Download EMT #11 - Hatzalah of Miami-Dade

EMT #11
1. The first piece of legislation that forced the Department of Transportation to adopt
standards for prehospital emergency care was the:
Your answer:
National EMS Systems Act
National EMT Act
National Highway Safety Act
U. S. Trauma Act
2. Which of the following is NOT a nationally recognized level of EMS training?
Your answer:
EMT-Intermediate
First Responder
EMT-Basic
EMT-Critical Care
3. Specialty centers are important because:
Your answer:
not every patient can afford every hospital
not all patients can be transported to the appropriate facility
it is impossible to match patient needs with hospital resources
receiving facilities have varying capabilities
4. Which of the following is a component of a modern 911 or enhanced 911 system?
Your answer:
the caller's phone number identification
automatic caller location
instant routing of the call
all of the above
5. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the National Registry?
Your answer:
establishing national standards
licensing and certifying EMTs in each state
assisting in evaluating training programs
administering testing materials
6. Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical care provided by the EMT in the
field?
Your answer:
medical director
state EMS authority
local EMS director
agency CEO
7. Which of the following is an example of direct medical control?
Your answer:
conducting chart reviews
designing Continuing Quality Improvement activities
consulting with the physician on radio during an emergency call
developing protocols and standing orders
8. Field interventions that are completed before contacting the medical control physician are
known as:
Your answer:
designated authority
intervener physician protocols
standing orders
indirect medical control orders
9. Which of the following statements is true regarding stress?
Your answer:
it may be caused by a single event
It may be the cumulative result of several events
It exists to some degree in everyone
all of the above
10. A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by irritability, fatigue, and
insomnia is called:
Your answer:
pathogenic depression
clinical depression
social debriefing
burnout
11. Which of the following is a way to manage stress?
Your answer:
solicit support from coworkers
get adequate rest and sleep
get involved in things outside of EMS
all of the above
12. Which of the following is NOT a definition of a critical incident stress debriefing?
Your answer:
It accelerates the normal recovery of rescuers
It provides psychotherapy and psychological treatment
It allows emergency personnel to discuss their feelings
It reduces the impact of a critical event
13. A critical incident debriefing session should take place within_____ following the incident.
Your answer:
1 to 3 days
1 to 2 weeks
1 to 3 hours
3 to 5 days
14. The grief stage characterized by refusing to accept the possibility that something bad has
or is about to happen is:
Your answer:
denial
bargaining
indecisiveness
depression
15. When dealing with patients and family members during the anger stage:
Your answer:
allow them to vent their feelings
understand their anger may be directed at you
don't take their remarks personally
all of the above
16. During the acceptance stage the dying patient:
Your answer:
is without fear and despair
all of the above
is often devoid of feelings
is preparing to face death
17. Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease are known as:
Your answer:
antigens
fungi
pathogens
antibodies
18. Examples of bloodborne disease include all the following EXCEPT:
Your answer:
hepatitis A
hepatitis B
AIDS
syphilis
19. Examples of airborne disease include all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer:
tuberculosis
meningitis
measles
hepatitis A
20. The EMT-B should be concerned about infection-control procedures:
Your answer:
before the incident
during the incident
after the incident
all of the above
21. Appropriate universal precautions include:
Your answer:
using appropriate eye protection
wearing gloves during all patient contact
isolating all body fluids
all of the above
22. Meningitis is spread primarily by which of the following methods?
Your answer:
a sneeze or cough
blood transfusion
a needle stick
eating contaminated food
23. A yearly PPD test is necessary to monitor the presence of which disease?
Your answer:
meningitis
tuberculosis
hepatitis B
AIDS
24. The type of hepatitis transmitted from restaurant workers who fail to wash their hands
before handling food is:
Your answer:
b
d
c
a
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding AIDS?
Your answer:
It is transmitted via most body fluids
EMTs are included in the high-risk group for contracting this disease
It is caused by the HIV virus
All of the above
26. Expressed consent means:
Your answer:
the adult patient is mentally competent
the patient understands the treatment and the risks
the patient agrees to the treatment
all of the above
27. Which of the following would NOT fall under the concept of implied consent?
Your answer:
a 5-year in anaphylactic shock with no parent present
a mentally retarded person having a severe asthma attack
an unconscious diabetic in insulin shock
a diabetic who awakens following oral glucose therapy and refuses transport
28. In order for a patient to refuse care, he or she must:
Your answer:
be mentally competent
be fully informed and understand the risks
sign a release form
all of the above
29. In which of the following situations should the EMT NOT begin resuscitation?
Your answer:
The patient is a terminal cancer patient
the patient refused care before he went unconscious
The family requests no "heroic efforts"
A valid DNR from is presented
30. Negligence is defined as:
Your answer:
lawsuits involving no physical harm
deviating from the standard of care
failing to prove proximate cause
all of the above
31. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of a successful negligence suit?
Your answer:
breach of duty
proximate cause
duty to act
unlawful consent
32. In which of the following cases does the EMT ALWAYS have a duty to act?
Your answer:
on duty at the station dispatched to a call
off duty at home and a call comes in
driving by an accident on the way home from work
driving the ambulance outside of your district
33. Immediately following placing their patient onto the hospital stretcher, the dispatcher
alerts the EMTB crew to hurry as another call is waiting. No nurse is available to formally
transfer their patient and give report so they leave the patient in the room and respond to
the next emergency. In the meantime, the patient somehow falls out of the stretcher and
fractures her hip on the floor: Who is responsible?
Your answer:
the nurse manager
the ED physician
the EMT crew
none of the above
34. Laws that protect health-care workers from liability in the event they stop and render
roadside care are known as:
Your answer:
Bystander laws
Negligence laws
Good Samaritan laws
Delegation of Authority laws
35. In which of the following cases should an EMT NOT release patient information?
Your answer:
The patient signs a written release
An attorney requests information over the phone
The quality improvement committee requests it
The insurance company requires it
36. Which of the following does NOT describe normal anatomical position?
Your answer:
standing erect
arms at the sides
palms downward
facing forward
37. A patient who is found lying on his back is said to be:
Your answer:
supine
directly recumbent
prone
in the Fowler's position
38. Your patient has a bruise on the lateral surface of his right thigh. The bruise is found:
Your answer:
on the inside of his leg
on the back of his leg
on the outside of his leg
none of the above
39. The mid-axillary line extends from the:
Your answer:
nipples to the pelvis
larynx to the navel
shoulders to the palms
armpit to the ankle
40. The terms that refer to the front of the body are:
Your answer:
posterior/ventral
posterior/dorsal
anterior/ventral
anterior/dorsal
41. Which of the following organs is inferior to the heart?
Your answer:
stomach
right humerus
left lung
larynx
42. the elbow is comprised of the:
Your answer:
proximal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna
distal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna
proximal humerus and the distal radius/ulna
distal humerus and the distal radius/ulna
43. The function of the musculoskeletal system is to:
Your answer:
give the body shape
protect vital internal organs
provide for body movement
all of the above
44. The cheekbones are also known as:
Your answer:
mandible
maxilla
occipital bones
zygomatic bones
45. The spinal column is made up of ______ vertebrae.
Your answer:
36
28
33
30
46. Which of the following is NOT a part of the sternum?
Your answer:
body
xiphoid process
zygoma
manubrium
47. The superior pelvic bone that can be felt near the waist is the:
Your answer:
ischium
pubis
ilium
acetabulum
48. The head of the femur fits into the:
Your answer:
acetabulum
zygomatic arch
femoral notch
patellar joint
49. The "shinbone" is know as the:
Your answer:
tibia
calcaneus
fibula
femur
50. The lateral malleolus is another name for the:
Your answer:
inner ankle
outer knee
inner knee
outer ankle
Answers: EMT #11
1. The first piece of legislation that forced the Department of Transportation to adopt
standards for prehospital emergency care was the:
Your answer: National Highway Safety Act
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
CORRECT!
Which of the following is NOT a nationally recognized level of EMS training?
Your answer: EMT-Critical Care
CORRECT!
Specialty centers are important because:
Your answer: receiving facilities have varying capabilities
CORRECT!
Which of the following is a component of a modern 911 or enhanced 911 system?
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the National Registry?
Your answer: licensing and certifying EMTs in each state
CORRECT!
Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical care provided by the EMT in the field?
Your answer: medical director
CORRECT!
Which of the following is an example of direct medical control?
Your answer: consulting with the physician on radio during an emergency call
CORRECT!
Field interventions that are completed before contacting the medical control physician are known
as:
Your answer: standing orders
CORRECT!
Which of the following statements is true regarding stress?
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by irritability, fatigue, and insomnia is
called:
Your answer: burnout
CORRECT!
Which of the following is a way to manage stress?
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
Which of the following is NOT a definition of a critical incident stress debriefing?
Your answer: It provides psychotherapy and psychological treatment
CORRECT!
A critical incident debriefing session should take place within_____ following the incident.
Your answer: 1 to 3 days
CORRECT!
14. The grief stage characterized by refusing to accept the possibility that something bad has or is
about to happen is:
Your answer: denial
CORRECT!
15. When dealing with patients and family members during the anger stage:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
16. During the acceptance stage the dying patient:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
17. Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease are known as:
Your answer: pathogens
CORRECT!
18. Examples of bloodborne disease include all the following EXCEPT:
Your answer: hepatitis A
CORRECT!
19. Examples of airborne disease include all of the following EXCEPT:
Your answer: hepatitis A
CORRECT!
20. The EMT-B should be concerned about infection-control procedures:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
21. Appropriate universal precautions include:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
22. Meningitis is spread primarily by which of the following methods?
Your answer: a sneeze or cough
CORRECT!
23. A yearly PPD test is necessary to monitor the presence of which disease?
Your answer: tuberculosis
CORRECT!
24. The type of hepatitis transmitted from restaurant workers who fail to wash their hands before
handling food is:
Your answer: a
CORRECT!
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding AIDS?
Your answer: All of the above
CORRECT!
26. Expressed consent means:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
27. Which of the following would NOT fall under the concept of implied consent?
Your answer: a diabetic who awakens following oral glucose therapy and refuses transport
CORRECT!
28. In order for a patient to refuse care, he or she must:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
29. In which of the following situations should the EMT NOT begin resuscitation?
Your answer: A valid DNR from is presented
CORRECT!
30. Negligence is defined as:
Your answer: deviating from the standard of care
CORRECT!
31. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of a successful negligence suit?
Your answer: unlawful consent
CORRECT!
32. In which of the following cases does the EMT ALWAYS have a duty to act?
Your answer: on duty at the station dispatched to a call
CORRECT!
33. Immediately following placing their patient onto the hospital stretcher, the dispatcher alerts the
EMTB crew to hurry as another call is waiting. No nurse is available to formally transfer their
patient and give report so they leave the patient in the room and respond to the next emergency.
Your answer: the EMT crew
CORRECT!
34. Laws that protect health-care workers from liability in the event they stop and render roadside care
are known as:
Your answer: Good Samaritan laws
CORRECT!
35. In which of the following cases should an EMT NOT release patient information?
Your answer: An attorney requests information over the phone
CORRECT!
36. Which of the following does NOT describe normal anatomical position?
Your answer: palms downward
CORRECT!
37. A patient who is found lying on his back is said to be:
Your answer: supine
CORRECT!
38. Your patient has a bruise on the lateral surface of his right thigh. The bruise is found:
Your answer: on the outside of his leg
CORRECT!
39. The mid-axillary line extends from the:
Your answer: armpit to the ankle
CORRECT!
40. The terms that refer to the front of the body are:
Your answer: anterior/ventral
CORRECT!
41. Which of the following organs is inferior to the heart?
Your answer: stomach
CORRECT!
42. the elbow is comprised of the:
Your answer: distal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna
CORRECT!
43. The function of the musculoskeletal system is to:
Your answer: all of the above
CORRECT!
44. The cheekbones are also known as:
Your answer: zygomatic bones
CORRECT!
45. The spinal column is made up of ______ vertebrea.
Your answer: 33
CORRECT!
46. Which of the following is NOT a part of the sternum?
Your answer: zygoma
CORRECT!
47. The superior pelvic bone that can be felt near the waist is the:
Your answer: ilium
CORRECT!
48. The head of the femur fits into the:
Your answer: acetabulum
CORRECT!
49. The "shinbone" is know as the:
Your answer: tibia
CORRECT!
50. The lateral malleolus is another name for the:
Your answer: outer ankle
CORRECT!