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Anatomy Semester Pretest MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity: A) ventral B) transverse C) sagittal D) dorsal 2) The muscular system consists of the: 1) E) coronal 2) A) muscles of the heart B) muscles in the walls of hollow organs C) skeletal muscles D) skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart E) muscles of the heart and those in the walls of the hollow organs 3) Hematopoeisis is the function of the: 3) A) endocrine system B) integumentary system C) skeletal system D) nervous system E) digestive system 4) Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans): 4) A) posterior and intermediate B) superficial and deep C) medial and distal D) lateral and distal E) superficial and proximal 5) In describing the relationship of the lungs to the heart: A) the lungs are cephalad to the heart B) the lungs are superficial to the heart C) the lungs are lateral to the heart D) the lungs are caudal to the heart E) the lungs are intermediate to the heart 1 5) 6) Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from superior to inferior, on the medial abdominal surface: 6) A) hypogastric region, epigastric region, umbilical region B) umbilical region, hypogastric region, epigastric region C) epigastric region, umbilical region, hypogastric region D) epigastric region, hypogastric region, umbilical region E) hypogastric region, umbilical region, epigastric region 7) Which of the following activities represents physiological studies: 7) A) drawing blood from laboratory animals to determine their blood sugar levels B) observing the parts of a reproducing cell C) making a section through the heart to observe its interior D) examining the surface of a bone E) viewing muscle tissue through a microscope 8) Which of the following is an anterior body landmark: 8) A) calcaneal region B) vertebral region C) gluteal region D) antecubital region E) scapular region 9) Which of the following is NOT a ventral cavity: 9) A) abdominal cavity B) pelvic cavity C) oral cavity D) spinal cavity E) thoracic cavity 10) The lymphatic system: 10) A) synthesizes vitamin D B) produces heat C) picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood D) responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands E) secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells 2 11) The structure that delivers digestive enzymes to the small intestine is/are the: 11) A) adrenal glands B) lymphoid organs C) liver D) pancreas E) pharynx 12) Your body thermostat is located in a part of the brain called the hypothalamus. Which of the following elements of a control system does this area in the brain represent: 12) A) stimulus B) effector C) afferent pathway D) efferent pathway E) control center 13) The region that contains the navel is the: 13) A) carpal region B) orbital region C) inguinal region D) umbilical region E) anterior knee 14) Which of the following statements is true regarding the vertebral, occipital, and buccal regions: 14) A) none of these regions is located dorsally B) only the occipital and buccal regions are located dorsally C) only the vertebral and buccal regions are located dorsally D) only the vertebral and occipital regions are located dorsally E) all of these regions are located dorsally 15) In describing the relationship between the patellar and femoral regions: A) the patellar region is superior to the femoral region B) the patellar region is distal to the femoral region C) the patellar region is dorsal to the femoral region D) the patellar region is proximal to the femoral region E) the patellar region is lateral to the femoral region 3 15) 16) Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection: 16) A) cranial B) thoracic C) spinal D) pelvic E) abdominal 17) Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides: 17) A) nervous system - responsiveness B) respiratory system - digestion C) nervous system - excretion D) integumentary system - movement E) muscular system - maintaining boundaries 18) Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from superior to inferior, on the lateral abdominal surface: 18) A) iliac region, hypochondriac region, lumbar region B) hypochondriac region, lumbar region, iliac region C) lumbar region, hypochondriac region, iliac region D) iliac region, lumbar region, hypochondriac region E) lumbar region, iliac region, hypochondriac region 19) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and stomach: 19) A) Both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant. B) Both of these organs are located medially. C) The spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant. D) The spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right upper quadrant. E) Both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant. 20) Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system: A) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response B) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response C) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response D) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response E) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response 4 20) 21) Two types of passive transport are: 21) A) endocytosis and diffusion B) filtration and exocytosis C) osmosis and endocytosis D) exocytosis and endocytosis E) diffusion and filtration 22) Which of the following do not involve the movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lower concentration: 22) A) diffusion B) osmosis C) facilitated diffusion D) filtration E) simple diffusion 23) The epithelial tissue found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse, such as the esophagus, is: 23) A) simple squamous epithelium B) simple columnar epithelium C) transitional D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium 24) The cell connections that allow substances to pass directly from one cell into another are called: 24) A) tight junctions B) inclusions C) gap junctions D) microvilli E) desmosomes 25) Cholesterol is used in the cell membrane to: 25) A) help make the membrane more fluid B) help make the membrane more rigid C) assist in cell recognition by the immune system D) provide the medium in which protein molecules float E) allow carbohydrates to pass through the membrane 5 26) The phase of cell division during which the chromatids are pulled apart and move to the opposite ends of the cell is: 26) A) metaphase B) telophase C) prophase D) interphase E) anaphase 27) Place these steps in protein synthesis in the correct order: (1) as the ribosome moves along the mRNA, a new amino acid is added to the growing protein chain (2) mRNA is made on a DNA template (3) incoming tRNA "recognizes" the complimentary mRNA sequence (codon), calling for its amino acid by binding to it via its anticodon (4) released tRNA reenters the cytoplasm to be recharged with a new amino acid (5) mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to a ribosome, and translation begins A) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 B) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 C) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 27) E) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 28) Which of the following is NOT true of epithelial tissue: 28) A) it covers all free body surfaces and lines the hollow cavities of organs B) it has a good blood supply within it and is very vascular C) it forms glands D) it rests on a basement membrane E) it forms continuous cellular sheets 29) The DNA segment that carries information coding for a particular amino acid is a: 29) A) triplet B) phosphate group C) deoxyribose sugar D) gene E) nucleotide 30) The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is: A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscle C) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle D) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle E) smooth muscle 6 30) 31) The molecule that is made during transcription is: 31) A) messenger RNA (mRNA) B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) C) DNA D) transfer RNA (tRNA) E) ATP 32) Which of the following is NOT connective tissue: 32) A) bone B) adipose C) skeletal muscle D) cartilage E) blood 33) The molecules in the cell membrane that serve as receptors or binding sites for hormones or other chemical messengers are the: 33) A) lipids B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) glycoproteins E) cholesterol molecules 34) The molecules that make the cell surface fuzzy, sticky, and sugar-rich are the: 34) A) proteins B) cholesterol molecules C) phospholipids D) glycoproteins E) lipid molecules 35) DNA replication takes place during: 35) A) metaphase B) interphase C) telophase D) prophase E) anaphase 7 36) Which of the following processes require the use of carrier molecules: 36) A) osmosis and filtration B) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping C) filtration and cellular secretion D) facilitated diffusion and bulk transport E) bulk transport and osmosis 37) Sebaceous glands are important for: 37) A) body heat regulation B) keeping skin and hair cells soft and flexible C) production of vitamin D D) production of keratin E) production of sweat 38) Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of: 38) A) filtration B) osmosis C) utilizing the products of glands to nourish the epidermis D) absorbing materials applied to the surface layer of the skin E) upward diffusion of nutrients from the blood vessels in the dermis 39) The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is somewhat protective due to: 39) A) an increased concentration of keratin that "toughens" the skin B) an increased blood supply that carries the heat of the sun away C) a decreased blood supply that blocks melanocyte activity D) increased production of melanin that helps to block ultraviolet light E) added layers of epidermis that thicken the skin 40) Epidermal cells that are actively mitotic and replace superficial cells that are continually rubbed off are: A) stratum granulosum cells B) stratum corneum cells C) stratum spinosum cells D) stratum germinativum cells E) stratum lucidum cells 8 40) 41) Which of the following is the correct sequence in layers of the epidermis going from outermost to innermost layer: 41) A) stratum germinativum, stratum corneum, stratum spinosum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum B) stratum corneum, stratum germinativum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum, stratum germinativum, stratum lucidum, stratum spinosum, stratum corneum D) stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum germinativum E) stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum germinativum 42) Inflammation of the hair follicles and sebaceous glands is (are) called: 42) A) alopecia B) impetigo C) psoriasis D) boils E) contact dermatitis 43) What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn: 43) A) dehydration B) infection C) blood loss D) loss of immune function E) unbearable pain 44) The hypodermis consists of: 44) A) simple columnar epithelium B) adipose tissue C) stratified squamous epithelium D) dense fibrous connective tissue E) loose connective tissue 45) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the papillary layer of the dermis: A) it is the deepest layer of the skin B) it is highly vascular C) it produces the pattern for fingerprints D) it is located immediately beneath the epidermis E) it contains nerve endings that respond to touch and temperature stimuli 9 45) 46) Which of the following is found in the dermis: 46) A) stratum corneum B) sweat and oil glands C) adipose cells D) melanocytes E) keratin 47) A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by: 47) A) performing enzyme studies B) measuring urinary output and fluid intake C) blood analysis D) using the "rule of nines" E) observing the tissues that are usually moist 48) Which of the following homoeostatic imbalances is caused by skin exposure to chemicals: 48) A) cold sores B) athlete's foot C) impetigo D) contact dermatitis E) cyanosis 49) The axial skeleton contains: 49) A) only flat bones B) arms, legs, hands, and feet C) the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum D) the shoulder and pelvic girdles E) the skull, vertebral column, and pelvis 50) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue fibers called: A) articular cartilage B) Volkmann's canals C) endochondral bone D) Sharpey's fibers E) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage 10 50) 51) Examples of cartilaginous joints are the ________, whereas examples of fibrous joints are the ________. 51) A) syndesmoses; pubic symphyses B) pubic symphyses; syndesmoses C) sutures; intervertebral joints D) diarthroses; sutures E) pubic symphyses; diarthroses 52) Which of the following is an example of a bone that forms from fibrous membranes: 52) A) the femur B) the parietal bone C) the radius D) the humerus E) the tibia 53) A compound fracture can be described as when: 53) A) the bone is broken into many fragments B) the broken bone ends are forced into each other C) the bone is crushed D) the broken bone is exposed to the outside E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously 54) The five regions of the vertebral column, from superior to inferior, are: 54) A) cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccygeal B) cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccygeal C) cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal D) cervical, sacral, thoracic, coccygeal, lumbar E) cervical, lumbar, sacral, thoracic, coccygeal 55) The foramen magnum passes through the: 55) A) temporal bone B) atlas C) occipital bone D) axis E) coxal bone 11 56) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo: 56) A) fibrocartilage B) elastic connective tissue C) hyaline cartilage D) loose fibrous connective tissue E) dense fibrous connective tissue 57) The greater tubercle is located on the: A) femur B) ulna 57) C) humerus D) radius 58) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior: E) tibia 58) A) true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs B) floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs C) floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs D) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs E) false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs 59) Which one of the following cranial nerves is NOT involved in either taste or smell: 59) A) olfactory nerve (I) B) vestibular (VIII) C) facial nerve (VII) D) vagus (X) E) glossopharyngeal (IX) 60) Sound waves entering the external auditory canal hit the eardrum, also known as the: 60) A) pinna B) ossicles C) auricle D) oval window E) typmanic membrane 61) Which one of the following is NOT found on the dorsal tongue surface: A) filiform papillae B) fungiform papillae C) maculary papillae D) gustatory cells E) circumvallate papillae 12 61) 62) Tears are produced by the lacrimal glands that are located: 62) A) below the lateral canthus of each eye B) above the lateral canthus of each eye C) behind the nasal bones D) below the medial canthus of each eye E) above the medial canthus of each eye 63) Accommodation is: 63) A) contraction of the pupil adjusting to bright light B) stimulation of the retina by light rays C) dilation of the pupil adjusting to dim light D) adjustment of the lens during vision of distant objects E) adjustment of the thickness of the lens during vision of close objects 64) The portion of the bony labyrinth responsible for static equilibrium is the: 64) A) vestibule B) ossicles C) semicircular canals D) cochlea E) oval window 65) The congenital condition of "crossed eyes" is also known as: 65) A) presbyopia B) hyperopia C) myopia D) strabismus E) hemianopia 66) The oily secretions that lubricate the eye are produced by the: A) apocrine glands B) lacrimal glands C) ceruminous glands D) ciliary glands E) tarsal glands 13 66) 67) Which of the following is a dorsal body landmark: 67) A) sternal region B) patellar region C) thoracic region D) scapular region E) pubic region 68) Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function: 68) A) responsiveness B) nutrients C) movement D) metabolism E) maintaining boundaries 69) The smallest living unit of all living things is: 69) A) the organism B) an organ C) a molecule D) a cell E) a tissue 70) Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans): 70) A) anterior and ventral B) inferior and cephalad C) inferior and cranial D) superior and caudal E) anterior and dorsal 71) Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change: A) stimulus B) efferent pathway C) receptor D) control center E) effector 14 71) 72) Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body: 72) A) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level B) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level C) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level D) cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level E) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level 73) The epithelial tissue found in areas subject to considerable stretching, such as the urinary bladder, is: 73) A) transitional B) simple squamous epithelium C) stratified squamous epithelium D) pseudostratified columnar epithelium E) simple columnar epithelium 74) The type of tissue that has a matrix that consists of rows of fibroblasts that manufacture collagen fibers is: 74) A) loose connective tissue B) osseous tissue C) adipose tissue D) areolar tissue E) dense connective tissue 75) Which of the following is NOT an active transport process: 75) A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) facilitated diffusion D) phagocytosis E) pinocytosis 76) The site where ribosomes assemble prior to their migration into the cytoplasm is the: A) chromosomes B) plasma membrane C) nucleolus D) chromatin E) nuclear membrane 15 76) 77) The movement of fluid through the cell membrane from a high pressure area to a lower pressure area is called: 77) A) active transport B) bulk transport C) filtration D) diffusion E) osmosis 78) Mucous membranes are located in the: 78) A) lining of the stomach cavity B) covering of the brain C) covering of the heart D) lining of the abdominal cavity wall E) joint cavities 79) Which of the following is not a serous membrane: 79) A) the cutaneous membrane B) the visceral pericardium C) the parietal pericardium D) the visceral peritoneum E) the parietal peritoneum 80) When the body temperature rises, which of the following takes place: 80) A) arrector pili muscles contract B) eccrine glands become active C) Pacinian corpuscles are stimulated D) vitamin D synthesis is blocked E) blood is prevented from reaching skin capillary beds 81) Which of the following is a vital function of the skin: A) it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body B) it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D C) the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy D) it aids in dessication E) it absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases 16 81) 82) A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n): 82) A) depressed fracture B) impacted fracture C) open fracture D) spiral fracture E) greenstick fracture 83) There are ________ lumbar vertebra; whereas there are ________ thoracic vertebra. A) 12; 7 B) 7; 5 C) 5; 12 D) 12; 5 83) E) 5; 7 84) The patella is a: 84) A) sesamoid bone B) short bone C) irregular bone D) flat bone E) sesamoid bone and a short bone 85) The plasma-like fluid between the osseous and membranous labyrinths of the ear is the: 85) A) perilymph B) metalymph C) otolymph D) epilymph E) endolymph 86) The three auditory ossicles that transmit vibratory motion are located within the: 86) A) middle ear B) inner ear C) membranous labyrinth D) bony labyrinth E) external ear 87) The auditory ossicle called the "anvil" is also called the: A) cochlea B) malleus C) stapes D) bony labyrinth E) incus 17 87) 88) The ribs are located in the: 88) A) right and left inguinal regions B) right and left pubic regions C) right and left hypochondriac regions D) right and left lumbar regions E) right and left iliac regions 89) Which of the following statements is true regarding the sternal, axillary, and brachial regions: 89) A) all of these regions are located on the anterior surface of the body B) only the sternal and brachial regions are anterior C) none of these regions are located on the anterior surface of the body D) only the axillary and brachial regions are anterior E) only the sternal and axillary regions are anterior 90) The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive intercellular matrix is called: 90) A) brain tissue B) epithelial tissue C) connective tissue D) nervous tissue E) muscle tissue 91) A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is: 91) A) isotonic B) intravenous C) hypertonic D) Ringer's lactate E) hypotonic 92) The secretion of sebum is stimulated: 92) A) by hormones, especially male sex hormones B) when the air temperature drops C) by nerve fibers during pain and stress D) as a protective coating when one is swimming E) by high temperatures 18 93) The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are): 93) A) calcium level of the blood B) growth hormone C) parathyroid hormone (PTH) D) sex hormones E) stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton 94) The transparent central anterior portion of the sclera through which light enters the eye is called the: A) cornea B) iris C) pupil D) choroid 94) E) retina 95) The study of the structure and shape of the body and body parts is called: 95) A) anatomy B) homeostasis C) physiology D) irritability E) negative feedback 96) Identify the tissue that forms the subcutaneous connective tissue beneath the skin: 96) A) hyaline cartilage B) osseous tissue C) tendons D) vascular tissue E) adipose tissue 97) Which of the following is an indication of melanoma: 97) A) a symmetrical mole B) a pigmented spot that has smooth borders C) a spot on the skin that is smaller than the size of a pencil eraser D) a pigmented spot that contains areas of different colors E) a pigmented spot that is black 98) A narrow, slitlike opening on a bone is a: A) fossa B) foramen 98) C) fissure 19 D) meatus E) facet 99) Which one of the following is NOT part of the inner ear? 99) A) ossicles B) vestibule C) semicircular canals D) cochlea E) membranous labyrinth 100) A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into right and left parts is called: A) coronal B) frontal C) oblique 20 D) transverse E) sagittal 100)