the glenoid fossa
d) inferior and medial to the glenoid fossa
page 5, SA Exam II, Q.# 28-34
35) What lies in the intertubercular groove of the humerus?
a) the coracohumeral ligament
b) the transversehumeral retinaculum
c) the bicipital tendon
d) the tendon of the supraspinatus m.
e) the subdeltoid bursa
36) Articular cartilage is typically hyaline cartilage. Which of the following joints have one or more of their
articular surfaces covered with fibrocartilage? (MACA)
a) the temporomandibular joint
b) the acromioclavicular joint
c) the sternoclavicular joint
d) the sacroiliac joint
e) the glenohumeral joint
37) Which of the following ligaments of the hip would be considered an intrinsic ligament?
a) iliofemoral ligament
b) ligamentum teres
c) ischiofemoral ligament
d) pubofemoral ligament
e) anterior cruciate ligament
38) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the knee joint.
a) classified as a double condyloid joint
b) capable of flexion, extension and limited rotation
c) when the knee is extended and the foot is firmly planted on the ground, the femur rotates medially
d) the patella attaches to the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon
e) the arcuate popliteal ligament is on the posterior aspect of the knee joint
39) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the knee joint.
a) the anterior cruciate ligament attaches to the medial aspect of the lateral condyle of the femur
b) during extension of the knee joint the posterior cruciate ligament is pulled tight
c) a torn ACL results in an anterior drawer sign
d) the medial meniscus is the more commonly damages of the two menisci of the knee
e) the posterior cruciate ligament attaches to the posterior aspect of the tibia
40) Pennate means _____.
a) tendon
b) fan shaped
c) feather
d) convergent
e) two of the above
41) Choose the FALSE statement relative to muscles.
a) the origin of the muscles is the end that attaches to the bone that moves when the muscle contracts
b) a GSE neuron would carry motor information to a muscle and when it fired would cause the muscles
to contract
c) ACH is the neurotransmitter present at the myoneural junction
d) muscles with the names maximus, minimus, etc. are named in relationship to their size
e) a flaccid muscle would have decreased tone in the muscle’s belly
page 6, SA Exam II, Q.# 35-41
42) Choose the INCORRECT match of muscle of facial expression and its action.
a) epicranius frontalis – wrinkles skin of forehead
b) risorius – draws angle of mouth laterally
c) levator palpebrae superior – raises upper eye lid
d) procerus – draws eyebrows laterally
e) nasalis – widens nostrils
43) Choose the FALSE statement.
a) the temporalis m. inserts on the coronoid process of the mandible
b) muscles of mastication are innervated by the nerve that exits the skull through the foramen ovale
c) muscles of facial expression are innervated by the nerve that exits the skull through the stylomastoid
foramen
d) the lateral pterygoid m. is the only one of the 4 muscles of mastication that does not depress the
mandible
e) the superior oblique m. rotates the eyeball so that the pupil points up and in
44) The platysma m. will depress the mandible and tense the skin of the anterior neck.
a) true
b) false
45) Choose the FALSE statement concerning the sternocleidomastoid m.
a) inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone
b) it will flex the neck
c) it will extend the neck
d) it will extend the head
e) originates from the manubrium and clavicle
46) Contraction of the diaphragm will _____ the volume of the thoracic cavity.
a) decrease
b) increase
47) An arrow shot through the abdomen at a point midway between the umbilicus and the ASIS would first pass
through the ____ and lastly through the ___ as it entered the abdominal cavity.
a) rectus abdominis m.; external abdominal oblique m.
b) external abdominal oblique m.; parietal peritoneum
c) external abdominal oblique m.; internal abdominal oblique m.
d) rectus abdominis m.; internal abdominal oblique m.
e) rectus abdominis m.; transverse abdominis m.
48) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) the cremaster muscle is a slip off of the internal abdominal oblique m. and it will raise and lower
the testicles.
b) the quadratus lumborum m. will laterally flex the vertebral column
c) the splenius capitis m. is deep to the semispinalis capitis m.
d) the lateral most column of the erector spinae group of muscles is the iliocostalis mm.
e) the longissimus mm. will extend the spine
49) Multifidus mm. originate on the transverse process of a vertebra and insert on the spinous process of the
vertebra 2-4 segments superior to the origin.
a) true
b) false
page 7, SA Exam II, Q.# 42-49
50) Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning the muscles of the suboccipital triangle.
a) the rectus capitis posterior major m. attaches on the spinous process of the axis and the inferior nuchal
line.
b) all the muscles of the SOT are innervated by the suboccipital nerve which is the dorsal ramus of C1
c) the obliquus capitis superior m. attaches on the transverse process of the atlas and the spinous process
of the axis
d) the main function of the muscles of the SOT is to extend and rotate the head
e) the rectus capitis posterior minor has an association with the cranial dura mater
page 8, SA Exam II,Q.# 50
The end of exam two. Grades will be posted by the end of the day today. If you have concerns about your grade
you have one week to come see me and after that time all grades are final.