Download CHOOSE THE SINGLE BEST ANSWER

CHOOSE THE SINGLE BEST ANSWER
1. The water soluble cbelator oom.monty given to children with lead poisoning is
A. Trientine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Penicillamine
D. Dimercaprol
E. Succimcr
2. Which of the following drugs is most effective against motion sickness?
A. Diazepam
B. Scapolaminc
C. Odansetron
D. Amphetamine
3. Cumulative, dose-dependent eardiomyopathy may be secn in paticnts receiving
A. Dactinomycin
B. Vineristinc
C. Chlorambucil
D. Doxorubicin
E. Semustine
4. Elimination of drug Y is first order, and the drug obeys a 1 compartment model. One hour
after i.v. administration of a single dose of Y the drug concentration in the plasma is 18.2
pg/litcr and one hour later (i.e, two hours after administration) the plasma concentration
is 12.6 µg/liter. What is the clearanco (in liters/hours) of drug Y, if its volume of
distribution (Vd) is 67 liters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4
8
12
24
36
5. A prokinetic agent can have all of the following properties EXCEPT
A. increased strength of propulsive intestinal contractions.
B. improved antro-duodenal coordination.
C. increased tone of the lower esophageal sphincter.
D. decreased acetylcholine concentration at the synapse between the cholinergic
neuron and the GI mouth muscle cell.
E. dopamine receptor blockade on the cholinergic motor neuron.
6. P-glycoprotein mediated multidrug resistance (mdr) can limit the efficacy of
A. Vinblastine
B. Cisplatin
C. Thioguanine
D. Bleomycin
E. Procarbazine
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7. Liver enzymes are needed to activate
A. Cyclophosphamidc
B. Mechlocethamine
C. Mercaptopurine
D. Cermustine
E. Fluorouracil
Matching. Match the Insecticide with the fit. Each may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
A. Atropine
B. Pralidoxime
C. Both
D. Neither
8. ________ Organophosphates
9. ________ Carbamates
10. A new drug that is effective in treating chronic myologenous leukemia (CML) without
producing serious side effects is
A.. Herceptin
B. STI 571 (G1eavcc)
C. lnterleukin 2 (IL2)
D. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E. Retinoic acid
11. In patients with liver disease, the clearance of a drug is substantially decreased relative to
normal individuals, but its half life of elimination is not chaff. This indicates that the
following pharmacokinetie parameter of the drug is also changed in liver disease. A
A. rate constant of elimination
B. bioavailability
C. volume of distribution
D. time needed to reach steady state
12. Especially intense nausea and vomiting are common in patients treated with
A. Melphalan
B. Cisplatin
C. Thioguanine
D. Vinblastine
E. Methotrexate
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13. Which of the following could be an advantage of a linked database prescription system?
A. Reduced handwriting errors
B. Automatic drug interaction surveys
C. Reduced prescribing incorrect dosage forms
D. Linkage of patient factors to drug prescribing
B. All the above
14. Major symptoms of lead poisoning include all of the hollowing EXCEPT
A. anemia
B. kidney damage
C. encephalopathy
D. hearing deficits
B. elevated blood pressure
15. Which of the following substances is classified as a secondary air pollutant?
A. Carbon Monoxide
B. Volatile Hydrocarbons
C. Hydrogen Sulfide
D. Ozone
E. Nitrogen Oxides
16. Overdose with which of the following is amenable to treatment with multidose activated
charcoal?
A. Lithium
B. Ethanol
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Carbamazepine
E. Ethylene glycol
17. A tumor cell may escape chemotherapy by any of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A. Limiting the accumulation of drug in the cell
B. Migrating to a pharmacological sanctuary
C. Hastening its progression through the cell cycle
D. Disabling its apoptotic pathway
E. Altering the intracellular target of the drug
18. A prescription constitutes ‘prima facie" evidence in court that
A. the drug is certified to be used for the patient's condition by the FDA
B. the dosage form is m,, el for this patient
C. a proper physician-patient relationship exists
D. them we no drug interactions
19. Loss of the salvage pathway enzyme HGPRTase can confer resistance to
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Cytosine arabinoside
C. Fluorouracil
D. Methotrexate
E. Mercaptopurine
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20. Free radicals cause toxicity by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT
A. formation of covalent adducts with proteins
B. mutagenesis
C. lipid peroxidation
D. inhibition of redox cycling
21. Microtubule disassembly is inhibited by
A. Etoposide
B. Streptozoein
C. Amsacrine
D. Plicamycin
E. Paclitaxel
22. Bleomycin exerts its toxicity by
A. Inhibiting nucleotide synthesis
B. Fragmenting DNA
C. Alkylating DNA
D. Inhibiting chromosome segregation
E. Inhibiting topoisomerase II
23. The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with
A. Colon canker
B. Breast cancer
C. Chronic myologcnous leukemia
D. Head and neck cancer
E. Hodgkin's lymphoma
24. In normal patients drug Z is eliminated 20% by hepatic metabolism and 80% by renal
filtration. If the normal loading dose of the drug is 10 mg. what loading dose (in mg) will
you administer to a patient with a crcatininc clearance of 60 ml/min?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 10
25. All the following statements about Omeprazole are true EXCEPT it
A. is a proton pump inhibitor.
B. is used in combination with antibiotics to treat H. pylori infection.
C. can retard drug metabolism by inhibiting the cytochrome P450 systcn.
D. can cause hypergastrinemia in animals and humans,
E. irreversibly inhibits parietal cell H+/K+ ATPase
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Matching. Match each of the following drugs with its major mechanism of action. Each
drug may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A. Fluorouracil
B. Mercaptopurine
C. Doxorubicin
D. Cyctophosphamidc
E. Etoposide
26.
Inhibits thymidylate synthetase
27.
Intercalates into DNA
28.
Alkylates the 7-nitrogen of guanine residues in DNA
29. The acceptable daily intake (ADI) for an environmental chemical for humans is determined
from the
A. NOEL (no observed effect level) of the chemical from animal toxicity
studies
B. Margin of safety of the chemical from human exposure data
C. Certain safety factor for the chemical
D. Therapeutic index for the chemical
30. Sirolimus (rapamycin) should be avoided in patients with
A. elevated blood pressure
B. impaired kidney function
C. increased cholesterol
D. diabetes
E. light sensitivity
31. Which of the following drugs will stimulate weight joss by blocking reuptake of
norepinaphrine and serotonin?
A. Sibutramine
B. Dronabinol
C. Dexemethasone
D. Promethazine
32. A deaminase present in virtually all tissues rapidly inactivates
A. Cytosine grabinoside
B. Thioguanine
C. Bleomycin
D. Etoposide
B. Doxorubicin
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33. With respect to poisoning from nitrates all of the following are true EXCEPT
A. Toxicity results from oxidation of iron in hemoglobin from the ferrous
(+2) to the ferric (+3) soft
B. Administration of methylene blue results in a transient increase in the
oxygen saturation as reported by a pulse oximeter
C. A leftward shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve suggests impaired
oxygen unloading from hemoglobin
D. Methylene blue enhances methemoglobin reductase in the erythrocyte to
speed the conversion of met-hemoglobin back to hemoglobin
B. Administration of sodium thiosulfate is not indicated
34. Glutathione participates in all of the following EXCEPT
A. Removal of fine radicals on toxins by redox cycling
B. Removal of hydrogen peroxide by the Fenton reaction
C. Glutathione peroxidase-mediated detoxification
D. Regeneration of Vitamin E
E. Breakdown of reactive metabolites of toxins by conjugate formation
35. An effective anti-diarrheal drug should do all the following EXCEPT
A. increase the intestinal absorption of fluid and electrolytes
B. inhibit segmenting contractions of the small and large intestine.
C. inhibit gastric emptying.
D. inhibit intestinal and colonic secretion.
E, inhibit peristaltic contraction of the small intestine and colon.
36. Which of the following dugs will inhibit cancer chemotherapy-induced vomiting by
blocking S-hydroxytryptamine type 3 (5-HT3) receptor?
A. Promothazine
B. Odansetron
C. Mazindol
D. Diazepam
37. A physician treating a patient with a combination therapy composed of cyclosporine.
repamycin and steroids becomes concerned about nephrotoxicity. The best dose strategy
to avoid nephrotoxicity is to:
A. increase the dose of steroids, lows the dose of rapamycin, and maintain
the same dose of cyclosporine
B. maintain the same dose of stcrvids, incfmse the dpse of rapamycin. and I
ower.the dose afcyclosporine
C. maintain the same dose of steroids, lower the dose of raparnycin, and
increase the dose of cyclosporine
D. maintain the same dose of steroids and mparnycin, and change
cyclosporine to tacrolimu
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Drug X follows a 1 compartment model, exhibits ltx order elimination, and has the following
pharmacokinetic properties for normal adults:
Volume of Distribution, i.e., Vd = 220 liters
Oral BioAvailability = 50%
Whole Body Clearance - 50 L/hour
Half-life of elimination (t1/2) = 3.6 hours
Using these parameters, answer the questions below.
38. What i.v. loading dose (in µg) of X should you administer to a normal adult to obtain
an initial plasma concentration of 2.5 µg/liter?
A. 225
B. 550
C 1100
D. 1250
E 2500
39. What oral maintenance dose (in µg/hour) of X should you administer to a normal
adult to maintain the plasma concentration of drug at 2.5 µg/liter?
A 125
B. 250
C. 500
D. 1000
E. 1750
Matching . Each may be used once more than once or not at all.
A. Cisapride
B. Sulfasalazine
C. Loperimide
D. Sucralfate
E. Infliximab
40.
TNFα antibody used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).
41.
Synthetic opiod that does not cross the blood brain barrier and is used in the
treatment of diarrhea
42.
Drug that binds to peptic ulcer crater and promotes healing as a contact protective
agent.
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43. Lung toxicity is dose-limiting for
A. Doxorubicin
B. Carmustine
C. Vincristine
D. Bleomycin
E. Cisplatin
44. To safely treat a patient with ATGAM (polyclonal antilymphocyte globulin), monitoring is
required to assure that:
A. peripheral blood B and T cells are not lower than 10% of normal levels
(pretransplant)
B. peripheral blood B and T cells are not lower than 50% of normal levels
(pretransplant)
C. peripheral blood T cells sic not lower than 10% of normal levels
(pretransplant)
D. no monitoring is necessary
45. Which of the following properties makes a drug or chemical amenable to removal by
hemodialytis?
A. Low molecular weight
B. High protein binding
C: High volume of distribution
D. High lipid solubility
46. After June 1, 2002 in Texas, which of the following will determine whether a pharmacist can
substitute a GENERIC drug for a brand name dnig7
A. Superscription
B. Inscription
C. The additional statement "Brand necessary”
D. Signa
E. Signature line
47. This metal can result in chronic poisoning due to repeated blood transfusions.
A. Ca
B. Zn
C. Ni
D. Fe
E. Cu
48. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is correct?
A. Pulse oximetry reliably predicts the need for supplemental oxygen
B. CO binding to hemoglobin shifts the oxy-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the
left
C. CO binds irreversibly to hemoglobin
D. CO poisoning remains a relatively rare cause of death from poisoning
E. Hyperbaric oxygen administration is of no value in treating CO poisoning
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49. Which of the following drugs will induce emesis by stimulating D2 dopamine receptors?
A. Apomorphine
B. Diethylpropion
C. Metocloprsmide
D. Ipecac
50. All of the following immunosupression therapies are indicated for retransplantation of
kidney allografts EXCEPT
A. cyclosporine, steroids, rapamycin
B. cyclosporine with steroids
C. tacrolimus with mycophenolate mofetil
D. azothioprine with steroids
E. cyclosporine with ATGAM
51. In mice, tumor size can be limited by inhibiting the growth of new blood vessels with
A. Interleukin 2 (IL2)
B. Prednisone
C. Endostatin
D. Retinoic acid
E. Methotrexate
52. All the following statements about Misoprostol arc true EXCEPT
A. stimulates gastric mucus secretion
B. is the active GI protective compound in both Cytotec and Arthrotec
C. fortifies the GI mucosal barrier in the presence of NSAIDs.
D. has no major adverse reactions.
E has an inhibitory effect on gastric acid secretion.
53. Secondary cancer and sterility arc most associated with the use of
A. Microlubule inhibitors
B. Actimetabolites
C. Topoisomerase inhibitors
D. Alkylating agents
E. Hormones
54. The heavy metal that disrupts heme biosynthesis resulting in elevated blood levels of
pyrroles and porphyrins is
A. Pb
B. Fe
C. As
D. Cd
E. Hg
55. Leukovorin reverses the effects of
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Cytosine arabinoside
C. Fluorouracil
D. Methotrexata
E. Mercaptopurine
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56. All of the following enzyme systems are involved in the breakdown of reactive oxygen
species EXCEPT
A. glutathione peroxidase
B. cytochrome oxidase
G. catalase
D. superoxide dismutase
57. A drug combination used in the treatment of childhood acute lymphocytic leukemia include
all of the following drugs EXCEPT
A. Prednisone
B. Methotrexate
C. Vincristine
D. Mercopiopurine
E. Ara C
58. Nearly all cancer chemotherapeutic dry
A. kill cells by fast order kinetics
B. exhibit distinctive dose-limiting toxicities
C. arc dosed in mg/kg
D. are cell cycle specific
59. All of the following drug/antidote pairs are correct EXCEPT
A. Propanolol - Glucagon
B. Isoniazid - Vitamin B6
C. Iron - Succimer
D. Acetaminophen - N-Acytylcysteine
B. Methanol - 4MP (4-methylpyrazole)
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30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
ANSWERS
1.
E
2.
B
3.
D
4.
D
5.
D
6.
A
7.
A
8.
C
9.
A
10.
B
11.
C
12.
B
13.
E
14.
B
15.
D
16.
D
17.
C
18.
C
19.
E
20.
D
21.
E
22.
B
23.
C
24.
E
25.
C
26.
A
27.
C
28.
D
29.
A
- 11 -
C
A
A
B
B
B
B
B
B
B
E
C
D
D
C
A
E
D
B
A
D
C
D
D
A
D
B
E
A
C