Download E. All mentioned above.

Conclusion module control including test-control of the theoretical training, control of the practical
skills, assessment of the instrumental investigation reports.
LIST OF QUESTIONS FOR CONCLUSION CONTROL
1. The contribution of prominent clinicists: T. Yankovskiy, V. Obraztsov, M. Kurlov, M. Gubergrits,
M. Stragesko, G. Lang, B. Shklyar to the development of therapeutic school.
2. Basic methods of diagnostics of internal disases.
3. Plan of patient inquiring. Basic structural parts of anamnesis.
4. Sequence of general visual inspection.
5. Types of constitution and their main criteria.
6. Sequence of lymphonodes palpation and characteristics of obtaining findings.
7. Rules of visual inspection of head and neck.
8. Sequence of visual inspection body and extremities.
9. Static visual inspection of the chest, diagnostic importance of basic signs.
10.
Dynamic visual inspection of the chest, diagnostic importance of basic signs.
11.
Visual inspection of the precardial region, diagnostic importance of basic signs.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
The main pulse characteristics, the subsequent and rules for their determination.
The rules for blood pressure measurement, analysis of obtained results.
Palpation of the chest: the subsequent, rules and diagnostic significance.
Palpation of the heart region: the subsequent, rules and clinical significance.
The consequent of lung percussion, qualities of sounds and diagnostic significance of obtained
results.
17. The main tasks of topographic percussion of the lung, its technique and consequent. The
topographical parameters of the lung in normal and pathological conditions.
18. Percussion of the heart – relative and absolute cardiac dullness, the borders of the relative
cardiac dullness in normal and pathological conditions.
19. Percussion of the heart – displacement of the heart borders accordantly to cardiac and
extracardiac reasons.
20. The width of the vascular bundle, technique of its evaluation by percussion and diagnostically
significance.
21. Auscultation of the lung - the main respiratory sounds, their quantitative and qualitative
changes, conditions for occurs.
22. Auscultation of the lung - additional respiratory sounds, conditions for occurs.
23. Rales, their types and mechanisms of formation and diagnostic significance.
24. Conditions for crepitation and pleural friction sound formation. Differential signs of adventitious
sounds.
25. Determination of vocal fremitus, its diagnostic significance.
26. Auscultation of the heart - mechanism of heart sounds formation and their main properties.
Changers of the tones by strength and timbre.
27. Auscultation of the heart - the notion of heart sounds reduplication and splitting, the causes of
onset and periodic characteristics.
28. Additional heart sounds: "Gallop" and "quails" rhythms.
29. The causes of heart murmurs and their classification.
30. The main characteristics of cardiac murmurs description (timing, intensity, pitch, quality,
configuration, duration, location and radiation, changers depending from body position and
physical load). The notion of functional murmurs and their differences from the organic one.
31. Diastolic cardiac murmurs: the causes for onset and diagnostic significance.
32. The rules for ECG interpretation. Determination of heart rate end electrical axis of the heart.
33. ECG signs of altered automatic function.
34. ECG signs of altered excitability function. The main types of premature heart contraction.
35.ECG signs of altered conductivity. Classification
36.Clinical and ECG signs of atrial and ventricular flutter and fibrillation. The mechanisms of their
onset.
37. Syndrome of focal and lobar consolidation of lung tissue, causes, diagnostic symptoms and signs.
38. The syndrome of increased airiness of lung tissue: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory
and instrumental methods of diagnosis.
39. The syndrome of fluid accumulation in pleural cavity: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory
and instrumental methods of diagnosis.
40. The syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory
and instrumental methods of diagnosis.
41. The syndrome of bronchial obstruction: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and
instrumental methods of diagnosis.
42. The syndrome of the pain in the heart: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and
instrumental methods of diagnosis.
43. The syndrome of cardiovascular incompetence: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and
instrumental methods of diagnosis.
44. Left ventricular heart failure syndrome: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and
instrumental methods of diagnosis.
45. Right ventricular heart failure syndrome: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and
instrumental methods of diagnosis.
46. Vascular failure syndrome: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and instrumental methods
of diagnosis.
47. The syndrome of arterial hypertension: etiology, pathogenesis, clinical, laboratory and
instrumental methods of diagnosis.
48.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases: clinical presentation and diagnostics.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
Bronchial asthma: classification, chief clinical features and diagnosis.
Emphysema of the lung: the main factors for development, symptoms and diagnosis.
Hospital and extrahospital pneumonia: classification, chief clinical features and diagnosis.
Dry and exudative pleurisies: chief clinical features and diagnosis.
Cancer of the lung: main clinical forms, clinical features and diagnosis.
Mitral valve defects: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis.
Aortic valve defects: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis.
Coronary heart disease: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis of angina pectoris.
Coronary heart disease: etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis of acute myocardial
infarction.
58. Essential hypertension: modern classification, etiology, chief clinical features and diagnosis.
59. Symptomatic arterial hypertension: etiology, classification, chief clinical features, diagnosis,
objective and instrumental examination data that give opportunity to suspect the secondary
character of hypertension.
THE LIST OF PRACTICAL SKILLS
1. To conduct inquiring of the patient. To make conclusion according to the obtained anamnestic
data.
2. To conduct inquiring of the patient with respiratory organs disease. To define the chief
symptoms.
3. To conduct inquiring of the patient with cardiovascular pathology. To define the chief
symptoms.
4. To conduct general examination of the patient. To define the chief symptoms.
5. To carry out examination of the head and neck. To define the clinical significance of obtained
symptoms.
6. To carry out examination of the trunk and extremities. To define the clinical significance of
obtained symptoms.
7. To conduct inspection of the chest in patient with respiratory organs disease. To evaluate the
static signs.
8. To conduct inspection of the chest in patient with respiratory organs disease. To evaluate the
dynamic signs.
9. To carry out inspection of the heart region. To define the clinical significance of obtained
symptoms.
10. To perform palpation of the chest, to define the clinical significance of obtained
symptoms.
11. To carry out palpation of the lymphatic nodes, to evaluate obtained results.
12. To conduct examination of the pulse. To define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.
13. To carry out palpation of the heart region. To define the clinical significance of obtained
symptoms.
14. To conduct blood pressure measurement on upper extremities, to analyze obtained results.
15. To conduct blood pressure measurement on low extremities, to analyze obtained results.
16. To carry out comparative percussion of the lung. To define the clinical significance of obtained
symptoms.
17. To carry out topographic of the lung. To define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.
18. To determine the respiratory excursion of the lower border of the lung. To define the clinical
significance of obtained symptoms.
19. To determine the borders of the relative cardiac dullness by percussion. To make the clinical
evaluation.
20. To determine the borders of the absolute cardiac dullness by percussion. To make the clinical
evaluation.
21. To evaluate the width of the vascular bundle, to assess the obtained results.
22. To conduct auscultation of the lung – to determine the main respiratory sounds their
quantitative and qualitative characteristics, clinical evaluation of obtained results.
23. To conduct auscultation of the lung – to determine the additional respiratory sounds, to define
the clinical significance of obtained data.
24. To carry out bronchophonia, to make clinical evaluation of obtained results.
25. To conduct auscultation of arteries, to define the clinical significance of obtained symptoms.
26. To conduct auscultation of the heart – to determine the main characteristics of the heart sounds
with clinical evaluation of obtained results.
27. To conduct auscultation of the heart – to determine the presence of cardiac murmurs with
clinical evaluation of obtained results.
28. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with altered conductivity.
29. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with altered excitability function. To differentiate
the types of premature heart contractions.
30. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with altered automaticy function.
31. To analyze results of ECG recording in patient with combinative arrhythmias.
32. To analyze results of US examination at the patient with heart valve defects.
33. To carry out examination of the patient with mitral valve disease. To define the major symptoms
and syndromes.
34. To conduct examination of the patient with aortic valve disease. To identify the major
symptoms and syndromes.
35. To carry out examination of the patient with arterial hypertension. To define the major
symptoms and syndromes.
36. To make inquiring of the patient with coronary heart disease (stable angina pectoris), to detail
the complain pain in the heart, to define the functional class of the patient.
37. To conduct general inspection and objective examination of the patient with acute myocardial
infarction. To identify the major symptoms and syndromes.
38. To evaluate the ECG of the patient with acute myocardial infarction. To define the character and
localization of myocardial damage.
39. To carry out examination of the patient with heart failure. To define the major symptoms,
syndromes and functional class of the patient.
40. To carry out inquiring of the patient with obstructive lung disease. To define the major
symptoms, syndromes, with taking into consideration spirography results determine the stage
of the disease.
41. To conduct palpation, percussion of the chest and auscultation of the lung in the patient with
obstructive lung disease. To define the major symptoms and syndromes.
42. To conduct inquiring and objective examination of the patient with pneumonia. To identify the
major symptoms and syndromes.
43. To carry out inquiring and objective examination of the patient with pleurisies. To identify the
character of pleurisies and chief symptoms and syndromes.
Tests:
1.What are the respiratory symptoms?
A. Chest pain, cough, dyspnea, wheezes, haemoptysis.
B. Pain in the heart region, palpitation, intermissions, oedema
C. Headache, dizziness, dysphagia, nausea, vomiting.
D. Pain in the right subcostal region, bitter taste, brown urine, skin itching, jaundice.
E. Back pain, dysuria, ishuria, eyes oedema, weakness.
2.What feature does pleural pain have?
A. Be caused by physical extension
B. Radiate to the right hand
C. Appears and increases due to cough and deep breathing
D. Radiate to the left hand and scapula
E. Duration under 15 minutes.
3. If patient has laryngitis his cough is characterized with
A. harsh and hoarse sound
B. absent of sputum
C. it is permanent
D. it is loud
E. all mentioned above.
4. Chronic expectorating copious sputum is observed at patient with
A. Acute bronchitis
B. Asthma
C. Atelectasis
D. Emphysema
E. Bronchiectasis
5. Which type of dyspnea is observed at the patients with obstructive syndrome?
A. Expiratory
B. Inspiratory
C. Mixed
D. Changing
E. All mentioned above.
6. Which of the following characteristics is not typical of pleuritic chest pain?
A. Increases with deep breathing
B. Increases with coughing
C. Radiates to the jaw
D. Is located laterally
E. Diminishes with splinting of the affected side
7. Inspiratory dyspnea is –
A. Difficult breathing during exhalation
B. Difficult breathing during inhalation
C. Difficult breathing during exhalation and inhalation
D. Difficult breathing during hyperventilation
E. Northing from above
8. Whistle and noise breathing with feeling breathlessness is named …
A. Dyspnea
B. Respiratory noise
C. Musical breathing
D Wheezing
E. All mentioned above
9. Lung bleeding is a pathological condition when the blood expectorates from airways. What
quantity of the blood is characterized lung bleeding?
A. 15 - 20 ml
B. 30–40 ml
C. 240 - 250 ml
D. All mentioned above
E. Northing from above
10. Mixed dyspnea is –
A. Difficult breathing during exhalation
B. Difficult breathing during inhalation
C. Difficult breathing during exhalation and inhalation
D. Difficult breathing during hyperventilation
E. Northing from above
11. What are the respiratory symptoms?
A. Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting
B. Heartburning, faint (syncope), palpitation
C. Cough with rusty sputum, chest pain, dyspnea
D. Swelling abdomen, constipation, melena
E. Oedema, dysuria, haematuria
12. What are the cough causes?
A. Irritation of the larynx receptors
B. Irritation of the trachea and bronchus receptors
C. Irritation of the pleural receptors
D. All mentioned above
E. Northing from above
13. If patient has clear, thick sputum it is named
A. Mucoid
B. Purulent
C. Copious
D. Fetid
E. Hemoptysis
14. What is an objective dyspnea?
A. Disorders of the respiratory rate
B. Disorders of the respiratory depth
C. Disorders of the respiratory rhythm
D. Disorders of the respiratory rate, depth, rhythm
E. Northing from above
15. Which types of dyspnea do you know?
A. Mixed
B. Expiratory
C. Inspiratory
D. All mentioned above
E. Northing from above
16. Sputum production that contains pus is described by what term?
A. Purulent
B. Fetid
C. Copious
D. Colored
E. None of the above
17. Which type of pulmonary problem usually causes a breathing pattern with a prolonged expiratory
time?
A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pneumonia
E. Pleural effusion.
18. Expiratory dyspnea is –
A. Difficult breathing during exhalation
B. Difficult breathing during inhalation
C. Difficult breathing during exhalation and inhalation
D. Difficult breathing during hyperventilation
E. Northing from above
19. What quantity of the blood is characterized hemoptysis?
A. 20-50 ml
B. 60 – 70 ml
C. 140 - 250 ml
D. All mentioned above
E. Northing from above
20. Amount of cigarettes that patient smokes in a day multiply to number of smoking years and
divide to 20 (pack/years) use for calculating …
A. Smoking history
B. cigarettes consumption
C. Smoking habit
D. Smoking abuse
E. All mentioned above.
21.If patient’s respiratory rate is 32 per minute he has…
a. Tachypnea
b. Bradypnea
c. Apnea
d. Polypnea
e. Dyspnea
22. What types of breathing does healthy man have in a rest?
a.Abdominal breathing
b.Thoracic breathing
c. Mixed breathing
d. All mentioned above
e. Northing from above
23. Kussmaul ‘s breathing is…
a. Disorder of breathing depth
b. Disorder of the respiratory rate
c. Disorder of the respiratory rhythm
d. Disorder of the respiratory types
e. Hyperventilation syndrome
24.hat is the normal respiratory rite in a rest?
a. 12-14 per 1 minute
b. 16-20 per 1 minute
c. 10-12 per 1 minute
d. 20-24 per 1 minute
e. 24-28 per 1 minute
25. Which of the following condition is associated with asymmetrical diminished vocal fremitus?
a. Pneumonia
b. Emphysema
c. Bronchial asthma
d. Chronic bronchitis
e. Pleural effusion
26. Which of the following condition is associated with increased chest resistance?
a. acute bronchitis
b. focal pneumonia
c. COPD
d. mild bronchial asthma
e. all mentioned above.
27. What kind of posture is observed at the bronchial obstruction?
a. Upright
b. Sitting position fixing the shoulder girdle
c. Orthopnoea
d. Sitting posture bending forward
e. Knee-elbow posture
28. What shape of the chest can be observed at the patient with chronic tuberculosis?
a. Normosthenic
b. Asthenic
c. Barrel
d. Paralytic
e. "Funnel breast"
29. What kind of posture is observed at the left dry pleurisy?
a. Upright
b. Sitting position fixing the shoulder girdle
c. Orthopnoea
d. On the left side
e. Sitting posture bending forward
30. If patient skin has diffuse bluish tint, it is named:
a. Diffuse cyanosis
b. Diffuse erythema
c. Acrocyanosis
d. Pathological pallid skin
e. Northing mentioned above.
31. If patient doesn’t have respiratory moving his condition is named:
a. Tachypnea
b. Bradypnea
c. Apnea
d. Polypnea
e. Dyspnea
32. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is …
a. Disorder of breathing depth
b. Disorder of the respiratory rate
c. Disorder of the respiratory rhythm
d. Disorder of the respiratory types
e. Hyperventilation syndrome
33. What types of breathing does healthy woman have in a rest?
a. Abdominal breathing
b. Thoracic breathing
c. Mixed breathing
d. All mentioned above
e. Northing from above
34. If patient’s respiratory rate is 10 per minute he has…:
a. Tachypnea
b. Bradypnea
c. Apnea
d. Polypnea
e. Dyspnea
35. Which of the following conditions is associated with increased vocal fremitus?
a. Pneuomonia
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumothorax
d. Pleural effusion
e. Bronchial asthma
36. Which of the following condition is associated with painfulness of the pleural points?
a. Lobar pneumonia
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Pleural effusion
d. Emphysema
e. Chronic bronchitis
37. What does the general inspection start with?
a. Skin
b. Position in bed.
c. General condition
d. Edemas
e. Joints
38. What kind of posture is observed at the right pleural effusion?
a. Orthopnea
b. On the right side
c. Sitting position fixing the shoulder girdle
d. On the left side
e. Sitting posture bending forward
39. What shape of the chest can be observed at the patient with emphysema?
a. Normosthenic
b. Asthenic
c. Barrel
d. Paralytic
e. "Funnel breast"
40. How is the chest shape changed at the left side pneumothorax?
a. Enlarged left part of the chest
b. Reduced left part of the chest
c. Enlarged right part of the chest
d. Reduced right part of the chest
e. Not changed
41. What type of percussion sounds may you hear over health lung?
a. Tympanic
b. Clear lung
c. Dull
d. Stony dull
e. Resonant.
42. When may you hear hyper-resonant percussion sounds over the lung?
a.
Emphysema,
b.
Pneumothorax,
c.
Above the level of pleural effusion
d.
Large cavity
E.
Everything mentioned above.
43. What pathological condition can produce dull percussion sound?
a.
Pneumonia
b.
Emphysema
c.
Large cavity
d.
Bronchitis
E.
Pneumothorax.
44. What percussion sound is heard of emphysema?
a.
Tympanic
b.
Impaired
c.
Dull
d.
Clear lung
e.
Resonant.
45. What percussion sound is heard of pleural effusion?
a.
Tympanic
b.
Impaired
c.
Dull
d.
Clear lung
e.
Resonant.
46. What percussion sound is heard of the focal pneumonia near root of lung?
a.
Tympanitic
b.
Impaired
c.
Dull
d.
Clear lung
e.
Resonant.
47. What is the first line along which the lower border of the right lung is determined?
a.
Scapular
b.
Paravertebral
c.
Parasternal
d.
Medioclavicular
e.
Axilar anterior
48. What is position of the lower border of the left lung along medioclavicular line?
a.
6th interspace
b.
10th interspace
c.
Not determine
d.
5th interspace
e.
8th interspace
49. What are the causes of increase height of the lung apex?
a.
Pulmonary emphysema
b.
Inflammatory infiltration of the lungs
c.
Pleural effusion
d.
Pleural obliteration
e.
Everything mentioned above.
50. What are the causes of upward displacement of the lower border?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
pulmonary emphysema
pneumosclerosis
abscess
obturation atelectasis
everything mentioned above.
51. When may you hear dull percussion sound over lung?
a Thickened pleura.
b Collapse of lung.
c. Consolidation of lung.
d. Fluid in pleural cavity.
e. Everything mentioned above.
52. What percussion sound is heard of the lobular pneumonia?
a.
Tympanic
b.
Impaired
c.
Dull
d.
Clear lung
e.
Resonant.
53. What percussion sound is heard of acute bronchial asthma?
a.
Tympanitic
b.
Impaired
c.
Dull
d.
Clear lung
e.
Resonant.
54. What percussion sound is heard of collapse of the lung lobe resulting from obstruction of the
bronchus lumen?
a.
Tympanitic
b.
Impaired
c.
Dull
d.
Stony dull
e.
Resonant.
55. What is determined on topographic percussion of the lung?
a.
Position of the height of the lung apex
b.
Lung border mobility
c.
Position of the lower border
d.
Kronig's fields width
e.
All mentioned above
56. What lines is topographic percussion done along?
a.
Scapular
b.
Paravertebral
c.
Parasternal
d.
Medioclavicular
e.
Everything mentioned above.
57. What is the first line along which the lower border of the left lung is determined?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Scapular
Paravertebral
Parasternal
Medioclavicular
Axilar anterior
58. What is position of the lower border of the right lung along medioclavicular line?
a.
6th interspace
b.
10th interspace
c.
7th interspace
d.
5th interspace
e.
Not determine
59. What is the normal height of the lung apex?
a.
6-8 sm
b.
3-5 sm
c.
8-10 sm
d.
5-7 sm
e.
1-2 sm
60. What are the causes of reduced mobility of the lower border?
a.
pulmonary emphysema
b.
inflammatory infiltration of the lungs
c.
fluid in the pleural cavity
d.
pleural obliteration
e.
everything mentioned above.
61. Where is bronchial breath sound formed?
a. in larynx
b. in trachea
c. in bronchus
d. in alveoli
e. in pleural cavity
62. Where is vesicular breath sound formed?
a. in the larynx
b. in the trachea
c. in the bronchus
d. in the alveoli
e. in the pleural cavity
63. Which of the following properties is not appropriate to bronchial breath sound?
a.
b.
c.
d.
E.
Heard over trachea and major bronchi
Loud and rough
Heard only during inspiration
Sound like “h” heard during inspiration and expiration
Formed in the larynx
64. Which of the following properties is not appropriate to vesicular breath sound?
a.
Heard over trachea and major bronchi
b.
Soft sound
c.
Heard during inspiration and one third of expiration
d.
Sound like “f” heard during inspiration and expiration
E.
Formed in the alveoli
65. When can the weakened vesicular breath sound be heard?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
2nd stage of lobar pneumonia
Acute bronchitis
Large cavity in the lung
Emphysema
Complete atelectasis
66. When can not the weakened vesicular breath sound be heard?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Emphysema
Focal pneumonia
Dry pleurisy
Large cavity in the lung
Pneumosclerosis
67. When can the amphoric breath sound be heard?
a.
Emphysema
b.
lobar pneumonia
c.
Dry pleurisy
d.
Large cavity in the lung
e.
Pneumosclerosis
68. What auscultation phenomenon is heard of the large pleural effusion?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Absent of the breath sound
Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalation
Rough vesicular breath sound
Bronchial breath sound
Weakened vesicular breath sound
69. What auscultation phenomenon is heard of the bronchial asthma?
a.
Absent of the breath sound
b.
Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalation
c.
Rough vesicular breath sound
d.
Bronchial breath sound
e.
Weakened vesicular breath sound
70. What breath sound is heard of the focal pneumonia near root of lung?
a.
Normal vesicular breath sound
b.
Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalation
c.
Rough vesicular breath sound
d.
Bronchial breath sound
e.
Weakened vesicular breath sound
71. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of pneumotorax?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Not change
Became weakened
Became pathological bronchial
Became amphoric
Became rough
72. How vesicular breath sound changed is in case of acute bronchitis?
a.
Not change
b.
Became weakened
c.
Became pathological bronchial
d.
Became amphoric
e.
Became rough
73. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of the 2nd stage of the lobar pneumonia?
a.
Not change
b.
Became weakened
c.
Became pathological bronchial
d.
Became amphoric
e.
Became rough
74. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of emphysema?
a.
Not change
b.
Became weakened
c.
Became pathological bronchial
d.
Became amphoric
e.
Became rough
75 When can the stridor be heard?
a.
Emphysema
b.
Atelectasis
c.
Pleural effusion
d.
Obstruction of the trachea and major bronchi
e.
Pneumosclerosis
76. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of COPD exacerbation?
a.
Not change
b.
Became weakened
c.
Became pathological bronchial
d.
Became amphoric
e.
Became rough with prorogated exhalation
77. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of the 1nd and 3rd stage of the lobar pneumonia?
a.
Not change
b.
Became weakened
c.
Became pathological bronchial
d.
Became amphoric
e.
Became rough
78. How vesicular breath sound is changed in case of the dry pleurisy?
a.
Not change
b.
Became weakened
c.
Became pathological bronchial
d.
Became amphoric
e.
Became rough
79. When can bronchophony be heard?
a.
b.
c.
pulmonary emphysema
lobar infiltration of the lungs
fluid in the pleural cavity
d.
e.
pleural obliteration
Everything mentioned above.
80. What auscultation phenomenon is heard of the complete atelectasis of the lower right lung lobe?
a.
Absent of the breath sound
b.
Vesicular breath sound with prorogated exhalation
c.
Rough vesicular breath sound
d.
Bronchial breath sound
e.
Weakened vesicular breath sound
81. Which adventitious lung sound is formed in alveoli?
a. wheeze
b. moist rales
c. pleural frictional rub
d. crepitation
e. nothing mentioned above
82. Where are buzzing dry rales formed?
a. in the larynx
b. in the trachea and big bronchi
c. in the small bronchi
d. in the alveoli
e. in the pleural cavity
83. Where are moist rales formed?
a.
In the pleural cavity
b.
In the alveoli
c.
In the bronchi and lung cavities
d.
In the bronchi
e.
In the lung cavities
84. What is the main mechanism of the pleural friction rub forming?
a.
Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchus
b.
Storing viscous secretion in the bronchus
c.
Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheets
d.
Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adhering
e.
Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi or lung cavities
85. What is the main mechanism of the moist rales forming?
a.
Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchus
b.
Storing viscous secretion in the bronchus
c.
Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheets
d.
Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adhering
e.
Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi
86. What adventitious lung sounds can be heard at the bronchial asthma?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Crepitation
Pleural friction rub
Wheezes
Moist rales
Nothing from adventitious lung sounds
87. What adventitious lung sound can be heard at the dry pleurisy?
a.
Crepitation
b.
Pleural friction rub
c.
Wheezes
d.
Non-sonorous moist rales
e.
Nothing from adventitious lung sounds
88 The sonorous moist rales are signs of…
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Emphysema
Bronchitis
Pleural effusion
Pneumonia
Bronchial asthma
89. Appearance of the pleural friction rub at the patient with exudative pleurisy is sing of …
a.
Increasing exudate
b.
Obturative atelectasis in the lung collapse region
c.
Decreasing exudate
d.
Pneumothorax
e.
All answers are right depending on clinical situation
90. The sonorous medium bubbling rales can be heard at the patient with…?
a.
Emphysema
b.
bronchiectasis
c.
Acute bronchitis
d.
Pleural effusion
e.
Obturative atelectasis
91. Where is wheeze formed?
a. in the larynx
b. in the trachea
c. in the small bronchus
d. in the alveoli
e. in the pleural cavity
92. Which phenomena are the adventitious lung sounds?
a.
Rales
b.
Crepitation
c.
Pleural friction rub
d.
All mentioned above
e.
Northing mentioned above
93. Where is pleural friction rub formed?
a. in the larynx
b. in the trachea and big bronchi
c. in the small bronchi
d. in the alveoli
e. in the pleural cavity
94. What is the main mechanism of the dry rales forming?
a.
Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchus
b.
Storing viscous secretion in the bronchus
c.
Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheets
d.
Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adhering
e.
Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi
95. What is the main mechanism of the crepitation forming?
a.
Swelling mucous membrane of the bronchus
b.
Storing viscous secretion in the bronchus
c.
Storing viscous secretion over the pleural sheets
d.
Infiltration of the alveolar walls and their saturating with exudate that result in their adhering
e.
Storing liquid secretion in the bronchi or lung cavities
96. What adventitious lung sound can be heard at the 1st stage of lobar pneumonia?
a.
Crepitation
b.
Pleural friction rub
c.
Wheezes
d.
Non-sonorous moist rales
e.
Nothing from adventitious lung sounds
97. What adventitious lung sound can be heard at the pulmonary edema?
a.
Crepitation
b.
Pleural friction rub
c.
Wheezes
d.
Non-sonorous moist rales
e.
Nothing from adventitious lung sounds
98. The buzzing dry rales are sign of…
a.
Emphysema
b.
Bronchitis
c.
Pleural effusion
d.
Pneumonia
e.
Bronchial asthma
99. The non-sonorous moist rales are sign of …
a.
Bronchial asthma
b.
Fibrinous pleurisy
c.
Lobar pneumonia
d.
Exudative pleurisy
e.
All answers are wrong
100. The sonorous coarse bubbling rales can be heard at the patient with…
a.
Emphysema
b.
Chronic abscess
c.
Pleural effusion
d.
Lobar pneumonia
e.
Compressive atelectasis
101. What is a spirometry?
a. Measuring airflow and lung volumes during a forced expiratory maneuver from full inspiration
b. Measuring inspiratory volume
c. Measuring tidal volume
d. Measuring airflow
e. All mentioned above
102. Which parameters can be measured with open spirometry?
a. FEV1, FVC
b. TLC, RAV
c. O2 saturation
d. O2 consumption
e. all mentioned above
103. Which types of the ventilation disorders do you know?
a. obstruction
b. restriction
c. mixed
d. all mentioned above
e. northing mentioned above
104. If patient’s FEV1 is low and FVC is normal, he has…
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Normal lung function
Restriction
Obstruction
mixed disorder
Northing mentioned above
105. If patient’s FVC is low and FEV1 is normal, he has…
a.
Normal lung function
b.
Restriction
c.
Obstruction
d.
mixed disorder
e.
Northing mentioned above
106. What is the lower limit of the normal parameters of lung function?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
100% from predicted
90% from predicted
85% from predicted
80% from predicted
70% from predicted
107. Ratio FEV1/FVC is used for diagnostics of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Severity of lung function disorders
Types of lung function disorders
This ratio is obsolete and now is useless
Patient’s constitution
Northing mentioned above
108. What is a peak flowmetry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Measuring speed of the airflow
Measuring expiratory volume
Measuring inspiratory volume
Measuring vital capacity
Measuring minute volume
109. What is pulse oximetry?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Non-invasive method of estimation O2 saturation
Measuring blood gas (CO2 and O2) pressure
Measuring blood O2 concentration
Method of measuring pulse and respiratory rate
Method of measuring pulse and pulmonary blood pressure
110. What is normal level of the O2 saturation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
75-80%
80-85%
70%
90%
85-90%
111. What is diagnostic indication for bronchoscopy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Suspected lung cancer
Slowly resolving pneumonia
Interstitial lung disease
Pneumonia in the immunosuppressed patients
All mentioned above
112. What is therapeutic indication for bronchoscopy?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
aspiration of mucus plugs causing lobar collapse
removal of foreign bodies
stopping lung bleeding
aspiration purulent copious sputum at the debilitated patient
All mentioned above
113. Which radiologic method of lung examination is routinely used?
a. Computed tomography
b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Bronchography
d. X-ray
e. Nothing from above
114. Which radiologic method of lung examination has the highest level of resolution for
distinguishing the smallest lung structures?
a.
Computed tomography
b.
Magnetic resonance imaging
c.
Bronchography
d.
X-ray
e.
Nothing from above
115 Which method of sputum examination is used for establishing the pathogen of pneumonia?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
General macro- and microscopic
Cytological
histological
Cultural
Northing from above
116. Which method of sputum examination is used for establishing revealing tuberculosis
mycobacterium?
a.
Microscopic with Gram staining
b.
Microscopic with Ziehl-Nielsen staining
c.
Microscopic with Romanovskiy-Himza staining
d.
Microscopic without staining
e.
Macroscopic
117. Which method of sputum examination may help to establish lung cancer?
a.
General macroscopic
b.
Cytological
c.
General microscopic
d.
Cultural
e.
Northing from above
118. How long should be sputum transported to laboratory for bacteriological investigation?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Urgent delivery
Under 1 hour
Under 2 hours
Under 24 hours
Under 24-72 hours
119. Which property could not transudes have?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Light yellow color
Protein 60 g/l
Negative Rivalt test
1-5 leucocytes
2-3 epitheliocytes
120. Which property could not exudates have?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Light yellow color
Protein 60 g/l
Negative Rivalt test
15-20 leucocytes
e.
5-7 epitheliocytes
121. Syndrome of the focal consolidation of the lung tissue can be if patient has:
a.
focal pneumonia;
b.
focal pneumofibrosis;
c.
focal tuberculosis;
d.
lung cancer;
e.
all mentioned above.
122. Syndrome of the lobar consolidation of the lung does not reveal at patient with…
a.
Lobar pneumonia
b.
Infiltrative tuberculosis
c.
Pulmonary embolism with infarction-pneumonia
d.
COPD
e.
Lung cancer
123.At the patient with lobar consolidation at palpation of the chest can be obtained
a.
Amplifying vocal fremitus on the affected side
b.
Weakened vocal fremitus on the affected side
c.
Vocal fremitus does not change
d.
Vocal fremitus is absent
e.
Amplifying vocal fremitus on the health side
124.At the patient with focal consolidation near the root of lung at palpation of the chest can be
obtained
a.
Amplifying vocal fremitus on the affected side
b.
Weakened vocal fremitus on the affected side
c.
Vocal fremitus does not change
d.
Vocal fremitus is absent
e.
Amplifying vocal fremitus on the health side
125.Pathological bronchial breathing is heard at patients with:
a.
focal consolidation
b.
lobar consolidation
c.
pleural effusion
d.
emphysema
e.
acute bronchitis
126.Percussion sound of the lobar consolidation of lung tissue is:
a. tympanic
b. clear
c. resonance
d. dull
e. small dull
127.Auscultation signs of the focal consolidation is:
a.
Vesicular breathing with prorogated exhalation and wheeze
b.
Absent of the any breath sound
c.
Diminished vesicular breathing and sonorous bubbling (moist) rales
d.
Unchanged vesicular breathing
e.
Pathological bronchial breathing
128.Auscultation signs of the lobar consolidation is:
a.
Vesicular breathing with prorogated exhalation and wheeze
b.
Absent of the any breath sound
c.
Diminished vesicular breathing and sonorous bubbling (moist) rales
d.
Unchanged vesicular breathing
e.
Pathological bronchial breathing
129. Obstructive atelectasis can be if patient has:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Lung cancer;
Metastasis into pulmonary lymphonodes;
Foreign body of bronchus;
Tuberculosis of the pulmonary lymphonodes;
all mentioned above.
130. Compressive atelectasis can be if patient has:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Pleural tumor (mesotelioma);
Massive pleural effesion;
Pneumothorax;
Deformation of the chest;
all mentioned above.
131. Percussion sound over massive pleural effusion:
a. tympanic
b. clear
c. resonance
d. dull
e. small dull
132. Percussion sound over pneumothorax:
a.
tympanic
b. clear
c. resonance
d. dull
e. small dull
133. Auscultation signs of pneumothorax:
a.
Diminished vesicular breathing and wheeze
b.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crackles
c.
absent of breath sounds
d.
unchanged breath sound
e.
Pathological bronchial breathing
134. Auscultation signs of massive pleural effusion:
a.
Diminished vesicular breathing and wheeze
b.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crackles
c.
absent of breath sounds
d.
unchanged breath sound
e.
Pathological bronchial breathing
135. If patient has massive pleural effusion vocal fremitus is:
a.
Absent on the affected side
b.
Increased on the affected side
c.
Diminished on the affected side
d.
Normal
e.
Increased on the health side
136. Percussion sound over small pleural effusion:
a.
tympanic
b.
clear
c.
resonance
d.
dull
e.
small dull
137.If patient has small pleural effusion vocal fremitus is:
a.
Absent on the affected side
b.
Increased on the affected side
c.
Diminished on the affected side
d.
Normal
e.
Increased on the health side
138. Which properties does transudate have?
a.
Light yellow color
b.
Protein < 30 g/l
c.
Negative Rivalt test
d.
1-5 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytes
e.
All mentioned above
139. Which properties does not exudate have?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Comparative density < 1,018
Protein > 30 g/l
Positive Rivalt test
10-25 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytes
Yellow color
140. Percussion sound of the focal consolidation of lung tissue is:
a.
tympanic
b. clear
c.
resonance
d.
dull
e. small dull
141.What disease does patient have only dry cough and never sputum at?
а) Acute bronchitis;
b) Dry pleurisy;
c) Bronchoectasis;
d) Cavernous tuberculosis;
e) Pneumonia
142. Test of Rivalt needs for:
a) % contents of lymphocytes
b) Determination of fibrin in pleural fluid
c) Differentiation transudates from exudates
d) Determination of hemorrhagic character of exudates
e) Determination of neutrophiles in pleural fluid
143.Auscultation data of lobar pneumonia at resolution is:
a)
Bronchial breath sounds
b)
Vesicular breath sounds
c)
Amphoric breath sounds
d)
Saccadic breath sounds
e)
crackles
144.Auscultation signs of the focal pneumonia near root of lung is:
a)
Wheeze
b)
Bronchial breath sounds
c)
sonorous bubbling (moist) rales
d)
diminished vesicular breath sounds
e)
Vesicular breath sounds
145.Percussion data of high point of lobar pneumonia is:
a). small dullness
b) dullness
c) clear
d) resonance
e) small dullness with tympanic tinge.
146. Pneumonia is an inflammatory process that affects:
a)
Bronchi and never alveoli or pleura
b)
only alveoli and never bronchi
c)
only pleura and bronchi
d)
alveoli and pleura, can spread from bronchi
e)
only interstitial tissue and pleura
147.Which of the following characteristics is not typical of pleuritic chest pain?
a) Increases with deep breathing
b) Radiates to the jaw
c) Is located laterally
d) Diminishes with splinting of the affected side
e) Increases with cough
148. Which of the following may cause an increase in vocal resonance?
a) Emphysema
b) asthma
c) pneumonia
d) atelectasis
e) dry pleurisy
149. Percussion sound over fluid at the patient with massive exudative pleurisy is:
a)
Dull
b)
Tympanic
c)
Resonant
d)
Small dull
e)
Clear
150. Auscultation data at patient with dry pleurisy:
a)
Diminished vesicular breathing and crackles
b)
Diminished vesicular breathing and moist rales
c)
Bronchial breathing
d)
Rough vesicular breathing and dry rales
e)
Diminished vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub
151. Auscultation data at patient with high point stage of the lobar CAP is:
a)
breathing is absent
b)
normal vesicular breathing
c)
bronchial breathing
d)
diminished vesicular breathing
e)
rough vesicular breathing
152.What types of pneumonias do you know?
a)
Community-acquired pneumonia
b)
Hospital pneumonia
c)
Aspiration pneumonia
d)
Pneumonia at immunocompromised patients
e)
All mentioned above
153.At the patient with focal pneumonia near the root of lung at palpation of the chest can be
obtained
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Amplifying vocal fremitus on the affected side
Weakened vocal fremitus on the affected side
Vocal fremitus does not change
Vocal fremitus is absent
Amplifying vocal fremitus on the health side
154. Which syndrome can develop at the patient with central lung cancer?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
emphisema;
pneumotorax;
obstructive atelectasis;
lobar consolidation;
northing from above.
155. Which syndrome can develop at the patient with peripheral lung cancer?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
emphisema;
pneumotorax;
obstructive atelectasis;
lobar consolidation;
northing from above.
156. Auscultation signs of massive exudative pleurisy:
a.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crackles
b.
absent of breath sounds
c.
unchanged breath sound
d.
Pathological bronchial breathing
e.
Diminished vesicular breathing and wheeze
157. Which investigation is obligatory for confirming pneumonia?
a.
Sputum culture
b.
Full blood analysis
c.
X-ray examination
d.
Bronchoscopy
e.
Lung function test
158. Which properties does not transudate have?
a.
Light yellow color
b.
Protein = 30 g/l
c.
Negative Rivalt test
d.
1-5 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytes
e.
All mentioned above
159. Which properties does exudate have?
a.
Comparative density > 1,018
b.
Protein > 30 g/l
c.
Positive Rivalt test
d.
10-25 leucocytes and 2-6 mezoteliocytes
e.
All from above
160. Which investigation is the most informative for confirming lung cancer?
a.
Sputum culture
b.
Full blood analysis
c.
X-ray examination
d.
Bronchoscopy with biopsy
e.
Computered tomography
161. What diseases is the bronchial obstruction syndrome developed at?
a.
Bronchial asthma;
b.
COPD;
c.
d.
e.
Acute obstructive bronchitis;
all mentioned above;
northing from above.
162. What diseases is the syndrome of increased lung airiness developed at?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Lobar pneumonia
Emphysema
Lung cancer
Acute bronchitis
Dry pleurisy
163. What diseases is the respiratory failure developed at?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Lobar pneumonia
Severe COPD
Severe exacerbation of the bronchial asthma
Massive pleural effusion
all mentioned above
164. What symptoms characterize the bronchial obstruction syndrome?
a.
Wheezing, dry cough, tightness in the chest
b.
Cough with sputum, chest pain, fever
c.
Mixed dyspnea, hemoptysis, weakness
d.
Dyspnea, chest pain, palpitation
e.
Dry cough, chest pain, edema
165. What symptoms don’t characterize the bronchial obstruction syndrome?
a.
Wheezing
b.
cough
c.
tightness in the chest
d.
dyspnea
e.
purulent sputum
166.What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with bronchial obstruction?
a.
Amplifying
b.
Decreasing
c.
Absence
d.
Not changed
e.
Change depends on clinical situation
167. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with emphysema?
a.
Amplifying
b. Decreasing
c.
Absence
d.
Not changed
e.
Change depends on clinical situation
168. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with respiratory failure?
a.
Amplifying
b. Decreasing
c.
Absence
d. Not changed
e. Change depends on clinical situation
169. What is the main symptom of the respiratory failure?
a.
cough;
b.
dyspnea;
c.
palpitation;
d.
wheezing;
e.
chest pain.
170. What is the main symptom of the emphysema?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
cough;
expiratory dyspnea;
inspiratory dyspnea;
wheezing;
mixed dyspnea.
171. How is elasticity of the chest changed at the patient with emphysema?
a.
increasing
b.
decreasing
c.
not changed
d.
absence
e.
depend on clinical situation
172. How is elasticity of the chest changed at the patient with respiratory failure?
a.
increasing
b.
decreasing
c.
not changed
d.
absence
e.
depend on clinical situation
173. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with bronchial obstruction?
a.
unchanged
b. dull
c. small box sound
d. tympanic
e. depend on clinical situation
174. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with emphysema?
a.
unchanged
b. dull
c. small box sound
d. tympanic
e. depend on clinical situation
175. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with respiratory failure?
a.
unchanged
b. dull
c. small box sound
d. tympanic
e. depend on clinical situation
176. What are auscultation findings at the patient with bronchial obstruction?
a.
Vesicular breathing with prorogated expiration, wheezing
b.
Diminished vesicular breathing,
c.
Diminished vesicular breathing and moist rales
d.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitation
e.
Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub
177. What are auscultation findings at the patient with emphysema?
a.
Vesicular breathing with prorogated expiration, wheezing
b.
Diminished vesicular breathing,
c.
Diminished vesicular breathing and moist rales
d.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitation
e.
Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub
178. How is spirometry changed at the patient with bronchial obstruction?
a.
Increased FEV1, decreased FVC, FEV1/FVC> 70%
b.
Normal FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%
c.
Decreased FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC <70%
d.
Increased FVC, increased FEV1, FEV1/FVC > 100%
e.
Normal FVC, normal FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%
179. How is spirometry changed at the patient with emphysema?
a.
Increased FEV1, decreased FVC, FEV1/FVC> 70%
b.
Normal FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%
c.
Decreased FVC, decreased FEV1, FEV1/FVC <70%
d. Increased FVC, increased FEV1, FEV1/FVC > 100%
e. Normal FVC, normal FEV1, FEV1/FVC< 70%
180. Which method can help to establish respiratory failure?
a.
bronchoscopy
b.
X-ray
c.
Computer tomography
d.
pulsoxymetry
e.
spirometry
181. Bronchial asthma is a…
a.
Acute inflammatory disease;
b.
Acute infective disease;
c.
Chonic infective disease;
d.
Chonic iinflammatory disease;
e.
northing from above.
182. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a…
a.
chronic inflammatory of trachea and large bronchus
b.
chronic inflammatory of large and medium bronchus
c.
chronic inflammatory of medium, small bronchus with involving lung parenchyma and
vessels
d.
All from above
e.
Northing from above
183. Which symptoms characterize bronchial asthma?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Mixed dyspnea, cough with purulent sputum
Episodic dry cough, tightness of the chest, wheezing
Chest pain with radiation to jaw, inspiratory dyspnea
Permanent expiratory dyspnea, cough
Episodic hemoptysis and dyspnea due to physical effort
184. Which symptoms characterize COPD?
a.
Mixed dyspnea, dry cough, chest pain
b.
Episodic dry cough, tightness of the chest, wheezing
c.
Chest pain with radiation to jaw, inspiratory dyspnea
d.
Permanent expiratory dyspnea, cough, sputum production
e.
Episodic hemoptysis and dyspnea due to physical effort
185. What symptom doesn’t characterize bronchial asthma?
a.
Wheezing
b.
c.
d.
e.
cough
tightness in the chest
dyspnea
purulent sputum
186. What symptom doesn’t characterize COPD?
a.
Wheezing
b.
cough
c.
chest pain
d.
dyspnea
e.
purulent sputum
187. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with COPD?
a.
Amplifying
b.
Decreasing
c.
Absence
d.
Not changed
e.
Change depends on clinical situation
188. What change of vocal fremitus can be at the patient with bronchial asthma?
a.
Amplifying
b.
Decreasing
c.
Absence
d. Not changed
e. Change depends on clinical situation
189. If patient has asthma symptoms 1-2 times in a week, 1 night awaking in a mouth, he
has…
a.
Intermitend asthma;
b.
Mild persistent asthma;
c.
Moderate persistent asthma;
d.
Severe persistent asthma;
e.
depends on clinical situation
190. If patient has asthma symptoms 1-2 times in a day, 1 night awaking in a week, he has…
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Intermitend asthma;
Mild persistent asthma;
Moderate persistent asthma;
Severe persistent asthma;
depends on clinical situation
191. If patient has asthma symptoms 1-2 times in a year, night awaking is absent, he has…
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Intermitend asthma;
Mild persistent asthma;
Moderate persistent asthma;
Severe persistent asthma;
depends on clinical situation
192. If patient has asthma symptoms 8-10 times in a day, every night awaking, he has…
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Intermitend asthma;
Mild persistent asthma;
Moderate persistent asthma;
Severe persistent asthma;
depends on clinical situation
193. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with COPD?
a.
unchanged
b.
dull
c.
small box sound
d.
tympanic
e.
depend on clinical situation
194. How mobility of the lung border is changed at the patient with COPD?
a.
unchanged
b.
limited
c.
increased
d.
became immovable
e.
depend on clinical situation
195. How percussion sound is changed at the patient with mild asthma?
a.
unchanged
b.
dull
c.
small box sound
d.
tympanic
e.
depend on clinical situation
196. What are auscultation findings at the patient with asthma attack?
a.
Vesicular rough breathing with prorogated expiration, wheezing
b.
Diminished vesicular breathing,
c.
Diminished vesicular breathing and moist rales
d.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitation
e.
Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub
197. What are auscultation findings at the patient with COPD?
a.
Vesicular rough breathing
b.
Diminished vesicular breathing with prolongated expiration, wheezing
c.
Diminished vesicular breathing and moist rales
d.
Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitation
e.
Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub
198. How is FEV1 increased after bronchial spasmolytic if patient has reversible obstruction?
a.
>12% from initial
b.
>20% from initial
c.
>25% from initial
d.
30% from initial
e.
10% from initial
199. If patient has permanent expiratory dyspnea during physical effort, FEV1 is 52% from
predicted and FEV1/FVC 55% he has…
a.
Mild COPD
b.
Moderate COPD
c.
Severe COPD
d.
Very severe COPD
e.
Depend on clinical situation
200. If patient has permanent expiratory dyspnea in a rest, FEV1 is 22% from predicted and
FEV1/FVC 45% he has…
a.
Mild COPD
b.
Moderate COPD
c.
Severe COPD
d.
Very severe COPD
e. Depend on clinical situation
201. What are the cardiovascular symptoms?
A. Chest pain, cough, dyspnea, wheezes, haemoptysis.
B. Pain in the heart region, palpitation, intermissions, oedema
C. Headache, dizziness, dysphagia, nausea, vomiting.
D. Pain in the right subcostal region, bitter taste, brown urine, skin itching, jaundice.
E. Back pain, dysuria, ishuria, eyes oedema, weakness.
202. What are the cardiovascular symptoms?
A. Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting
B. Dyspnea, faint (syncope), palpitation, dry cough
C. Cough with rusty sputum, chest pain, dyspnea
D. Swelling abdomen, constipation, melena
E. Oedema, dysuria, haematuria
203. What feature does the pain at angina pectoris have?
A. Be caused by physical extension
B. Duration under 15 minutes
C. Constricting, feeling of heaviness
D. Radiate to the left hand and scapula
E..All mentioned above
204. What feature does not the pain at myocardial infarction have?
A. Prolonged, continuous > 20-30 min.
B. Severe, tight or burning.
C Relief at rest.
D. Does not respond to nitrates.
E. Radiate to both hands, jaws, neck.
205. If patient has heart failure his cough is characterized with
A. appearing at lying position
B. a lot of rusty sputum
C. it is permanent
D. it is loud
E. all mentioned above.
206. If patient has feeling of solitary beats at various intervals it is named
A. exrtasistole
B. palpitation
C. syncope
D. dizziness
E. heart dyspnea
207. If patient has feeling of accelerated and intensified heart contractions onto the chest wall it is
named
A. exrtasistole
B. palpitation
C. syncope
D. heart dyspnea
E. heart pain
208. If patient has a lot of foamy pink liquid sputum it means he has
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic aneurysm dissection
D. all from above
E. Northing from above
209. Which type of dyspnea is observed at the patients with cardiovascular diseases?
A. Expiratory
B. Inspiratory
C. Mixed
D. Changing
E. All mentioned above.
210. What is feature of dyspnea at patient with cardiac asthma attack?
A. Appear at night
B. Accompanying with dry cough
C. Inspiratory
D. Ortopnea position in the bed
E. all mentioned above
211. Which of the following disorders is not likely to be associated with hemoptysis?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pericarditis
E. None of the above
212. What characteristics of edema at patient with heart failure?
A. Asymmetrical on the part of body which patient lies on.
B. Firstly on the face than gradually spreads to body down.
C Firstly on the legs than gradually spreads to body up
D. Hear the heart region
E. Only on abdomen and hands
213. What position does a patient with cardiovascular insufficiency occupy?
A.
. A forced sitting position with the legs let down.
B.
The patient prefers to lie on the affected side.
C.
The patient sits upright or resting the hands on the edge of the table of chair.
D.
A lying position on the side (lateral recumbent position) with the head thrown back and the bent
legs pulled up to the abdomen.
E.
A forced knee-elbow position.
214. What mechanisms are caused by the orthopnoea posture?
A.
Tissue oxygen demand reduce at rest, decreased myocardial ischemia
B.
Re-distribution of blood into the iow extremities, reducing of circulating blood volume,
C.
Decreasing blood volume, decreasing of venous pressure in the lesser circulation, improvement
of gas exchange in the "alveoli-pulmonary capillaries" system, displacement of ascitis fluid
D.
Pericardial layers presses to one another, reduce their movement that decrease irritation of pain
receptors in pericardium
E.
Improvement of diastolic cardiac function
215. What kind of posture is observed at angina pectopis?
A. Upright
B. On the right side with high head of the bed
C. Orthopnoea
D. Sitting posture bending forward
E. Knee-elbow posture
216. What kind of posture is observed at acute left ventricular failure?
A. Upright
B. On the right side with high head of the bed
C. Orthopnoea
D. Sitting posture bending forward
E.
Knee-elbow posture
217. What cardiovascular disease is characterized with constant pale skin color?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Mitral stenosis
C. aortic valve diseases
D Essential hypertension
E. All mentioned above
218. Which of the following conditions is least to produce jugular venous distention?
A. right heart failure
B. Chronic left heart failure
C. Chronic hypoxemia
D. Liver failure
E. circulation insufficiency
219. What kind of cyanosis is usually observed at patient with cardiovascular diseases?
A. Central, warm
B. peripheral, cold
C. peripheral warm
D. Local (near heart region), cold
E. Diffuse warm
220. Which method can we use for establishing edema
A. Visual inspection
B. Palpation
C. weighing patient
D. measuring leg circumstance
E. All mentioned above.
221. The normal pulse rate is:
A.70 – 80 in a min.
B.50 – 70 in a min.
C. 60 – 80 in a min.
D. 80 – 100 in a min.
E. 50-90 in a min
222. Arising condition to cardiac '' humpback'':
A. enlargement of the heart chambers in childhood
B. effusion in the pericardium cavity
C. the thrust of the heart apex against chest wall
D. dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricle
E. adhesion of the parietal and visceral layers of the pericardium
223. Arising condition of pulsated bulging in the jugular fossae:
A. dilation of the ascending part of the aorta
B. hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricle
C. pulmonary hypertension
D. dilation of the aortic arch
E. left atrium dilatation
224. Arising conditions of pulsation in the II interspace to the right of the sternum edge:
A. dilation of the ascending part of the aorta
B. hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricle
C. pulmonary hypertension
D. dilation of the aortic arch
E. left atrium dilatation
225. Arising conditions of epigastric pulsation that increases in deep inspiration:
A. dilation of the ascending part of the aorta
B. pulsation of the abdominal aorta
C. pulmonary hypertension
D. dilation of the aortic arch
E. Left ventricle hypertrophy
226. A normal apex beat is found:
A. in the 5th intercostal space in 1-1,5 cm medially from the left midclavicular line
B. in the 6th intercostal space 0-1 cm medially from the left midclavicular line
C. in the 4th intercostal space on the left midclavicular line
D. in the 5th intercostal space in 1-1,5 cm laterally from the left midclavicular line
E. in the 6th intercostal space on the left left midclavicular line
227. If patient has left ventricle hypertrophy his apex beat sift…
A. leftward
B. downward
C. upward
D. rightward
E. unchenged
228. Apex beat properties is:
A. localization, area, height, strenght (or resistence)
B. area, height
C. height, strenght
D. area, exertion, strength
E. localization, height
229. Area of normal apex beat is:
A. near 2 cm2
B. near 3 cm2
C. near 1 cm2
D. near 1,5 cm2
E. near 4,5 cm
230. The normal right border of the relative cardiac dullness is:
A. 4th interspace 1 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternum
B. 4th interspace 1,5 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternum
C. 4th interspace 2 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternum
D. 4th interspace 2,5 cm laterally of the right edge of the sternum
E. 4th interspace near the right edge of the sternum
231. The normal upper border of the relative cardiac dullness is:
A. 3th interspace at the left parasternal line
B.3th interspace at the right parasternal line
C.2th interspace at the left parasternal line
D.2th interspace at the right parasternal line
E. 4th interspace at the left parasternal line
232. The normal left border of the relative cardiac dullness is:
A. 5th interspace 2,5 cm medially of the left midclavicular line
B. 5th interspace 1,5 cm medially of the left midclavicular line
C.5th interspace 2 cm medially of the left midclavicular line
D.5th interspace 3 cm medially of the left midclavicular line
E. 5th interspace on the left midclavicular line
233. Right border of the relative heart dullness is displaced to the right in case of:
A. Dilation and hyper trophy of the left ventricle
B. Dilation of the left atrium
C. Atelectasis of the left lung
D. Dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricle and/or right atrium
E. Pneumothorax of the right lung
234. Left border of the relative heart dullness is displaced to the left in case of:
A. dilation and hypertrophy of the right ventricle
B. dilation of the right atrium
C. hypertrophy and dilation of the left ventricle
D. dilation of the right ventricle and right atrium
E. dilation of the left atrium
235. The normal right borders of the absolute cardiac dullness:
A. along the left edge of the sternum in 5th interspace
B. along the left edge of the sternum from 4th to 6th rib
C. along the right edge of the sternum from 5th to 6th rib
D. along the right edge of the sternum from 3th interspace
E. along the middle of the sternum between 5th rib
236. The normal upper borders of the absolute cardiac dullness:
A. lower edge of the 3 th rib along left parasternal line
B. lower edge of the 4th rib along left parasternal line
C. lower edge of the 5th rib along left parasternal line
D. lower edge of the 4th rib along right parasternal line
E. lower edge of the 5 th rib along right parasternal line
237. The upper border of the relative heart dullness shift upward in a case of:
A. mitral stenosis
B. aortic stenosis
C. tricuspid regurgitation
D. pulmonary stenosis
E. pulmonary regurgitation
238. Transverse length of the heart in a norm is:
A. 8 – 10 cm
B. 11 – 13 cm
C. 12 – 14 cm
D. 6 – 7 cm
E.15-17 cm
239. The normal width of the vascular bundle is:
A. 4 – 6 cm
B. 5 – 7 cm
C. 6 – 8 cm
D. 2–3 cm
E. 1,5-2,5 cm
240. The normal range of blood pressure is:
А. 120 – 149/70-99 mm. Hg
В. 90 – 159/60 – 109 mm. Hg
С. 80 – 129/50 – 99mm.Hg
D. 100 – 139/60 – 89 mm. Hg
E. 110-149/40-79 mm Hg
241. Where is the mitral valve on the front chest wall projected?
a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum
b. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation
c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulation
d. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulation
e. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation
242. Where is the pulmonary artery valve on the front chest wall projected?
a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum
b. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation
c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulation
d. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulation
e. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation
243. Where is listening point for tricuspid valve?
a. heart apex
b. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternum
c. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternum
d. Base of the xiphoid process
e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum
244. Where is listening point for aortic valve?
a. heart apex
b. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternum
c. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternum
d. Base of the xiphoid process
e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum
245. Which auscultation point coincides with heart valve projection on the chest wall?
a. 1st auscultation point
b. 2nd auscultation point
c. 3rd auscultation point
d. 4th auscultation point
e. 5th auscultation point
246. Which components does the second heart sound consist of?
a. Muscular, valvular and vascular
b. Muscular and valvular
c. Valvular and vascular
d. Valvular, vascular and atrial
e. None of variants
247. What produces the third heart sound?
a. The ventricular systole
b. The closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
c. The vibration of the ventricular diastole
d. The closure of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves
e. The vibration of the ventricular during passive rapid filling
248. Which auscultation points are used for the first sound assessment?
a. 1st and 2nd auscultation points
b. 2nd and 3rd auscultation points
c. 3rd and 4th auscultation points
d. 1st and 3rd auscultation points
e. 1st and 4th auscultation point
249. Which sound follows the long pause?
a. The 1st heart sound
b. The 2st heart sound
c. The 3st heart sound
d. The 4st heart sound
e. Depends on clinical situation
250. What can not be assessed by heart auscultation?
a. Heart rhythm
b. Cardiac index
c. Heart rate
d. Heart sounds
e. Heart murmurs
251. Where is the tricuspid valve on the front chest wall projected?
a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum
b. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation
c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulation
d. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulation
e. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation
252. Where is the aortic valve on the front chest wall projected?
a. 2nd intercostal space to the left of the sternum
b. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 5th right costosternal articulation
c. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 3rd costosternal articulation
d. To the left of the sternum at the level of the 4th costosternal articulation
e. On the sternum midway between 3rd left and 3th right costosternal articulation
253. Where is listening point for mitral valve?
a. heart apex
b. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternum
c. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternum
d. Base of the xiphoid process
e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum
254. Where is listening point for pulmonary artery valve?
a. heart apex
b. 2nd intercostals space right from the sternum
c. 2nd intercostals space left from the sternum
d. Base of the xiphoid process
e. 3rd intercostals space left from the sternum
255. Where is placed Botkin-Erb’s listening point?
a. 2nd intercostal space to the right of the sternum
b. 2nd – 3rd intercostal space to the left of the sternum
c. 3rd – 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
d. 4th – 5th intercostal space to the left of the sternum
e. 3rd – 4th intercostal space to the right of the sternum
256. From which components consists the first heart sound?
a. Muscular, valvular and vascular
b. Valvular, vascular and atrial
c. Valvular and vascular
d. Muscular, valvular, vascular and atrial
e. None of variants
257. When can the forth heart sound be listened?
a. At the beginning of the ventricular systole
b. At the end of the ventricular systole
c. At the beginning of the ventricular diastole
d. At the end of the ventricular diastole
e. At the beginning of the precordial systole
258. Which auscultation points are used for the second sound assessment?
a. 1st and 2nd auscultation points
b. 2nd and 3rd auscultation points
c. 3rd and 4th auscultation points
d. 1st and 3rd auscultation points
e. 1st and 4th auscultation point
259. Which sound follows the short pause?
a. The 1st heart sound
b. The 2st heart sound
c. The 3st heart sound
d. The 4st heart sound
e. Depends on clinical situation
260. What can be assessed by heart auscultation?
a.
Heart rhythm
b.
Heart rate
c.
Heart sounds
d.
Heart murmurs
e.
All mentioned above
261. Loud first sound in the cardiac apex is auscultated in case of:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Myocarditis
C. Myocardial sclerosis
D. Synchronic systole of atriums and ventricles in case of full atrioventricular blockade
E. Mitral regurgitation
262. Weakening of both heart sounds is auscultated in case of:
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Myocarditis
C. Emphysema
D. Myocardiosclerosis
E. All mentioned cases
263. Loud second sound over pulmonary artery is auscultated in case of:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Essential hypertension
D. Aortic insufficiency
E. Regurgitation of the pulmonary artery
264. Loud both heart sounds are heard in case of:
A. Lungs shrinkage
B. Posterior mediastinum tumors
C. Forward inclination of body
D. Fever
E. All mentioned reasons
265. ‘Quail’ rhythm is:
A. The loud ‘flapping’ first sound
B. The loud ‘flapping’ first sound, second sound, opening snap of mitral valve
C. Opening snap of mitral valve
D. The first sound, click and second sound
E. Northing from above
266. Ground of the second sound accent appearance over the pulmonary artery is:
A. High pressure in greater circulation
B. High pressure in the pulmonary circulation
C. High pressure in cava veins
D. All above mentioned
E. Northing from above
267. ‘Gallop’ rhythm can appear in case of:
A. Diffuse myocarditis
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Dilatational cardiomyopathy
D. Heart failure
E. All mentioned variants
268 Splitting of the first sound appears in case of:
A. Asynchronous right and left ventricle contraction
B. Right bundle branch block
C. Bisystolia (systole in 2 portions)
D. All mentioned variants
E. Northing from above
269. Splitting of second sound in pulmonary artery is connected with:
A. High pressure in lesser circulation
B. Asynchronous aortic and pulmonary artery valve closing
C. Breathing
D. All mentioned is true
E. No right answer
270. Presystolic ‘gallop’ rhythm is auscultated in case of:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Tricuspid insufficiency
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Pulmonary insufficiency
E. All above mentioned cases
271. Weakening of the first sound in the cardiac apex is auscultated with:
A. Stenosis of mitral orifice
B. Insufficiency of mitral valve
C. Synchronic systole of atriums and ventricles in case of full atrioventricular blockade
D. Extrasystole
E. Northing from above
272. The Loud second sound over aorta is auscultated in case of:
A. Insufficiency of aortic valve
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Essential hypertension
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Mitral regurgitation
273. The loud first sound over the cardiac apex is auscultated in case of:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Ciliary arrhythmia
C. Full atrioventricular blockade
D. All mentioned cases
E. No right answer
274. The loud second sound over pulmonary artery is auscultated in case of:
A. Emphysema of lungs
B. Chronic obstructive lung disease
C. Pneumosclerosis
D. All mentioned reasons
E. No right answer
275. The loud ‘flapping’ first sound over heart apex is auscultated in case of:
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral insufficiency
C. Aortic stenosis
D. aortic insufficiency
E. Pulmonary artery stenosis
276. Ground of the second sound accent above aorta is:
A. High pressure in greater circulation
B. High pressure in pulmonary circulation
C. High pressure in pulmonary veins
D. All above mentioned
E. Northing from above
277. The first sound in case of ‘gallop’ rhythm is:
A. Intensified
B. Bifurcated
C. Weakened
D. All variants are right
E. No right answer
278. Splitting of the second sound appears more often over:
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Apex
D. Near xiphoid process
E. All mentioned variants
279. Protodiastolic ‘gallop’ rhythm is commonly auscultated in case of:
A. Severe heart failure
B. Essential hypertension
C. Chronic nephritis with hypertensive syndrome
D. Myocardial infraction
E. All above mentioned cases
280. Embryocardia or pendular rhythm appears in case of:
A. High fever
B. Paroxysmal tachycardia
C. Heart failure
D. Severe cardiomyopathy with prolonged systole
E. All mentioned variants
281 What heart diseases listed below can you find organic systolic cardiac murmurs at?
A. mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Pulmonary regurgitation
E. Tricuspid stenosis
282. The best point for hearing the systolic murmurs at aortic stenosis is
A. The heart apex
B. The Botkin – Erb point
C. The second intercostal space, to the right from the breastbone
D. The second intercostal space, to the left from the breastbone
E. On the middle of the breastbone on the level of third rib
283. Anaemic functional murmur is more often:
A. Systolic
B. Diastolic
C. Protodiastolic
D. Presystolic
E. Systola-diastolic
284. Haemodinamical functional murmurs can be auscultated at
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Myocarditis
D. Cardiosclerosis
E. Hypertension disease
285. The pericardial friction pub is better heard
A. On the heart apex
B. on the Botkin-Erb point
C. Above the absolute heart’s dullness zone
D. On heart’s base
E. Near the xiphoid process
286. The pericardial friction rub differs from organic murmurs in that it is
A. More delicate
B. Heard like far away
C. Heard near the ear
D. Always coincide with systole
E. Well radiate to other auscultatic zones
287. Which of the following does not characterized the pericardial friction rub?
A. Never gives any tactile fillings
B. Becomes stronger if patient bends forward
C. Coincidance with systola and diastola
D. Well irradiate to other auscultatic zones
E. Loud
288 Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat purr” in the second intercostal space right from the
breastbone?
A. Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation
B. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
C. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis
D. Diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation
E. Systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation
289. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis irradiates
A. To the heart apex and to Botkin’s point
B. To the left axillary region
C. To the second left intercostal space
D. To the area of xiphoid process
E. To the carotid and subclavical arteries
290. Which functional murmur can be heard at mitral stenosis?
A. Systolic hydremic
B. Systolic hemodynamic
C. Systolic muscular
D. Kumbs’ murmur
E. Graham-Steel murmur
291. What heart diseases listed below can you find organic diastolic cardiac murmurs at?
A. Stenosis of mitral foramen
B. Stenosis of orifice of aorta
C. Mitral valve deficiency
D. Stenosis of lung arteries orifice
E. Tricuspid valve deficiency
292. The best point for hearing the diastolic murmurs at aortic regurgitation is
A. The heart apex
B. The Botkin – Erb point
C. The second intercostal space, to the right from the breastbone
D. The second intercostal space, to the left from the breastbone
E. On the middle of the breastbone on the level of third rib
293. Anaemic murmur is heard better
A. Above the lung artery
B. At Bodkin’s point
C. Above all valve orifices
D. On the apex of the heart
E. Above the aorta
294. How is functional systolic murmur differed from organic one?
A. It is not ruled by periods of breathing
B. Loud, harsh, prolonged
C. Do not change during exercises
D. Do not have irradiative zones
E. Often supported by feeling of systolic “cat purr”
295. The pericardial friction rub usually appears at
A. Uremia
B. Hydropericardium
C. Cardiomegaly
D. Angina pectoris
E. Adhesion of pericardium and pleura
296. Which of the following is not a differential sign between pericardial friction rub from organic
murmur?
A. Become stronger during pressing the chest
B. Becomes weaker if patient bends forward
C. Heard above zones, projections and places of the best auscultation of heart’s vavles
D. Do not coincidance with cardiac periods
E. Never gives tactile sings
297. Which organic murmur gives the filling of “cat purr” on the heart apex?
A. Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation
B. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
C. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis
D. Diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation
E. Systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation
298. Which cardiac murmur gives tactile filling above absolute cardiac dullness that becomes stronger
while bending the body forward?
A. Systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation
B. Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis
C. Systolic murmur of aortic stenosis
D. Diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation
E. Systole-diastolic pericardial friction rub.
299. Which functional murmur can be heard at aortic regurgitation?
A. Systolic hydremic
B. Systolic hemodynamic
C. Flint’s murmur
D. Coombs’ murmur
E. Graham-Steel murmur
300. What are the reasons for Flint’s murmur in aorta valve deficiency
A. Relative mitral regurgitation
B. Relative mitral stenosis
C. Relative aortic stenosis
D. Relative tricuspid regurgitation
E. Relative pulmonary stenosis
301. Which pathological conditions can be confirmed by 2-dimenshional echocardiography?
a. congenital heart disease,
b. left ventricular aneurysm
c. mural thrombus
d. Valve heart diseases
e. All mentioned above
302 .Normal value of ejection fraction is …
a. 60-66%
b. 45-50%
c. 50-55%
d. 66-75%
e. 40-45%
303. If patient has diastolic dysfunction which echocardiographic parameter can confirm it?
a. End systolic volume
b. End diastolic volume
c. Stroke volume
d. Ejection fraction
e. Minute volume
304. Indications for exercise ECG testing are:
a. confirming a suspected diagnosis of IHD
b. Assessment of cardiac function and exercise tolerance
c. Prognosis following myocardial infarction
d. Evaluation of response to treatment
e. All mentioned above
305. Indication for dairy ECG monitoring
a. Symptoms could be related with rhythm disorders
b. Diseases with high risk of fatal arrhythmias and sudden death
c.
Assessing circadian variability of the sinus rhythm at patient with myocardial infarction, heart
failure, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome
d.
Revealing of ischemic disorders (ischemic heart disease)
e.
All mentioned above
306. Doppler echocardiography used for revealing …
a.
flow and gradients across valves and septal defects
b.
left ventricular hypertrophy
c.
ejection fraction
d.
stroke volume
e.
northing from above
307. Normal value of posterior wall thickness in diastole is …
a.
0,8-1,1 sm
b.
0,6-0,7 sm
c.
1,3-1,4 sm
d.
0,4-0,5 sm
e.
1,5-1,6 sm
308.If patient has left ventricular hypertrophy which parameters are changed?
a.
Posterior wall thickness
b.
Ejection fraction
c.
End diastolic volume
d.
Diameter of the interventricular septum
e.
a and d.
309.Contraindication for exercise ECG testing:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Unstable angina
Recent Q wave myocardial infarction (<5day)
Severe aortic stenosis
Uncontrolled arrhythmia, hypertension, or heart failure
All mentioned above
310.Indication for dairy blood pressure monitoring:
a.
Diagnostics of the ‘white coat’ hypertension,
b.
Diagnostics of the border hypertension,
c.
Diagnostics of the symptomatic hypertension
d.
Control of antihypertensive therapy.
e.
All mentioned above
311. How is the first sound changed at the patient with mitral stenosis?
A. Amplified;
B. Diminished;
С. Split;
D. not changed;
E. Depend on clinical situation.
312. How is the second sound changed at the patient with mitral stenosis?
A. increased above the aorta
B. increased above the pulmonary artery;
C. diminished above the aorta;
D. diminished above the pulmonary artery;
E. not changed.
313. What murmur can be heard at the patient with mitral stenosis?
A. pansystolic
B. presystolic;
C. systolic and diastolic;
D. murmur is absent;
E. short systolic
314. What are ECG changes at the patients with mitral stenosis?
A. hypertrophy left atrium
B. hypertrophy of right atrium;
C. hypertrophy of right ventricle;
D. hypertrophy of left ventricle;
E. all mentioned above.
315.
What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with mitral stenosis?
A. right is shift right
B. left is shift left and downward;
C. upper is shift upward;
D. upper is shift upward and right is shift right;
E. borders of the relative heart dullness are not changed.
316. How is the first sound changed at the patient with mitral regurgitation?
A. Amplified;
B. Diminished;
С. Split;
D. not changed;
E. Depend on clinical situation.
317. What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with mitral regurgitation?
A. right is shift right
B. left is shift left and downward;
C. upper is shift upward;
D. right answers A, B, and C;
E. borders of the relative heart dullness are not changed.
318. What murmur at the heart apex can be heard at the patient with mitral regurgitation?
A. systolic
B. diastolic;
C. systolic and diastolic;
D. murmur is absent;
E. depend on clinical situation
319. Which area does the systolic murmur at the patient with mitral regurgitation conduct to?
A. neck vessels
B. axillary region
C. interscapular region
D. Botkin-Erb point
E. does not conduct.
320.
What are the symptoms of decompensated mitral stenosis?
A.
Dyspnea and fatigue,
B.
palpitation,
C.
chest pain,
D.
heamoptysis
E.
All mentioned above
321What are the main causes of aortic regurgitation?
A.
Rheumatic fever,
B.
infective endocarditis, syphilitic aortitis
C.
connective tissue disorders (rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus,
syndrome),
D.
congenital (may be associated with other defects, such as ventricular septal defect),
E.
all mentioned above
322.What are the symptoms of decompensated aortic stenosis?
A.
Dyspnea and fatigue,
Marfan
B.
Palpitation,
C.
Chest pain,
D.
Faintness
E.
All mentioned above
323.How is color of skin changed at patients with aortic valve diseases?
A.
Became bluish
B.
Become reddish
C.
Become yellowish
D.
Became pale
E.
Nothing from above.
324. Capillary pulse is a sign of…
A.
Aortic stenosis
B.
Mitral stenosis
C.
Mitral regurgitation
D.
Pulmonary hypertension
E.
Aortic regurgitation
325. How is blood pressure changed at patient with aortic stenosis?
A.
Systolic increased, diastolic normal
B.
Systolic decreased, diastolic normal
C.
Systolic normal, diastolic increased
D.
Systolic normal, diastolic decreased
E.
Systolic increased, diastolic decreased
326. What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with aortic
regurgitation?
A. right is shift right
B. left is shift left and downward;
C. upper is shift upward;
D. right answers A, B, and C;
E. borders of the relative heart dullness are not changed.
327. How is the first sound changed at the patient with aortic stenosis?
A. Amplified;
B. Diminished;
С. Split;
D. not changed;
E. Depend on clinical situation.
328. How is the second sound changed at the patient with aortic regurgitation?
A. increased above the aorta
B. increased above the pulmonary artery;
C. diminished above the aorta;
D. diminished above the pulmonary artery;
E. not changed.
329.What murmur at the aorta point can be heard at the patient with aortic stenosis?
A. systolic
B. diastolic;
C. systolic and diastolic;
D. murmur is absent;
E. depend on clinical situation
330.Which area is the murmur at the patient with aortic regurgitation conducted to?
A. neck vessels
B. axillary region
C. interscapular region
D. Botkin-Erb point
E. is not conducted.
331.What are the main causes of aortic stenosis?
A.
B.
C.
Senile calcification is the commonest
rheumatic fever,
congenital valve diseases
D.
septic endocarditis.
E.
all mentioned above
332.What are the symptoms of decompensated aortic regurgitation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dyspnea and cough,
Palpitation, heaviness in the heart region
Cardiac asthma attack,
Faintness, dizziness
All mentioned above
333.Carotid dance’ (carotid pulsation) is a sign of …
A.
Mitral stenosis
B.
Pulmonary hypertension
C.
Aortic regurgitation
D.
Aortic stenosis
E.
Mitral regurgitation
334.Systolic ‘cat purring’ is a sign of…
A. aortic regurgitation
B. mitral regurgitation
C. arterial hypertension
D. aortic stenosis
E. mitral stenosis
335.What border of the relative heart dullness is shift at the patient with aortic stenosis?
A. right is shift right
B. left is shift left and downward;
C. upper is shift upward;
D. upper is shift upward and right is shift right;
E. left is shift left.
336.How is the first sound changed at the patient with aortic regurgitation?
A. Amplified;
B. Diminished;
С. Split;
D. not changed;
E. Depend on clinical situation.
337.How is the second sound changed at the patient with aortic stenosis?
A. increased above the aorta
B. increased above the pulmonary artery;
C. diminished above the aorta;
D. diminished above the pulmonary artery;
E. not changed.
338.What murmur at the aorta point can be heard at the patient with aortic regurgitation?
A. systolic
B. diastolic;
C. systolic and diastolic;
D. murmur is absent;
E. depend on clinical situation
339.How is the systolic murmur conducted at patient with aortic stenosis?
A. along the right edge of breastbone;
B. to the Botkin-Erb point;
C. to the vessels of neck;
D. to the lift axillary area;
E. not conducted.
340.What are ECG changes at the patients with aortic stenosis?
A. hypertrophy left atrium
B. hypertrophy of right atrium;
C. hypertrophy of right ventricle;
D. hypertrophy of left ventricle;
E. all mentioned above.
341. Which level of the blood pressure is corresponded to mild hypertension?
A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.
B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.
C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.
D. ≥ 180/≥ 110 mm Hg.
E. ≥155/≥100 mm Hg
342. Risk factors of essential hypertension:
A.
Family history, race (blacks), stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, use of
tobacco, sedentary lifestyle.
B.
Family history, stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, use of tobacco, hepatitis,
sedentary lifestyle.
C.
Family history, stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, cardiac arrhythmia,
sedentary lifestyle.
D.
Stress, obesity, a high intake of saturated fats or sodium, use of tobacco, hepatitis, sedentary
lifestyle.
E.
Family history, race (blacks), cardiac arrhythmia, sedentary lifestyle.
343. What arterial pressure is corresponded to moderate hypertension?
A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.
B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.
C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.
D. ≥ 180/≥ 110 mm Hg.
E. ≥155/≥100 mm Hg
344. What are the pulse properties at patients with arterial hypertension?
A. Hard, intense.
B. Hard.
C. Frequent.
D. Intense, frequent.
E. Arrhythmic, slow.
345. What is the commonest symptom at patients with essential hypertension?
A. Sleep disorders.
B. Headache.
C. Myalgia.
D. Arrhythmia.
E. Edemas
346. How are the heart borders displaced at patient with the 2nd stage of essential hypertension?
A. Shift to the right.
B. Shift to the left.
C. Shift to the left and up.
D. Shift to the right, left and up.
E. Not changed.
347. During auscultation of patients with prolonged arterial hypertension you can hear:
A. Diminished S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.
B. Loud S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.
C. Increased S1 at the apex, and diminished S2 at the aorta.
D. Diminished S1 at the apex and S2 at the aorta.
E. Normal heart sounds
348. ECG sign of the left ventricular hypertrophy:
A. High R at the V3, V4.
B. High R at the V1, V2.
C. High R at the V5, V6.
D. Deep S at the I lead.
E. High R at the III lead.
349. Which organs are considered target at the patients with arterial hypertension?
A. Heart, liver, lungs and brain
B. Liver, brain, kidney, eyes
C. Heart, brain, kidney, eyes, vessels
D. Heart, liver, lungs and kidney
E. Liver, brain, kidney, eyes, heart.
350. Criterions of the ІI stage of essential hypertension:
A. Episodic elevation of BP with cerebral, cardiac and general symptoms without any other signs except
high BP.
B. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting without their failure.
C. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting with their failure (complicated stage)
D. Frequent hypertonic crisis.
E. Lack of effect of the medication treatment.
351. What blood pressure is corresponded to severe hypertension?
A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.
B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.
C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.
D. ≥ 180/|≥ 110 mm Hg.
E. >160/>100 mm Hg.
352. How is color of skin changed at the patient with arterial hypertension?
A. Flush of the face and sclera.
B. Flush of the foot.
C. Flush of the stomach.
D. Flush of the back
E. Flush of the hands
353. What blood pressure is corresponded to isolated systolic hypertension?
A. > 140/< 90 mm Hg.
B. 140-159/90-99 mm Hg.
C. 160-179/100-109 mm Hg.
D. ≥ 180/|≥ 110 mm Hg.
354. How is apex bit changed at patient with prolonged arterial hypertension?
A. Heaving displaced to the right, and resistant.
B. Heaving, displaced to the left, and not resistant.
C. Heaving, displaced to the left, and resistant.
D. Not changed, normal
E. Displaced to the right and not resistant.
355. How are the heart borders displaced at patient with the 1st stage of essential hypertension?
A. Shift to the right.
B. Shift to the left.
C. Shift to the left and up.
D. Shift to the right, left and up.
E. Not changed.
356. During auscultation of patients with hypertonic crisis you can hear:
A. Diminished S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.
B. Loud S1 at the apex, and accented S2 at the aorta.
C. Increased S1 at the apex, and diminished S2 at the aorta.
D. Diminished S1 at the apex and S2 at the aorta.
E. Normal heart sounds
357. Which investigation is the most informative for establishing arterial hypertension?
A. Daily BP monitoring.
B. Daily EKG monitoring.
C. Coronarography.
D. Echocardiography
E. Tredmill test.
358. Criterions of the ІIІ stage of essential hypertension:
A. Episodic elevation of BP with cerebral, cardiac and general symptoms without any other signs except
high BP.
B. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting without their failure.
C. Permanent symptoms and signs of the target organs affecting with their failure (complicated stage)
D. Frequent hypertonic crisis.
E. Lack of effect of the medication treatment.
359. Which diseases can be accompanied with arterial hypertension?
A. Renal diseases
B. Endocrine disease
C. Coarctation of aorta.
D. Nephropathy of pregnancy
E. all mentioned above
360. EchoCG sign of the left ventricular hypertrophy:
A. Widening of the cavity of left ventricular.
B. Widening of the cavity of right ventricular.
C. Widening of the posterior wall of the left ventricle.
D. Widening of the left atrium cavity.
E. Low ejection fraction.
361. What is usual cause of Coronary artery disease?
A. Atherosclerosis.
B. Hepatitis.
C. Tonsillitis.
D. Low serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels.
E. Ulcer of stomach.
362. What are risk factors of development of Coronary artery disease?
A. Hypertension.
B. Smoking.
C. Family history.
D. Obesity.
E. All mentioned above.
363. Angina pectoris may be:
A. Stable.
B. Dangerous.
C. Strong.
D. Delicate.
E. Acute.
364. Pain can be relieved by nitroglycerine during:
A. 1 min.
B. 1-5 min.
C. 15-20 min.
D. 20-30 min.
E. 30-50 min.
365. What electrocardiography changes may show ischemia?
A. Change of T wave.
B. Change of P wave.
C. Change of Q wave.
D. Change of R wave.
E. Change of S wave.
366. Duration of pain at myocardial infarction is…
A. 1-3 min.
B. 10-20 min.
C. More then 30 min.
D. Some days.
E. During week.
367. Where are changes localized at the inferior infarction?
A. І, ІІ, AVL.
B. ІІ, ІІІ, AVF.
C. V1, V2.
D. V4.
E. V5, V6.
368. Duration of the first (acutest stage) of myocardial infarction is…
A. Some first hours – 1 day.
B. 2 day till 2 weeks.
C. Till 2-3 months.
D. Till 6 month.
E. 30-60 min.
369. How long is leukocytosis being increased?
A. Till 1-2 day.
B. Till 12-24 hours.
C. Till 2-3 day.
D. Till 5-th day.
E. Till 7-th day.
370. Duration of the third (subacute stage) of myocardial infarction is…
A. Some first hours – 1 day.
B. 2 day till 2 weeks.
C. Till 2-3 months.
D. Till 6 month.
E. 30-60 min.
371. What are risk factors of the Coronary artery disease developing?
A. High serum cholesterol and triglyceride levels.
B. Sedentary lifestyle.
C. Stress.
D. Diabetes mellitus.
E. All of enumeration.
372. Angina pectoris may be …
A. Delicate.
B. Dangerous.
C. Strong.
D. Unstable.
E. Acute.
373. Which wave is changed in the necrotic zone of myocardial infarction?
A. Change T waves.
B. Change P.
C. Change Q.
D. Change R.
E. Change S.
374. Duration of pain at the angina pectoris:
A. 1-3 min.
B. 5-20 min.
C. More then 30 min.
D. Some days.
E. During week.
375. Where are changes localized at the anterior infarction?
A. І, ІІ, AVL, V1-V3.
B. ІІ, ІІІ, AVF.
C. V1, V2.
D. V4.
E. V5, V6.
376. Duration of the second (acute stage) of myocardial infarction is…
A. Some first hours – 1 day.
B. 2 day till 2 weeks.
C. Till 2-3 months.
D. Till 6 month.
E. 30-60 min.
377. How long is leukocytosis being decreased?
A. Till 1-2 day.
B. Till 12-24 hours.
C. Till 2-3 day.
D. Till 5-th day.
E. Till 7-th day.
378. What chemical parameter is the most informative myocardial infarction marker?
A. Electrolytes.
B. Glucose.
C. Creatinine.
D. Troponine.
E. Cholesterole.
379. Duration of the forth (scarring stage) of myocardial infarction is:
A. Some first hours – 1 day.
B. 2 day till 2 weeks.
C. Till 2-3 months.
D. Till 6 month.
E. 30-60 min.
380. Acute coronary syndromes includes unstable angina and:
A. Stable angina.
B. Myocardial infarction.
C. Myocarditis.
D. Pericarditis.
E. Hypertension attack.
381. Heart failure is an ...
a)
Incompetence of the heart to provide the body’s requirements at blood circulation
during rest
b)
Incompetence of the heart to provide the body’s requirements at blood circulation
during rest and physical activity
c)
Incompetence of the heart to provide the body’s requirements at blood circulation
during physical activity
d)
Incompetence of patient to hold stable level of blood pressure and pulse rate.
e)
Nothing from above
382. Which symptoms characterize RVF?
a)
Nocturia, hepatomegaly, nocturnal cough.
b)
Edema of the lower extremities, hepatomegaly.
c)
Edema of the lower extremities, nocturnal cough
d)
Dyspnea, chest pain, dry cough.
e)
Nothing from above.
383. What symptom does not characterize LVF?
a)
Dyspnea
b)
Orthopnea
c)
Cough
d)
Nocturia
e)
Edema of the lower extremities
384. What are percussion findings at the patients with LVF?
a)
The left border of relative heart dullness drifts left
b)
The right border of relative heart dullness drifts right
c)
The right border of relative heart dullness drifts left
d)
Nothing from above
e)
Depend on clinical situation
385 What are auscultation findings at the patients with heart failure?
a)
Weakened S1 and S2, S3 gallop
b)
Weakened S1 and systolic murmur
c)
Depend on disease which lead to heart failure
d)
Accented S2 over aorta, diastolic murmur
e)
Weakened both sounds
386. What BP does patient with heart failure have?
a)
Systolic BP decreased, narrow pulse pressure
b)
Systolic BP increased, wide pulse pressure
c)
Systolic BP normal, increased diastolic BP
d)
Depend on clinical situation
e)
Nothing from above
387. If patient has dyspnea on ordinary activity, he has…
a)
I functional class of HF
b)
II functional class of HF
c)
III functional class of HF
d)
IV functional class of HF
e)
Nothing from above
388. If less than ordinary activity causes dyspnea at the patient, he hes…
a)
I functional class of HF
b)
II functional class of HF
c)
III functional class of HF
d)
IV functional class of HF
e)
Nothing from above
389. Ejection fraction is used to determinate…
a)
Cause of the LVF
b)
Severity of the LVF
c)
Cardiothoracic ratio
d)
a and b
e)
Nothing from above
400. If patient has ejection fraction 44 % he has…
a)
No heart failure
b)
Mild LVF
c)
Moderate LVF
d)
Severe LVF
e)
Terminal LVF
401. Which symptoms characterize LVF?
a)
Nocturia, hepatomegaly, nocturnal cough.
b)
Dyspnea, chest pain, dry cough.
c)
Dyspnea, orthopnea, nocturnal cough.
d)
Edema of the lower extremities, hepatomegaly.
e)
All from above.
402. What symptom does not characterize RVF?
a)
Edema of the lower extremities
b)
Hydrotorax
c)
Hepatomegaly
d)
Ascites
e)
Dry cough Dyspnea, chest pain, dry cough.
403. What diseases can lead to heart failure?
a)
Arterial hypertension
b)
Valvular heart disease
c)
Myocardial infarction
d)
Cardiomyopathies
e)
All from above
404. What are percussion findings at the patients with RVF?
a)
The left border of relative heart dullness drifts left
b)
The right border of relative heart dullness drifts right
c)
The right border of relative heart dullness drifts left
d)
Nothing from above
e)
Depend on clinical situation
405. What are the lung auscultation findings at the patients with heart failure?
a)
Vesicular breathing, basal rales
b)
Diminished vesicular breathing
c)
Diminished vesicular breathing and crepitation
d)
Vesicular breathing and pleural friction rub
e)
Nothing from above
406. If patient has heart disease, but ordinary activity does not cause dyspnea, he has…
a)
I functional class of HF
b)
II functional class of HF
c)
III functional class of HF
d)
IV functional class of HF
e)
Nothing from above
407. If patient has dyspnea at rest and all activity causes discomfort, he has…
a)
I functional class of HF
b)
II functional class of HF
c)
III functional class of HF
d)
IV functional class of HF
e)
Nothing from above
408. Ecchocardiography:
a)
May indicate the cause of HF
b)
Can confirm the presence or absence of LV dysfunction
c)
Is the less useful than chest X – ray for recognizing HF
d)
a and b
e)
All from above
409. If patient has ejection fraction 37 % he has…
a)
No heart failure
b)
Mild LVF
c)
Moderate LVF
d)
Severe LVF
e)
Terminal LVF
410. If patient has ejection fraction 23 % he has…
a)
No heart failure
b)
Mild LVF
c)
Moderate LVF
d)
Severe LVF
e)
Terminal LVF