Download Exam Test 1. Who was father of microbiology? A. Robert Koch B

Exam Test
1. Who was father of microbiology?
A.
Robert Koch
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek С. Edward Jenner
D. * LouisPasteur
2. Who was father of antiseptic surgery?
A. Ferdinand Cohn
B. *Joseph Lister
C. John Needham.
D. Karl Landsteiner
3. The construction and use of the compound microscope is attributed to:
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Koch.
C. *Antony van Leeuwenhoek D. Ferdinand Cohn
4. The first techniques of pasteurization were introduced by:
A. Robert Koch.
B. *Louis Pasteur
C. Ferdinand Cohn.
D. John Needham.
5. Who did first discoverer of Salvarsan?
A. * Paul Ehrlich
B. Karl Landsteiner. C. Gerhardt Domagk D. Howard Florey.
6. Who was the founder of scientific microbiology?
A. Robert Koch
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
C. Edward Jenner D. * Louis Pasteur
7. Who did coin the term vaccine?
A. Edward Jenner
B. *Louis Pasteur
C. Kitta-Taroci D. Ehrlich
8. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. Semple B. Edward Jenner C. * Louis Pasteur D.
Paul Ehrlich
9. Who did introduce the method of vaccination to prevent smallpox?
A. Antony van Leeuwenhoek
B. Paul Ehrlich
C. John Hunter D. *Edward Jenner
10. Who of the following scientists proposed side chain theory of antibody production in 1898?
A. Elie Metchnikoff
B. *Paul Ehrlich
C. John Hunter. D. Edward Jenner
11. What morphological structure is responsible for bacterial motility?
A.
Pilli
B. Fimbria
C. *Flagella
D. Capsule
12. What is meant by the term colonial morphology?
A. Ability of microorganisms to colonize some tissues
B. Structure of bacteria inside the colony
C. Ability of microorganisms grow separately
D. *A visible aggregate of bacteria
13. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?
A. because inhibits protein synthesis
B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes
C. *because attacks of peptidoglycan
D. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes
14. Which with these substances can damage bacteria cell wall :
A. sulphonamides
B. *lysozyme
C. interferone D. alcohol
15. Lysozyme can damage bacteria cell because bacteria contain:
A.
outer membrane
B. lipoproteins
C. *peptidoglycan D. lipopolysaccharides
16. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A.
by structure of the nucleoid
B. by intracellular parasite
C. by tinctorial properties
D. *by absence of cell wall
17. Plasma cells are:
A. mature T cells
B. immature macrophages
C. *antibody-producing cells D. immature T cells
18. Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?
A. Treponema
B. Slaphylococcus
C. Klebsiella D. *Mycoplasma
19. When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but
permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as:
A. basal media.
B. *selective medium
C. enrichment medium D. enriched medium
20. Choose among listed where peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall:
A. gram-negative bacteria
B. fungi
C. *gram-positive bacteria D. protozoa
21. Mesosomes of bacteria are analogous to:
A. lysosomes of eukaryotes. B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes. C. * mitochondria of eukaryotes
D. polyribosomes of eukaryotes
22. When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as:
A.
monotrichous
B. amphitrichous
C. peritrichous D. * lophotrichous
23. Based on the information given, which of the following laboratory
tests would most rapidly assist you in making the diagnosis?
a.* Cold agglutinins
b. Viral culture
c. Complement fixation (CF) test
d. Gram stain of sputum
e. Culture of sputum
.
24. When a substance is added to a liquid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria and
favours the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as:
A.
selective medium
B. *enrichment medium
C. enriched medium D. differential medium
25. Endo medium is an example of:
A.
transport medium.
B. enrichment medium.
C. *differential medium. D. enriched medium.
26. Why can a single colony on a plate be used to start a pure culture?
A. because it contains a large number of microbes
B. because colony contains different kinds of bacteria
C. because only colony can grow onto solid nutrients media
D. *because colony represents the growth of one bacterial species
27. The second stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes will be:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. *Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
C. Biochemical and serological identification
D. Microscopic examination of a material
28. Endospores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Defence from acid in stomack
B. Reproduction C. *Survival in an external environment
D. Defence from fagocytosis
29. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of:
A. * polilayer peptidoglycan
B. thin monolayer peptidoglycan
C. lipoproteins
D. lipopolysaccharides
30. Mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. * by absence of cell wall
C. by toxin production
D. by tinctorial properties
31. Choose among listed where lipopolysacharide is a major constituent of cell wall:
A. gram-positive bacteria
B. fungi
C. *gram-negative bacteria D. protozoa
32. Sterols are present in the cytoplasmatic membrane of:
A. *Mycoplasma
B. Bacillus
C. Clostridium D. Proteus
33. What analogous structures of eukaryotes are bacteria mesosomes?
A. lysosomes
B. *mitochondria
C. endosomes D. Golgi apparatus
34. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous
B. lophotrichous
C. *peritrichous D. amphitrichous
35. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A.
monotrichous
B. lophotrichous
C. peritrichous. D. * amphitrichous
36. Levin’s medium (EMB) is an example of:
A.
transport medium
B. *differential medium
C. selective medium D. enrichment medium
37. Choose among listed bacteria which produce endospores:
A. *Bacillus
B. Bacterium
C. Micrococcus D. Corynebacterium
38. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C:
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles C. *mesophiles D. psychrophiles
39. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C
A. heterophiles
B. *psychrophiles
C. mesophiles D. thermophiles
40. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh
incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic B. Autoimmune
C. Immune complex D. *Cytotoxic
41. Choose the nutrient medium for obtaining the separate colonies:
A. Meat-pepton broth
B. *Meat-pepton agar
C. Alkaline pepton water D. Sugar broth
42. Choose among listed nutrients media for study of proteolytic properties of bacteria:
A. Meat - pepton agar
B. Sugar agar
C. * The curtailed serum D. Blood agar
43. It is possible to obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms with help:
A. Fortner's method
B. *Veinberg's method
C. Loeffler's method
D. Shukevich's method
44. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Using alcohol
C. *Washing with water
D. Staining by mеthylene blue
45. Anaerobic conditions can be created with using:
A. Zoessler's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Veinberg's method
D. *Fortner's method
46. Choose method of obtaining pure culture of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Shukevich's method
B. Koch’s method
C. * Zoessler's method
D. Fortner's method
47. Choose the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat pepton agar, meat pepton broth
B. The curtailed serum, meat-pepton gelatin
C. Blood agar, serum agar
D. *Sugar blood agar Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
48. Specify the nutrients media on which it is possible to grow anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat pepton agar, meat pepton broth
B. medium Endo's and Lewin's media
C. The curtailed serum, meat pepton gelatin
D. *Zoessler, Kitt-Tarozzi's
49. Peptolytic properties of bacteria we can study by detection in tubes:
A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactoses
C. *Indol and hydrogen sulphide
D. Carbonic acids and nitrogen
50. For obtaining separated colony of anaerobic microorganisms we use one of next nutrient media:
A. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
B. Hiss media
C. Endo's medium
D. *Sugar blood Zoessler's agar
51. In a bacteriological laboratory it is necessary to nutrient media, which contain matters, changing at a
temperature higher then 100 °С (urea, carbohydrates, proteins). What method of sterilization can you offer?
A. *by steam B.
autoclave, pressed steam C. tindalization D.
pasteurization
52. In a hospital chief of department decided to check the quality of instruments sterilization in an autoclave by
biological method. What bacteria can be used for this test?
A. Pathogenic B. Capsule-forming C. Acid fast D. *Spore-forming
53. In a laboratory for acceleration of sterilization of media with sugar by live steam this procedure was made in
one day: in the morning, in the day-time and in the evening for 30 min. How it was necessary to sterilize
these media correctly?
A. To sterilize 1 hour
B. To sterilize 15 minutes
C. *To sterilize three times with 24 hour interval
D. To sterilize twice for a days
54. For checking the quality of filters in an experiment a fluid containing test-microbe was filtered. Later a
filter was laid on the surface of nutrient medium and put into the incubator. How much time is it necessary to
hold it on medium to give a final answer about its quality?
A. at an optimum temperature, 1 day
B. *at an optimum temperature, 5 day
C. optimum temperature, 3 days D. optimum temperature, 4 days
55. In an autoclave at 112 °С nutrient media were sterilized. What test-microbe is it possible to utilize for
sterilization control?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. *Clostridium sporogenes
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium difficile
56. C. diphtheriae may be difficult to isolate from the nasopharynx without the use of special media. The medium
of choice is
a. Sheep blood agar
b.* Löffler’s medium
c. Thayer-Martin agar
d. Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose medium
e. Löwenstein-Jensen medium
57. A nurse has to sterilize surgical instruments for an operation. What most effective method can you offer?
A. fractional sterilization
B. *by dry heat
C. sterilization by pressed steam
D.
ionizing radiation
58. After finishing the experience in students’ laboratory it’s necessary to disinfect the workplace. What
chemicals can be used?
A. *сhloraminum
B chloroform.
C. hydrochloric acid D. formalin
59. It is necessary to check the quality of sterilization by compressed steam at 110 °С sterilization. What
chemical indicator of sterilization quality can be utilized?
A. antipyrine B. sulphur C. benzoic acid
D. *benzonaphtolum
60. It is necessary to sterilize material that contains the spore-forming bacteria by live steam. Choose the regime
of sterilization:
A.
*fractional sterilization – 3 days one after the other, 30 min. B. single sterilization during 20 min.
C.
fractional sterilization – three times one after the other during one day, 30 min.
D.
fractional sterilization – 2 days one after the other, 30 min.
61. What is tyndalization?
A. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 30 minutes
B. sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
C. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other
D. sterilization by water bath 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other
62. Choose among the following humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection:
A. macrophages
B. *complement
C. unbroken skin D. cilia in intestine
63. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation?
A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
B. For examinate biochemical properties
C. *For study motility of bacteria
D. For study morphology of bacteria
64. Monocytes are leukocytes that develop into:
A.*granular, phagocytes
B. agranular, macrophages
C. granular, T cellsD. agrunular, mast cells
65. Macrophages are leucocytes that develop from:
A. thymocytes
B. mast cells
C. T cells
D.* monocytes
66. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin B. * complement factor C9 C. cascade reaction D. membrane attack complex
67. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system?
A. *membrane attack complex
B. cascade reaction
C. complement factor C1
D. complement factor C5
68. Immunological memory refers to the ability of the immune system to:
A. recognize millions of different antigens
B. *recall a previous immune response
C. migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues
D. react with millions of different antigens
69. Immunological memory develops after:
A. *injection of the antigen
B. injection of antibodies
C. activation of T cells
D. stimulation of macrophages
70. T killer cells are important in controlling:
A. Allergy
B. autoimmunity C. * virus infections D. production of antibodies
71. Which of the following classes of antibodies does newborn obtain from mother?
A.
IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE D. *IgG
72. B cells are responsible for which allergies?
A. *hemolytic disease
B. reumatic feber
C. anaphylaxis D. tuberculin reactions
73. Choose among the listed secretory immunoglobulins:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. *IgA
74. Choose among the following immune-complex disease:
A. asthma
B. *serum sickness
C. atopy D. contact dermatitis
75. Which of the following nonspecific substances is a normal component of serum?
A. lysozyme
B. interferon
C. * complement
D. collagenase
76. Choose among the listed when hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
D. B mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
77. Choose among the listed reservoirs for human infections
A. food
B. water
C. sick animals,
D. * sick humans, cariers
78. At the classic complement pathway Cl must bind with:
A. antigen-IgA complexes B. *antigen-IgG complexes C. red blood cells D. bacteria
79. Choose among the listed cells plasma cells:
A. immature macrophages.
B. mature T cells.
C. *antibody-producing cells D.
immature T cells.
80. Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens?
A.Lipids
B. glucose C. fatty acids
D. * proteins
81. Which from following microorganisms does contain sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane?
A. Bacillus B.* Mycoplasma C. Clostridium D. Proteus
82. An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is:
A. NK cells B. *lysozyme in saliva C. unbroken skin D. cilia in trachea
83. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. * complement factor C9
D. complement factor C1
84. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?
A. because inhibits protein synthesis
B.* because attacks of peptidoglycan
C. because activates lysosome’s enzymes
D. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes
85. Which of the following pairs is mismatched
A. vagina --- lactobacilli
B. eye --- lysozyme
C. * skin --- Gram negative D.
oropharynx --anaerobes
86. Diphtheria toxin is produced only by those strains of C. diphtheriae
that are
a. Glucose fermenters
b. Sucrose fermenters
c.* Lysogenic for β-prophage
d. Of the mitis strain
e. Encapsulated
87. Lysozyme:
A.
aggregates bacteria
B. captures free iron
C. enhances phagocytosis
D. * breaks down the bacterial cell wall
88. Stem cells arise from:
A. yolk sac. B. foetal liver. C.* bone marrow. D. kidney
89. Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic C. Helper
D.* Natural killer
90. Natural killer cells are
A.* cells that can kill bacteria without complement B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
91. The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with:
A. * antigen-antibody complex
B. factor B
C. antigen-IgA complexes D.
bacterial capsula
92. Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to?
A.*T-helpers B. B-cells C. T-killers
D. NK-cells
93. What is function of T-killer cells?
A. * take part in antiviral immunity
B. allergy
C. autoimmunity D.
antibodies synthesis
94. Which substances can produce Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. * Gamma interferon
C. bradikidin D.
Interleukin-5
95. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination D. *degranulation
96. Which of the following antibodies can pass through the placenta?
A. * IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgE
97. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. *thymus, bone marrow
B. GALT, spleen
C. lymph nodes, thymus D. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
98. Antibodies are found in one of next fraction of the serum:
A. Crioglobuline
B. * gamma globulin
C. beta globulin D. alpha globulin
99. If we don’t detect in child B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in:
A. the thymus
B. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
C. T cell-B cell interaction
D.* the bursal equivalent
100. If we don’t detect in child T cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in:
A. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
B.* the thymus
C. T cell-B cell interaction
D. phagocytosis
101. By laboratory diagnostics of spinal fluid under the microscope gram-negative diplococci into leucocytes
(incompleted phagocytosis) were found. What these microorganisms are?
A. Staphylococci B. *Meningococci C. Monococci
D. Pneumococci
102. After laboratory research of sputum of patient with pneumonia gram-positive diplococci were isolated. What
microorganisms found out in a sputum?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. *Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
103. After microscopic examination of sputum lancet-shaped gram-positive microorganisms were found. What
these microorganisms are?
A. Gonococci B. Meningococci C. Micrococci
D.* Pneumococci
104. At the bacteriologic examination of festerings discharge from an urethra Gram-negative coccal bacteria
disposed in leucocytes were found. Which disease can cause this pathogen?
A. syphilis B. *gonorrhoea C.scarlet fever
D. meningococcal infection
105. Boy, 7 years old, has vomiting, acute diarrhoea. The previous diagnosis was cholera. But after inoculation of
feces on Endo medium dark red colonies with metallic shine grow. Under the microscope they are gramnegative, small, straight rods. What these microbes are?
A. *Escherichia coli B. Vibrio cholerae C. Pseudomonas spp.
D. Shigella spp.
106. In a school some cases of food poisoning are registered. The examination of stuff and students is conducted.
Gram positive microorganisms which are located in pair, short chains or as clasters are found. What these
microorganisms are?
A. Pneumococci B. Staphylococcus C. Micrococci
D. * Enterococci
107. The first cases of acute intestinal disease, which was accompanied a frequent liquid stool (to 25 times per
days) which reminded a "rice-water", vomiting, dehydration of organism, are registered in port town. The
pure culture of microorganisms is isolated. There were gram-negative, small, slightly cuvered rods, mobile.
What these microbes are?
A. Pseudomonas spp.
B. Escherichia coli
C. Shigella spp.
D. *Vibrio cholerae
108. Anthrax was diagnosed in patient S. What is the causative agent of this disease?
A. *Bacillus anthraxis B. Borrelia recurrentis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Treponema pallidum
109. Anthrax was diagnosed in patient V. What morphological type of bacteria do these microbes belong to?
A. Streptococci
B.* Streptobacilli C. Streptobacteria
D. Bacteria Staphylococci
110. The bacteriologic examination of patient’s material taken from a girl with a scarlet fever is performed. Grampositive spherical microorganisms were isolated. What these microbes are?
A. Vibrio cholera
B. Staphylococcus
C. .* Streptococcus
D. Meningococcus
111. The mother of one-month child complains about festerings discharge from the conjunctiva of child’s eyes.
Plenty of leucocytes and coffe-shaped diplococci which were into leucocytes discovered at the microscopy
of discharge. What these microorganisms are?
A. Neisseria flavia B. Neisseria sicca C. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Neisseria meningitides
112. Vomiting, diarrhoea, high temperature appeared for a 1,5-years-old child. Feces were inoculated on the Endo
medium. At a microscopy found out gram-negative rods. What is the pathogen causing this disease?
A. *Escherichia coli B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Staphylococcus D. Streptococci
113. A 23-year-old medical student had headache and fever one evening. By the next morning she had become
very ill, with high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck. She was admitted to the hospital. Later that day she
developed rash, at first petechial and then pupuric. Gram stain of CSF showed many white cells and Gramnegative cocci, many in pairs. Which organism is most likely to be the cause of her infection?
A. Escherichia coli. B.Haemophilus influenzae. C.Streptococcus agalactiae. D. *Neisseria meningitidis.
114. Child, 5 years old, has a furuncle on the left shoulder. The bacteriologic examination of pus from furuncle
staphylococci are found. What morphological properties of these microbes?
A. in a smear look like pair
B. *gram-positive, groups
C. single gram-negative rods
D. sporulate, does not perceive aniline stain
115. At microscopic examination of a patient T. an ulcer on a pudendal labium spiral shaped microbes are found.
What is the method to prove lues?
A.
electronic microscopy B. *darkfield microscopy C. Gram staining D. methylene blue staining
116. After 6 hours of a patient’s feces cultivation in the 1% alkaline peptone water a culture of microbes is
isolated. They are mobile gram-negative, small, coma-shaped rods. What these microbes are ?
A.*Vibrio cholerae B. Pseudomonas spp. C. Salmonella spp. D. Shigella spp.
117. By the XR examination of woman, 55 years old, in lungs numeral abscesses were found. By microscopic
examination of the sputum smear irregular groups of gram-positive spherical bacteria were identified. What
microorganisms were isolated?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes B.Escherichia coli C.*Staphylococcus aureus D.Streptococcus pneumonia
118. After operative interference concerning acute appendicitis, at patient, 22 years old, festering complication of
operating wound developed. From patient’s material a smear was prepared. By a microscopic examination
bacteriologist found out leucocytes and grape-shaped cocci. What family these microorganisms belong to?
A.
Planococcus B. *Staphylococcus C. Micrococcus D. Enterococcus
119. A patient complains on pain in a thorax, cough. In the sputum of patient lancet-shaped gram-positive
diplococci, were found. What microorganisms were found?
A.Staphylococcus aureus. B. Klebsiella pneumoniae. C. Neisseria meningitidis.D. * Streptococcus pneumoniae.
120. A patient has got urethritis. Gram-positive microorganisms in pair, short chains or as clasters were found.
What these microorganisms are?
A. Pneumococci
B. Staphylococci
C. Micrococci
D.* Enterococci
121. A woman complains about festerings discharge from genitals, pain in the bottom of stomach. She is ill the
second week. A bacteriologic examination found out plenty of leucocytes and been-shaped diplococci which
were into leucocytes. What these microorganisms are?
A.
Neisseria flava
B. Neisseria sicca C. * Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Neisseria meningitides
122. After a sanitary bacteriological examination Escherichia coli is isolated. What morphological and tinctorial
properties do this microorganism have?
A. Gram-negative cocci B. *Gram-negative rods C. Gram-positive cocci D. Gram-positive rods
123. Patient’s diagnosis is furunclosis of the left forearm. In a pus were found spherical in cluster. What these
microorganisms are?
A. *Staphylococci. B. Diplococci. C. Micrococci. D. Streptococci.
124. A 20 y.o. girl complains about genital discharge. At the microscopic examination of this discharge a lot of
leucocytes and coffe-shaped diplococci into of them are found. What these microorganisms are?
A. Staphylococci B. *Gonococci C. Pneumococci
D. Meningococci
125. A bacteriologist isolated and then identified the pathogenic microbes from patient’s material. It was
Streptococcus pyogenes. What morphological and tinctorial properties do these microbes have?
A. Gram-positive cocci with single appearance in smear B. Gram-positive cocci looked as a grape
C. Gram-positive diplococcic
D. * Gram-positive cocci in chains
126. A bacteriologist found in a material from a skin wound plenty of leucocytes and irregular groups of grampositive cocci under the microscope. Name these microorganisms.
A.*Staphylococcus B. Tetracocci
C. Meningococcus
D. Streptococcus
127. A new-born child has a scalded fever. After the bacteriologic examination of a pus staphylococci are found.
What morphological and tinctorial properties do these microbes have?
A.
Gram-negative cocci
B. *Gram-positive cocci C. Gram-negative spiral bacteria D. Gram-negative rods
128. A 30 y.o. woman complains about genital discharge. At the microscopic examination of discharge a lot of
leucocytes and been-shaped diplococci into them are found. What these microorganisms are?
A. Staphylococci B. Pneumococci
C.* Gonococci
D. Enterococci
129. A newborn has got blenorrhea. By the microscopic examination of patient’s material leucocytes and beenshaped diplococci into them were found. What these microorganisms are?
A. Staphylococci B. Pneumococci C. Meningococci D. *Gonococci
130. A patient D., 8 y.o. has got acute respiratory infection and a rash on a skin. From the skin rash dark blue
diplococci stained by simple method are found. What is the causetive agent of disease?
A. Staphylococci
B. Monococci C. Pneumococci D. *Meningococci
131. The name 'black death' is given to which of the following diseases?
A. Tuberculosis.
B. Diphtheria.
C. AIDS.
D. * Plague.
132. Bipolar staining is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis. B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. C. Vibrio cholerae D. *Yersinia pestis
133. “Medusa head” appearance of the colonies is characteristic of:
A. Proteus mirabilis. B. Clostridium tetani. C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D. * Bacillus anthracis.
134. Which of the following Brucella spp. is most pathogenic for man?
A. B. Abortus
B.B. suis.
C.B. canis.
D.*B. melitensis.
135. A 13-year old boy develops pain and marked (10 cm.) swelling in his right inguinal lymph node
accompanied by fever of 104oF. He and his family have just returned from a vacation trip to Arizona and
New Mexico. Aspirate from the node contains Gram-negative rods. A direct immunofluorescent assay on
the aspirate provides a definitive diagnosis. The child is (successfully) treated with streptomycin, and the
aspirate is sent for culture to the CDC. Culture yields pale colonies on MacConkey agar. What is the most
probable pathogen?
A. Helicobacteri pylori. B.Franciscella tularensis
C.Coxiella burnetii D.*Yersinia pestis.
136. Tuberculosis is spread by
A.
contaminated fomites
B. food
C. vectors D.* respiratory droplets
137. A classic symptom of pertussis is
A.
labored breathing
B.*paroxysmal coughing
C. convulsions
D.
headache
138. A child develops a “cold” which progresses to severe pharyngitis. Pharyngeal exudate forms a tough
‘membrane’, difficult to remove without causing bleeding. Culture of a throat swab on selective tellurite agar
produces abundant black colonies. Other cultures produce only normal flora. Which organism is most likely
to have caused this infection?
A.
Actinomyces israelii.
B. Bordetella pertussis.
C. Candida albicans.
D.
*Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
139. A child is diagnosed with Pertussis. How was this infection most likely to have been acquired?
A.
Bite of a dog or cat.
B. Consumption of dairy products made from unpasteurized milk
C.
*Inhalation of respiratory droplets of another human being.
D.
Contact with livestock or animal products such as leather or wool.
140. Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Gram "+"
B. Modified acid fast "+"
C. Acid fast "+" D. * Gram "-"
141. Bordetella pathogenic properties related to:
A. * Exotoxin production B.
Endotoxin production C. Capsule formation D. Volutin granules presence
142. Culture medium for corynebacierium diphtheria
A.
*Loefflers aerum slope
B. McConkey C. Sabarauds agar D. Lowenstein Jensen medium
143. In a person with intact immunity, which of the following is most likely to be followed by development of
active tuberculosis [with viable mycobacteria in sputum]?
A. *Re-activation of previously-dormant bacteria in the lung.
B. Brief exposure to a person with active tuberculosis.
C. Immunization with BCG [Bacillus of Calmette and Guerin] vaccine.
D. Treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics, which reduce competition by ‘normal flora’.
144. Lysogenic bacteria are:
A.
Mycoplasma
B. C. welchii
C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae D.
Brucella abortus
145. Morphological features of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A. *Slender, straight rods
B. Large, straight rods
C.
Little, оval-shaped rods
D. Large rods with bulges at the ends
146. Both the botulinum toxin and the tetanus toxin are
A. superantigens
B. enterotoxins
C. adenylate cyclase enzymes D.
*protease enzymes
147. Mechanism of action of tetanofoxin?
A. *block the release of neurotransmitters across a neural synapse
B. up-regulate the production of cAMP in affected cells
C. cause the ADP ribosylation of neuron gangliosides
D. block protein synthesis in target cells
148. Passive immunity to tetanus in a susceptible host would be accomplished by
A. recovery from the disease tetanus
B.
injection with tetanus toxin
C. injection with tetanus toxoid (as in the DPT vaccine
D. *administration of donor’s antitetanus immunoglobulin
149. The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the
A. neuromuscular junction
B. *spinal interneurons
C.
sensory neurons
D. nucleus of hypocamp
150. Which infectious agent cause pseudomembranous collitis?
A. *Clostridium difficile
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Mycobacterium leprae
151. Which infectious agents cause food poising?
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Clostridium tetani C. Streptococcus pyogenes D.* Clostridium perfringens
152. A child at-risk for Tetanus is treated with Tetanus immune globulin (human). What is a major advantage of
this method for immunization over the use of Tetanus toxoid?
A.
Poses a reduced risk of serum sickness.
B.
*Provides protection more rapidly
C.
Provides longer-lasting immunity
D.
Results in higher antibody titer.
153. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in:
A. Clostridium perfringens. B. C. diphtheriae
C. C. histolyticum. D. * С. tetani
154. A cyanotic, listless, infant with extremely poor muscle tone is brought to the Emergency Room. Which
condition is most likely, given this presentation?
A. *Botulism B. Tetanus C. Lyme Disease D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
155. Find the correct sentence according to Clostridium botulinum
A. Includes S. typhimurium, S. dublin, S. enteritidis, S. hadar - enteritis; S. typhi, S. paratyphi - enteric
fever, possible intracellular infection.
B. Group is determined base on polysaccharide C; type - based on M-protein; strain - based on T
antigen.
C. Exposure to antibiotics - major risk factor.
D. *Botulism symptoms include descending paralysis, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention
156. Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of HIV?
A. Agglutination
B. Complement fixation
C.
Immunodiffusion
D. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
157. Which of the following is contained in all plasmids, irrespective of size or source?
A. Genes that impart antibiotic resistance to bacterial cells B. The tra genes that allow conjugation
C.
Genes that allow bacterial hosts to act as pathogens to mammalian cells
D.
*An autonomous origin of replication
158. Transformation is the genetic process by which:
A. Bacteriophage attach to bacterial cells
B. Bacterial genes acquire mutations and variants
C.
Bacterial DNA is carried by bacteriophage between different bacteria
D. *Pieces of free DNA or free plasmids are taken up by bacterial cells
159. Which of the following is an example of a genotypic property?
A. Growth rate in liquid medium
B. MIC antibiotic resistance in broth tubes
C. Permeability property of bacterial cell walls to antibiotics
D. *Sequence of missense mutations in genes that impart antibiotic resistance
160. Which one of the following agents lacks nucleic acid?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Viroids
D. *Prions
161. The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is:
A. Transformation B. Conjugation
C.
Transfection D.
*Transduction
162. The form of genetic exchange in bacteria that is susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease is:
A.
Conjugation
B. Transfection
C.
Transduction D.
*Transformation
163. Replication of which of the following requires physical integration with a bacterial replicon?
A.
Single-stranded DNA bacteriophage
B. Double-stranded DNA bacteriophage
C.
Single-stranded RNA bacteriophage
D. *Transposon
164. The CD4 glycoprotein is found:
A. on all Tc lymphocytes
B. only on Th1 lymphocytes
C. *on all Th lymphocytes
D. on all B lymphocytes
165. A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express:
A. CD4
B. Class II MHC
C. membrane Ig
D. *the TcR
166. The TcR is found on:
A. all mature lymphocytes
B. all mature B lymphocytes
C. all NK cells D.
*all mature T lymphocytes
167. CD4 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules?
A. ICAM
B.
TcR
C.CD16
D. CD40L
168. Which of the following regulatory proteins can prevent C3b from binding to Factor B?
A. S protein
B. decay accelerating factor
C. C4b binding protein D. *Factor H
169. C reactive protein is classified as:
A. a cytokine
B. a chemokine
C. a kinin
D. *an acute-phase protein
170. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are classifed as:
A. acute phase proteins
B. chemokines
C. a cytokine
D. *kinins
171. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:
A. the spleen
B. the thymus
C. *the bone marrow
172. The thymus is considered to be:
A. a secondary lymphoid organ
B. a reticuloendothelial organ
C. a specialized lymph node
D. *a primary lymphoid organ
173. In which area of the lymph node are considered to be “T cell rich”?
A. primary follicles B. medulla C. germinal centers
D. *paracortex
174. What bacteria have the spiral form:
A. staphylococcus B. streptococcus
C. *spirillum
D.
bacillus
175. What disease do Staphylococci cause?
A. Typhoid fever B. Mumps
C. Epidemic cerebrospinal meningitidis
D. *Sepsis
176. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A.
Neisseria
B.
Borrelia
C.
Corynebacteria D. *Spirilla
177.
What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A.
Bordetella B.
*Treponema
C. Micrococcus D.
Sarcina
178. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Salmonella
B. *Leptospira C. Yersinia
D. Clostridia
179. What microbes do belong to spiral forms?
A. Bordetella B. Clostridia C. Micrococcus
D. *Vibrio
180. Viruses in the body are destroyed by:
A. red blood cells.
B. *white blood cells. C. vaccines D. antibodies
181. By which protein the influenza virus can attach to mucous cells of the upper respiratory tract?
A. Fusion protein B. Nucleoprotein C. Matrix protein D. *Hemagglutinin
182. Which proteins of influenza viruses are included in vaccine preparations?
A. Neuraminidase B. Neuraminidase and fusion proteins C.
Hemagglutinin
D. *Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
183. Which antiviral drug could be administered to other family members as a prophylactic measure if an
influenza infection has been diagnosed within a family?
A.
Foscarnet B. Ganciclovir C.
Cyclosporin A
D.
*Amantadine
184. Which of the following is true concerning the orthomyxoviruses?
A. Influenza A, B, and C cause epidemics B. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin are nucleocapsid proteins
C.* The genome is segmented, composed of eight RNA units
D. The matrix protein is important for vaccine inclusion
185. Which of the following viruses are sensitive to low pH?
A. Coxsackievirus A B.
Coxsackievirus B C. Poliovirus D. *Rhinovirus
186. The genome of the orthomyxoviruses contain:
A. Nonsegmented RNA genome B. Nonsegmented DNA genome
C. *Segmented RNA genome
D. Segmented DNA genome
187. Diseases causally associated with Epstein-Barr virus include:
A. *Burkitt’s Lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma B. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C. adult T-cell leukemia D. genital warts
188. Choose among following diseases associated with Epstein-Barr virus:
A.
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome B. T-cell leukemia C. *Infectious mononucleosis
D.
herpes zoster
189. Which of the following viruses has oncogenic ability?
A. CMV B.
HIV-1
C.
*HTLV-1 D. HSV-1
190. What test should be used for examination of Infleunza virus type?
A. Haemagglutination test
B. Haemagglutination inhibition test C. *Complement fixation test
D. Precipitation test
191. Herpes simplex virus type 1 most commonly causes cold sores. The site of reactivation for this virus is the
A. vagus nerve
B. B lymphocyte C. epidermal cell D. *trigeminal nerve
192. In a minus-sense RNA virus:
A. the virus does not need RNA polymerase B. *the virus has an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C. the virus's RNA acts as messenger RNA D. the virus has a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
193. Which antiviral agent is commonly used to combat herpes simplex virus infections?
A. azidothymidine B. *acyclovir C. foscarnet D. idoxuridine
194. What is the specimen from which herpes simplex virus is most likely to be cultured:
A. saliva
B. spinal fluid. C.
*vesicle fluid. D.
swab from ulcer.
195. Choose among listed a common feature of infection caused by cytomegalovirus?
A. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
B. Severe vesiculation of epithelium and mucous membranes
C. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death
D. *Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
196. What does disease occur after contamination by varicella zoster virus in children?
A. aphthous stomatitis. B.
chronic fatigue syndromeC. infectious mononucleosis. D.*varicella.
197. Where we can detect of rabies antigen by direct immunofluorescence antemortem?
A. hippocampal neuron B.
*corneal scrapings. C.
blood D.
hairs
198. Match yellow fever virus (Arbovirus) with its family.
A. Reoviridae B. *Flaviviridae C.
Bunyaviridae D.
Togaviridae
199. Choose among following Family of yellow fever virus
A. Bunyaviridae B.
*Flaviviridae C.
Reoviridae D. Rhabdoviridae
200. Which herpesviruses cause mononucleosis?
A. VZV-1 and HSV-2
B.
*EBV and CMV C. EBV and herpes B virus D. CMV and VZV
201. Negri bodies are found in cells infected with:
A. rabies virus. B. vaccinia virus C.
fowlpox virus. D.
paramyxoviruses.
202. Identify the clinical status of a patient who has the following hepatitis B virus (HBV) serology findings: antiHBc positive, anti-HBs positive, HBsAg negative.
A. Current acute infection with HBV
B.
No past exposure to HBV
C.
Recent past infection with HBV
D.
Chronic infectIon with HBV
203. Which of the following statements best describes antigenic shift within the orthomyxoviruses?
A. A minor antigenic change of the envelope proteins
B. A major antigenic change of the envelope proteins
C. A medium antigenic change of the envelope proteins
D. A minor lipid change of the envelope proteins
204. A girl is infected with a paramyxovirus. The cytopathic effect for this virus is
A. syncytia formation B. major destruction of the tissue culture monolayer
C. intranuclear inclusion formation D. Negri body formation
205. Which virus was the first one to be purposely eradicated from the face of the Earth?
A.
chickenpox B.
swinepox C. smallpox D. cowpox
206. The viral protein coat is also referred to as a(n
A.
core B.
cell membrane C. capsid D.
envelope
207. Which of the following specifically prevents the adsorption or biosynthesis of phages of the type whose
DNA is already carried by the lysogen?
A. lysogenic cycle B. temperate phages C. lysogenic conversion D.
lytic cycle
208. All viruses have
A.
RNA B.
envelopes C. host specificity D.
glycoprotein spikes
209. Prions:
A are infectious particles not destroyed by DNase or RNase
B. are easily inactivated at 90 degrees centigrade
C. are also called viroids
D. are infectious pieces of RNA
210. Which of the following has been linked to Kaposi's sarcoma?
A. Epstein-Barr virus B.
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus C.
Human immunodefficiency virus
D. Human papilloma virus
211. Which of the following is necessary for a virus to reproduce
A. a high concentration of protein
B. a living host cell C. a vaccine D. a high body temperature
212. Choose insect as vector for Japanese encephalitis virus?
A. flea.
B.
fly
C. tick
D. mosquito
213. The syncytial-forming capability that all members of the paramyxovirus family have in common is a
consequence of which of the following viral proteins?
A. hemagglutinin B. neuraminidas C. fusion protein D. polymerase
214. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is most associated with which of the following syndromes:
A. Bronchiolitis of young adults B.
Bronchiolitis of young infants
C.
Upper lobe infiltrates of young adults D. Upper lobe infiltrates of young children
215. The antiviral used for treatment of severe respiratory syncytial disease (RSV) infection is:
A. acyclovir B. amantadine C.
ribavirin D. immune globulin
216. In which component of adenovirus the hemagglutinin is found?
A. The hexon B. The core C. The DNA protein D. The penton with fiber
217. In addition to acute respiratory diseases, adenoviruses also cause:
A. Tumors in humans B. Diabetes C. Otitis media D. Acute diarrhea in children
218. Which family contains rubella virus and what group of individuals is most at risk for severe sequelae from
rubella infections?
A. Paramyxovirus family; grade school children
B. Togavirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
C. Paramyxovirus family; infants in utero during the first trimester
D. Togavirus family; grade school children
219. For whom rubella infection causes long term dangerous complications?
A. Children who have received the interferon B. Children who have received the attenuated vaccine
C. Children infected during the first grade (age 6-7 yrs) D. Children infected in the first trimester in utero
220. Which of the following statements accurately describes the envelope constituents of the parainfluenza and
mumps viruses?
A. Hemagglutinin, but no neuraminidase or fusion proteins present
B. Neuraminidase, but no hemagglutinin protein present
C. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, but no fusion protein present
D. Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase and fusion proteins present
221. Choose necessary components of haemagglutination inhibition test for virologic diagnosis:
A. Unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune serum, complement
B.
Patient’s paired serums, viral diagnosticum, erythrocytes, electrolyte
C.
Patient’s paired serums, unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte
D. Unknown viruses, erythrocytes, electrolyte, specific immune antiviral serum
222. How are the herpes viruses classified?
A. Single stranded DNA, non enveloped B.
Double stranded DNA, enveloped
C. Positive stranded RNA, enveloped
D.
Positive stranded RNA, non enveloped
223. Which viruses have tegument?
A. Polioviruses B. Herpesviruses C. Adenoviruses D. Influenza viruses
224. Which one of the following is a common feature of infection by herpes simplex virus?
A. Rapid progression to encephalitis and death B.
Chronic progressive tissue damage for many years
C. Dissemination to many body sites, including trans-placental passage
D. Spontaneous recovery with life-long latency
225. Latency is a feature of which group of viruses?
A. Polioviruses B. Poxviruses C. Herpesviruses D. Paramyxoviruses
226. Choose among listed which viruses don’t cause latency infection.
A. Cytomegalovirus B. Herpes simplex virus C. Varicella-zoster virus D.Polioviruses
227. The primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus is:
A. saliva
B.
direct contact with lesions C. respiratory droplets D.
fecal-oral route
228. Choose among listed the primary means of spread of varicella zoster virus
A. saliva B.
respiratory droplets C.
fecal-oral rout D.
direct contact with sick child
229. The most common viral cause of congenital defects is:
A. cytomegalovirus B. mumps virus C.
measles virus D.
herpes simplex virus
230. Which virus does cause congenital defects?
A. adenovirus B. rubivirus C. herpes simplex virus D.
measles virus
231. Exanthem subitum (roseola) is caused by:
A. human herpes virus 6
B. human herpes virus 7 C. measles virus D.
varicella zoster virus
232. Which virus does cause gingivostomatitis?
A. cytomegalovirus B. poliovirus C. herpes simplex virus 1 D.
measles virus
233. Which virus does cause genital herpes?
A. Herpes simplex virus-1 B. Herpes simplex virus-2
C. cytomegalovirus D. human herpes virus 6
234. For which of the following viruses is the presence of heterophile antibody diagnostic?
A. EBV B.
CMV C.
HSV-1 D.
HHV-7
235. Which of the following viruses can stimulate production of the heterophile antibodies?
A. CMV B.
EBV C.
HSV-1 D.
HHV-7
236. Which virus is most likely to infect B lymphocytes?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus B. Epstein Barr virus C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Human T cell leukemia virus
237. Which of the following virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarkoma?
A. Adenovirus
B. Hepatitis A virus
C. Hepatitis B virus D.
Human herpesvirus 8
238. The smallest known viruses are:
A. Adenovirus
B. Picornavirus C.
Enterovirus D.Orthomyxovirus
239. Which viruses have bullet-shaped form?
A. Adenovirus B.
Orthomyxovirus C. Paramyxovirus D. Rhabdovirus
240. Retroviruses are unique among all viruses that infect humans because only retroviruses:
A. are associated with human cancers B. reverse transcriptase which transcribe their genetic material
C. are enveloped viruses D. contain specific surface antigens
241. Which HIV protein molecules do interact with CD4 receptors of lympocytes?
A. p 8
B.
p 17 C. p 24
D.gp 120
242. Azidothymidine (AZT) inhibits retroviral replication by:
A. blocking proteolysis by the viral protease B. inhibiting proteolysis by the cellular protease
C. causing chain termination during reverse transcription
D. binding the cell surface receptor and preventing viral entry
243. What test is used for primary diagnosis of HIV carriers?
A. indirect haemagglutination test
B. complement fixation test
C. ELISA D.
neutralization test
D. haemagglutination inhibition test
244. HSV and varicella-zoster virus initiate latent infections in:
A. endothelial cells B. epithelial cells C.
B lymphocytes D. neurons E.
245. The virus associated with adult T cell leukaemia is:
A. human immunodeficiency virus 1 B.
human immunodeficiency virus 2
C. human T lymphotropic virus 1 D. human T lymphotropic virus 2
246. Retroviral oncogenes were derived from cell genes known as:
A. pre-oncogenes B.
pro-oncogenes C. proper-oncogenes D. proto-oncogenes
247. The following are DNA viruses
A. Herpesviruses B. Orthomyxoviruses C. Enteroviruses D. Flaviviruses
248. The following are RNA viruses
A. Picornaviruses B. Adenoviruses C. Papillomaviruses D. Poxviruses
249. Live attenuated vaccines are available against the following viruses
A. Influenza A Virus B. Hepatitis B Virus C. Rubella Virus D. Tick-born encephalitis Virus
250. Human Papillomaviruses
A. HPV-6 and HPV-11 are associated with genital cancers
B. HPV-16 and HPV-18 are associated with genital cancers
C. Warts caused by papillomaviruses may respond to antibiotics therapy
D. Papillomavirus infection is commonly diagnosed by viral culture
251. The following may be useful for prognostic purposes in HIV-infected individuals
A. HIV envelope antibody level B.
HIV-gp120 antigen
C. HIV-gp41 antigen
D.
CD4 count E.
252. A chronic carrier state may occur in the following:
A. Measles Infection B. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis B D.
Hepatitis E
253. One of the following viruses is associated with gastroenteritis
A. Measles viruses B. RS- viruses C. Herpes viruses D. Rotaviruses
254.
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
Viruses are
A. Obligate intracellular parasites B. May divide by binary fission C. Have their own metabolism
D. May contain plasmids
Which of the following is capable of oxidizing sulfur to sulfates?
A. Thiobacillus thiooxidans B. Desulfotomaculum
C. Rhodospirillum
D. Rhodomicrobium
The phenomenon of commensalism refers to a relationship between organisms in which
A. one species of a pair benefits
B. both the species of a pair benefit
C. one species of a pair is more benefited
D. three the species of a pair benefit
The population of algae in soil is __________ that of either bacteria or fungi.
A. generally smaller than B. generally greater than
C. equal to
D. generally big than
The transformation of nitrates to gaseous nitrogen is accomplished by microorganisms in a series of
biochemical reactions. The process is known as
A. nitrification
B. denitrification
C. nitrogen fixation
D. ammonification
Nitrogen fixation refers to the direct conversion of atmospheric nitrogen gas into
A. ammonia B. glucose
C.ATP
D. nitrate
.
260. Nitrogen oxidation (nitrification)refers to the
A. conversion of ammonium ions into nitrates through the activities of certain bacteria.
B. changing of atmospheric nitrogen (N2) to nitrogen compounds
C. sulfur is oxidized to the sulfate form through Thiobacillus bacteria
D. conversion of ferum into nitrates through the activities bacteria cell.
261. An HIV-positive patient asks you if you can tell him the chances of him progressing to symptomatic AIDS.
Which one of the following tests would be most useful?
a. CD4 lymphocyte count
b. HIV antibody test c. HIV RT PCR
d. Neopterin
262. Which of the following viruses causes an acute febrile rash and produces disease in immunocompetent
children but has been associated with transient aplastic crises in persons with sickle cell disease?
a.
Herpes simplex b. Varicella-zoster c.Parvovirus d. Rubella
263. Infection with herpes simplex virus, a common human pathogen, is best described by which of the following
statements?
a. The CNS and visceral organs are usually involved
b. It rarely recurs in a host who has a high antibody titer
c. It can be reactivated by emotional disturbances or prolonged exposure to sunlight
d. Initial infection usually occurs by intestinal absorption of the virus
264. Infectious mononucleosis, a viral disorder that can be debilitating, is characterized by which of the following
statements?
a. It is most prevalent in children less than 14 years old
b. It is caused by a rhabdovirus
c. The causative pathogen is an Epstein-Barr virus
d. Affected persons respond to treatment with the production of heterophil antibodies
265. A tube of monkey kidney cells is inoculated with nasopharyngeal secretions. During the next 7 days, no
cytopathic effects (CPEs) are observed. On the eighth day, the tissue culture is infected accidentally with a
picornavirus; nevertheless, the culture does not develop CPEs. The most likely explanation of this
phenomenon is that
a. The nasopharyngeal secretions contained hemagglutinins
b. The nasopharyngeal secretions contained rubella virus
c. Picornavirus does not produce CPEs d. Picornavirus does not replicate in monkey kidney cells
266. The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of three categories: encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or
fever with myalgia. One of the characteristics of arboviruses is that they
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
b. Are usually resistant to ether
c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans
d. Are closely related to parvoviruses
267. Which one of the following statements best describes interferon’s suspected mode of action in producing
resistance to viral infection?
a. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity b. It stimulates humoral immunity
c. Its action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation
d. Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits translation or transcription
268. Coronaviruses are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar
coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to
a. Infect infants more frequently than adults b. Cause the common cold
c. Grow well in the usual cultured cell lines d. Grow profusely at 50°C
269. Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients who also have either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B virus.
The delta agent is
a. An incomplete hepatitis B virus b. Related to hepatitis A virus
c. A hepatitis B mutant
d. An incomplete RNA virus
270. Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with Lassa
fever, influenza A and B, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
a. Amantadine b. Rimantadine c. Vidarabine d. Ribavirin
271. Echoviruses are cytopathogenic human viruses that mainly infect the
a. Respiratory system b. Central nervous system c. Blood and lymphatic systems
d. Intestinal tract
272. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV) meningitis in a newborn infant is
a. HSV IgG antibody
b. HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. HSV culture
d. Tzanck smear
273. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (AHC) is a contagious ocular infection characterized by pain, swelling of
the eyelids, and subconjunctival hemorrhages. AHC has been reported to be caused by which of the
following viruses?
a. Coronavirus b. Reovirus c. Rhinovirus d. Enterovirus
274. Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis in the United States. Infection with
mumps virus
a. Is apt to recur periodically in many affected persons
c. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
b. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in postpubertal males
d. Is preventable by immunization
275. The serum of a newborn infant reveals a 1:32 cytomegalovirus (CMV) titer. The child is clinically
asymptomatic. Which of the following courses of action would be advisable?
a. Repeat the CMV titer immediately
b. Wait 6 months and obtain another titer on the baby
c. Obtain a CMV titer from all siblings d. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the baby
276. A 3-year-old child presents at the physician’s office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever,
and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
a. Adenovirus b. Herpesvirus
c. Picornavirus
d. Paramyxovirus
277. One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases that may lead to cervical carcinoma is caused by
which of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus b Papillomavirus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Herpes simplex virus
278. Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children and, when infecting mammalian
cells in culture, will hemabsorb red blood cells?
a. Group B coxsackievirus b. Rotavirus c. Parainfluenza virus d. Adenovirus
279. Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best described by which of the following statements?
a. It is not a threat to the blood supply
b. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
c. It is prevalent in North America
d. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
280. Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset of fever and stiff neck. Aseptic meningitis may be caused by a
variety of microbial agents. During the initial 24 h of the course of aseptic meningitis, an affected person’s
cerebrospinal fluid is characterized by
a. Decreased protein content
b. Elevated glucose concentration
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
281. Infection with hepatitis D virus (HDV; delta agent) can occur simultaneously with infection with hepatitis B
virus (HBV) or in a carrier of hepatitis B virus because HDV is a defective virus that requires HBV for its
function. What serologic test can be used to determine whether a patient with HDV is an HBV carrier?
a. HBsAg
b. HBc IgM c. HBeAg d. HBs IgM
282. A nurse develops clinical symptoms consistent with hepatitis. She recalls sticking herself with a needle
approximately 4 months before after drawing blood from a patient. Serologic tests for HBsAg, antibodies to
HBsAg, and hepatitis A virus (HAV) are all negative; however, she is positive for IgM core antibody. The
Nurse
a.
Has hepatitis C
b. Has hepatitis A
c. Is in the late stages of hepatitis B infection
d. Is in the “window” (after the disappearance of HBsAg and before the appearance of anti-HBsAg)
283. Eastern equine encephalitis virus is associated with a high fatality rate. Control of the disease could be
possible by eradication of
a. Horses
b. Birds
c. Mosquitoes
d. Fleas
284. Adults who have had varicella as children occasionally suffer a recurrent form of the disease, shingles. The
agent causing these diseases is a member of which of the following viral families?
a. Herpesvirus b. Poxvirus
c. Adenovirus
d. Myxovirus
285. Rhinovirus is primarily transmitted by
a. Droplet aerosolization b. Sexual activity c. Fecal-oral route
d. Fomites
286. German measles virus (rubella), a common cause of exanthems in children, is best described by which of the
following statements?
a. Measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella) are caused by the same virus
b. Incubation time is approximately 3 to 4 weeks
c. Vesicular rashes are characteristic
d. Onset is abrupt with cough, coryza, and fever
287. The presence of Negri inclusion bodies in host cells is characteristic of
a. Mumps b. Infectious mononucleosis c. Congenital rubella
d. Aseptic meningitis
288. Kuru is a fatal disease of certain New Guinea natives and is characterized by tremors and ataxia; CreutzfeldtJakob disease (CJD) is characterized by both ataxia and dementia. These diseases are thought to be caused
by
a. Slow viruses
b. Cell wall–deficient bacteria c. Environmental toxins
d. Prions
289. According to recommendations issued by the U.S. Public Health Service, which of the following statements
regarding vaccination against smallpox is true?
a. Pregnant women should be vaccinated in the first trimester
b. Persons who have eczema should be vaccinated soon after diagnosis
c. Persons who have immune deficiencies should be vaccinated every 5 years
d. Persons traveling abroad need not be vaccinated
290. Hepatitis D virus (delta agent) is a defective virus that can replicate only in cells already infected with which
of the following viruses?
a. Hepatitis A virus b. Epstein-Barr virus c. Hepatitis G virus d. Hepatitis B virus
291. A patient presents with keratoconjunctivitis. The differential diagnosis should include infection with which of
the following viruses?
a. Parvovirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
292. A hospital worker is found to have hepatitis B surface antigen. Subsequent tests reveal the presence of e
antigen as well. The worker most likely
a. Is infective and has active hepatitis b. Is infective but does not have active hepatitis
c. Is not infective
d. Is evincing a biologic false-positive test for hepatitis
293. Alphavirus causes which one of the following viral diseases?
a. Marburg virus disease b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Western equine encephalitis d. Dengue
294. Several antiviral compounds have been developed during the last decade. One such compound is ribavirin, a
synthetic nucleoside structurally related to guanosine. Ribavirin therapy has been successfully used against
a. Respiratory syncytial virus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Hepatitis B d. Group A coxsackievirus
295. An immunocompromised person with history of seizures had an MRI that revealed a temporal lobe lesion.
Brain biopsy results showed multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions. The most probable cause
of the lesion is
a. Hepatitis C virus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Coxsackievirus
296. Which of the following procedures or clinical signs is most specific for the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?
a. Laboratory diagnosis is based on the presence of “atypical lymphocytes” and EBV-specific antibody
b. Growth in tissue culture cells c. Heterophile antibodies in serum
d. Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly on physical examination
297. An infant, seen in the ER, presents with a fever and persistent cough. Physical examination and a chest x-ray
suggest pneumonia. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this infection?
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus c. Coxsackievirus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
298. Which one of the following groups of people may be at increased risk for HIV infection?
a. Members of a household in which there is a person who is HIV-positive
b. Receptionists at a hospital c. Factory workers whose coworkers are HIV-positive
d. Foreign service employees who are hospitalized in Zaire for bleeding ulcers
299. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in the eighteenth week of
pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella vaccination. The best immediate course of action is to
a. Terminate the pregnancy b. Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
c. Reassure the patient because rubella is not a problem until after the thirtieth week
d. Administer rubella immune globulin
300. Mad Cow Disease has been highly publicized in Great Britain. This disease, which is similar to scrapie, is
caused by a. A prion b. A virus c. Rickettsiae
d. An autoimmune reaction
301. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all the tests for
HAV-IgG and HAV-IgM are nonreactive. A possible cause of this infection is
a. Hepatitis B surface antigen b. Hepatitis C c. Hepatitis D d. Hepatitis E
302. A 70-year-old nursing home patient refused the influenza vaccine and subsequently developed influenza. She
died of acute pneumonia 1 week after contracting the “flu.” The most common cause of acute postinfluenzal
pneumonia is
a. Legionella b. Listeria c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Klebsiella
303. Which of the following viruses is primarily transmitted by the fecaloral route?
a. St. Louis encephalitis virus
b. Colorado tick fever virus
c. Coxsackievirus d. Yellow fever virus
304. Hantavirus is an emerging pathogen that is best described by which of the following statements?
a. Influenza-like symptoms are followed rapidly by acute respiratory failure
b. Hemolysis is common in infected patients
c. It is acquired by inhalation of aerosols of the urine and feces of deer
d. Transmission from human to human is common
305. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), a self-limited disease of children, is caused by
a. Measles
b. Parvovirus c. Rubella d. Human herpesvirus type 6
306. Which one of the following viruses may be human tumor virus?
a. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
b. HIV
c. Papillomavirus d. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
307. Parvovirus infection, the cause of a mild exanthem in children, is characterized by
a. Epidemic acute respiratory disease b. Gastroenteritis c. Whooping cough–like disease
d. Acute hemolytic anemia
308. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is common. Which one of the following statements best characterizes
CMV?
a. It can be transmitted across the placental barrier
b. While a common infection, CMV is almost always symptomatic
c. The CMV can be cultured from red blood cells of infected patients
d. Unlike other viral infections, CMV is not activated by immunosuppressive therapy
309. Human rotaviruses are characterized by which of the following statements?
a. They produce an infection that is primarily seen in adults
b. They produce cytopathic effects in many conventional tissue culture systems
c. They are lipid-containing RNA viruses possessing a double-shelled capsid
d. They can be sensitively and rapidly detected in stools by the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
(ELISA) technique
310. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis virus (SSPE) is best described by which of the following statements?
a. It is a progressive disease involving both white and gray matter b. It is a late CNS manifestation of mumps
c. It is a common event occurring in 1 of 300,000 cases of mumps
d. Viral DNA can be demonstrated in brain cells
311. Rotavirus is a double-stranded RNA virus with a double-walled capsid. Which one of the following
statements best describes rotavirus?
a. There are no related animal viruses
b. It is a major cause of neonatal diarrhea
c. It is readily cultured from the stool of infected persons
d. Maternal antibody does not appear to be protective
312. Paramyxoviruses are most commonly associated with which of the following diseases?
a. Fifth disease
b. Rubella
c. Croup
d. Tonsillitis
313. Human papillomavirus is most commonly associated with
a. Rectal polyps
b. Prostate cancer
c. Condyloma acuminatum
d. Hepatic carcinoma
314. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme unique to the retroviruses. Which one of the following is a function of the
enzyme reverse transcriptase?
a. DNase activity
b. RNA-dependent RNA polymerase activity c. RNA isomerase activity
d. RNA-dependent DNA polymerase activity
315. St. Louis encephalitis, a viral infection, was first recognized as an entity in 1933. Which of the following best
describes SLE?
a. It is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected tick
b. It is caused by a togavirus
c. It is the major arboviral cause of central nervous system infection in the United States
d. It may present initially with symptoms similar to influenza
316. There is considerable overlap of signs and symptoms seen in congenital and perinatal infections. In a neonate
with “classic” symptoms of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, which one of the following tests
would be most useful in establishing a diagnosis?
a. CMV IgG titer on neonate’s serum at birth
b. CMV IgG titer on mother’s serum at birth of infant
c. CMV IgM titer on neonate’s serum at birth and at 1 month of age
d. Total IgM on neonate’s serum at birth
317. Interferon, a protein that inhibits viral replication, is produced by cells in tissue culture when the cells are
stimulated with which of the following?
a. Botulinum toxin
b. Synthetic polypeptides c. Viruses
d. Chlamydiae
318. Which one of the following statements best describes the cytopathic effects of viruses on host cells?
a. Usually morphological in nature b. Often associated with changes in mitochondrial membranes
c. Pathognomonic for an infecting virus
d. Rarely fatal to the host cell
319. A 17-year-old girl presents with cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and pharyngitis. Infectious mononucleosis
is suspected. The most rapid and clinically useful test to make this diagnosis is
a. IgM antibody to viral core antigen (VCA)
b. IgG antibody to VCA
c. Antibody to Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen (EBNA)
d. Culture
320. Which one of the following viruses would be most likely to establish a latent infection?
a. Adenovirus
b. Measles virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Parvovirus
321. A regimen that includes appropriately administered gamma globulin may be contraindicated in which one of
the following diseases?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Rabies
d. Infectious mononucleosis
322. Atypical lymphocytosis is most likely to be found in which one of the following diseases?
a. Encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) b. Mononucleosis induced by Epstein-Barr virus
c. Parvovirus infection d. Chronic hepatitis C
323. A patient has arthralgia, a rash, lymphadenopathy, pneumonia but no fever. Which of the following diseases
is most likely based on these symptoms?
a. Dengue fever
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Hepatitis
324. Hepatitis C (HCV) is usually a clinically mild disease, with only minimal elevation of liver enzymes.
Hospitalization is unusual. Which one of the following statements best characterizes HCV?
a. Few cases progress to chronic liver disease
b. It often occurs in posttransfusion patients
c. HBV but not HCV infections occur in IV drug abusers
d. It is a DNA virus
325. Which of the following markers is usually the first viral marker detected after hepatitis B infection?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
326. Which of the following may be the only detectable serological marker during the early convalescent phase of
HBV infection (window phase)?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
327. Which one of the following markers is closely associated with HBV infectivity and DNA polymerase
activity?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
328. Which of the following is found within the nuclei of infected hepatocytes and not usually in the peripheral
circulation?
a. HBeAg
b. HBsAg
c. HBcAg
d. Anti-HBc
329. Which one of the following viruses is the leading cause of congenital malformations?
a. Rabies b. Rhinovirus
c. Cytomegalovirus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
330. Orchitis, which may cause sterility, is a possible manifestation of which of the following?
a. Rabies
b. Rhinovirus c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Mumps
331. Which of the following is a leading cause of pneumonia primarily in infants?
a. Rabies b. Rhinovirus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
332. Which of the following causes a fatal encephalitis for which a vaccine is available?
a. Rabies b. Rhinovirus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
333. Traditional vaccination for the common cold is virtually impossible because there are multiple serotypes of
which one of the following viruses?
a. Rabies b.Rhinovirus c. Cytomegalovirus d. Respiratory syncytial virus
334. Which of the following is available and effective for hepatitis A?
a. Acyclovir
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine
d. Live virus vaccine
335. Patients should be vaccinated annually for influenza with which of the following vaccines?
a. Immune serum globulin b. Killed virus vaccine c. Inactivated virus vaccine d. Live virus vaccine
336. The vaccine for measles is best characterized as a
a. Bacterin
b. Killed virus vaccine
c. Inactivated virus vaccine d. Live virus vaccine
337. Which one of the following would be the treatment of choice for HSV infection?
a. Acyclovir b. Killed virus vaccine c. Herpes immune globulin d. Azythromycin
338. Which of the following best describes the presently available vaccine for hepatitis B?
a. Synthetic peptide vaccine b. Killed virus vaccine c. Inactivated virus vaccine d. Recombinant viral vaccine
339. Chicken pox is a common disease of childhood. It is caused by which of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Rotavirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Adenovirus
340. Excluding influenza, which one of the following viruses is a common cause of acute respiratory disease?
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Rotavirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Adenovirus
341. Human warts are not only cosmetically unsightly but may lead to cancer of the cervix. They are caused by
which one of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Rotavirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Papillomavirus
342. A vaccine is available for one of the most common causes of infantile gastroenteritis. However, it has
recently been recalled. The virus is
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Rotavirus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Adenovirus
343. A child has mononucleosis-like symptoms yet the test for mononucleosis and the EBV titers are negative.
One of the causes of heterophilenegative mononucleosis is
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Herpes simplex virus c. Varicella-zoster virus d. Adenovirus
344. Malaise and fatigue with increased “atypical” lymphocytes and a reactive heterophil antibody test is most
commonly caused by
a. Toxoplasma b. Borrelia burgdorferi c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Parvovirus
345. Lethargy, malaise, and fatigue are observed in a patient 2 weeks after eating raw hamburger at a restaurant.
346.
347.
348.
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
360.
361.
362.
363.
364.
The most likely infectious cause is
a. Toxoplasma b. Cytomegalovirus
c. E. coli
d. Salmonella
The diagnostic enzyme for denitrification is
A. nitrate reductase
B. nitrate oxidase
C. nitro oxidoreductase
D. nitrogen
This virus may be detected by the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in a variety of cells of patients with
nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella d. Epstein-Barr virus
This virus causes a mononucleosis-like syndrome caused by a latent herpesvirus; it is often a congenital
infection. Large amounts of the virus are excreted in the urine; thus, urine becomes the fluid of choice for
diagnosis of this disease.
a. Epstein-Barr virus
b. Cytomegalovirus c. HHV-6
d. Parvovirus
Human papillomavirus
a. Cervical tissue b. Synovial fluid
c. Blood d. Skin
Cytomegalovirus
a. Cervical tissue b. Synovial fluid
c. Blood
d. Skin
Enterovirus
a. Cervical tissue
b. Synovial fluid c. Blood d. Cerebrospinal fluid
Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
a. Cervical tissue b. Synovial fluid c. Blood d. Skin
Adenovirus:
a. Cervical tissue b. Synovial fluid c. Blood d. Stool
Which of the following is transmitted by the fecal-oral route; can be acquired from shellfish; and often causes
acute jaundice, diarrhea, and liver function abnormalities?
a. Rotavirus
b. Adenovirus
c. Norwalk virus
d. Hepatitis A virus
Which of the following is the second most common cause of pediatric gastroenteritis? Unlike other similar
viruses, this virus causes only gastroenteritis.
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus
c. Norwalk virus d. Astrovirus
Which of the following is the most common cause of pediatric gastroenteritis? It is difficult to grow in cell
culture but can be detected easily by immunologic methods (ELISA).
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus
c. Norwalk virus d. Astrovirus
Which of the following is a common cause of epidemic gastroenteritis, particularly aboard cruise ships and in
summer camps? It may be detected by ELISA methods or electron microscopy.
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus c. Norwalk virus d. Astrovirus
Which of the following is a cause of mild gastroenteritis? It can be transmitted by the fecal-oral route but not
by food consumption.
a. Rotavirus b. Adenovirus 40/41 c. Norwalk virus d. Astrovirus
IgM antibody to the viral particle is the method of choice for laboratory diagnosis of which one of the
following hepatitis viruses?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D
This virus belongs to the family of flaviviruses and its reservoir is strictly human. Transmission is bloodborne so the blood supply is routinely screened for this virus.
a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D
Vaccination for this hepatic disease is with viral surface antigen and usually provides immunity.
a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D
This hepatitis virus is a calicivirus. The reservoir is in pigs, and humans acquire it via the fecal-oral route.
a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis E
This hepatitis virus is a defective virus in that it cannot replicate independently without the presence of
hepatitis B virus.
a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D
Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and
is associated with cervical neoplasia?
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus d. Polyomavirus
365. Recently appearing in the United States, this virus is carried by birds, transmitted by mosquitoes, and infects
humans and horses.
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus d. Polyomavirus
366. Which of the following viruses causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), a disease causing
demyelination in the central nervous system?
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus d. Polyomavirus
367. This virus is transmitted by the same arthropod that transmits babesiosis and ehrlichiosis.
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus d. Polyomavirus
368. This virus is a single-stranded RNA orthomyxovirus. Annual vaccination is necessary because of antigenic
drift and shift.
a. Measles virus b. Influenza virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Parainfluenza virus
369. This virus is a single-stranded RNA paramyxovirus. The rash known as Koplik’s spots is pathognomonic.
a. Measles virus b. Influenza virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Parainfluenza virus
370. This virus is the leading cause of bronchiolitis and communityacquired pneumonia in infants.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Parainfluenza virus
371. This is a paramyxovirus and causes the syndrome known as croup.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Parainfluenza virus
372. This is a double-stranded DNA virus. It is responsible for 15% of pediatric respiratory infections and 10 to
15% of acute diarrhea in children.
a. Measles virus b. Influenza virus c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Adenovirus
373. The clinical picture of arbovirus infection fits one of three categories: encephalitis, hemorrhagic fever, or
fever with myalgia. One of the characteristics of arboviruses is that they
a. Are transmitted by arthropod vectors
b. Are usually resistant to ether
c. Usually cause symptomatic infection in humans
d. Are closely related to parvoviruses
374. Which one of the following statements best describes interferon’s suspected mode of action in producing
resistance to viral infection?
a. It stimulates a cell-mediated immunity b. It stimulates humoral immunity
c. Its direct antiviral action is related to the suppression of messenger RNA formation
d. Its action is related to the synthesis of a protein that inhibits translation or transcription
375. Coronaviruses are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar
coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to
a. Infect infants more frequently than adults
b. Cause the common cold
c. Grow well in the usual cultured cell lines
d. Grow profusely at 50°C
376. Delta hepatitis only occurs in patients who also have either acute or chronic infection with hepatitis B virus.
The delta agent is
a. An incomplete hepatitis B virus
b. Related to hepatitis A virus
c. A hepatitis B mutant
d. An incomplete RNA virus
377. Which of the following antiviral agents is a purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with Lassa
fever, influenza A and B, and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
a. Amantadine b. Rimantadine
c. Vidarabine d. Ribavirin
378. Echoviruses are cytopathogenic human viruses that mainly infect the
a. Respiratory system b. Central nervous system c. Blood and lymphatic systems d. Intestinal tract
379. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of herpes simplex (HSV) meningitis in a newborn infant is
a. HSV IgG antibody
b. HSV polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. HSV culture
d. Tzanck smear
380.
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (AHC) is a contagious ocular infection characterized by pain, swelling of
the eyelids, and subconjunctival hemorrhages. AHC has been reported to be caused by which of the
following viruses?
a. Coronavirus b. Reovirus c. Rhinovirus d. Enterovirus
381.
Mumps virus accounts for 10 to 15% of all cases of aseptic meningitis in the United States. Infection with
mumps virus
a. Is preventable by immunization b. Will usually cause mumps orchitis in postpubertal males
c. Is maintained in a large canine reservoir
d. Usually produces severe systemic manifestations
382. The serum of a newborn infant reveals a 1:32 cytomegalovirus (CMV) titer. The child is clinically
asymptomatic. Which of the following courses of action would be advisable?
a. Repeat the CMV titer immediately
b. Wait 6 months and obtain another titer on the baby
c. Obtain a CMV titer from all siblings
d. Obtain an anti-CMV IgM titer from the baby
383. Rickettsiae are Gram-negative bacteria that cause a wide range of diseases. The agent of Rocky Mountain
spotted fever (RMSF) is best characterized by the statement that it
a. Grows on 7% sheep blood agar
b. Has an “atypical” Gram-negative cell wall
c. Is energy-deficient and cannot phosphorylate glucose
d. Is normal flora of the mosquito gut
e. Is susceptible to penicillin
384. One of the most common sexually transmitted diseases that may lead to cervical carcinoma is caused by
which of the following viruses?
a. Cytomegalovirus b. Papillomavirus c. Epstein-Barr virus d. Herpes simplex virus
385. Which virus is the leading cause of the croup syndrome in young children and, when infecting mammalian
cells in culture, will hemabsorb red blood cells?
a. Group B coxsackievirus
b. Rotavirus
c. Parainfluenza virus
d. Adenovirus
386.
Hepatitis E, a recently characterized hepatitis virus, is best described by which of the following statements?
a. It is not a threat to the blood supply
b. It is a major cause of blood-borne hepatitis
c. It is prevalent in North America
d. It is a single-stranded DNA virus
387.
Meningitis is characterized by the acute onset of fever and stiff neck. Aseptic meningitis may be caused by
a variety of microbial agents. During the initial 24 h of the course of aseptic meningitis, an affected
person’s cerebrospinal fluid is characterized by
a. Decreased protein content
b. Elevated glucose concentration
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytosis
388.
Alphavirus causes which one of the following viral diseases?
a. Marburg virus disease
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Western equine encephalitis
d. Dengue
389. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), a self-limited disease of children, is caused by
a. Measles
b. Parvovirus c. Rubella d. Human herpes virus type 6
390. Which one of the following viruses may be human tumor virus?
a. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
b. HIV
c. Papillomavirus
d. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
391. Parvovirus infection, the cause of a mild exanthem in children, is characterized by
a. Epidemic acute respiratory disease
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Whooping cough–like disease
d. Acute hemolytic anemia
392.
A patient has arthralgia, a rash, lymphadenopathy, pneumonia but no fever. Which of the following diseases
is most likely based on these symptoms?
a. Dengue fever
b. St. Louis encephalitis
c. Infectious mononucleosis d. . HIV infection
393.
Which of the following causes a fatal encephalitis for which a vaccine is available?
a. Rabies
b. Rhinovirus c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
394.
Chlamydia pneumoniae, sometimes known as Chlamydia “TWAR,” is
the most recent Chlamydia species to be associated with human disease.
Which one of the following statements best describes C. pneumoniae?
a. C. pneumoniae infections are generally severe
b. C. pneumoniae infections are uncommon—up to 10% of adults may show specific antibody
c. Nonpsittacine birds are reservoirs of C. pneumoniae
d. C. pneumoniae has been associated with myocardial infarction
395.
A vaccine is available for one of the most common causes of infantile gastroenteritis. However, it has
recently been recalled. The virus is
a. Cytomegalovirus
b. Rotavirus
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Adenovirus
396.
Lethargy, malaise, and fatigue are observed in a patient 2 weeks after eating raw hamburger at a restaurant.
The most likely infectious cause is
a. Toxoplasma b. Cytomegalovirus c. E. coli d. Salmonella
397. Trachoma is one of the leading causes of blindness. Which of the following best typifies the disease?
a. It is caused by C. trachomatis
b. It is best treated with systemic cephalosporins and ophthalmic tetracycline
c. It affects 400 million people in the Pacific Rim
d. It is a form of chronic uveitis
398. Which of the following viruses causes progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), a disease
causing demyelination in the central nervous system?
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus
d. Polyomavirus
399. This virus is transmitted by the same arthropod that transmits babesiosis and ehrlichiosis
a. Human papillomavirus
b. West Nile virus
c. Tick-borne encephalitis virus d. Polyomavirus
400. This is a double-stranded DNA virus. It is responsible for 15% of pediatric respiratory infections and 10
to 15% of acute diarrhea in children.
a. Measles virus
b. Influenza virus
c. Respiratory syncytial virus d. Adenovirus