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EMT #11 1. The first piece of legislation that forced the Department of Transportation to adopt standards for prehospital emergency care was the: Your answer: National EMS Systems Act National EMT Act National Highway Safety Act U. S. Trauma Act 2. Which of the following is NOT a nationally recognized level of EMS training? Your answer: EMT-Intermediate First Responder EMT-Basic EMT-Critical Care 3. Specialty centers are important because: Your answer: not every patient can afford every hospital not all patients can be transported to the appropriate facility it is impossible to match patient needs with hospital resources receiving facilities have varying capabilities 4. Which of the following is a component of a modern 911 or enhanced 911 system? Your answer: the caller's phone number identification automatic caller location instant routing of the call all of the above 5. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the National Registry? Your answer: establishing national standards licensing and certifying EMTs in each state assisting in evaluating training programs administering testing materials 6. Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical care provided by the EMT in the field? Your answer: medical director state EMS authority local EMS director agency CEO 7. Which of the following is an example of direct medical control? Your answer: conducting chart reviews designing Continuing Quality Improvement activities consulting with the physician on radio during an emergency call developing protocols and standing orders 8. Field interventions that are completed before contacting the medical control physician are known as: Your answer: designated authority intervener physician protocols standing orders indirect medical control orders 9. Which of the following statements is true regarding stress? Your answer: it may be caused by a single event It may be the cumulative result of several events It exists to some degree in everyone all of the above 10. A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by irritability, fatigue, and insomnia is called: Your answer: pathogenic depression clinical depression social debriefing burnout 11. Which of the following is a way to manage stress? Your answer: solicit support from coworkers get adequate rest and sleep get involved in things outside of EMS all of the above 12. Which of the following is NOT a definition of a critical incident stress debriefing? Your answer: It accelerates the normal recovery of rescuers It provides psychotherapy and psychological treatment It allows emergency personnel to discuss their feelings It reduces the impact of a critical event 13. A critical incident debriefing session should take place within_____ following the incident. Your answer: 1 to 3 days 1 to 2 weeks 1 to 3 hours 3 to 5 days 14. The grief stage characterized by refusing to accept the possibility that something bad has or is about to happen is: Your answer: denial bargaining indecisiveness depression 15. When dealing with patients and family members during the anger stage: Your answer: allow them to vent their feelings understand their anger may be directed at you don't take their remarks personally all of the above 16. During the acceptance stage the dying patient: Your answer: is without fear and despair all of the above is often devoid of feelings is preparing to face death 17. Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease are known as: Your answer: antigens fungi pathogens antibodies 18. Examples of bloodborne disease include all the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hepatitis A hepatitis B AIDS syphilis 19. Examples of airborne disease include all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: tuberculosis meningitis measles hepatitis A 20. The EMT-B should be concerned about infection-control procedures: Your answer: before the incident during the incident after the incident all of the above 21. Appropriate universal precautions include: Your answer: using appropriate eye protection wearing gloves during all patient contact isolating all body fluids all of the above 22. Meningitis is spread primarily by which of the following methods? Your answer: a sneeze or cough blood transfusion a needle stick eating contaminated food 23. A yearly PPD test is necessary to monitor the presence of which disease? Your answer: meningitis tuberculosis hepatitis B AIDS 24. The type of hepatitis transmitted from restaurant workers who fail to wash their hands before handling food is: Your answer: b d c a 25. Which of the following statements is true regarding AIDS? Your answer: It is transmitted via most body fluids EMTs are included in the high-risk group for contracting this disease It is caused by the HIV virus All of the above 26. Expressed consent means: Your answer: the adult patient is mentally competent the patient understands the treatment and the risks the patient agrees to the treatment all of the above 27. Which of the following would NOT fall under the concept of implied consent? Your answer: a 5-year in anaphylactic shock with no parent present a mentally retarded person having a severe asthma attack an unconscious diabetic in insulin shock a diabetic who awakens following oral glucose therapy and refuses transport 28. In order for a patient to refuse care, he or she must: Your answer: be mentally competent be fully informed and understand the risks sign a release form all of the above 29. In which of the following situations should the EMT NOT begin resuscitation? Your answer: The patient is a terminal cancer patient the patient refused care before he went unconscious The family requests no "heroic efforts" A valid DNR from is presented 30. Negligence is defined as: Your answer: lawsuits involving no physical harm deviating from the standard of care failing to prove proximate cause all of the above 31. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of a successful negligence suit? Your answer: breach of duty proximate cause duty to act unlawful consent 32. In which of the following cases does the EMT ALWAYS have a duty to act? Your answer: on duty at the station dispatched to a call off duty at home and a call comes in driving by an accident on the way home from work driving the ambulance outside of your district 33. Immediately following placing their patient onto the hospital stretcher, the dispatcher alerts the EMTB crew to hurry as another call is waiting. No nurse is available to formally transfer their patient and give report so they leave the patient in the room and respond to the next emergency. In the meantime, the patient somehow falls out of the stretcher and fractures her hip on the floor: Who is responsible? Your answer: the nurse manager the ED physician the EMT crew none of the above 34. Laws that protect health-care workers from liability in the event they stop and render roadside care are known as: Your answer: Bystander laws Negligence laws Good Samaritan laws Delegation of Authority laws 35. In which of the following cases should an EMT NOT release patient information? Your answer: The patient signs a written release An attorney requests information over the phone The quality improvement committee requests it The insurance company requires it 36. Which of the following does NOT describe normal anatomical position? Your answer: standing erect arms at the sides palms downward facing forward 37. A patient who is found lying on his back is said to be: Your answer: supine directly recumbent prone in the Fowler's position 38. Your patient has a bruise on the lateral surface of his right thigh. The bruise is found: Your answer: on the inside of his leg on the back of his leg on the outside of his leg none of the above 39. The mid-axillary line extends from the: Your answer: nipples to the pelvis larynx to the navel shoulders to the palms armpit to the ankle 40. The terms that refer to the front of the body are: Your answer: posterior/ventral posterior/dorsal anterior/ventral anterior/dorsal 41. Which of the following organs is inferior to the heart? Your answer: stomach right humerus left lung larynx 42. the elbow is comprised of the: Your answer: proximal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna distal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna proximal humerus and the distal radius/ulna distal humerus and the distal radius/ulna 43. The function of the musculoskeletal system is to: Your answer: give the body shape protect vital internal organs provide for body movement all of the above 44. The cheekbones are also known as: Your answer: mandible maxilla occipital bones zygomatic bones 45. The spinal column is made up of ______ vertebrae. Your answer: 36 28 33 30 46. Which of the following is NOT a part of the sternum? Your answer: body xiphoid process zygoma manubrium 47. The superior pelvic bone that can be felt near the waist is the: Your answer: ischium pubis ilium acetabulum 48. The head of the femur fits into the: Your answer: acetabulum zygomatic arch femoral notch patellar joint 49. The "shinbone" is know as the: Your answer: tibia calcaneus fibula femur 50. The lateral malleolus is another name for the: Your answer: inner ankle outer knee inner knee outer ankle Answers: EMT #11 1. The first piece of legislation that forced the Department of Transportation to adopt standards for prehospital emergency care was the: Your answer: National Highway Safety Act 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. CORRECT! Which of the following is NOT a nationally recognized level of EMS training? Your answer: EMT-Critical Care CORRECT! Specialty centers are important because: Your answer: receiving facilities have varying capabilities CORRECT! Which of the following is a component of a modern 911 or enhanced 911 system? Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the National Registry? Your answer: licensing and certifying EMTs in each state CORRECT! Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for medical care provided by the EMT in the field? Your answer: medical director CORRECT! Which of the following is an example of direct medical control? Your answer: consulting with the physician on radio during an emergency call CORRECT! Field interventions that are completed before contacting the medical control physician are known as: Your answer: standing orders CORRECT! Which of the following statements is true regarding stress? Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by irritability, fatigue, and insomnia is called: Your answer: burnout CORRECT! Which of the following is a way to manage stress? Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! Which of the following is NOT a definition of a critical incident stress debriefing? Your answer: It provides psychotherapy and psychological treatment CORRECT! A critical incident debriefing session should take place within_____ following the incident. Your answer: 1 to 3 days CORRECT! 14. The grief stage characterized by refusing to accept the possibility that something bad has or is about to happen is: Your answer: denial CORRECT! 15. When dealing with patients and family members during the anger stage: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 16. During the acceptance stage the dying patient: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 17. Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease are known as: Your answer: pathogens CORRECT! 18. Examples of bloodborne disease include all the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hepatitis A CORRECT! 19. Examples of airborne disease include all of the following EXCEPT: Your answer: hepatitis A CORRECT! 20. The EMT-B should be concerned about infection-control procedures: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 21. Appropriate universal precautions include: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 22. Meningitis is spread primarily by which of the following methods? Your answer: a sneeze or cough CORRECT! 23. A yearly PPD test is necessary to monitor the presence of which disease? Your answer: tuberculosis CORRECT! 24. The type of hepatitis transmitted from restaurant workers who fail to wash their hands before handling food is: Your answer: a CORRECT! 25. Which of the following statements is true regarding AIDS? Your answer: All of the above CORRECT! 26. Expressed consent means: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 27. Which of the following would NOT fall under the concept of implied consent? Your answer: a diabetic who awakens following oral glucose therapy and refuses transport CORRECT! 28. In order for a patient to refuse care, he or she must: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 29. In which of the following situations should the EMT NOT begin resuscitation? Your answer: A valid DNR from is presented CORRECT! 30. Negligence is defined as: Your answer: deviating from the standard of care CORRECT! 31. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of a successful negligence suit? Your answer: unlawful consent CORRECT! 32. In which of the following cases does the EMT ALWAYS have a duty to act? Your answer: on duty at the station dispatched to a call CORRECT! 33. Immediately following placing their patient onto the hospital stretcher, the dispatcher alerts the EMTB crew to hurry as another call is waiting. No nurse is available to formally transfer their patient and give report so they leave the patient in the room and respond to the next emergency. Your answer: the EMT crew CORRECT! 34. Laws that protect health-care workers from liability in the event they stop and render roadside care are known as: Your answer: Good Samaritan laws CORRECT! 35. In which of the following cases should an EMT NOT release patient information? Your answer: An attorney requests information over the phone CORRECT! 36. Which of the following does NOT describe normal anatomical position? Your answer: palms downward CORRECT! 37. A patient who is found lying on his back is said to be: Your answer: supine CORRECT! 38. Your patient has a bruise on the lateral surface of his right thigh. The bruise is found: Your answer: on the outside of his leg CORRECT! 39. The mid-axillary line extends from the: Your answer: armpit to the ankle CORRECT! 40. The terms that refer to the front of the body are: Your answer: anterior/ventral CORRECT! 41. Which of the following organs is inferior to the heart? Your answer: stomach CORRECT! 42. the elbow is comprised of the: Your answer: distal humerus and the proximal radius/ulna CORRECT! 43. The function of the musculoskeletal system is to: Your answer: all of the above CORRECT! 44. The cheekbones are also known as: Your answer: zygomatic bones CORRECT! 45. The spinal column is made up of ______ vertebrea. Your answer: 33 CORRECT! 46. Which of the following is NOT a part of the sternum? Your answer: zygoma CORRECT! 47. The superior pelvic bone that can be felt near the waist is the: Your answer: ilium CORRECT! 48. The head of the femur fits into the: Your answer: acetabulum CORRECT! 49. The "shinbone" is know as the: Your answer: tibia CORRECT! 50. The lateral malleolus is another name for the: Your answer: outer ankle CORRECT!