Download FMB I PG - E

Fundamentals of Microbiology and Bioinformatics
Unit – I
Section – A
1. Father of antiseptic surgery is ___________
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Joseph Lister
d. Theodore Schwann
2. Who discovered PCR machine?
a. Griffith
b. Sanger
c. Avery
d. Kary Mullis
3. Which of the following bacteria was not discovered by Robert Koch?
a. Bacillus anthracis b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Salmonella typhi d.Vibrio cholera
4. Which of the following scientist first described the usefulness of Azotobacter as a free living nitrogen
fixing bacteria?
a. H. Hellriegel
b. H. Wilfarth
c. Martinus Willem Beijerinick
d. Sergei Winogradsky
5. Which of the following scientist first showed mutually beneficial relationship between bacteria and
leguminous plants?
a. H. Hellriegel and H. Wilfarth b. Nocard and Roux c. Sergei Winogradsky and Martinus Willem
Beijerinck
d. Welch and Nuttall
6. Father of Soil Microbiology is __________
a. H. Hellriegel
b. H. Wilfarth
c. Martinus willem Beijerinick
d. Sergei Winogradsky
7. All of the following scientist got Nobel Prize for their contribution in the field of Microbiology except
_________
a. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek
b. Elie Metchnikoff c. Paul Ehrlich d. Robert Koch
8. All of the following scientist supported the idea of “spontaneous generation” of animals except
____________
a. Aristotle
b. Francesco Redi
c. John Needham
d. Felix Archimede Pouchet
9. Which of the following scientist tried to disprove Spontaneous generation theory by passing air through
cotton into flasks containing heated broth?
a. Franz Schulze b. H. Schroder and T. Von Dusch c. Lazaro Spallanzani d. Theodor Schwann
10. The epidemic that infected Europe, Middle East and North Africa and killed tens of millions of people
was known as the Black Death. The disease was caused by __________
a. Anthrax b. Breathing of foul air
c. Bubonic plague d. Small pox e. Swine flu
11. The event that triggered the development and establishment of microbiology as a science is the _______
a. Development of Microscope b. Germ theroy of disease
c. Spontaneous generation
d. Vaccinations
12. Which of the following pioneers of Microbiology is credited with the discovery of microorganisms
using high quality magnifying lenses (early microscopes)?
a. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Hooke
d. Robert Koch
13. The purpose of swan-necked flasks that Louis Pasteur designed to disprove spontaneous generation is
to:
a. Allow the multiplication of microbes in the broth
b. Implicate the role of flies in the development of maggots on rotting meat
c. Pasteurize the meat broth
d. Prevent air from entering the flask
e. Trap the microbes and prevent them from reaching the broth
14. The Alpha helical structure of DNA was discovered by _________
a. Edward Tatum
b. Eile Metchnikoff
c. James Watson and Francis Crick
d. Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin McLeod
e. Paul Ehrlich
15. The term “vaccine” was coined by ________
a. Robert Koch
b. Paul Ehrlich
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Joseph Lister
16. Who first suggested using the thickening agent most commonly used for colony purification today?
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Fennie Hessie
d. Richard Petri
17. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by ________
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Lister
d. Edward Jenner
18. Transformation mechanism was first described by _____________
a. Avery
b. Griffith
c. Zinder
d. Tantum
19. Thermus aquaticus is the source of ______________
a. Taq polymerase
b. Vent polymerase
c. c) both a and b
d. primase enzyme
20. Which of the following is a chemical nucleotide sequencing method?
a. Sanger method b. Maxam Gilbert method c) Edmans method d) Automated sequencing method
21. How many different types of chemical treatments are required in Maxam Gilbert method?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
22. The samples in Sanger’s method after reaction are separated using _____________
a. AGE
b. PAGE
c. PFGE
d. 2D gel electrophoresis
23. Which of the following is not a DNA sequencing method?
a. LMPCR
b. Edman’s method c. Sanger’s method d. MaxamGilbert method
24. “One gene one enzyme” concept was proposed by ______________
a. Griffith
b. Sanger
c. Beadle and Tatum
d. Galo
25. Temin and Baltimore independently discovered the enzyme called _________
a. Taq polymerase b. Ligase
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. amylase
Section – B
26. Write a note on spontaneous generation conflict
27. Write the contributions of Beadle and Tatum, Griffith and Arber Smith.
28. Contribution of Kary Mullis
29. Write a note on contribution of Louis Pasteur
30. Explain about Koch postulates
Section – C
31. Give an account on History of Microbiology
32. Give a detailed account on Pure culture methods
33. Write an account on the contributions of Lederberg and Zinder and Gilbert and Sanger
Unit – II
Section – A
1. Sterilization involves the use of a physical or chemical procedure to _________
a. remove visible soil from surgical instruments
b. destroy non-pathogenic organisms
c. destroy all forms of microbial life including highly resistant bacterial spores
d. destroy all forms of microbial life except highly resistant bacterial spores
2. The most widely used, effective, economical and reliable method of sterilization used in the health care
setting is ___________
a. gas plasma
b. ethylene oxide
c. peracetic acid
d. steam
3. Ethylene Oxide is a highly toxic agent, which destroys microorganisms by a process called
_____________
a. cavitation
b. oxidation
c. osmosis
d. alkylation
4. The most frequently used liquid chemical sterilant is ______________
a. alcohol
b. peracetic acid
c. glutaraldehyde
d. formaldehyde
5. What percentage of alcohol is used for sterilization process?
a. 90
b. 70
c. 100
d. 40
6. The principle of moist heat sterilization is employed in __________ equipment
a. Autoclave
b. Hot air oven
c. Water bath
d. pH meter
7. Temperature in pasteurization is __________
a. 62.8°C
b. 35.7°C
c. 68.2°C
d. 60.8°C
8. Discontinuous heating is called _____________
a. Pasteurization b. Sterilization
c. Fermentation
d. Tindalization
9. Phenol co-efficient indicates ____________
a. Efficiency of a disinfectant b. Dilution of a disinfectant c. Purity of a disinfectant d. Quantity of a
disinfectant
10. The abbe or paraboloid condenser was used in ________
a. Bright field microscope b. dark field microscope
c. Phase contrast microscope d. SEM
11. All the following are components of compound microscope except ___________
a. stage clips
b. fine adjustment
c. electron gun
d. Binocular eye piece
12. Resolving power of an instrument can be increased by _________
a. using an illumination of longer wavelength and by decreasing the NA
b. using an illumination of longer wave length and by increasing the NA
c. using an illumination of shorter wave length and by increasing the NA
d. using an illumination of shorter wave length and by decreasing the NA
13. The refractive index of air is _________
a. 0.50
b. 0.75
c. 1.00
d. 1.25
14. The resolving power of unaided human eye is
a. 1 cm
b. 100 µm
c. 200 nm
d. 400 nm
15. Which of the following is best suited to get the surface view of an object?
a. SEM
b. TEM
c. both a and b d. compound microscope
16. Which of the following is true about dark field microscopy?
a. Adding disc called ‘stop’ to the condenser will make bright field to dark filed
b. The stop disc prevents the entry of light from the central field and object is illuminated with beam of
light
c. The light gets reflected from the sides of the specimen and appears bright in dark background
d. all of the above
17. Always begin examining microscope slides with which power objective?
a. high
b.low
c.100X
d.It doesn’t matter which objective
18. What must be done to a specimen to increase the contrast of the structures viewed?
a. illuminated
b. stained
c. placed under a cover slip d. thinly sliced
19. The field of view of a microscope with a 10X ocular and a 4X objective is 5mm. What is will be the
field of view with a 10X objective?
a. 3.14 mm2 b. 20 mm
c. 2 mm2
d. 2mm
20. The dye used in fluorescent microscope is ___________
a. Fluorescein
b. Malachite green
c. Methylene blue
d. Nigrosin
21. Differential staining of bacteria on Gram staining is due to ____________
a. difference in the cell wall layer components of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
b. difference in the cell structure of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
c. difference in the mode of nutrition of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
d. none of the above
22. The iodine used in Gram staining serves as a _________
a. chelator
b. catalyst
c. mordant
d. cofactor
23. Gram staining was developed by __________
a. French microbiologist Louis Pasteur
b. Dutch lens maker Leeuwenhoek
c. Danish physician Christian Gram
d. Dutch physician Christian Gram
24. The organisms that can be acid fast stained is ___________
a. Nocardia
b. Tubercle bacilli
c. Lepra bacilli
d. all of these
25. Which of the following is a primary stain for acid fast staining of mycobacteria?
a. Crystal violet
b. Carbol fuchsin
c. Geimsa
d. Methylene blue
Section – B
26. Write the working principle of phase contrast microscope with a neat diagram
27. Differentiate between simple and differential staining
28. Write in detail about fluorescence microscope
29. Define staining. Write the principle and procedure for nuclear staining with suitable diagram
30. Define sterilization. Write in detail about different types of physical method of sterilization
31. Differentiate between SEM and TEM.
Section – C
32. Define sterilization. Write the various chemicals used for sterilization.
33. Write in detail about principle and procedure of Gram staining.
34. Write the principle and procedure of Acid fast staining and Negative staining.
Unit – III
Section – A
1. How many sections in Bergey’s system of bacterial classification are there?
a. 33
b. 43
c. 23
d. 53
2. The vegetative body of fungus was called as __________
a. Mycelium
b. Thallus
c. Hypae
d. Spores
3. Microorganisms belonging to the same __________ would be expected to have the most characteristics in
common with each other
a. order
b. species
c. family
d. kingdom e. genus
4. The Cavalier Smith's eight kingdom system of classification includes all of the following except:
a. fungi
b. bacteria
c. viruses
d. algae
e. slime molds
5. A unicellular heterotroph with a nucleus but possess 70S ribosomes and lack golgi apparatuses should be
placed in which kingdom
a. Fungi
b. Eubacteria
c.Archezoa
d. Chromista
e. Animalia
6. Biochemical tests are used to determine _____________
a. enzymatic activities
b. nucleic acid base composition
c. amino acid sequences
d. staining characteristics
e. All of the above
7. A(n) _____ classification system arranges organisms into groups whose members share many
characteristics and reflects as much as possible the biological nature of organisms.
a. artificial
b. natural
c. phylogenetic
d. molecular
e. phonetic
8. The five kingdom arrangements of organisms was proposed by __________
a. Whittakar
b. John Ray
c. Whitter
d. Cavalier Smith\
9. Which of the following definitions covers a greater
number of organisms?
a. Class
b. Genus
c. Order
d. Family
10. Basic taxonomy unit is ____________
a. Kingdom
b. Genus
c. Species
d. Order
11. An example for the artificial system of classification
a. Bentham and Hooker b. Linnaeus system c. Engler and Prantl d. Hutichson
12. First step in taxonomy ____________
a. Naming
b. Description
c. Identification
d. classification
13. What is the correct descending sequence of taxonomic categories?
a. Division – class – order – family – tribe – genus
b. Class – order – division – family – species – tribe
c. tribe – genus – class – division – family – order
d. Family – order – genus – order – division – class
14. Modern classification is based on ___________
a. Physiology
b. Fossils
c. Phylogeny
d. Morphology
15. ‘System naturae’ was written by __________
a. Linneaus
b. Charles Darwin
c. Aristole
d. Wallace
16. The genera Bacillus and Lactobacillus are gram-negative rods and are not in the same family. This
indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a taxon?
a. Biochemical characteristics
b. DNA sequencing c. DNA:DNA hybridization analysis
d. Morphological characteristics
e. Fatty acid profiles
17. The "bible" of bacterial taxonomy is ______
a. the American Society for Microbiology
b. the National Type Culture Collection
c. the American Type Culture Collection
d. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
18. Western blotting detects specific bacterial proteins by ________
a. their reactions with specific antibodies
b. their hybridization with a labeled DNA probe
c. biochemical tests
d. their reactions with specific dyes
e. their reactions with specific bacteriophages
19. 16S ribosomal RNA sequencing is used to determine the phylogenetic relationships between
bacteria for all of the following reasons except _________
a. All cells contain rRNA
b. Closely related species have fewer differences than distantly related species
c. rRNA genes are highly conserved compared to other DNA sequences
d. rRNA doesn't require culturing the organism
e. Only Eubacteria have 16S rRNA genes
20. The archaea _____ make methane from acetate or hydrogen gas and carbon dioxide
a. Methanogens b. Sulfate reducing bacteria c. Nitrifiers d. Denitrifiers
e. Enterics
21. Which of the following groups has cell wall
a. Bacteria, plant and animals
b. Bacteria, fungi and plants
c. Bacteria, fungi, plants and animals
d. Bacteria and plants only
22. Bacterial cell wall is made up of _______________
a. N-acetyl glucosamine
b) N-acetyl muramic acid
c) Both a and b
d) N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids
23. Which of the following organelle is involved in cell wall synthesis _____________
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast
c. Golgi apparatus
d. lysosome
24. All fungi are ____________
a. autrophs
b. Saprophytes
c. Parasites
d. Heterotrophs
25. “Perfect stage” of a fungus means
a. When the fungus is perfectly healthy
b. When it reproduces asexually
c. When it forms perfect sexual spores
d. None of these
Section – B
26. Give an account on the principles of serological and molecular methods of bacterial taxonomy
27. Write about the structure and reproduction of Chlamydomonas sp.
28. Write the general characterization of eubacteria
29. Write the outline classification of Protozoa
30. Explain about five concept
31. Give an account on Cavalier Smith’s classification
Section – C
32. Bring out the outline classification of bacteria according to Bergey’s manual
33. Explain the structure and reproduction of Paramecium sp.
34. Write in detail about ultra structure of bacteria.
Unit – IV
Section – A
1. The data base link given by National Centre for Biotechnology Information (NCBI) is ___________
a. EMBL
b. DDBJ
c. PIR
d. Entrez
2. Expand BLAST
a. Basic Local alignment Search Tool
b. Basic Logarithmic Align Search Tool
c. Basic Log Align Sat Tool
d. Basic Align Stop Tool
3. Who is considered as Mother of Bioinformatics
a. Margaret Thatcher
b. Florence Nightingale
c. Margaret Dayhoff
d. Fanny Hesse
4. Which of the following is a nucleotide sequence data base?
a. EMBL
b. SWISSPROT
c. KEGG
d. BLAST
5. BLAST programme is used for __________
a. DNA sequencing
b. aminoacid sequencing
c. DNA barcoding
d. Bioinformatics
6. SWISS PORT is related to __________
a. Portable data
b. Swiss bank data
c. Sequence data bank
d. Sequence sequence data
7. Phylogenetic relationship can be shown by __________
a. Dendrogram b. Gene bank
c. Data retrieving tool
d. Data search tool
8. PRINTS are software used for ___________
a. detection of genes from genome sequence
b. detection o f tRNA genes
c. prediction of function of new genes
d. identification of functional domains/motifs of protein
9. A data base of current sequence map of human geneome is called _____________
a. OMIM
b. HGDM
c. Golden path
d. GeneCards
10. Operating system is ________
a. a collection of hardware components
b. a collection of input-output devices
c. a collection of software routines
d. all the above
11. A single piece of information in a data base is called _________
a. File
b. Record
c. Field
d. Data set
12. Which is model of organism database?
a. GOLD
b. PROMISE
c. SGD
d. SCOP
13. BLAST X program is used for ________
a. translate protein sequence
b. translate DNA sequence c. translate input sequence d. none
14. Information of all known nucleotide and protein sequences are available on __________
a. EMBL
b. DDBT
c. NCBI’s Data Bank
d. All of these
15. GeneBank and SWISSPORT are example of ______________
a. Primary database
b. Secondary database
c. composite database
d. none
16. SCOP is ___________
a. it is primary database
b. it is nucleotide sequence databse
c. SCOP database is ahierarachial classification of protein 2D domain structures
d. structural databse, which identity strual and evolutionary relationships
17. 'FASTA' was published by ____________
a. Joseph Sambrook
b. Pearson and Lipman
c. Sanger
d. Altschul et al
18. Clustal W is ____________
a. multiple sequence alignment tool
b. protein secondary structure predicting tool
c. Data retriving tool
d. Nucleic acid sequence analysis tool
19. Which is a date retrieving tool?
a. ENTREZ
b. EMBL
c. PHD
d. all of these
20. Alignment method suitable for aligning closely related sequence is ____________
a. multiple sequence alignment
b. pair wise alignment
c. global alignment
d. local alignment
21. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool provided by NCBI
a. Chime
b. BLAST
c. FASTA
d. Clustal W
22. The term bioinformatics was coined by __________
a. J D Watson
b. Margaret Dayhoff
c. Pauline Hogeweg
d. Frederic Sanger
23. Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is called __________
a. flowchart
b. sequential design
c. procedure
d. algorithm
24. The first published completed gene sequence was of _____________
a. M 13 phage
b. T 4 phage
c. φ X174
d. lambda phage
25. ‘invitro’ in latin means _____________
a. within the glass
b. within the lab
c. outside the lab
d. outside the glass
Section – B
26. Write a short note on DNA database
27. Discuss about composite database
28. What is Bioinformatics? Give the applications of Bioinformatics
29. Mention three common sequence formats in databases
30. List out some protein interaction databases available over the internet
31. Discuss about sequence database
Section – C
32. Write a detailed note on Multiple Sequence Alignment
33. Describe the database similarity search by BLAST programmes
34. Differentiate FASTA and BLAST
Unit – V
Section - A
1. PDB is _____________
a. Primary database for macromolecules
b. can be determined by gel electrophoresis
c. Composite database
d. database for three dimensional structure of biological macromolecule
2. All are sequence alignment tools except ____________
a. Rasmol
b. BLAST
c. FASTA
d. Clustal W
3. The database of patterns specific for various protein motifs is ____________
a. EXPASY
b. PROSITE
c. KEGG
d. OWL
4. The graphical representation of the phylogeny of a group taxa or genes is called as _________
a. Phylum
b. Phylogenetic tree c. PHYLID
d. Pleiotrophic
5. Margaret Dayhoff developed the first protein sequence database called _____________
a. SWISS PROT b. PDB c. Atlas of protein sequence and structure d. Protein sequence databank
6. ‘Laboratory work using chemicals, drugs etc using water’ is referred as _____________
a. dry lab
b. web lab
c. wet lab
d. insilico
7. ‘Laboratory work using computers and computer generated models generally offline’ is referred as _____
a. dry lab
b. web lab
c. wet lab
d. insilico
8. NCBI was established in ___________
a. 1988
b. 1989
c. 1990
d. 1991
9. Application of bioinformatics include _____________
a. data storage and management
b. drug designing
c. understand relationships between organisms
d. all of the above
10. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between two molecule, a receptor
and ligand is called _________
a. molecular matching
b. molecular docking c. molecular fitting d. molecule affinity checking
11. Proteomics is the study of ____________
a. set of proteins
b. set of proteins in a specific region of the cell
c. entire set of expressed proteins in a cell
d. none of these
12. The process of finding relative location of genes on a chromosome is called ____________
a. gene tracing
b. genome mapping
c. genome walking
d. chromosome walking
13. A compound that has desirable properties to become a drug is called ______________
a. lead
b. find
c. fit drug
d. fit compound
14. Literature databases include __________
a. MEDLINE and PubMED b. MEDLINE and PDB c. PubMED and PDB d. MEDLINE and PDS
15. Which of the following is an E.coli model organism database?
a. EcoGene
b. EcoBase
c. EcoSeq
d. ColGene
16. GenBnak, the nucleic acid sequence database is maintained by ___________
a. Brookhaven laboratory
b. European Molecular Biology laboratory (EMBL)
c. DNA database of Japan (DDBJ)
d. National Centre for Biotechnology Information (NCBI)
17. MAtDB is a model organism database for _____________
a. Mouse
b. Human
c. E. coli
d. Arabidopsis
18. The information retrieval tool of NCBI GenBank is ___________
a. Entrez
b. STAG
c. SeqIn
d. text search
19. A phylogenetic tree that is ʺrootedʺ is one _____________
a. that extends back to the origin of life on Earth
b. at whose base is located the common ancestor of all taxa depicted on that tree
c. that illustrates the rampant gene swapping that occurred early in lifeʹs history
d. that indicates our uncertainty about the evolutionary relationships of the taxa depicted on the tree
e. with very few branch points
20. The first protein sequenced by Frederick Sanger is _____________
a. Haemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. insulin
d. myosin
21. A tool used to predict putative, internal protein coding exons in genomic DNA sequences is ________
a. Gene scan
b. Gene finder
c. Gene bank
d. Gene hunting
22. Expansion of SQL is _________
a. Sequential Query Language
b. Secondary Query Language
c. Structural Query Language
d. Specialized Query Language
23. SMART stands for ______
a. Simple Molecular Architecture Research Tool
b. Simple Molecular Alignment Research Tool
c. Simple Modular Architecture Research Tool
d. Simple Modular Alignment Research Tool
24. Energy minimization of a modeled protein can be done using _________
a. ChemSketch
b. Moldraw
c. RasMol
d. Swiss-PDB Viewer
25. Which one of the following is actually based on MolView?
a. Raswin
b. QMol
c. RasMol
d. Moldraw
Section – B
26. Write a note on Gene finding
27. Write a detailed note on Gene scan
28. Write a note on RasMol and QMol
29. What do you mean by SAGE
30. Give an account on SWISS-PDB
Section – C
31. Give an account on tertiary structure of prediction method
32. Write a detailed note on molecular visualization tools.
33. How can you analyze the organism phylogenetically.