Download Comprehensive Boards I

THE GREAT HOWARDO
Comprehensive Boards I
What comes out of L Atrium? Pulmonary Vein
Platelets- Mast Cells
Branch of external carotid- transverse cervical
Sacrum AI right- SP left
Tight ST on L- AI sacrum L
Where do you take apex contact? Opposite side with lateral 1/3 thumb
Logan says sacrum subluxates only AI
Disc angle: 0-7
Sacral base angle: 26-55
As the strength of an acid increases, its pka decreases
The primary structure of a protein is defined in terms of which type of intramolecular interaction? Covalent bonds
The addition of an enzyme to a chemical RXN increases the rate
This lipid is found as the major component of adipocytes: triacylglycerol
The isoelectric point for an amino acid or protein is the name given to the ph at which the substance has net charge of
zero
The process polypeptide(straight chain)-> polypeptide(tertiary structure) is exothermic because H bonds are formed
One of the processes carried out when hemoglobin functions as a buffer system is the neutralization of CO2
Invert sugar: mixture of different carbohydrates rather than a single sugar
The Krebs Cycle converts the carbon atoms found in fatty acids, carbohydrates, and amino acids into CO2
Which hormone is classified as a polypeptide? Insulin
Nitrogen normally enters the human organism in the form of amino acids and any excess is excreted as urea
Which carpal bone articulates with the second metacarpal? Trapezoid
In full extension of the knee what acts to lock the knee with weight bearing? Internal rotation of femur
Which cells are responsible for removing calcium during bone remodeling? Osteoclasts
Condyloid joint: tibiofemoral
Pivot joint: proximal radial ulnar
Ankylosing of the sternoclavicular joint would cause difficulty with abduction of shoulder
Damage to the upper lateral popliteal fossa would result in damage to common peroneal nerve
Dermatome to nipple: T4
The middle malleolus is formed by the tibia
Only joint to articulate with the axial skeleton and upper limb: Sternoclavicular
The red pulp is located in which organ? Spleen
The anterior portion of the trigone is formed by the urethra
Cerumen is found in external auditory meatus
What is located between the isthmus and vagina? Cervix
The superior portion of the uterus above the fallopian tubes is called the fundus
The name of the ligament that goes from the ovary to the broad ligament: suspensory
The remnant of the umbilical vein becomes the: teres ligament of the liver
What ligament anchors the liver to the diaphragm? Coronary
What forms the apex of the heart? Left ventricle
Which ligament makes up the longitudinal arch of the foot? Spring ligament
The ankle joint is made up of which bones? Tibia, fibula, talus
What articulates with the anterior portion of the calcaneus? Cuboid
The insertion of the psoas major is lesser trochanter
Which muscle forms the anterior border of the axilla? Pectoralis major
The greater omentum extends from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon
What is the name of the pleura surrounding the lung? Visceral
The anterior portion of the left kidney is in direct contact with the spleen
What structure is located in the superior mediastinum? Arch of the aorta
Which structure is retroperitoneal? Pancreas
Which of the following organs has both endocrine and exocrine functions? Pancreas
In which structure are the acini cells found? Pancreas
The major calyces drain into which structure? Renal pelvis
Which vein is most superficial on the posterior leg? Lesser saphenous
Which of the following veins is most lateral above the elbow? Cephalic
The external iliac artery supplies blood to lower limb
Which nerve supplies the tensor fasciae latae? Superior gluteal
Which of the following are the largest taste buds? Circumvillate
At which level does the esophagus begin? Cricoid cartilage
Which two bones go into the formation of the perpendicular plate? Vomer and ethmoid
Taste to the epiglottis is via which cranial nerve? Vagus
What does the corpus luteum produce? Progesterone
Where does the medial collateral ligament attach? Medial humeral epicondyle
Hair follicles are stimulated by pacinian corpuscles
Damage to the posterior lateral knee would produce damage to which nerve? Common peroneal
Spinothalamic and spinoreticular tracts are found in which part of the cord? Lateral fasciculus
The T lymphocytes are derived from which organ? Thymus
Which nerve runs through the cubital fossa? Median
Which joint has an intra-articular disc? Radioulnar
Which nerve innervates the sartorius? Femoral
The radial nerve is a branch of which part of the brachial plexus? Posterior cord
Which nerve supplies the hypothenar? Ulnar
Which superficial muscle passes over the flexor retinaculum? Flexor carpi ulnaris
Which artery supplies the deep palmar arch? Radial and ulnar
Which artery supplies the blood to the majority of the hand? Ulnar
What is the action of the gluteus minimus? Abduction and medial rotation of the thigh
Which muscle is not part of the rotator cuff? Teres major
If the femur moves anterior to the tibia it is due to damage to which of the following ligaments? Posterior cruciate
The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of which structures? Vas deferens and seminal vesicle
What is the name of the veins located in the spermatic cord? Pampiniform plexus
What type of cells line the vaginal canal? Non-keratinized stratified squamous
The oblique fissure in the left lung divides the lung into superior and inferior lobes
What divides the lateral aspect of the neck into the anterior and posterior triangles? Sternocleidomastoid
Which ligament restricts hip extension? Iliofemoral
What is the location of the angle of Louis? Second rib
The pectoralis minor muscle inserts into the corocoid of the scapula
The temporalis muscle inserts into the coronoid
What is the nerve supply to the diaphragm? C3, C4, C5
In which bone is the lateral malleolus? Fibula
The proximal portion of the fibula articulates with the tibia
Which bone is derived from intramembranous bone? Occiput
The pharyngeal muscle just proximal to the esophagus is the inferior constrictor
Appendages epiloicae and tenia coli are features of which structure? Colon
Blood is supplied to the primary bronchi directly from where? Aorta
Which of the following nerves is posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus? Ulnar
Which muscle is supplied by the medial plantar nerve? Flexor hallicus brevis
The gluteus medius is responsible for which hip action? Abduction
Individual muscle fibers are invested in endomysium
The tissue of the mitral and bicuspid valves are made up of endocardium
Which structure drains into the left subclavian vein? Thoracic duct
Which structure is on the distal portion of the ulna? Styloid process
The Islet of Langerhans cells that secrete glucagons are what cells? Alpha
The ulnar collateral ligament attaches the ulna to the medial epicondyle of the humerus
The longus coli attaches to the anterior arch of C1
Which nerve would be damaged if there was a blow to the medial aspect of the popliteal fossa? Tibial
The ligament that holds the hyoid bone in place is attached to the styloid process
Which muscle originates on the zygomatic arch? Masseter
The pharynx is innervated by which nerve? Glossopharyngeal
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from which structure? Adrenal medulla
The peroneus longus muscle is responsible for which action? Eversion and dorsiflexion
Which nerve is responsible for the sense of taste? Chorda tympani
The AV node is located in the right atrium
Which of the following superficial veins drains the posterior aspect of the leg? Lesser saphenous
The plane that divides the body into ventral and dorsal halves is called the coronal plane
The fossa superior and anterior to the capitulum is the coronoid fossa
Where is the most common location for a pulmonary infarct? Periphery of lung
The posterior lobe of the prostate is the most common site for cancer
A person experiences a hypersensitivity reaction after being exposed to an agent. He had no sensitivity to it when
previously exposed. This is a typical example of a type I reaction
Infectious mononucleosis causes lymphocytes to increase in the bloodstream
Thromboembolism of which vessel can cause a transmural infarct to the small intestines? Superior mesenteric artery
Axon regeneration grows at a rate of 1mm/day
Congenital protrusion of the brain through the foramen magnum is called Arnold Chiari
Genetic disorder caused by excess hexoaminidase A deficiency which also causes motor and mental disorientation and
cherry red spots in the macula is called Tay Sachs
Which of the following findings on the pap smear is characteristic of carcinoma in situ? Dysplasia
What is the first process to be observed following a fracture? Generation of a hematoma
What is characterized by chronic inflammation and fibrosis of the alveolar wall? Hamman rich syndrome
A gumma is associated with what disease? Syphillis
Which organism is associated most commonly with Toxic Shock Syndrome? Staphylococcus
Which vitamin is necessary for collagen formation? Vitamin C
Metaplasia most commonly occurs in which tissues? Bronchial epithelium
Epitheliod tissues are derived from macrophages
Local deposition of calcium in necrotic tissues is termed dystrophic calcification
The local deposition of lipofuscin occurs in brown atrophy
The Ghon lesion is associated with which agent? Acid fast
The most common form of food poisoning is staphylococcus
This condition leads to acute arthritis with urate crystal deposition? Gout
An inverted T wave is an indication of myocardial infarction
Pulmonary hypertension directly results in right-sided heart failure
The liver and lung are the two most common organs involved in metastasis
Which condition is worse at night and is relieved by aspirin? Osteoid osteoma
The most common malignant tumor of the testes is called seminoma
The change in cells to disorganization which can be returned to normal is called dysplasia
What accommodates the cell change in the lung but it can lead to a more resistant cell type? Metaplasia
A 25 year-old patient presents with soft tender red spots on the vulva and frothy foul smelling discharge. Which
organism is suspected? Trichimonas
A 59 year-old woman was walking in the woods and now presents with a bulls-eye rash behind the knee called
erythema chronicum migrans. The most likely diagnosis is Lyme’s Disease
Projectile vomiting in a newborn male is suggestive of which condition? Pyloric stenosis
Which type of pneumonia is associated with AIDS? Pneumocystis carinii
Where is the most common location for an aneurysm? Abdominal aorta
A patient presents with uric acid deposition in the big toe. What disease is associated with this? Gout
A lesion of substantia nigra in the basal ganglia is related to which disease? Parkinson’s
Which organism has been linked to infectious mononucleosis? Epstein-Barr
An extra X chromosome in a male leads to a condition called Kleinfelter Syndrome
Kidney infection is not a part of the symptomotology of Reiter’s syndrome
A 40 year-old male presents with weight loss, increased appetite, and tremors. Which of the following should be
investigated? Hyperthyroidism
A condition characterized by deposition of copper in the brain is called Wilson’s
20% of the male population who gets mumps will get orchitis
demyelinization of the spinal cord is a major problem in which disease? Multiple sclerosis
subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs most commonly in which vessel? Anterior cerebral artery
Which type of necrosis is found in a myocardial infarction? Coagulation
Which type of leukemia is most commonly seen in children? Acute lymphoblastic
What is most likely to lead to fatty liver degeneration? Alcoholism
Proliferative cells forming new cells from original cell types is called hyperplasia
This type of cell is predominantly produced by an inflammatory response to salmonella infection? Neutrophil
What is most likely to occur secondary to interluminal obstruction by fecoliths? Acute appendicitis
What is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism? Deep vein thrombus
Alkaline phosphatase, calcium, and phosphatase are characteristically within normal limits in osteopenia
What does not make up a ninhydride? Sulfuric acid
What is synthesized from the pentose phosphate shunt? NADPH and ribose
What is the best source of pectin? Fruits and vegetables
The first step of gluconeogenesis by the process of carboxylation would convert pyruvate into oxaloacetate
What is the byproduct of the breakdown of muscle? Creatinine
Which vitamin is necessary for the conversion of alphaketoglutarate to succinate? Niacin
What carries the amino acids in protein synthesis? Trna
The complement of 5’AGTC3’ is 3’TCAG5’
NADH is a cofactor for what? Dehydrogenase
A proteolytic enzyme is most likely to catalyze proteins by which method? Hydrolysis
What is the substrate for citrate synthetase? Oxaloacetate
Alphaketoglutarate is an intermediate in which pathway? Tricarboxylic acid
Which of the following steps in the glycolytic pathway is oxidative reductive? Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate to
glyceraldehydes 1,3 diphosphate
The first chemical reaction in the catabolism of amino acids is deamination
In the aerobic catabolism of carbohydrates and lipids what is the common product? Acetyl CoA
A patient with galactosemia should not consume what? Milk
Sucrose does not contain what? Free anomeric carbon with OH group
What is the intermediate in the maltose acetate shuttle? Oxaloacetate
During fatty acid synthesis acetyl CoA is transported from the mitochondria to the cytoplasm as citrate
Ketone body synthesis takes place in which tissue? Liver
Which type of bond is found in RNA? Phosphodiester
Which amino acid is a precursor to nicotinic acid? Tryptophan
Which amino acid is not found in DNA? Uracil
Which amino acid is essential and aromatic? Tryptophan
In starvation the carbon atom in hepatogluconeogenesis comes from muscle protein
Disuse of which organ will directly impair the synthesis of urea? Liver
Which of the following profoundly affects utilization of carbohydrates? Insulin
Coenzyme A is associated with which vitamin? Pentothenic acid
Which are pyrimidines? Thymine and uracil
The stop and start codon must be nonparallel and noncomparable
Glucagon and what other hormone have a similar effect upon the liver? Epinephrine
Chondroitin sulfate is a type of proteoglycan which is commonly found in connective tissue
Hydrolysis of amylopectin results in which end product? Maltose
This carbohydrate is a soluble dietary fiber. Pectinose
What is a Krebs cycle intermediate present in the lowest concentration? Oxaloacetate
Alpha amylase is found in which body secretion? Pancreas
A genetic lack of fructose 1,6 diphosphatase results in an inability to synthesize glucose from pyruvate
In a free system what may stimulate an endergonic reaction? Increase temperature in reaction
During aerobic glycolysis 1 molecule of glucose is broken down into 2 molecules of pyruvate
The process of synthesizing glucose from amino acids is known as gluconeogenesis
Pyruvate is converted to what prior to entering the TCA cycle? Acetyl CoA
What is an intermediate in the synthesis of glucose from pyruvate? Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate
What is found in collagen? Proline
The biosynthesis of FAD requires riboflavin
This trace mineral is a component of the glucose tolerance factor? Chromium
Components of the electron transport system are located in what region of a cell? Inner mitochondria
What is a component of the electron transport chain? Ubiquinone
What is the active form of folic acid? Tetrahydrofolate
Which mineral is a component of cytochrome B? Iron
The body converts beta keratine to retinol by which of the following mechanisms? Oxidative lysis
What bioactivates thymine in pyrixodine? Phosphorylation
The final stage in the formation of 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol occurs primarily in the kidney
In the production of purine nucleotides the formal group is provided by B9
What is synthesized by intestinal flora, becomes deficient due to antibiotic therapy, and is the enzyme for
carboxylation? Biotin
NADPH contains which vitamin? Niacin
Which vitamin is required for the hydroxylation of amino acids to proline? Ascorbate
The function of the nonsense codon is that it stops ribosome action in a line for protein release
Which form of iron is most readily absorbed in the intestinal tract? Ferrous
Which enzyme contains selenium? Flutathione pyroxidase
Phytate and oxalate inhibit the absorption of dietary calcium
What is the primary end product of purine catabolism? Urate
Liver, dried fruit, and molasses all contain iron
During the production of purine nucleotides the formal group is provided by tetrahydrofolate
What promotes protein synthesis in humans? Methionine
The complement base pairs of DNA double helix are held together by what bond? Hydrogen
The DNA of an organism which contains 3% cytosine contains 40% thymine
What is mRNA guided protein synthesis? Translation
Transcription requires DNA template to produce RNA
What occurs in DNA but not in RNA? Uracil
Which hormone promotes glycogen synthesis in the liver and muscle? Insulin
Under resting conditions what stimulates the synthesis of hepatic glycogenic enzymes? Insulin
Epinephrine affects adipose tissue by promoting release of fatty acids
The process of fat metabolism in adipose tissue is initiated by high levels of epinephrine
Epinephrine is synthesized and secreted principally by the adrenal medulla
Biosynthesis of testosterone utilizes cholesterol
Which hormone increases lipogenesis? Insulin
What makes up the color of the eye? Melanin
What has a transfer methyl group? Methionine
The peripheral vasculature under the least control of the sympathetic nervous system are the capillaries
Which substance has the greatest permeability across a lipid bilayer of the cell membrane? Water
In the sarcomere structure of skeletal muscle, the H-band contains myosin fibrils
During the middle of diastole aortic pressure is falling
Which cell is not regarded as a tissue macrophage? Plasma cell
A mismatched blood transfusion will result in blood hemoglobin binding to free hemoglobin
In exercise, gut blood flow decreases
The kinesthetic sensations are detected mainly by what kind of receptor? Joint receptor
The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two distinct stimuli is greatest on the
center of the back
If the myenteric plexus is damaged or nonfunctional, the following processes will be compromised: gastrotic, gastric
motility, and peristaltic movements will be diminished or completely stopped
Pain that is felt at a sight other than the site of damage is termed referred pain
Two-point discrimination is possible because lateral inhibition enhances the contrast and the tactile pattern
reaching the cortex
The high-energy phosphate compound that is stored in skeletal muscle is called phosphocreatine
As one increases the temperature of a protein the protein begins to denature
Carbohydrate digestion converts any carbohydrate into an array of simple sugars before absorption into the blood
plasma
A lower motor neuron lesion is characterized by skeletal atrophy and flaccidity
What is present in normal concentrations in the putamen and caudate nucleus and has shown to be at reduced
concentrations in Parkinson’s disease? Dopamine
Damage to the posterior tracts of the spinal cord will typically result in defects such as ataxia and Romberg’s sign
Damage to the anterior horn of the spinal cord will typically result in defects such as flaccid paralysis
Damage to the cortical spinal tracts of the spinal cord will typically result in defects such as ataxia
The spinal subarachnoid space normally lies between the pia and arachnoid mater
Each nerve fiber is individually wrapped in a thin connective tissue called endoneurium
Assuming a person had received enough exposure to x-ray to the whole body to destroy cells as they attempt to divide,
which one of the functions would best survive? Cardiac contractions
Hydroxyappetite crystals form at different angles in each concentric circle of the osteon and contribute to existant
shearing forces in compact bone of the femur
Which is most numerous in a normal blood smear? Neutrophils
Tendons are composed of dense, regularly arranged connective tissue
Hydration of the cartilage matrix is dependant upon proteoglycan aggregates
The cells which are typically seen in parasitic infections are eosinophils
The pathological condition in which one type of adult tissue is replaced by another type of tissue is termed metaplasia
Which tumor has been clearly associated with production of carcinoembryonic antigen? Carcinoma of the colon
Tumors of which organ would most likely metastisize to bone? Breast
The most serious complication of lower extremity thrombophlebitis is pulmonary infarction
AIDS is usually characterized by loss of T helper cells
Radiodensities in the ephyseal lines were attributed to chronic poisoning with lead
Elevation of serum bilirubin and alkaline phosphate levels is most characteristic of extrahepatic biliary obstruction
Varicose veins in the lower esophagus are complications of cirrhosis
Clinical manifestations of Lime disease have been directly linked to interleukin production
A deadly cardiovascular lesion is typically seen in the advanced stages of syphilis
Walter-Reed staging is used to classify HIV
Pearly cataracts in a newborn is due to rubella virus
Cervix carcinoma is linked to human papilloma and herpes virus
A patient showing persistent cough, night sweat, spitting of blood, and weight loss is most likely to be suffering from
tuberculosis
What has been referred to as one of the most controversial antibiotics? Chloramphenicol
What is most likely to cause death in individuals between 6 months and 2 years? Meningitis from hemophilus
influenza
The CNS is derived from ectoderm
Somites are derived from mesoderm and give rise to dermatomes, myotomes, and sclerotomes
The notochord becomes incorporated into the vertebrae
The adrenal medulla is derived from the neural crest cells
Which embryonic development occurs first? The neural groove
Which muscle is a lateral rotator of the arm? Infraspinatus
Hilton’s Law tends to be followed by peripheral nerves and nerve plexuses
Lumbrical muscles of the hand have among the smallest motor units in the body. Which of them are innervated by the
ulnar nerve? Third and fourth
What is an example of a fibrous type of joint? Interosseous membrane
The external anal sphincter is innervated by inferior rectal nerves
The rhomboid muscles insert on the vertebral border of the scapula
What is found in the posterior mediastinum? Azygous vein
For a person to stay healthy it is expected a cholesterol level of 200 mg per 100ml of blood or lower is maintained
People in the United States consume about 800 mg of cholesterol per day
Immunity through placental transfer of immunoglobulins to the new-born is natural passive immunity
A blood alcohol concentration of 0.10 percent is considered as the legal limit of drinking and driving
Calcified lesions in lungs are typically seen in pneumonia
Widal test is used for the diagnosis of typhoid
Rheumatic fever is a post streptococcal condition
Streptococcus pyogenes is a common pharyngitis causing organism
The immunoglobulin most likely to be found in secretions is IgA
Blood stores in the spleen can reach the general circulation by way of the splenic vein, portal vein, liver, and inferior
vena cava
The lateral wall of the nasal cavity include the ethmoid bulla and semilunar hiatus
The air sinuses observed in dried skulls are present in frontal, ethmoid, maxillary, and sphenoid bones
The nasopharynx is superior to the uvula and soft palate
The right and left hepatic ducts unite to form the common hepatic duct
The internal thoracic artery passes through an opening at the sternal origin of the diaphragm and becomes the superior
epigastric artery
The nerve which may be exposed emerging from the anterior surface of the psoas major muscle is the genitofemoral
nerve
The sigmoid colon gains its parasympathetic nerve supply from the pelvic splanchnic nerves
Lies in the epidural space of vertical columns: venous plexus
CNI passes through the ethmoid
White rami communicantes include preganglionic symptoms
Obstruction of the Foramen of Monroe will raise pressure in the lateral ventricle
Scalene tubercle is located at the first rib
Oral cavity and the esophagus are lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Which tract is utilized for voluntary motor control? Lateral corticospinal
What is the middle layer of the meninges? Arachnoid
Transverse sinus crosses which 2 cranial bones? Temporal and occipital
Serratus posterior is innervated by what? Costal nerves
Fusion of which part of the vertebrae forms the spinous processes? Lamina
What level does the posterior longitudinal ligament descend? S-1
Type C fibers are responsible for what? Nociception
Adult spinal cord is derived from what embryonic spinal cord structure? Central canal of neural tube
What portion of the lumbar vertebrae are the mamillary processes? Superior articular facet
Vertebral artery does not pass through C7
Superior articular facets of S1 face dorsomedial
Which vertebrae has smallest transverse process? C1
Which ligament prevents lateral flexion of the spine? Intertransverse
Which part of the rib attaches to the transverse process? Tubercle
Motor innervation to anterior belly of digastric muscle is via what? Mylohyoid- division of V3
What is the innervation of the rhomboid muscle? Dorsal scapular
Fascia of the inguinal ligament attaches from ASIS to pubic tubercle
Goes to ventral anterior and ventrolateral nucleus of the thalamus: cerebellum and globus pallidus
Eversion of foot is accomplished by innervation from superficial peroneal
Spinal levels innervate the thumb: C6
Spinal level of umbilicus: T10
Nerves of olfaction synapse on mitral nuclei
Lesion in optic chiasm will cause bitemporal hemiatopsia
Sella turcica is located in sphenoid bone
Chorda tympani supplies taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery
Greater spanchnic nerve is derived from T5-T9
Middle and lateral geniculate bodies are located in metathalamus
Superior articular facets of T6 are directed posterolaterally
Taste sensation of posterior 1/3 tongue: bitter
S2 to S4 nerves are considered to be preganglionic parasympathetic
CN III innervates levator palpebrae supinous
Posterior inferior serratus is innervated by lower 4 intercostal nerves
IVD is composed of fibrocartilage
Median sacral crest is formed by remnants of spinous process
Stapes is derived from second brachial arch (hyoid arch)
Endolymph (cochlea) flows through temporal bone
Transitional vertebrae which goes from the lordosis of cervical spine to kyphosis of thoracic spine: C7
Central canal of spinal cord is confluent with fourth vertebrae
Nucleus of origin is located in pons and extends its tract to C2: cervical trigeminal
Damage to pons affects trigeminal nerve
Striae of cochlea produce endolymph
What are the three portions of the cochlea? Scala vestibuli, scala tympani, scala media
Sensory innervation to paranasal sinuses is derived from CN V
Corpus striatum projects fibers to the thalamus and then the projection terminates at the angulus
Superior gluteal nerve supplies gluteus medius and gluteus minimus
Inferior margins of the IVF of the typical thoracic vertebrae are formed by pedicles
Uncinate processes of C3-C7 are located on vertebral bodies
Responsible for neck flexion: splenius cervicis
Innervates buccinator muscle: facial nerve
Nonencapsulated receptor: free nerve ending
Mylohyoid is innervated by CNV
Internal capsule separates the lenticulate nucleus from the caudate nucleus
Articular process between 2 thoracic vertebrae are classified as plantar joints
What innervates the platysma muscle? Facial nerve
Guides flexion and extension in cervical spine: uncinate process
Forms anterolateral wall of pelvis: obturator internus
Vomer articulates with the ethmoid
This vertebrae has dual demifacets and dual costal facets: T1
Which cervical level does middle trunk of brachial plexus arise? C7
Mandibular nerve exits through ovale
Limits rotation of atlas and axis? Cruciate
Lumbar plexus forms in the body of psoas major structure
Formed by occipital myotomes: lingual muscles
Pyramid is part of medulla
Cerebellum arises from rhombencephalon
General somatosensory information from the nose is provided by trigeminal nerve
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by ependymal cells
Responsible for sensation to the nape of the neck: third occipital
Hypothalamus is located in the diencephalon
This drains the aqueous humor in the eye: canal of schlemm
End of spinal cord is known as conus medullaris
Otolithic membrane is found in the macula of inner ear
Anterior portion of the parahippocampal gyrus is called the uncus
This ligament attaches the head of a rib to the vertebral body: radiate
The celiac ganglion does not contain parasympathetic nerve supply
Rotator muscles extend the spinal column and rotate it in the contralateral direction
Fibers of the lateral spinothalamic tract decussate in the anterior white commissure
What are the three layers of the cerebellum? Molecular-outer (stellate and basket cells), purkinje-middle (purkinje
cells), granular-inner (granular and golgi cells, cerebellar glomeruli)
The second cervical spinal nerve exits between which two vertebrae? C1 & C2
Which ligament attaches to the tips of the spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum? Supraspinous
Tic douloureux is associated with which cranial nerve? V
The inguinal ligament lies inferior to the external oblique muscle
In a typical cervical vertebrae which structure is between the spinous and transverse processes? Lamina
What type of joint is a costovertebral joint? Synovial
The joint that contains hyaline cartilage is what type of joint? Synchondrosis
What is the most common displacement of the nucleus pulposus? Posterolateral
The middle meningeal artery passes through what foramen? Foramen spinosum
The scalenus posterior does not attach to the first rib
The inion is a landmark of the occipital bone
The anterior clinoid fossa is located on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
Which rib contacts a thoracic vertebrae and has a full articular facet? 10
The intermediate sacral crest is formed by the fusion of the articular processes
The accessory process of a lumbar vertebrae arises from the junction of the transverse process and the pedicle
The posterior portion of the IVF is formed by the articular process
The borders of the vertebral canal include the flaval and the posterior longitudinal ligaments
Which ligament maintains a normal spatial relationship between the odontoid process and the atlas? Cruciate
Uncinate processes are located on the cervical vertebral bodies
Pectoralis major attaches to the scapula
The deepest layer in the abdominal wall is the transverse abdominus
During rotation the articular facets in the lumbar spine are most restricted in rotation
The zygopophyseal joints are classified as diarthrodial joints
The median atlantoaxial joint is classified as a pivot joint
The articulations of the sphenoid bone and other bones in the cranium are classified as fibrous joints
The posterior longitudinal ligament attaches to the vertebral bodies
The apical ligament attaches the dens to the anterior portion of the foramen magnum
Calcification of the posterior atlantooccipital ligaments forms the posterior ponticle
Which ligament attaches to the lamina of adjacent vertebrae? Flaval
The articular facets in the lumbar spine are angled 90 degrees to the transverse plane
Which temperomandibular joint ligament attaches to the lingual of the mandible? Sphenomandibular
The sacrotuberous ligament is continuous with the dorsal sacral iliac ligament
The iliolumbar ligament is continuous with the anterior sacral iliac ligament
The carotid tubercle is located on the C6 transverse process
The internal carotid artery is located in the cavernous sinus
The anterior fasciculus of the spinal cord is primarily supplied by branches of the anterior spinal artery
The dorsal root ganglion is derived from the neural crest
The pons and cerebellum are derived from the metencephalon
The medulla oblongata is derived from the myencephalon
The interventricular foramen of Monroe connects which of the following ventricles? Lateral and third
Cerebral spinal fluid is produced by choroid plexus
The choroid plexus is composed of ependymal cells
What type of synapse is the most important type in the CNS? Axodendritic
Fibers from the neurons of 7 lamina comprise the majority of spinothalamic tracts
Maintaining consciousness and awareness is a function of the reticular formation
What do the spinothalamic tracts all have in common? All are located in the same area of the brain
Facets in the thoracic spine are directed coronally
Which two bones are separated by the coronal suture? Frontal and parietal
Downward gaze of the eye indicates weakness of which muscles? Superior rectus and inferior oblique
The brachial plexus exits between which muscles? Scalenus anterior and medius
The suboccipital nerve lies in the arcuate foramen
The saphenous nerve supplies the anteromedial portion of the leg
The hypoglossal nerve has its origin on the medulla oblongata
The masseter muscle has its origin on the zygomatic arch
Parkinson’s disease is caused by a lesion in the substantia nigra
The olfactory nerve goes through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone
Nerves that emit from the conus medullaris are called cauda equina
The center for voluntary control of eye movement is located in the frontal lobe of the brain
The hyoid bone is attached by a ligament to the styloid portion of the temporal bone
The pyramidal cells of Betz are located in the precentral gyrus
Primary afferents are located in the dorsal nerve root
Single largest killer in US: strep pneumoniae
Chlamydia is considered an energy parasite
Botulism causes bulbar paralysis, nystagmus, and general flaccidity
The #1 cause of morbidity is influenza
HIV is #8 killer
Infant mortality is 10 out of 1000
Yesinia pestis is not associated with HIV
Mycosis is histoplasmosis
Water-borne dysentery is shigella
Diarrhea and weight loss for 2 weeks should be tested for HIV
Plasma cells come from where? Megakaryocytes
Arnold-Chiari Syndrome: congenital; part of brainstem and cerebellum extends down thru foramen magnum; is not
associated with cerebrospinal fluid drainage into skin
If a baby, who is 3 weeks old, starts throwing up, what is the diagnosis? Pyloric stenosis
Proteinuria and RBC casts in urine is glomerulonephritis
Alcoholic cirrhosis is Laennac’s
What causes lung abscesses? Bronchiectasis
Infectious endocarditis is due to bacteria
Monocyte is agranular
Acute infection: bradykinin
What causes duodenal ulcers? Increased acid production
Patient with fever, nightsweats, and loss of weight indicates secondary tuberculosis
Still-born baby? Anacephally
Only muscles of body innervated by dorsal primary rami are those muscles of the deep back
What does the first dorsal interosseous muscle do? Abducts the second digit
The third lumbricle is innervated by what? Ulnar nerve
The rhomboid minor inserts on the vertebral border of the scapula
The vertebral artery is a branch of the first part of the subclavian artery
The opthalamic artery is not a branch of the maxillary artery
Levator ani muscle is in the pelvic diaphragm
The phrenic nerve comes from C3, C4, C5
Inferior thoracic artery goes into superior epigastric artery
Weight bearing capabilities of hyaline cartilage matrix are due to: solvation water bound to the negative charges of
glycosaminoglycans
Where is nerve tissue derived? Neural crest cells of inner ear (external meatus)
Where is part of the ear derived? Surface ectode
Tired patient with low hematocrit and low folate indicates pernicious anemia
What is tinnitis? Ringing in ear (coclear nerve)
Resting potential of cell is dependant on cell membrane permeability to potassium
What is a sign of a lower motor neuron lesion? Skeletal atrophy
Patient presents with unsteadiness; decreased position sense, vibration sense, and stereognosis; wabbling with eyes
closed. What is the diagnosis? Dorsal columns, bilateral
PA: used to determine TLD & TSA
SA: ½ of measurement added to vertebral measurement
TSA: determined by ½ of PA
LD: may be functional or structural
TLD: determined by 1/3 of PA
ROM of lumbar spine in flexion is 60 degrees
ROM of lumbar spine in extension is 20 degrees
Total range of flexion of spinal column is 110 degrees
Lateral flexion of the lumbar spine ROM is 25 degrees
Axial rotation of the lumbar spine is 10-15 degrees
Female pelvis: can be described as pelvic brim is larger and more wide-mouthed
Iliolumbar ligaments: attached laterally to the lateral aspects of the PSIS
Sacroiliac ligament: consists of an anterior and intermediate plane
Sacrospinous ligaments: goes from ischial spine to lateral border of sacrum and coccyx
Sacrotuberous ligament: crosses obliquely on the posterior aspect of the sacrospinous ligament
Short axial ligament: consists of a superior and inferior band
TRUE: the chiropractic subluxation syndrome can be divided into the biomechanical cause and the paraphysiological
effects
Lumbar curvature is concave posteriorly
The nucleus pulposus consists of 88% water
The nucleus pulposus allows the following movements: flexion, rotation, extension
During axial compression forces the nucleus bears what % of the force? 95%
Due to water imbibition by the nucleus one is shorter at night than in the morning
The disc/body ratio of the lumbar spine is 1/3
Schmorls node: abnormal ossification leading to epiphysitis (depressions)
Dynamic curvature: pronounced curvature
Delmas index: used to determine the significance of curvatures
Static curvature: attenuated curvature
Scheaerumann’s disease: roughening of the epiphyseal end plates
TRUE: there are no blood vessels penetrating the nucleus, however, there is a vast amount of innervation
When is the A-P spine balanced? Anterior tubercle of atlas over sacral base
Most common lower cervical subluxation is rotation
Retrolisthesis is also known as direct foraminal compression
Decussation of pyramids takes place in medulla oblongata
Carotid sinus is innervated by cranial nerves IX and X
Plasma cells come from megakaryocytes
Proteinuria and RBC casts? Glomerulonephritis
Alcoholic cirrhosis? Laennad’s
What causes lung abscesses? Bronchiectasis
Infectious endocarditis is due to bacteria
Gluconeogenesis starts with what? Lactate
Primary structure of protein is what? Covalent bonds
Upper Motor Neuron Lesion: spastic paralysis, increased DTR, muscle atrophy, clonus, positive extensor (Babinski)
reflex
Lower Motor Neuron Lesion: flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, muscle atrophy, hypotonus
Valgus: lateral deviation of distal end of joint
Varus: medial deviation of distal end of joint
Cycle: the sequence of motions occurring between 2 consecutive contacts of the same leg
Stance: support of body weight, advancement of the body over the supporting leg; weight bearing
Swing: leg advancement; weight unloading
Wexler scale of DTR: 0 absent with reinforced maneuver; 1 hypoactive with reinforcement; 2 normal (sluggish or
brisk); 3 hyperactive (moving thru ROM); 4 hyperactive with transient clonus; 5 hyperactive with sustained clonus
Muscle grading: 0 no ROM; no palpable contraction; no joint motion; 1 no ROM; traceable palpable contractions; 2
ROM present without gravity; 3 fair; ROM vs. gravity only; 4 good; ROM with slight resistance; 5 normal
Vestigial arch: 5th
Week of gestulation: second
Adrenal medulla derivation: ectoderm
Smooth muscle of the jejunum derivation: endoderm
Graafian follicles: ovum
Dorsal primary rami: innervates muscles and skin of back
Ankle joint innervation: tibial nerve
Posterior mediastinum: azygous vein
Rectus abdominus arterial supply: inferior and superior epigastric arteries
Radial nerve innervation: abductor pollicis longus, triceps, forearm extensors, brachioradialis
Innervation of external anal sphincter: perineal nerve; inferior rectal nerve
Posterior triangle floor components: first rib, serratus anterior, splenius capitis, levator scapulae, posterior/middle
scalenes
RBC production: spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
Diastolic aortic wave: third heart sound
Pulmonary dysfunction with heroine addicts: pulmonary edema
Production of most ATP when metabolized: 18
Intermediate in all carbohydrate metabolism: pyruvate
Lipid present on cytoplasm: sphingomyelin
Neutral fat: triglyceride
Trematodes are round worms? False
Trematodes are members of platyhelminthes
What type of antibodies are found most frequently in human milk to offer protection against microbial diseases? IgA
A parasitic organism that may be responsible for blocking the lumen of the intestinal tract is ascaris
What is the single largest cause of death in individuals between 15 and 25 years old? Accidents
Name a kind of disinfecting agent that is responsible for the lysis of cell walls and cell membranes? Detergent
A public health officer in each state is appointed by who? Governor in each state
Which agency of the US public health services is assigned to participate in international health efforts? CDC
Who guards the safety of medical devices? FDA
6th leading cause of death in the US today? Influenza and pneumonia
what agency operates national institute of occupational safety and health (NIOSH)? CDC
OSHA falls under the department of what? Labor
Nasopharyngeal cancer and adhesive caused dermatitis is seen in carpenters
Pin worm infections are caused by enterobus vermicularis
An agent that is known to block the lymphatic system is what? Wuchereria
Flukes of flat worms are what? Trematodes
About how many people die every year as a result of accidents that take place at homes? 140,000 to 150,000
How many people suffer disabling injuries as a result of accidents? 500,000
Morbidity, as a term, talks about what? Illnesses of all types
The host range for paragonimus wetermani is what? Humans, cats
In the adult P. westermani the larva are also called what? Miracidium
Name the stages the sporocytes go through in P. wetermani. Redia I, redia II, then cercaria
Paragonimus are hermaphrodites? True
If the cercaria are picked up by snails or crabs they will become what? Metacercaria
In schistosomas the female is larger than the male? True
Schistosomas are hermaphrodites? False
What trematode is known for the most complex lifecycle? P. westermani
Which trematode is the most common and a major killer in the world? Schistoma
Schistosomas are found where in the body? Blood vessels
Schistosomas have a metacercaria larvae stage? False
What is left behind once schistosomas have left the skin? Tail
Where are larva in schistosomas released at? Feces
What trematode is known for bilharziasis/schistosomiasis? S haematobium
S. haematobium host range is what? Humans, monkeys
S. haemotobium is both dioceous and monoceous? True
Which trematode is known for swimmer’s itch? S. mansoni
S. mansoni is transmitted how? Bird feces
In paragonimus how are they released from their host? Coughed out
What drug is used to treat both paragonimus and schistosomas? Praziquantal
Bakers: asthma
Dry cleaners: liver disease, dermatitis
Dye workers: bladder cancer, dermatitis
Foundry workers: silicosis
Glass workers: cataracts
Insulators: asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothlioma
Jack hammer: Raynaud’s phenomenon
Miners: pneumoconiosis, lung cancer
What is the biggest of the trematodes? Fasciolopsis buski
Opisthorchis: Chinese liver fluke
Heterophyes heterophyes: smallest worm
Fasciolopsis buski: biggest worm
Fasciola hepatica: sheep liver fluke
Pneumoconiosis: foreign substance in lungs, fibrous growth
Byssiniosis: cotton fiber, textile mills, cotton mills
Silicosis: marble statutes, sandblasters, construction
Siderosis: iron oxide rust
Mining industry: black lung disease
Talcum powder: calcium
Are all pneumoconiosis cancer causing? False
What year did congress create OSHA? 1970
After company has how many employees is it require to be inspected by OSHA? 12
The EPA is part of OSHA? False
NIOSH is part of what? CDC
NIOSH does what? Research agency, ergonomics, to make work place safe
NIOSH is located where? Philadelphia
Stress is not usually responsible for accidents in the work place. False
As physicians we are required to report injuries from occupational hazards. True
Occupational hazards are reported to the justice department. False, labor dept
The fourth leading cause of death in the US is what? Accidents
What percent of accidents are catastrophies? 2%
How many deaths have to occur from a single accident to be considered a catastrophe? 5
What % of people killed in accidents are innocent bystanders? 70%
What % of all deaths involve people influenced by alcohol? 50%
90% of all accidents are preventable
1% of all accidents are non-preventable
9% of all accidents are natural disasters
Every how many seconds does an accident occur? 3 seconds
What age group has the highest % of deaths due to accidents? 15 to 25 years
Every how many minutes is someone killed due to an accident? 4 to 5 minutes
.01 to .05: Normal
.05 to .09: impaired and talkative
.10: legally drunk
.2 to .3: in a stupor
.3 to .45: in a coma
.45 or higher: dead from respiratory failure
Which agency works internationally? CDC
What % of the health care budget is spent by the CDC? 20%
Which agency is responsible for imported produce or added materials is safe and does not contain toxic materials or
banned materials? USDA