Download Brock Biology of Microorganisms, 11e (Madigan/Martinko)

Chapter 12: Prokaryotic Diversity: Bacteria
1) Which of the following groups does not include anaerobic phototrophs?
A) Green sulfur bacteria
B) Purple sulfur bacteria
C) Purple non-sulfur bacteria
D) Cyanobacteria
Answer: D
2) The site of nitrogen fixation in most of the cyanobacteria is the
A) akinete.
B) heterocyst.
C) hormogonium.
D) vegetative cell.
Answer: B
3) Consider ammonia oxidation by nitrifying bacteria. Which of the following is incorrect regarding this
process?
A) The oxidation occurs best in waters that receive inputs of sewage or other wastewaters.
B) The actual substrate is NH4+.
C) The initial step involves an ammonia monooxygenase.
D) The energy yielding steps occur after the hydroxylamine oxidation stage.
Answer: B
4) Methanotrophs
A) are widespread in nature.
B) are able to oxidize ammonia.
C) have been found living as symbionts of marine shellfish on the sea floor.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
5) Which of the following characterizes the actinomycetes?
A) Filamentous growth
B) Conidia on aerial hyphae
C) Common inhabitant of soil
D) All of the above
Answer: D
6) Which of the following might be found in the cyanobacteria?
A) Gas vesicles
B) Phycobilins
C) Akinetes
D) All of the above
Answer: D
7) Which of the following would not aid in the enrichment of the sulfate reducers which are widely
distributed in nature?
A) Lactate-sulfate medium
B) Incubation under aerobic conditions
C) Ascorbate or thioglycollate
D) Ferrous iron
Answer: B
8) Which of the following gliding bacteria form(s) fruiting bodies?
A) Beggiatoa
B) Myxococcus
C) Cytophagia
D) All of the above form fruiting bodies
Answer: B
9) Members of the genus Pseudomonas
A) may have fluorescent pigments.
B) usually have peritrichous flagella.
C) are gram-positive rods.
D) tend to cause mild (rather than serious) infections in humans.
Answer: A
10) A certain culture of nitrogen-fixing, free-living bacteria is composed of large gram-negative rods that
form resting structures called cysts, and is usually found in nature in neutral and alkaline soils. Its genus name
is
A) Azomonas.
B) Azotobacter.
C) Azospirillum.
D) Derxia.
Answer: B
11) Which of the following is not a trait of the rickettsias?
A) Obligate intracellular parasite
B) Lack cell wall
C) Contain both RNA and DNA
D) Metabolically active
Answer: B
12) Which of the following is not a trait of the chlamydias?
A) Contain both DNA and RNA
B) Transmitted by arthropod vectors
C) Have limited biosynthetic capacities
D) Obligately parasitic bacteria
Answer: B
13) Which of the following are traits of Mycobacterium?
A) Acid-fast
B) Gram-positive
C) May be divided into slow growers and fast growers
D) All of the above
Answer: D
14) Molybdenum is an integral part of which of the following enzymes?
A) Nitrate reductase
B) Nitrogenase
C) Carbon monoxide dehydrogenase
D) All of the above
Answer: D
15) Type I methanotrophs
A) are obligate aerobes.
B) possess bundles of disc-shaped vesicles in internal membranes.
C) have an incomplete citric acid cycle.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
16) Which of the following genera of spirochetes do not include any known human pathogens?
A) Cristispira
B) Treponema
C) Borrelia
D) Leptospira
Answer: A
17) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the myxobacteria?
A) Vegetative cells are gram-negative.
B) The organisms may be readily isolated from soil/bark on nutrient-rich agar.
C) The mounding of cells after aggregation leads to fruiting body formation.
D) Myxospores are fairly resistant to heating and drying.
Answer: B
18) A gram-negative, oxidase negative, microaerophilic, polar flagellated microbe that ferments sugars to
ethanol and is tolerant of a low pH is probably a(n)
A) Zymomonas.
B) Acetobacter.
C) Gluconobacter.
D) Vibrio.
Answer: A
19) When glucose is fermented, a particular bacterium produces acetic acid, succinic acid, lactic acid,
ethanol, and equal volumes of CO2 and H2. This bacterium is probably a(n)
A) Proteus.
B) Escherichia.
C) Klebsiella.
D) Enterobacter.
Answer: B
20) A gram-positive microorganism has the following traits: filamentous, forms spores at the end of mycelia,
produces antibiotics, produces geosmin, is nutritionally versatile, yields compact "dusty" colonies on agar
culture media. These traits describe the genus
A) Streptomyces.
B) Streptobacillus.
C) Mycobacterium.
D) Lactobacillus.
Answer: A
21) Which genus is characterized by these traits: gram-negative, straight or slightly curved rod, polar
flagella, respiratory and fermentative metabolism, some lithotrophic members?
A) Saccharomyces
B) Beijerinckia
C) Pseudomonas
D) Serratia
Answer: C
22) The most ancient phylum from a phylogenetic standpoint contains the genus
A) Rhodospirillum
B) Escherichia
C) Propionibacterium
D) Aquifex
Answer: D
23) What is the organism that led Winogradsky to formulate the concept of chemolithotrophy?
A) Spirilla
B) Beggiatoa
C) Bdellovibrio
D) Desulfotomaculum
Answer: B
24) What is a major distinction between the hydrogen chemolithotrophs and many sulfur chemolithotrophs
and nitrifying bacteria?
A) Hydrogen chemolithotrophs are anaerobes, while the sulfur chemolithotrophs and nitrifying bacteria are
aerobes.
B) Hydrogen chemolithotrophs cannot be cultured in vitro, while the sulfur chemolithotrophs and nitrifying
bacteria can easily be cultured.
C) Hydrogen chemolithotrophs are almost all facultative chemolithotrophs, while the sulfur
chemolithotrophs and nitrifying bacteria are nearly all obligate chemolithotrophs.
D) Hydrogen chemolithotrophs are found in dry environments, while sulfur chemolithotrophs and nitrifying
bacteria are found in aquatic environments.
Answer: C
25) Scientists studying bioremediation oftentimes search for environmental strains of which genus of
microorganism that is capable of breaking down toxic chemicals?
A) Pseudomonas
B) Staphylococcus
C) Bacillus
D) Clostridium
Answer: A
26) Which of the following organisms does not produce prosthecae?
A) Caulobacter
B) Hyphomicrobium
C) Leptothrix
D) Gallionella
Answer: C
27) The virulence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis has been correlated which what component?
A) Mycolic acid
B) Conidia
C) Cord factor
D) Heterocysts
Answer: C
28) In which habitat would you find organisms that produce geosmin?
A) Soil
B) Fresh water
C) Marine environments
D) Hydrothermal vents
Answer: A
29) Which is the earliest known phototrophic bacterium?
A) Heliothrix
B) Rhodobacter
C) Halorhodospira
D) Chloroflexus
Answer: D
30) Organisms which use only compounds with a single carbon atom for growth are called methylotrophs.
Answer: TRUE
31) All methylotrophs are also methanotrophs.
Answer: FALSE
32) Nitrifying bacteria develop particularly well in lakes and streams receiving sewage because of the high
ammonia content of the sewage.
Answer: TRUE
33) Nitrification occurs especially well in an acid environment.
Answer: FALSE
34) Pseudomonas pathogens affect only members of the animal kingdom.
Answer: FALSE
35) Most bioluminescent bacteria are found in marine environments.
Answer: TRUE
36) The primary mode of transmission for a rickettsial disease is person-to-person contact.
Answer: FALSE
37) The polarity of magnetic cells from the Southern hemisphere is opposite the polarity of those from the
Northern hemisphere.
Answer: TRUE
38) Methane oxidizers and ammonia oxidizers exhibit great similarity in both structure of internal membrane
systems and are phylogenetically closely related.
Answer: TRUE
39) The heterofermenters lack the enzyme aldolase, and subsequently cannot split fructose bisphosphate via
the glycolytic pathway. However, the energy yield from glucose is equivalent to that of the homofermenters.
Answer: FALSE
40) The fundamental distinction between the purple and green bacteria and the cyanobacteria is based upon
the overall photosynthetic process and the photopigments.
Answer: TRUE
42) Color alone is a good criterion for identifying isolated prokaryotic phototrophs as either green or purple
bacteria.
Answer: FALSE
43) The green sulfur bacteria and Chloroflexus represent two distinct branches of the phylogenetic tree.
Answer: TRUE
44) All nitrifying bacteria are obligate chemolithotrophs.
Answer: FALSE
45) Lithotrophs that oxidize elemental sulfur include both autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Answer: TRUE
46) Cell yields are higher for methane oxidizers that employ the serine pathway for assimilation of carbon
compounds than for those using the ribulose monophosphate pathway.
Answer: FALSE
47) Organisms that attach to solid surfaces will grow in dilute media.
Answer: TRUE
48) __________ is the term used to identify salt loving bacteria.
Answer: Halophilic
49) The metal __________ must be present in the medium for chemolithotrophic growth of hydrogen
bacteria because virtually all hydrogenases contain the ion __________ as a metal cofactor.
Answer: nickel / nickel (Ni2+)
50) Gliding bacteria (myxobacteria) often form multicellular structures called __________. These bacteria
have also developed intercellular __________.
Answer: fruiting bodies / communication
51) __________ is the name of the genus of gram positive rod-shaped bacteria used in the production of
dairy products.
Answer: Lactobacillus
52) The most common commercial use of the actinomycetes is __________.
Answer: production of antibiotics
53) Based on metabolism and on oxygen requirements, the genus Clostridium is classified as __________
and __________.
Answer: strictly anaerobic / fermentative (either order)
54) Mycolic acid is a characteristic of the genus __________.
Answer: Mycobacterium
55) The most thermophilic of all known Bacteria is the genus __________.
Answer: Aquifex
56) The oxidation of ammonia to nitrite is carried out by the __________ bacteria. The product of this step
is then subsequently oxidized to nitrate by the __________ bacteria.
Answer: nitrosifying / nitrifying
57) The homofermentative and heterofermentative lactic acid bacteria can be differentiated by the
production of __________ by the heterofermenters during fermentation.
Answer: carbon dioxide
58) The manufacture of Swiss cheese requires an initial fermentation of lactose to lactic acid by __________
organisms. Next, lactate is fermented to propionate by the __________ bacteria.
Answer: homofermentative / propionic acid
59) The copolymer of aspartic acid and arginine that is a nitrogen storage product for many of the
cyanobacteria is known as a __________.
Answer: cyanophycin
60) The most predominant organism in the human large intestine is __________.
Answer: Bacteroides
61) What is the ribulose monophosphate pathway and why is it important to the study of methanotrophs?
Answer: Answers will vary.
62) Compare and contrast Type I and Type II methanotrophs.
Answer: Answers will vary.
63) Explain how Wolbachia and Bacillus thuringiensis might be used as natural insecticides against
arthropods and insects, respectively.
Answer: Answers will vary.