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Biology 231 Spring 2005
Final Exam
Circle the letter corresponding to the best response. (2pt each)
1) Organs of which system are found within the dorsal cavity?
a. urinary system
b. respiratory system
c. nervous system
d. integumentary system
2) The small intestines are found within which body cavity?
a. pelvic cavity
b. abdominal cavity
c. thoracic cavity
d. dorsal cavity
3) During fetal development, mesenchyme cells can develop into osteoblasts, fibroblasts,
or chondroblasts in different body regions. This is an example of
a. growth
b. metabolism
c. differentiation
d. responsiveness
4) Which of the following best defines a tissue?
a. the basic structural and functional unit of life
b. a group of cells that work together to perform a particular function
c. a group of related organs with a common function
d. the membranes that line and cover organs
5) Which of the following is a sign of infection?
a. nausea
b. fever
c. dizziness
d. headache
6) In order to study body metabolism, which level of organization would it be most
helpful to understand?
a. system
b. chemical
c. organ
d. tissue
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7) Which of the following is NOT true regarding enzymes?
a. they are organic catalysts
b. they increase the rate of a specific reaction
c. their function depends on their structure
d. they are composed of nucleic acids
8) The most abundant inorganic substance in the human body is
a. glucose
b. fat
c. water
d. protein
9) Carbohydrates are stored in muscles in the form of
a. glucose
b. triglycerides
c. glycogen
d. adipose tissue
10) In the body, reactions that use energy to build larger molecules from smaller ones are
a. catabolic reactions
b. exergonic reactions
c. anabolic reactions
d. decomposition reactions
11) Which of the following is true regarding DNA and RNA?
a. both are composed of amino acids
b. both are found in chromosomes
c. both are involved in gene expression
d. both have a double helix structure
12) How are phospholipid molecules arranged within the plasma membrane?
a. the polar lipid tails are oriented towards the ECF and ICF because they
are hydrophobic
b. the polar phosphate heads are oriented towards the ECF and ICF because
they are hydrophilic
c. the nonpolar lipid tails are oriented towards the ECF and ICF because
they are hydrophobic
d. the nonpolar phosphate heads are oriented towards the ECF and ICF because
they are hydrophobic
13) Solute molecules move across a membrane “down” their concentration gradient in
a. active transport
b. endocytosis
c. simple diffusion
d. osmosis
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14) A red blood cell placed in pure water would
a. undergo crenation due to the hypotonic solution
b. undergo lysis due to the hypotonic solution
c. undergo crenation due to the isotonic solution
d. undergo lysis due to the hypertonic solution
15) The process of transcription involves production of
a. mRNA from a DNA template
b. two new DNA strands from the original strand
c. DNA from an RNA template
d. a protein from a tRNA template
16) The organelles which contain digestive enzymes to break down phagocytized
materials are
a. mitochondria
b. lysosomes
c. nucleolus
d. rough ER
17) Which of the following lists the phases of mitosis in the correct order?
a. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
b. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase
c. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d. telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase
18) Ions can travel between cardiac muscle cells via which cell junctions?
a. adherens junctions
b. gap junctions
c. tight junctions
d. hemidesmosomes
19) Which of the following is NOT true regarding epithelial tissues?
a. they produce fibers and ground substance called matrix
b. they form glands which produce secretions
c. they attach to underlying connective tissues via a basement membrane
d. they line body surfaces and cavities
20) Dense connective tissue is found in
a. adipose tissue
b. spongy bone
c. the periosteum of bones
d. epiphyseal plates of bones
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21) Which tissue’s functions are related to the composition of their matrix?
a. epithelial tissue
b. connective tissue
c. muscle tissue
d. nervous tissue
22) If fibrosis occurs during tissue repair, then
a. a perfect reconstruction of the injured tissue occurs
b. regeneration of all damaged cells has occurred
c. loss of some functional tissue has occurred
d. only connective tissue was involved in the injury
23) Which of the following statements is true regarding the epidermis?
a. it contains keratinocytes, which produce melanin
b. it is composed mainly of areolar connective tissue
c. hair and nails are modifications of the epidermis
d. it is simple squamous epithelium
24) Just beneath the dermis of the skin is the
a. basement membrane
b. reticular dermis
c. stratum lucidum
d. subcutaneous tissue
25) Which of the following layers of epidermis sloughs off regularly?
a. stratum spinosum
b. stratum corneum
c. stratum basale
d. stratum granulosum
26) The most common forms of skin cancer are all caused, at least in part, by
a. secretion of the sebaceous glands
b. production of keratin
c. exposure to sunlight
d. production of melanin
27) Which of the following is true regarding thin skin?
a. it has hair and sebaceous glands
b. it has a thick stratum lucidum
c. it is found on the palms of the hands
d. it has epidermal ridges
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28) The frontal and parietal bones form by the process of
a. secondary ossification
b. intramembranous ossification
c. epiphyseal ossification
d. endochondral ossification
29) Osteons are the main components of
a. compact bone
b. trabecular bone
c. spongy bone
d. epiphyseal plates
30) The matrix of bone consists mostly of
a. elastic fibers
b. mineral salts
c. osteocytes
d. osteoblasts
31) Which of the following is true regarding long bones?
a. they grow in length at the epiphyseal plate
b. the diaphysis is mainly spongy bone
c. the metaphyses are the ends of the bone
d. they form by intramembranous ossificaton
32) Which hormone causes resorption of bone to increase blood calcium?
a. estrogen
b. human growth hormone
c. parathyroid hormone
d. sex hormones
33) A bedridden person loses bone mass because of decreased
a. osteoclast activity
b. mechanical stress on bones
c. dietary calcium
d. resorption of bone
34) The pelvic girdle attaches to the axial skeleton at the
a. thoracic vertebrae
b. lumbar vertebrae
c. sacral vertebrae
d. coccygeal vertebrae
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35) Which structures are NOT involved in protection of the thoracic organs?
a. sternum
b. cervical vertebrae
c. true ribs
d. costal cartilages
36) Which bone is part of the cranium?
a. mandible
b. zygomatic
c. maxilla
d. occipital
37) A function of the paranasal sinuses is to
a. provide a surface for muscle attachment
b. act as resonating chambers
c. provide extensive surface area for gas exchange
d. form part of the nasal septum the nasal septum
38) The tongue is supported by which bone?
a. hyoid
b. ethmoid
c. vomer
d. palatine
39) Which part of the vertebra is cushioned by intervertebral discs?
a. transverse process
b. vertebral foramen
c. spinous process
d. vertebral body
40) The proximal end of the femur articulates with the
a. coxal bone
b. patella
c. sacrum
d. tibia
41) The rotator cuff is a group of muscle tendons that support the
a. knee joint
b. elbow joint
c. shoulder joint
d. hip joint
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42) Which of the following is part of the pectoral limb?
a. metatarsals
b. fibula
c. radius
d. femur
43) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the scapula?
a. it articulates with the humerus
b. it articulates with the clavicle
c. it articulates with the vertebral column
d. it is attached to the thorax by muscles
44) The bones making up the wrist are the
a. metacarpals
b. carpals
c. metatarsals
d. tarsals
45) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the pelvic cavity?
a. it is surrounded by the true pelvis
b. the baby passes through it during childbirth
c. it is surrounded anteriorly by abdominal muscles
d. it is normally larger in females than in males
46) Which of the following joint types is NOT freely moveable?
a. pivot joint
b. symphysis
c. synovial joint
d. hinge joint
47) Dense regular connective tissue connecting one bone to another is a
a. ligament
b. tendon
c. meniscus
d. synovial membrane
48) Flexion and extension are the principle movements performed at
a. planar joints
b. pivot joints
c. sutures
d. hinge joints
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49) Which of the following is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
a. tibiofemoral joint
b. coxofemoral joint
c. atlantoaxial joint
d. temporomandibular joint
50) When you sit with your palms pressed flat against the table, your palms are
a. inverted
b. everted
c. pronated
d. supinated
51) The ability of a muscle to shorten when stimulated is
a. excitability
b. contractility
c. extensibility
d. permeability
52) The sarcoplasmic reticulum forms the
a. storage site for calcium ions in muscle cells
b. plasma membrane of a muscle fiber
c. separation between sarcomeres in a myofibril
d. thick and thin filaments
53) The light I bands seen in striated muscle contain
a. only thin filaments
b. only thick filaments
c. overlapping thick and thin filaments
d. only regulatory proteins
54) The function of calcium ions during contraction of skeletal muscle is to
a. bind to receptors at the neuromuscular junction to stimulate muscle contraction
b. cause a voltage change in the muscle cell to trigger an action potential
c. attach to the myosin heads to energize them
d. bind to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments, freeing myosin-binding sites
55) Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract when
a. acetylcholine diffuses into the muscle cell
b. acetylcholine binds to receptors at the neuromuscular junction
c. ATP is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. ATP energizes actin thin filaments
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56) What structures meet at the neuromuscular junction?
a. T tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. actin and myosin filaments
c. motor neuron and muscle fiber
d. axon terminal and dendrite
57) The Sliding Filament Mechanism says that sarcomeres shorten when
a. actin filaments shorten by binding with myosin heads
b. thin filaments are pulled towards the M line by the thick filaments
c. myosin heads bind to actin, causing the thick filaments to shorten
d. acetylcholine reduces friction between actin and myosin, so they slide
over each other
58) The latent period of a muscle twitch is the time
a. between stimulation and the start of contraction
b. when the muscle is shortening
c. during which a muscle cell cannot respond to another stimulation
d. when the muscle is relaxing
59) Fused tetanus is
a. increased strength of contraction due to “warming up” of muscle
b. a sustained contraction in which individual twitches cannot be seen
c. a brief contraction of all the fibers in a motor unit
d. a phenomenon that occurs 3-4 hours after death
60) A motor unit is
a. all the muscles that act as prime movers for a particular action
b. all of the neurons that stimulate a particular skeletal muscle
c. a motor neuron plus all the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates
d. the quantity of neurotransmitter required to stimulate muscle contraction
61) The effect of acetylcholine on skeletal muscle fibers ends when
a. an action potential is generated
b. myosin attaches to actin
c. sodium ions begin diffusing out of the fiber
d. acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase
62) The term “power stroke” in skeletal muscle contraction, refers to the
a. flooding of the muscle cell with calcium ions
b. release of acetylcholine from a motor neuron
c. pulling of the tendon on bones as a muscle contracts
d. rotation of the myosin heads pulling on the actin filaments
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63) The compound that is stored in muscle as a readily available source of ATP is
a. glucose
b. creatine phosphate
c. phospholipid
d. lactic acid
64) 2 molecules of pyruvic acid and 2 ATP are the products of
a. breakdown of glycogen
b. glycolysis
c. aerobic cellular respiration
d. ATP hydrolysis
65) Slow oxidative fibers contract more slowly because they
a. break down acetylcholine slowly
b. contract more powerfully
c. recover from fatigue slowly
d. have slow ATPase
66) Muscle cells with the greatest strength, but the least resistance to fatigue are
a. slow oxidative skeletal muscle fibers
b. fast oxidative glycolytic skeletal muscle fibers
c. fast glycolytic skeletal muscle fibers
d. cardiac muscle fibers
67) When one stimulates a muscle before the muscle has completely relaxed, the
muscle contraction increases in strength, a phenomenon called
a. wave summation
b. muscle tone
c. isometric contraction
d. isotonic contraction
68) The tissue in the skin that causes hairs to stand up when you are cold is
a. smooth muscle
b. fibrous connective tissue
c. cardiac muscle
d. elastic connective tissue
69) Which of the following is characteristic of slow oxidative muscle fibers?
a. appear pale and white
b. use anaerobic metabolic processes
c. well supplied with blood and myoglobin
d. participate in strength and speed activities
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70) The state of muscle stiffness after death, called rigor mortis, is NOT related to
a. leakage of stored calcium ions
b. decomposition of muscle fibers
c. lack of ATP production
d. binding of myosin heads to actin
71) In a muscle group, the muscle that relaxes during a desired action is the
a. prime mover
b. antagonist
c. fixator
d. synergist
72) Which of the following refers to the relative size of a muscle?
a. pectinate
b. quadriceps
c. major
d. rectus
73) Which term refers to muscles with feather-like fascicle arrangement?
a. parallel muscle
b. pennate muscle
c. fusiform muscle
d. triangular muscle
74) The connective tissue forming the anterior border of the carpal tunnel is the
a. calcaneal tendon
b. flexor retinaculum
c. plantar aponeuroses
d. collateral ligament
75) Which of the following would act as an antagonist to the hamstrings during
flexion of the knee?
a. quadriceps femoris
b. biceps femoris
c. gastrocnemius
d. semitendinosus
76) The peripheral nervous system does NOT include the
a. spinal nerves
b. sensory receptors
c. spinal cord
d. ganglia
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77) The site of communication between 2 neurons is called a
a. Nissl body
b. synapse
c. ganglion
d. dendrite
78) Neurons that have one main dendrite and one axon are called
a. multipolar neurons
b. bipolar neurons
c. unipolar neurons
d. monopolar neurons
79) Gaps in the myelin sheath are called
a. nodes of Ranvier
b. Schwann cells
c. trigger zones
d. axon collaterals
80) White matter of the nervous system is composed mainly of
a. myelinated axons
b. cell bodies
c. neuroglial cells
d. ganglia
81) The part of a neuron that receives impulses is the
a. axon
b. dendrite
c. axon collateral
d. Nissl body
82) Action potentials are propagated down an axon by which ion channels?
a. ligand-gated channels
b. mechanically-gated channels
c. voltage-gated channels
d. leakage channels
83) During the depolarization phase of an action potential, which of the following
is the primary activity?
a. potassium ions rush into the neuron
b. potassium ions rush out of the neuron
c. sodium ions rush into the neuron
d. sodium ions rush out of the neuron
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84) The term saltatory (leaping) conduction refers to
a. conduction of a nerve impulse across a synapse
b. movement of sodium ions through ion channels
c. conduction of a nerve impulse along an unmyelinated axon
d. conduction of a nerve impulse along a myelinated axon
85) The axons which conduct action potentials the fastest are
a. small diameter, myelinated axons
b. large diameter, myelinated axons
c. small diameter, unmyelinated axons
d. large diameter, unmyelinated axons
86) Which of the following is true regarding chemical synapses?
a. they are connected by gap junctions
b. they communicate via neurotransmitters
c. they are always excitatory
d. they are faster than electrical synapses
87) Summation resulting from neurotransmitter signals released by several different
presynaptic neurons at the same time is called
a. spatial summation
b. temporal summation
c. presynaptic summation
d. wave summation
88) The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to potassium ions than to
sodium ions because the membrane has
a. more voltage-gated sodium channels
b. more sodium leakage channels
c. more potassium leakage channels
d. fewer voltage-gated sodium channels
89) The threshold of a neuron is the
a. time between binding of the neurotransmitter and firing of an action potential
b. voltage in the neuron at which voltage-gated sodium channels open
c. amount of neurotransmitter it takes to cause an action potential
d. voltage across the resting cell membrane
90) The ability of neurons to produce new synaptic pathways during learning is
a. chromatolysis
b. regeneration
c. replication
d. plasticity
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Match the terms with the proper descriptions. (1pt each)
a. sarcomere
b. mitochondria
c. troponin
d. myofibril
e. fascicle
f. terminal cistern
g. perimysium
h. endomysium
i. titin
j. myosin
1) _____ invagination of the sarcolemma
2) _____ molecule that binds oxygen
3) _____ regulatory muscle protein
4) _____ site of aerobic respiration
5) _____ separates individual sarcomeres
6) _____ contractile protein of thick filaments
7) _____ basic contractile unit of muscle
8) _____ bundle of muscle fibers
9) _____ large, structural muscle protein
10) _____ connective tissue wrapping entire muscle
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k. T tubule
l. epimysium
m. Z disc
n. myoglobin
o. actin
Match the muscles with their origins and insertions, or their actions. (1pt each)
a. deltoid
b. rectus abdominis
c. flexor digitorum longus
d. sternocleidomastoid
e. brachialis
f. masseter
g. gastrocnemius
h. tibialis anterior
i. pectoralis major
j. gluteus maximus
Origins and Insertions
1) _____ zygomatic arch to mandible
2) _____ sternum and anterior ribs to proximal humerus
3) _____ pubic symphysis to xiphoid process & ribs
4) _____ distal, posterior femur to calcaneus
5) _____ posterior tibia to distal phalanges
Muscle Actions
6) _____ abducts arm at shoulder
7) _____ flexes neck
8) _____ flexes arm at elbow
9) _____ extends leg at hip
10) _____ dorsiflexes foot
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