Download AIPG_2006__Dental

3.
AIPG 2006 (DENTAL)
4.
7.
1.
All of the following are correct with regard to acute
necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, except:
1.
2.
3.
4.
2.
2.
3.
4.
The most common site of occurrence of lateral
periodontal cyst is1.
2.
3.
4.
4.
2.
3.
4.
3.
4.
9.
Elongated, large pulp chambers and short
roots.
Elongated, small pulp chambers and short
roots.
Elongated, small pulp chambers and large
roots.
Short, small pulp chambers and large roots.
3.
Requires least amount of mercury.
Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.
Liquefaction degeneration
Coagulation necrosis
Neoangiogenesis
Epithelial dysplasia
Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
13.
Single mix materials have higher viscosity
Shear thinning is related to viscosity of mono
phase impression material
Improper mixing of material can cause
permanent deformation of impression
Putty-wash technique of impression reduces
dimensional change on setting
Apoptosis is suggestive of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lambda.
Inion.
Pterion.
Vertex.
Which of the following statements is true regarding
lathe cut silver alloy?
1.
2.
4.
12.
Liquefies between 71-100°C
Solidifies between 50-70°C
Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes
Can not register fine surface details
Which of the following is not true about
elastomeric impression?
1.
2.
11.
Reduces contraction.
Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but
reduces the strength of spherical alloy
amalgam.
Decreases creep.
Gives a dull and crumbly amalgam mix.
Which of the following is true about Agar
hydrocolloid impression material?
1.
2.
3.
4.
10.
Can extend upto a depth of 100-500 µm.
Decreases if tin content of alloy increases.
Is promoted by gama phase of alloy particles.
Is resisted the most by copper-tin phase in high
copper amalgams.
Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury:
1.
2.
Between the mandibular cuspid and first
premolar.
Maxillary tuberosity area.
Between the maxillary premolars.
Mandibular third molar area.
Which one of the junction of the frontal, parietal,
temporal and greater wing of sphenoid?
1.
2.
3.
4.
6.
8.
In the taurodontism, the teeth exhibit:
1.
5.
Trauma to the tooth germ during root
development.
Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during
root development.
Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium
during tooth development.
Abnormal displacement of Ameloblasts during
tooth formation.
Corrosion of amalgam restoration: 1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following is the cause of
dilacerations?
1.
3.
There is necrosis of the interdental papillae.
Sloughing of the necrotic tissue presents as a
pseudo membrane over the tissues.
It is associated with decreased resistance to
infection.
It causes chronic inflammation of the gingival.
Has tensile strength, both at 15 minutes and 7
days is comparable to high copper,
unicompositional alloys.
Has lower creep value
Acanthosis
Acantholysis
Auspitz’s sign
Wickham’s striae
Which one of the following is oral precancer?
1.
2.
3.
Oral hairy leukoplakia
While spongy nevus
Hairy B cell leukemia
4.
Speckeled leukoplakia
22.
14
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Actinomyosis Actinobacillus
Borrelia vincentii
Streptococcus mutans
Streptococcus viridans
23.
15.
Radiographically
suggests:
1.
2.
3.
4.
16.
driven
appearance
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
Calcifying odontogenic cyst
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
Keratocyst
24.
10
250
1/10
1/250
2.
3.
4.
26.
1.
2.
3.
4.
19.
Risk factors can be identified
It measures incidence
Used in the study of rare diseases
Required few subjects
1.
2.
3.
4.
3.
4.
Lower border of L1
Lower border of L3
Lower border of SI
Lower border of L5
27.
20.
Iron is present in all of the following EXCEPT;
1.
2.
3.
4.
21.
Myoglobin
Cytochrome
Catalase
Pyruvate Kinase
Calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate and
Calcium Sulphate
Sodium bicarbonate, aluminum oxide
Sodium lauryl sulplate and sodium lauryl
Succinate
Carboxymethyl cellulose, alginate amylase
Which of the following techniques would be the
best preventive measure for dental caries?
1.
2.
In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:.
Sero Surveillance
Health Education & Information
Screening of blood and blood products
Banning of sexual contact with foreigners
Which of the following is used as a thickening
agent in dentifrices?
1.
Regarding case control study all the following are
correct, except:
Panel discussion
Symposium
Group discussion
Workshop
The National AIDS Control Program has the
following components, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
25.
Standard error of mean
Standard error of difference of means
Standard error of proportions
Standard error of difference in proportions
In health education program, a group of 10 people
are planning to speak on a topic of common
interest. Which one of following is best educational
approach?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Tetracycline
Rh incompatibility
Neonatal liver disease
Vitamin C deficiency
If incidence = 50 cases/1000 population/year and
mean duration of disease 5 years, then prevalence
would be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
18
snow
Which of the following is not responsible for
endogenous staining of teeth during development?
1.
2.
3.
4.
17.
Square root of pg/n indicates:
The important microorganism for dentinal caries is
Elimination of sugars from the diet
Reduce frequency of intake of cariogenic food
stuffs
Rinse and swish with water after each meal
Substitution of alcohol — based sugar for
sucrose
Which of the following factors in the Stephan’s
curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar
intake?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Physical form of sugar
Frequency of sugar intake
pH of plaque
Quantity of sugar intake
Break point chlorination means
28
1.
2.
3.
4.
Start of chlorination process
End of chlorination process
When free residual chlorine starts appearing
After partial saturation of water with chlorine
The prevalence of dental caries in a community in
the year 2000 and 200 was 11% and 38%
respectively the incidence of caries of the same
population in three years would be
1.
2.
3.
4.
38%
20%
10%
56%
2.
3.
4.
36.
29.
The mean DMFT values for 12 year old school
children is 2/5. 68% of the population has DMFT
values 2 and 3. The standard deviation for the
population is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
30.
4.
38.
Arbitrary face – bow
Kinemetic face –bow
Either arbitrary or kinemetic face – bow
An Ear bow only
Modified ridge lap
Ridge lap
Ovoid
Sanitary
41.
1.
2.
3.
4.
34.
Vacuum in posterior part of palate
Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
A close adaptation of maxillary denture at
tuberosity
42.
1.
Soft palatal tissue
43
Epulis Granuloma
Epulis Fissuratum
Papillary Hyperplasia
Pyogenic Granuloma
Beading of the rigid major connector is done to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Anterior vibrating line is located on:
Centric occlusion
Centric relation
Lateral excursion
Terminal Hinge Position
Tissue reaction that is common due to
overextension of labial flanges of complete denture
is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates
1.
2.
3.
4.
35.
Zinc oxide eugenol
Addition silicon
Condensation silicon
Plaster of Paris
Shallow
Decreased and flat
Increased and prominent
Reversed
Only pure hinge movements of the mandible occur
at:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Impression material of choice in patients with
submucous fibrosis is:
Short clinical crown height
Root formation is not completed
Pulp horns are wide and high
Maintenance of oral hygiene is difficult
For a balanced occlusion when condylar inclination
is increased the compensating curve should be
1.
2.
3.
4.
40.
Shoulder
Chamfer
Shoulder with bevel
Depends upon operators choice
All ceramic crowns are not indicated for young
children because of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
39
An improper extension of denture base
A deflective occlusal contacts
A high vertical dimension
An over extended denture flanges
The most suitable margin design for porcelain
crown is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design
is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
33.
37.
To transfer the axis orbital plane we require:
1.
2.
3.
4.
32.
Scaling & polishing and filling.
Extractions, RCT and periodontal
Wearing gloves and sterilization of the
instruments
Replacements of lost teeth and orthodontic
treatment
A edentulous patient has a complaint that his
denture becomes loose several hours after wearing,
this indicates:
1.
2.
3.
4.
An example for primary prevention of dental
diseases is:
1.
2.
3.
31.
0.5
1
2
3
Hard palatal tissue
Either on soft or hard palatal tissue
Posterior to fovea palatini
Increase the rigidity
Produce a positive contact with the tissue
Increase the retention of RPD
Improve the esthetics
The first step in major connector construction is
1.
2.
3.
4.
44.
3.
4.
52.
53.
55.
Hot salt sterilizer
Chemical solutions
Autoclaving
Dry Heat
The most important aspect of emergency treatment
for an acute apical abscess is to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
57.
49.
A polyp may arise in connection
1.
2.
3.
4.
50.
Chronic open pulpitis
Pulp necrosis
Acute pulpitis
A chronic periapical lesion
58.
Increase the strength of the restoration
Improved marginal adaptation
To prevent the fracture of enamel
To prevent the fractures of amalgam
12 hours
1-2 days
3-5 days
One week
Creep value of which of the following is the
highest?
Low copper amalgam alloy
Admix alloy
Single composition alloys
Creep value of all the-mentioned alloys is
same
Which of the following cements bonds to tooth
structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a
degree of translucency and does not irritate the
pulp?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Beveling the pulpoaxial line angle of a class II
cavity is done to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. Is in response to ageing
2. Does not relate to the periodontal condition
3. Precedes internal resorption
4. Indicates presence of additional canal
How soon after contamination by moisture does
zinc containing amalgam restoration start
expanding?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Produce sedation
Establish drainage
Maintain obturations
Adjust the occlusion
Pain of pulpal origin
Pulp necrosis
Periodontal pain
Referred pain
Calcification of pulp
1.
2.
3.
4.
56.
Facilitate canal medication
Provide good access for irrigation
Aid in locating canal orifices
Provide straight line access to the apex
A cold test best localizes
1.
2.
3.
4.
54
Ether
Chloroform
Superoxol
Sodium hypochlorite
The primary function of access openings is to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Gutta Percha can effectively be sterilized by
1.
2.
3.
4.
48.
Prevents displacement of restoration
Permits the restorations of withstand occlusal
forces
Allows adequate instrumentation
Allows the restoration to withstand occlusal
forces and prevent displacement
Which one of the following is used to bleach a
discovered, endodontically treated tooth?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Gingival third
Occlusal third
Middle third
Junction of middle and gingival third
The resistance form is that shape of cavity which:
1.
2.
47.
Establishment of guiding plane
Establishment of undercuts for retention
Establishment of tooth contour for esthetics
Establishment of interference for major
connector
The terminal end of retentive arm of extra coronal
retainer is placed at:
1.
2.
3.
4.
46.
51.
The first step in surveying the cast for Removable
Partial Denture is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
45.
Design of stress bearing area
Design to non stress bearing area
Making the outline of the strap line
Selection of the strap type
Polycarboxylate cement
Resin cement
Silicate cement
Glass lonomer cement
The microorganism causing smooth surface dental
caries is:
1.
2.
Streptococcus viridians
Streptococcus mutans
3.
4.
59
Electric pulp tests may not be performed on
patients who have
1.
2.
3.
4.
60.
Streptococcus salivarius
Lactobacillus
3.
4.
67.
Hip Implant
Pace maker
Dental Implant
Prosthetic eye
1.
2.
3.
4.
68.
Angle former
Hoe
Hatchet
Spoon excavator
1. 6mm
2. 6.3mm
3. 6.5mm
4. 5.9mm
For root canal therapy of maxillary canine (Distal
caries), the isolation done is:
2nd Premolar to opposite lateral incisor
1st molar to opposite lateral incisor
Adjacent 2 teeth of both the sides
Not required, only the tooth to be treated
70
71
1.
2.
3.
4.
65
The lowest blood mercury level at which the
earliest non specific symptom starts appearing at
1.
2.
3.
4.
66
45-55%
55-65%
65-85%
>85%
25 ng/ml
35 ng/ml
40 ng/ml
45 nglml
In which condition papilla preservation flap is
indicated
1.
2.
lnfrabony defects
One walled defects
Enamel
Dental Caries
Dental plaque
Saliva
Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before
they are visible on the radiograph by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
74.
Wilson
Willet
Wilhem
Roche
The bioflims found on tooth surfaces are termed as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
73.
Bowen in 1974
Clarke
Cvek in 1978
WilIetin 1980
Distal Shoe was first advocated by whom in t929?
1.
2.
3.
4.
72.
Mac Conkey medium
Mitis Salivarius Bacitracin Agar
Nutrient Agar
Tellurite medium
The patient pulpotomy technique was advocated by
1.
2.
3.
4.
20%
50%
80%
100%
What fraction of inhaled mercury vapor is retained
in the body?
The most used selective medium for Streptococcus
Mutans is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
How much fraction of methyl mercury is absorbed
from the gut?
1.
2.
3.
4.
64.
2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
Indefinitely
The distance between 2 holes in a rubber dam
sheet is ideally:
1.
2.
3.
4.
63.
To help overall healing
Prevention of epithelial migration
To stop bleeding
To prevent the underlying tissues from the
infection
Avulsed tooth may be stored in saliva for upto:
1.
2.
3.
4.
69.
62.
Which one of the following is the role of barrier
membrane in GTR?
Instrument that has a 4-digit formula
1.
2.
3.
4.
61.
Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior teeth
Crater types of bony defect
Visible light
Ultrasonic light
Fibreoptic transillumination
Digital Imaging fibreoptic transillurnination
Stainless steel crowns are contraindicated in:
1.
Medically compromised patient (VSD, ASO)
2.
After endodontic therapy
3.
4.
75
The first community water fluoridation was carried
out in
1.
2.
3.
4.
76
78.
79
84
Amelogenesis imperfecta
Tetracycline hypoplasia
Fluorosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Necrotic area
Subdermal layer
Border of an ulcerated area
Centre of an ulcerated area
not
Le-Fort II fracture
Le-Fort III fracture
Naso ethemoidal complex fracture
Le-Fort I fracture
Metronidazole
Penicillin
Sanguinarine
Tetracycline
88.
Cellular respiration
Cellular oxidation
Cell wall synthesis
Cellular division
Hyperparathyroidim
Hodgkins disease
Multiple myeloma
Christian’s syndrome
The syndrome which is associated with
predisposition to the development of carcinoma of
oral mucous membrane is:
1.
Gardner’s syndrome
4.
89
Only the pocket depth
Only the CEJ
CEJ and pocket depth
Furcation involvement
Purulent exudation from the gingival sulci is an
indication of:
1.
2.
3.
Bence Jones protein found in the urine may be
suggestive of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The electronic probing system ‘Foster Miller
Probe” detects:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Pencillin exerts its effect on bacteria by interfering
with:
1.
2.
3.
4.
82.
is
The Local Drug Delivery system “ELYZOL”
contains:
1.
2.
3.
4.
87.
81.
ecchymosis
A specimen for a biopsy should be taken from
1.
2.
3.
4.
80.
Submentovertex view
Occipitomental view
Lateral view of skull
Postero - anterior view of skull
Bilateral subconjunctival
associated with:
1.
2.
3.
4.
86.
Symphysis
Bilateral angles
Bilateral condyles
Unilaterat condyle
Zygomatic arch fractures are best seen in
1.
2.
3.
4.
85.
Oster — Rendu — Weber syndrome
Sturge — Weber syndrome
Plummer — Vinson syndrome
Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of
1.
2.
3.
4.
Ischemic heart disease (IHD)
Hypertension
Congestive cardiac failure
Congenital heart disease
Blue sclera is characteristic of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
83
Referred pain
Orthodontic treatment
Recurrent pericoronitis
Chronic periodontal disease
The antibiotic cover is mandatory before
extraction in the following condition of the heart:
1.
2.
3.
4.
2.
3.
4.
1945, Colorado
1945, Grand Rapids
1945, Oak Park
1045, Evanston
The most common reason for the removal of
impacted mandibular third molars
1.
2.
3.
4.
77.
Rampant caries
Amelogenesis Imperfecta
Deep pockets
Severe periodontal attachment loss
Nature of the inflammatory changes in the
pocket wall
Shallow pockets
An advanced diagnostic technique, which has been
suggested as an alternative to culture methods, is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Phase contrast microscopy
Direct immunofluorescence
Latex agglutination
Indirect immunofluorscent microscope assays
90.
The pocket epithelium shows a series of
histopathological changes. Which of the following
is true in this regard?
1.
2.
3.
4.
91.
Clay like
Flint like
Brick like
Soft
99
2.
3.
4.
Interdental papillae appear bulbous but facial
9Ifl9!v is not affected
Interdental papillae and facial gingiva both are
enlarged
Interdental gingiva marginal gingiva and
attached gingiva all are enlarged
Both marginal gingiva and at gingival are
enlarged
Which of the following is the diagnostic
characteristic of peripheral giant cell granuloma?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Mass of granulation tissue
Multinuclear giant cells
Keliod like enlargement
Epithelium is atrophic in some areas
1.
How many osseous walls are present in onewalled vertical defects?
1.
2.
3.
4.
95.
What do you understand by Isograft?
1.
2.
3.
4.
96
3.
One wall present
Two wall present
Three wall present
Four wall present
4.
102.
Bone taken from same individual
Bone taken from generally similar individual
Bone taken from identical twin
Bone taken from the same individual
103
1.
2.
3.
4.
97
1%
2%
3%
4%
Which microorganism has 90% presence in
localized aggressive periodontitis?
Maintained until the premolar root is 213
developed
Closed slightly to accommodate the smaller
premolar
Ignored, because the second premolar will
erupt in a short time
Left untreated, because the difference in size
between the primary molar and the premolar
will compensate for any drifting that might
occur
Relative to a heterogeneous population, the
incidence of malocclusion in a homogeneous
population generally is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which percentage of sodium fluoride is used in
iontophoresis?
Tooth to tooth
Bone to bone
Tooth to bone
Soft palate to gingiva
An 8 year old child with normal tooth calcification
and eruption has primary mandibular second molar
extracted. The resulting space should be:
2.
94.
Marginal gingivitis
Gingival fibrosis
Ulcerative gingiva
Fulminating periodontitis
Cephalometrics is useful in assessing all of the
following relationships EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
101.
Intra-oral radiograph
Digital intra-oral radiography
Orthopantamograph
Spiral Computed Tomography
Which of the following soft tissue responses may
occur as a reaction to orthodontic bands?
1.
2.
3.
4.
100.
Spirochetes
P Gingival is
P Inter media
A Actinomyecetemcomitans
Which radiographic technique gives threedimensional view of the alveolar bony defects?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which type of gingival enlargement is seen in
puberty?
1.
93.
98.
The consistency of the sub gingival calculus is
described to be
1.
2.
3.
4.
92
Necrotic changes
Proliferative changes
Degenerative changes
Proliferative and degenerative changes
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lower
Slightly higher
Significantly higher
About the same
One of the greatest advantages of using extraoral
anchorage is that
1.
2.
More force can be applied
It has direct reciprocal action on the opposing
arch
3.
4.
104.
Initially be Class II
Initially be Class Ill
Immediately assume a normal relationship
Erupt immediately into an end-to-end
relationship
111.
Which is the most often and most stable used plane
for the superimposition of lateral cephalograms in
studying the?
1.
2.
3.
4.
3.
4.
Frontal zone
Hyalanized zone
Undermining zone
Clear zone
2.
3.
4.
Frontal zone
S-N plane
Mandibular plane
Occlusal plane
109.
Malocclusion representing a transverse deficiency
is often referred to as:
1.
2.
Open bite
Closed bite
Pressure and tension zones from in the
periodontal ligament
Force is applied tin the tooth
Osteoclasts create undermining resorption
Tooth moves by direct resorption
The tooth that is used to identify the type of
occlusion universally is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
116.
An oversized lower jaw
Teeth that don’t touch when jaw is frilly
closed
Spacing between the teeth
Crowded teeth
The first reaction that takes lace an orthodontist
attempts active tooth movement with a removable
appliance is
1.
115.
Activation of the spring
Increase the force
Decrease the force
Decrease the stiffness of the wire
Which aspect of malocclusion is the most common
among Indian population?
1.
2.
114
Fracture of the wire
Permanent deformation
Spring back
Increase In stiffness
The purpose of incorporation of a coil into a
cantilever spring is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
113
Nasion
Menton
Sella
Gonion
Which one of the following is the result of
applying a load to a wire below its modulus of
elasticity on a load deflection diagram?
1.
2.
3.
4.
112.
Cross bite
Deep bite
Which of the following cephalometric landmarks is
not a midline structure?
1.
2.
3.
4.
a&b
a, b, & d
b, c ,& e
c&e
The histological section of tooth under orthodontic
force representing an a vascular area in the
periodontal ligament is often referred as:
1.
2.
3.
4.
108.
3-6 years
7-10 years
11-14 years
14-l7years
Read the following carefully:
a. Spheno-occipital synchondrosis suture
b. Mandibular condyle
c. Frontomaxillary
d. Nasal septum
e. Alveolar process
Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous
growth postnatally?
1.
2.
3.
4.
107.
110.
With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars
will:
1.
2.
3.
4.
106.
3.
4.
The Supervision of a child’s development of
occlusion is most critical at ages:
1.
2.
3.
4.
105.
It permits posterior movement of teeth in one
arch without adversely dirsturbing the opposite
arch
It can be used for all type of malocclusion
Second molar
Central incisor
Canine
First molar
Anchorage obtained from the nape of the neck
represents:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Occipital anchorage
Cervical anchorage
Facial anchorage
Parietal anchorage
117.
1.
2.
3.
4.
118.
The size of the teeth
Age of the patient
Vitality of the teeth
Amount of overjet
1.
2.
3.
4.
125.
The Y-axis is also known as growth axis because:
1.
2.
3.
4.
119.
and well encapsulated lesion that prevents need for
block resection?
Which of the following is the most important factor
to be considered before attempting to dose a
midline diastema using a removable appliance?
Its axis is parallel to patient’s growth in height
It is an indicator of the direction of growth
pattern
It is an indicator of the amount of facial
growth
It increases in size as the growth increases
127.
120
Considering the growth of the face in all three
planes growth ceases last in which direction?
1.
2.
3.
4.
121.
123.
124.
130
270 to 285
300 to 320
350 to 375
200 to 250
Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated
by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
129.
Vagus nerve
Facial nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Which of the following is a tumor of odontogenic
epithelium with duct like structures and structures
Hyper parathyroidism
Fibrous dysplasia
Condensing Osteitis
Osteoporosis
A radiopaque line is observed in the dentin
underlying a three month old Class II amalgam
restoration. Which of the following bases was used
in this restoration?
1. Calcium hydroxide
2. Zinc phosphate cement
3. Zinc oxide eugenol
4. Zinc oxide eugenol and formocresol
A diagnosis of small occlusal cavities is most
readily made by
1.
2.
3.
4.
131.
Mesiodens
Incisor with talon/cusp
Mandibular first molar
Maxillary premolars
Ground glass appears in bone is seen in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Transcranial
Transethmoidal
Transphenoidal
Transcallosal
The normal range of serum osmolality (in Osm/L)
is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
128.
Premolars
Premolars
Lateral incisors
Maxillary canine
Taurodontism is usually seen in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Antero posterior
Sagittal
Transverse
Vertical
The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery
at the present time is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
122.
Intrusion of tooth
Extrusion of tooth
Rotation of tooth
Breakage of Bracket
>2cm
>4cm
<4cm
>4cm with invasion of adjacent structure
Dense in dente is most commonly seen in:
1.
2.
3.
4.
If an edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on
to a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the
side effect would be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In TNM classification T stands for tumour size
1.
2.
3.
4.
126.
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour
Pindborg tumour
Odontogenic myxoma
Ameloblastic fibroma
Bite wing radiographs
Periapical radiographs
Tran illumination
An explorer and compressed air
An affected male infant born to normal parents
could be an example of all of the following,
EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
An autosomal dominant disorder
An autosomal recessive disorder
A polygenic disorder
A vertically transmitted disorder
132.
A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the
face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and
developmental disability can have all of the
following, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
133.
139
A chromosomal syndrome
A Teratogenic syndrome
A Mendelian syndrome
A polygenic syndrome
Autosomal dominant
Autonomic recessive
X—linked dominant
X—linked recessive
3.
4.
140.
141.
1.
2.
3.
4.
135.
Which of the following inhalational agents is the
induction agent of choice in children?
1.
2.
3.
4.
137.
143.
Morphine
Ketamine
Propofol
VLDL
Chylomicrons
HDL
LDL
The sigma (a) subunit of prokaryotic RNA
Polymerase:
1.
2.
3.
4.
145.
Of its large size
The vesicle looses is clathrin coat
Of the acidic pH of the vesicle
Of the basic pH of the vesicle
The human plasma lipoprotein containing the
highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
144.
Is citrate dehydrogenises
Homocysteine methyl transferase
Glycogen synthase
0-6-P dehydrogenase
The ligand – receptor complex dissociates in the
endosome because:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Miosis
Exopthalmus
Nasal congestion
Conjunctiva redness
Which of the following intravenous induction
agents is the most suitable for day care surgery:
1.
2.
3.
142.
Methoxyflurane
Sevoflurane
Desfiurane
Isoflurane
Which of the following is not a sign of stellate
ganglion block?
1.
2.
3.
4.
138.
Diarrhea
Lacrimation
Mydriasis
Excessive speech
Oxidase
Hydrolase
Peroxides
Dehydrogenase
Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the
following enzymes?
1.
2.
3.
4.
All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
136.
Germinal
Somatic
Haemopoetic
Tumour
Surgery should be cancelled
Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and
there is no history of asthma
Should get X ray chest before proceeding to
surgery
Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be en
antibiotic
During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called
respiratory burst involves the activation of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
All of the following cell types contain the enzyme
which protects the length of telomerase at the end
of chromosomes, EXCEPT:
Diazepam
A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy
On the day of surgery he had running nose
temperature 3750 C and dry cough Which of the
following should be the most appropriate decision
for surgery?
1.
2.
In a family, the father has widely spaced e
increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three
children has deafness with similar facial features.
The mother is normal. Which one of the following
is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?
1.
2.
3.
4.
134.
4.
Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin
Is inhibited by  - amanitin
Specifically recognizes the promoter site.
Is part of the core enzyme
Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of
modified base?
1.
2.
3.
Mrna
tRNA
rRNA
4.
146.
1.
Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They
fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these
folded structures associate to form homo— or
hetero— dimers. Which one of the following refers
to this associated form?
1.
2.
3.
4.
147
snRNA
Denatured state
Molecular aggregation
Precipitation
Quaternary structure
2.
3.
4.
153
154.
1.
2.
3.
4.
148
Globular
Fibrous
Stretch of Beads
Planar
The major purpose of randomization in a clinical
trial is to
155.
1.
2.
3.
4.
150.
157.
Efficacy
Effectiveness
Efficiency
Effect modification
Which of the following is most strongly associated
with coronary heart disease?
1.
2.
3.
4.
159
152.
All the following are true in a randomized control
trial (RCT), EXCEPT:
Increased waist — hip ratio
Hyperhomocysteinemia
Decreased fibrinogen levels
Decreased HDL levels
A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with
suicidal intent. She complains of generalized
muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte
abnormality is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Apolipoproteins
VLDL
HDL
Total lipoproteins
Fluorosis
Hypogonadism
Hyperthyrodism
Hyperparathyroidism
All of the following are risk factors for
atherosclerosis, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
158.
Neck muscle involvement
Extra ocular muscle involvement
Dysphasia
Abdominal muscle involvement
All of the following are the known causes
ofosteoporosis EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in
controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial
signifying?
1.
2.
3.
4.
151.
Achieve comparability between study and
control groups
Avoid observer bias
Avoid subject bias
Avoid observer and subject bias
Protease inhibitor
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Fusion inhibitor
Which of the following clinical findings excludes
the diagnosis of poliomyelitis?
1.
2.
3.
4.
156.
Rheumatoid arthritls
Psoriasis
Multicentric reticUlohistiocytosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Nevirapine is a:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
149.
Facilitate double
Help ensure the study subjects are
representative of general population
3. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line
characteristics
4. Reduce selection bias in allocation to
treatment
The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is
to:
Joint erosions are not is feature of
1.
2.
3.
4.
The structural proteins are involved in maintaining
the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices
in the body. The shape of these proteins is
Baseline characteristics of intervention arid
control groups should be s
Investigators bias is minimized by double
blinding
The sample size required depends on the
hypothesis
The dropouts from the trial should be excluded
from the analysis
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesaemia
All of the following antibacterial agents act by
inhibiting cell wall synthesis EXCEPT
1.
2.
Carbapenems
Monobactams
3.
4.
160.
A veterinary doctor has pyrexia of unknown origin.
His blood culture in special laboratory media was
positive for gram-negative short bacilli, which was
oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the
likely organism grown in culture:
1.
2.
3.
4.
161.
2.
3.
4.
163
164.
4.
167.
Vancomycin
lmipenem
Teichoptanin
Linezolid
All the statements are true tout exostosis,
EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
It occurs at the growing end of bone
Growth continues after skeletal maturity
It is covered by cartilaginous cap
Malignant transformation may occur
168.
“Rugger Jersey Spine” is seen in:
169.
1. Fluorosis
2. Achondroplasia
3. Renal Osteodystrophy
4. Marfans syndrome
Brown tumors are seen in;
1.
2.
3.
4.
170.
Which of the following malignant tumors is
radioresistant?
1.
2.
3.
4.
171.
Hyperparathyroid
Pigmented villonodular synovitis
Osteomalacia
Neurofibromatosis
Ewing’s sarcoma
Retinoblastoma
Osteosarcoma
Neuroblastoma
Middle meningeal artery is distal branch of
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
External carotid artery
Internal maxillary artery
Superficial temporal artery
Middle cerebral artery
Calcitonin is secreted by:
172
Thyroid gland
Parathyroid gland
Adrenal glands
Ovaries
173
Aneurismal bone cyst
Giant cell tumor
Fibrous cortical defect
Simple bone cyst
Constitutional delay in growth
Genetic short stature
Primordial dwarfism
Hypopituitarism
The process underlying differences in expression
of a gene according which parent has transmitted is
called.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following conditions is least likely to
present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion?
1.
2.
3.
4.
166.
Increasing the osteoid formation
Increasing the mineralization of osteoid
Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption
of bone
Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion
A child is below the third percentile for height. His
growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is
more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis
is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
165.
M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M.
bovis to the humans
M. kansasii
can cause a disease
indistinguishable from tuberculosis
M. africanum infection is acquired from the
environmental source
M. marinum is responsible for tubercular
lymphadenopathy
A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to
Staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be
Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity
testing. All the following antibiotics will be
appropriate, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
Pasturella spp.
Francisella spp.
Bartonella spp.
Brucella spp.
Which one of the following statement is true
regarding pathogen city of Mycobacterium
species?
1.
162.
Cephamycins
Nitrofurantoin
Anticipation
Mosaicism
Non — penetrance
Genomic imprinting
Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency
is commonly due to
1.
2.
3.
Inadequate dietary intake.
Defective intestinal absorption
Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum
4.
Absence of glutei acid in the intestine
Bisphosphonates act by:
174.
3.. Lignocaine
4. Mepivacaine
Actinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise
most often in the:
182.
1.
2.
3.
4.
175.
Parotid salivary gland
Minor salivary glands
Submandibular salivary gland
Sublingual salivary gland
1.
2.
3.
4.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for
diagnosing:
183.
176.
1. Tubercular lymphadenitis
2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
3. Plasmacytoma
4. Aneurismal bone cyst
All of the following immunohistochemical markers
are positive in the neoplastic cells of granulocytic
sarcoma, EXCEPT:
177.
CD 45 RO
C 43
Myeloperoxidase
Lysozyme
185.
1.
2.
3.
4.
178.
Norfloxacin
Streptomycin
Doxycycline
Cefotaxime
Which one of the following
antipseudomonal penicillin?
drugs
186.
1.
2.
3.
4.
179.
Cephalexin
Cloxacillin
Piperacillin
Dicloxacillin
187.
1.
2.
3.
4.
180.
Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the
maximum duration of action?
1.
2.
3.
4.
181
Bacterial meningitis Rickettsial infection
Syphilis
Anthrax
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Doxacurium
Which one of the following local anaesthetics
belongs to the ester group?
1.
2.
Procaine
Bupivacaine
Kidney
Bronchus
Breast
Prostate
Ultrasonography
Tomography
MRI
Radiography
Mixed tumour of the salivary glanç1 are
1.
2.
3.
4.
189.
are
All of them use non- ionizing radiation, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
188
Neurofibroma
Meningioma
Cavernous hemangioma
Schwannoma
Expansile
lytic
osseous
metastases
characteristic of primary malignancy of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
All of the following are therapeutic uses of PM
EXCEPT.
Gastric juice
Pancreatic juice
Bile in gall bladder
Saliva
The most common retro bulbar orbital mass in
adults is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
is
Kidneys
Skin
Intestines
Lungs
Which of the following secretions has a very high
pH?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following antibacterial should not
be used with d-tubocurarine?
Isoflurane
Ether
Halothane
Propofol
Which of the following organs is not involved in
calcium homeostasis?
1.
2.
3.
4.
184.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following agents sensitizes the
myocardium to catecholamine?
Most common in submandibular gland
Usually malignant
Most common in parotid gland
Associated with calculi
A malignant tumour of childhood that metastasizes
to bones most often is:
1.
2.
Wilma tumour
Neuroblastoma
3.
4.
190.
All of the following radioisotopes are used as
systemic radionuclide, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.
191.
Beta particles
Alfa particles
Neutrons
X-rays
Chest X-ray
MRI
CT scan
Bone scan
2.
3.
4.
198
Electron
Proton
Helium ion
Gamma (y) Photon
Lytic bone lesions
Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%
‘M’ spike >3g% for Ig G, >2g% for Ig A
Which of the following medications is
contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulfa?
Endothelial cells
Collagen fibers
Smooth muscle cells
Elastic fibers
Dacron vascular graft is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
200.
Frequent cause of anterior midline neck
masses in the first decade of life
The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
Incision and Drainage is the treatment of
choice
The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of
tongue
Noontimes hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure
as a result of hypertrophy at
1.
2.
3.
4.
199.
Thyrohyoid
Cricothyroid
Crico-tracheal
Cricosternal
The following statements about thyroglossal cyst
are true, EXCEPT:
1.
Which of the following is not a major criteria for
diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
1.
2.
3.
4.
195.
197.
Levobunolol
Bimatoprost
Brinzolamide
Brimonidine
Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal
mucosa through the following membrane:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which one of the following has the maximum
ionization potential?
1.
2.
3.
4.
194.
196.
Which one of the following imaging techniques
gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
1.
2.
3.
4.
193
1.
2.
3.
4.
Phosphorus-32
Strontium-89
Iridium-192
Samarium153
Phosphorous-32 emits:
1.
2.
3.
4.
192.
Adrenal gland tumour
Granulose cell tumour of ovary
Nontextile synthetic
Textile synthetic
Nontextile biologic
Textile biologic
Mycotic abscesses are due to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Bacterial infection
Fungal infection
Viral infection
Mixed infection