Download 100 Question Prep Test

100 Question Prep Test
1. Which of the following is required for normal depth perception?
a. strabismus
b. normal eye alignment
c. poor vision
d. spectacles with prism
2. The lensometer is calibrated in
a. centimeters and diopters
b. meters and diopters
c. diopters and degrees
d. millimeters and degrees
3. Patient is feeling faint, which of the following should you do first?
a. notify the doctor
b. call 911
c. notify the patient’s family
d. have the patient lie down
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of achromacy?
a. corneal edema
b. absence of rods
c. diplopia
d. absence of cones
5. Base out prism is used for patients with
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. esotropia
d. exotropia
6. The cover/uncover is used to determine?
a. Direction
b. Movement
c. Diplopia
d. Depth perception
7. The alternating cover test is used for?
a. Direction
b. Movement
c. Diplopia
d. Depth perception
8. Where is the far point of accommodation of an uncorrected hyperoptic eye?
a. on the retina
b. behind the retina
c. in front of the retina
d. at the nodal point of the eye
9. In addition to detecting color deficiencies, color vision testing can be used to
a. determine light sensitivity
b. assess cornea
c. measure Stereopsis
d. assess macular pathology
10. In what direction does the eye turn during adduction
a. nasal
b. inferior
c. superior
d. temporal
11. Which of the following best describes binocular pursuits
a. versions
b. ductions
c. saccades
d. vergence
12. What is the central corneal layer
a. stroma
b. bowman’s layer
c. descement’s layer
d. epithelial layer
13. The difference in inter ocular pressure between the average right and left eye maybe
considered within normal limits if it is as much as
a. 9
b. 7
c. 5
d. 3
14. In the U.S., what is the most common low vision eye chronic disorder?
a. congenital cataracts
b. ARMD
c. Glaucoma
d. Presbyopia
15. When using the NCT, what should be done first
a. find the target
b. occlude opposite eye
c. find corneal reflex
d. demonstrate the test
16. On the Stereo Fly test, the patient reports seeing the R steady and the L flashing, the patient
is using?
a. Left eye only
b. Right eye only
c. Both eyes but left eye dominate
d. Both eyes but right eye dominate
17. If no movement is noted on the unilateral cover test, but movement is detected on the
alternating cover test, what condition is present?
a. Tropia
b. Phoria
c. Nystagmus
d. Accommodation Insufficency
18. Which is most likely to cause less than normal vision?
a. Chalazion
b. Hordeolum
c. Diabetes
d. Pinquecula
19. Which of the following tools is used to correct pantoscopic tilt?
a. Temple angling pliers
b. nose pad pliers
c. round nose pliers
d. temple bending pliers
20. Which of the following test differentiates vision loss due to pathology?
a. color vision test
b. walk-up method
c. Stereopsis
d. Pinhole Acuity
21. Which of the following best describes aniseikonia?
a. Diplopia
b. Unequal pupils
c. Unequal eye size
d. Unequal retinal images
22. Which of the following should be treated first?
a. change in refraction
b. lost contact lens
c. conjunctivitis
d. corneal trauma
23. Which of the following refractive errors is revealed by cycloplegia?
a. Latent hyperopia
b. Confirmed hyperopia
c. Manifest myopia
d. Latent myopia
24. Which of the following would most likely be found in an external photograph?
a. Iridectomy
b. Pinguecula
c. Cataract
d. Choroidal lesion
25. What is it called when blood vessels invade the cornea?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Conjunctivitis
Iritis
Pterygium
Neovascularization
26. Which of the following test is an objective test?
a. Autorefractor
b. Color vision testing
c. Stereo testing
d. Pinhole testing
27. Congenital color defects are usually?
a. Bilateral
b. Unilateral
c. Temporary
d. Progressive
28. Which of the following muscles is involved in lid retraction is?
a. ciliary
b. superior rectus
c. orbicularis oculi
d. levator palpebrae superioris
29. Which of the following is a subjective test?
a. Autorefractor
b. NCT
c. Swinging flashlight test
d. Color vision testing
30. Which of the following does not require fusion?
a. Stereopsis
b. Worth Four Dot
c. Near point of convergence
d. Pseudoisochromatic Plates
31. How should stereo testing be done?
a. without correction at 12 inches
b. with correction at 12 inches
c. without correction at 16 inches
d. with correction 16 inches
32. What instrument is most valuable in determining the total objective refractive error?
a. Alphascope
b. Retinoscope
c. Tonometer
d. Radiuscope
33. The part of the brain responsible for analyzing the neutral signals representing sight is the
a. Choroid
b. Optic nerve
c. Optic tract
d. Visual cortex
34. Which of the following is measured using an Amsler Grid
a. Corneal Curvature
b. inter ocular pressure
c. central visual fields
d. peripheral visual fields
35. Beta blockers are commonly used to treat what disease?
a. optic drusen
b. GPC
c. glaucoma
d. EKC
36. Which are parts of the crystalline lens?
a. Capsule, nucleus, and cortex
b. Capsule, nucleus, and stroma
c. Nucleus, stroma, and epithelium
d. Nucleus, epithelium, and ciliary muscle
37. How does an eye with an axial myopic eye differ from a normal eye?
a. The cornea is irregular
b. The cornea is steeper
c. The eyeball is longer
d. The eyeball is shorter
38. Which of the following is the average diameter of most rigid contact lens?
a. 7.0
b. 9.0
c. 13.8
d. 15.0
39. How long do the effects of a topical anesthetic usually last?
a. 5-10 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes
c. 30-45 minutes
d. 45-60 minutes
40. What percent of the male population has color vision deficiency?
a. 0.2%
b. 0.8%
c. 1%
d. 8%
41. What type of movement is displayed when eyes follow a moving target?
a. Reflex
b. Saccade
c. pursuit
d. convergence
42. Which of the following is the first step before using a lensometer?
a. rotate the power wheel to +9.00
b. rotate the axis wheel to 180
c. focus the eye piece
d. adjust the table height
43. At which of the following ages would the amplitude of accommodation most likely be
highest?
a. 8
b. 15
c. 29
d. 40
44. The main function of the choroid is to provide?
a. nutrition
b. protection
c. light perception
d. color perception
45. Mucin keeps the cornea?
a. hypotonic
b. hypertonic
c. hydrophobic
d. hydrophilic
46. A soft contact lens with an overall diameter of 14.0 and an optic zone of 8.6 would have a
peripheral curve width of?
a. 2.7
b. 4.5
c. 5.4
d. 6.4
47. A normal monocular field usually measures 60 degrees in which of the following directions?
a. Nasally
b. inferior
c. superiorly
d. temporally
48. How will the result of a visual acuity test usually be affected if the patient squints while
taking it?
a. it will be improved
b. it will be depressed
c. it will be unaffected
d. it depends on the type of test performed
49. Which of the following instruments would be used to detect warpage of a rigid contact lens?
a. shadowgraph
b. radiuscope
c. thickness gauge
d. hand magnifier
50. In what direction does the eye turn during abduction?
a. Nasal
b. Inferior
c. Superior
d. Temporal
51. The “L” and “R” on the depth perception test is used to determine?
a. Stereopsis
b. Suppression
c. vertical imbalance
d. near vision acuity
52. Which of the following would be a reason not to use the Goldman Tonometer?
a. anterior uveitis
b. flashes and floaters
c. Ptosis
d. Corneal foreign body
53. Which of the following is used when testing Stereopsis with the Stereo Fly test?
a. Maddox rod
b. Risley prisms
c. Polarized lenses
d. anaglyph
54. In addition to assessing color deficiencies, color vision testing should be accomplished?
a. perform test with best stereopsis
b. measure highest level of fluorescent lighting
c. perform test monocularly
d. allow patient 45 seconds per test plate
55. Following a normal blink, how long should the tear remain uniform on the cornea?
a. 5-10 seconds
b. 5-10 minutes
c. 15-20 seconds
c. 25-30 seconds
56. What is used to check the power of a contact lens?
a. lens clock
b. lens loupe
c. radiuscope
d. lensometer
57. At what time of day is intraocular pressure at a maximum in most people?
a. When you first wake up
b. At noon time
c. At bed time
d. In the middle of the night
58. Visual threshold is determined by a target’s
a. size
b. color
c. brightness
d. location
59. The retina’s main blood supply comes from the
a. Central Retinal Veins
b. Central Retinal Arteries
c. Central Capillaries
d. Central Macular Veins
60. Which of the following conditions indicates an immediate ocular emergency?
a. Pinguecula
b. Optic Neuritis
c. Open-Angle Glaucoma
d. Central Retinal Arterial Occlusion
61. What is indicated when you see five dots when using the Worth 4-Dot test?
a. Normal response
b. Only one eye can see through the red lens
c. Only one eye can see through the green lens
d. Possible muscle imbalance
62. All of the following are required in diagnosing glaucoma but
a. tonometry
b. Biomicroscopy
c. Ophthalmoscopy
d. visual field testing
63. What type of bridge follow the nose smoothly and spread the weight of the frame evenly on
the sides and the crest of the nose
a. Saddle
b. keyhole
c. high crest
d. adjustable nose pads
64. If a lens has a focal length of 25 cm, what is the power of the lens
a. 2.50D
b. 4.00D
c. 25.00D
d. 40.00D
65. What section of the conjunctiva stops a contact lens from going behind the eye
a. palpebral
b. scleral
c. Fornix
d. bulbar
66. If a systolic or diastolic pressure is missed, what is the minimum length of the time that
should elapse before the procedure can be repeated?
a. 30 seconds
b. 1 to 3 minutes
c. 10 to 15 minutes
d. 1 hour
67. Rose Bengal may be used to determine the presence of
a. dry eye
b. cataract
c. cells and flare
d. corneal abrasion
68. Which of the following ocular medications should be in a bottle with a red cap
a. Timolol
b. Tropicamide
c. Pilocarpine
d. Proparacaine
69. The Schirmer’s test is performed to
a. determine the quantity of tears
b. determine the quality of tears
c. examine tear drainage system
d. examine anterior chamber
70. Which of the following best describes account receivable
a. Total cash receipts
b. Bills owed by the doctor
c. amount owed to doctor
d. Total charges minus payments
71. Which of the following materials would produce the most chromatic aberration
a. CR-39
b. Crown glass
c. Flint glass
d. High Index
72. Which of the following visual field testing methods evaluates the central 20 degrees only
a. Humphrey’s Visual Field
b. Bowl perimeter
c. Amsler Grid
d. Harrington-Flocks
73. If visual acuity improves using a multiple pin-hole, the patient most likely has
a. Emmetropia
b. Ametropia
c. Extorsion
d. Intorsion
74. If a patient is able to read the 20/40 line at 10 feet, how would should it be recorded
a. 10/40
b. 20/40+
c. 80/40
d. 40/10
75. Which corneal refractive surgery utilizes spoke-like incisions
a. RK
b. PRK
c. LASIK
d. LASEK
76. What is the frame size for a frame with the following measurements
A measurement = 50
B measurement = 40
Distance between lenses = 20
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 90
77. A 20/20 letter on a Snellen chart viewed from 20 feet subtends how many minutes of arc at
the eye
a. 20
b. 10
c. 5
d. 1
Transpose the following Rx to Near Vision Only aka NVO, SVN, reading glasses
78.
-2.00 -1.00 x 080
-1.50 -2.00 x 180
+3.00 OU
Answer ___________________
79.
-1.00 – 0.50 x 010
-2.00 -0.75 x 100
+1.25 OU
Answer____________________
80.
-4.00 -0.25 x 090
-1.00 -0.50 x 098
+2.00 OU
Answer ___________________
81.
+2.50 -1.00 x 090
+1.00 -0.75 x 180
+2.25 OU
Answer ___________________
82. Convert to spherical equivalent
- 1.50 – 1.00 X 180
- 2.25 – 1.50 X 120
Answer____________________
83. If a patient has K readings of 42.00 at 180 and 44.00 at 090 on the right eye and fit 0.50D
steeper than K, what would be the power of the contact lens?
a. +0.50 D
b. +1.25 D
c. +1.50 D
d. +2.50 D
84. If a patient selects a frame of size 54/20 for a reading only prescription, and the patient’s
pupillary distance is 62/58, what is the decentration for each eye?
a. 6 mm in
b. 8 mm in
c. 12mm in
d. 16mm in
Questions 85-89 Remove from cross in minus cylinder
Optical Cross minus cylinder
- 1.25
180
090
+ 1.75
030
120
115
3
020
- 2.75
+3.25
025
-1.75
5
4
+ 2.50
-4.25
2
1
- 2.50
110
+ 3.25
- 1.25
035
125
If you don’t get all of these correct, please see me after class
American Optometric Association Paraoptometric Section
Questions 90-94
Optical Cross plus cylinder
- 1.25
180
+ 3.25
090
+ 1.75
030
120
115
3
020
- 2.75
+3.25
025
-1.75
5
4
+ 2.50
-4.25
2
1
- 2.50
110
- 1.25
035
125
American Optometric Association Paraoptometric Section
95. What is the total prismatic effect of prisms placed before the eyes with O.D. 0.50 prism
diopters base out and OS 0.25 prism diopters base in?
a. 0.25 prism diopters base in
b. 0.25 prism diopters base out
c. 0.50 prism diopters base in
d. 0.75 prism diopters base out
96. If a lens has a focal length of 40 cm, what is the power of the lens?
a. +1.25 D
b. +2.50 D
c. +12.50 D
d. +25.00 D
97. What is the focal length in meters of a refracting surface with a power of 5.00 D?
a. 0.2
b.0.5
c. 2.0
d.5.0
98. Draw an optical cross with an Rx of -2.00 -2.00 X 180 lens?
99. Draw an optical cross with the Rx of +1.75 – 1.50 X 150 lens?
100. Draw an optical cross with the Rx of Pl – 1.50 X 130 lens?