Download A) Androgen insensitivity

Part one Palestinian Board exame
1- Regarding carbohydrate metabolism in normal pregnancy ,
the following is true except
a- fasting hyperglycemia , postprandial hyperglycemia and
hyperinsulinemia
b- fasting hypoglycaemia , postprandial hypoglycaemia and
hypoinsulinemia
c- fasting hypoglycaemia , postprandial hyperglycemia and
hyperinsulinemia
d- fasting hypoglycaemia, postprandial hypoglycaemia and
hyperinsulinemia
e- fasting hyperglycemia, postprandial hypoglycaemia and
hypoinsulinemia
2- Thrompocytopenia during pregnancy is defined as platelet
number between ;
abcde-
120.000- 150.000
100.000- 120.000
80.000- 100.000
50.000-80.000
20.000- 50.000
3- The following is true during pregnancy
a- first heart sound shows decrease splitting
b- cardiac output at term increase almost 10% when the
pregnant woman was moved from her back to her left side
c- the arteriovenous oxygen gradient increase in pregnancy
d- left ventricular function increase during pregnancy
e- the increase in read cell mass occurs steadly until tearm
4- The following are true in human cytogenetics EXCEPT:
a. the Y chromosome is acrocentric
b. pentasomy of sex chromosomes is compatible with life
c. trisomy 16 is the commonest trisomy found in first
trimester spontaneous abortions
d. trisomy 1 is present in almost 10% of the first trimester
spontaneous abortion
e. a cause of trisomy is non-disjunction at meiosis
5- Testicular feminisation is characterized by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
XY mosaicism
A hypoplastic uterus
Chromatine negative
Poorly developed breasts
Pure Gonadal dysgenisis
6- One of the following conditions is X linked:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Classical achondroplasia
Hurler’s syndrome
Glactosaemia
7- All are true about standard deviation EXEPT:
a.
b.
c.
d.
is a test of significance
gives an indication of the scatter of the observations
can only apply to a normal distribution
is calculated from the mean and the number of
observation
e. is not the same as the median
8- The following is falls during pregnancy
a- functional residual capacity and the residual volume
decrease
b- respiratory acidosis occurs
c- glomerular filtration rate and renal plasma flow increase
d- hydroureter and hydronephrosis
e- maximal intraurethral pressure increase from 70 to 90 cm
H2O
9- The following is true in pregnancy except
abcde-
gastric empting time is not prolonged
alkaline phosphates , double .
the pituitary gland enlarges by approximately 135%
plasma prolactine decrease during pregnancy
the amniotic fluid has no prolactin .
10 – The following affect the Q- T interval in ECG in pregnancy
except
a- digoxin .
b- quinidine.
c- magnesium
d- heart rate
e- it is between 2.5 and 3.0 large squares
11- The following is true in pregnancy
a- the thyroid volume is unchanged
b- T3 decreased
c- hyperparathyroidism
d- aldosteron increase
e- dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate decrease
12- Regarding nervous system which of the following is true
a- pregangilionic sympathetic fibres are short
b- cholinergic stimulation leads to decrease bronchial secreations
c- pilcarpine decrease the activity of endings of parasympathetic
neurons
d- fibres from temperature receptore dose not cross the midline of
spinal cord
e- cortical lesions affect pain sensations
13- Regarding iron deficiency anemia the following is true
a- 8.5mg/day is the daily requirement of iron in pregnancy
b- normal plasma ferritin is 150-300micro grams/liter
c- increase in MCHC occurs in severe forms of iron depletion
d- ferritin is aglycoprotein affected by recent iron ingestion
14 – The following is true about urinary bladder
a- residusl volume is 100 mg
b- maximum flow rate is 80 mls/second
c- voiding volume between 220 – 320 mml
d- bladder capacity is 300mml
e- voiding pressure is 145-170 cm H2O
15-In human genetics
a- the total number of chromosomes in both normal male and
female is 23
b-in the female the sex chromosome are XY
c-chromatin positive cells are characteristics of normal males
d-the sexual differentiation of the fetal gonads occurs the seventh
week
e-the Y chromosome determines the development of the ovary
16-The following are true about fetal circulation EXCEPT:
a-the foramen ovale permits blood to pass from right to left atrium
b-the ductus arteriosus carries blood from the pulmonary artery to
the aorta
c-the ductus venosus carries blood to the inferior vena cava from
the umbilical artery
d-the ductus arteriosis is contractile
e-the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the adult
17- In the development of fetal sex organs:
a. the pronephric duct degenerates as the mesonephros
develops
b. ova originates outside the developing gonads
c. the presence of ovaries is necessary for the
development of the paramesonephric ducts
d. the vagina is formed entirely by invagination of the
paramesonephric ducts
e. sexual differentiation of the external genitalia is
complete before the tenth week of life
18- The Mullerian ducts:
a-are derived from intermediate cell mass
b-appear between the eighth and ninth weeks of
embryonic development
c-develop lateral to the Wolffian ducts
d-fuse throughout their length by the 12th week of fetal
development
e-become the sinovaginal bulbs in their lower part
19-Features of untreated Turner’s syndrome include:
a-a low serum gonadotrophin levels
b-high serum estrogen levels
c-hot flushes
d-lymphoedema
e-increased incidence of gonadal malignant tumor
20- All are true about amniotic fluid EXCEPT:
a- is more alkaline than blood
b-has decreased bilirubin concentration with increased
gestation
c-contains glial cells in the presence of open neural tube
defects
d-does not contain fibrinogen
e. has increased insulin concentrate with increased
gestation
21- All are true about fetal circulation EXCEPT:
a-the foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the right to the left
atrium
b-the ductus arteriosus carries blood from the pulmonary artery to
the aorta
c-the ductus venosus carries blood to the inferior vena cava from
the umbilical artery
d-the ductus arteriosus is contractile
e- the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the adult
22- Select the antibiotic most frequently associated with the
following fetal side effects.
a-Tetracycline.
b-Streptomycin.
c-Nitrofurantoin.
d-Chloramphenicol.
e-Sulfonamides.
23-Which of the following statements about twinning is true?
a-The frequencies of monozygosity and dizygosity are the
same.
b-Division after formation of the embryonic disk results in
conjoined twins.
c-The incidence of monozygotic twinning varies with race.
d-A dichorionic twin pregnancy always denotes dizygosity.
e-Twinning causes no appreciable increase in maternal
morbidity and mortality over singleton pregnancies.
24-Velamentous insertion of the cord is associated with an
increased risk for
a-Premature rupture of the membranes.
b-Fetal exsanguinations before labor.
c-Torsion of the umbilical cord.
d-Fetal malformations.
e-Uterine malformations.
25-A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the
inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as:
a-Gynecoid.
b-Android.
c-Anthropoid.
d-Platypelloid.
26-An abnormal attitude is illustrated by
a-Breech presentation.
b-Face presentation.
c-Transverse position.
d-Occiput posterior.
e-Occiput anterior.
27-Which of the following statements concerning placenta
previa is true?
a-Its incidence decreases with maternal age.
b-Its incidence is unaffected by parity.
c-The initial hemorrhage is usually painless and rarely
fatal.
d-Management no longer includes a double setup.
e-Vaginal examination should be done immediately on
suspicion of placenta previa.
28- A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an
intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks
later and has not had a miscarriage, although she has had
some occasional spotting. This patient is at increased risk for
a-Septic abortion.
b-Recurrent abortion.
c-Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia.
d-Future infertility.
e-Ectopic pregnancies.
29-Indications for instituting single-agent chemotherapy
following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole usually include
a-A rise in hCG titers.
b-A plateau of hCG titers for 1 week.
c-Return of hCG titer to normal at 6 weeks after
evacuation.
d-Appearance of liver metastasis.
e-Appearance of brain metastasis.
30- A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of
the following events would be most likely to predispose to
ectopic pregnancy?
a-Previous tubal surgery.
b-Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
c-Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD).
d--Induction of ovulation.
e--Exposure in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES).
31-All of the following are appropriate tocolytics for this patient
except
a-Indocin.
b-Nifedipine.
c-Terbutaline.
d-Ritodrine.
eMagnesium sulfate.
32-At 29 weeks gestational age, it becomes apparent that the
fetus has developed hydrops. All of the following are
characteristics of fetal hydrops except
A. Polyhydramnios.
B. Small placenta.
C. Pericardial effusion.
D. Ascites.
E. Subcutaneous edema.
33- A pregnant woman is discovered to be an asymptomatic
carrier of Neisseria gonorrhoeae. A year ago, she was treated
with penicillin for a gonococcal infection and developed a
severe allergic reaction. Treatment of choice at this time is
a-Tetracycline.
b-Ampicillin.
c-Spectinomycin.
d-Chloramphenicol.
e-Penicillin.
34-True statements concerning infants born to mothers with
active tuberculosis include which of the following?
a-The risk of active disease during the first year of life
may approach 90% without prophylaxis.
b-Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination of the
newborn infant without evidence of active disease is not
appropriate.
c-Future ability for tuberculin skin testing is lost after BCG
administration to the newborn.
e-Neonatal infection is most likely acquired by aspiration
of infected amniotic fluid.
f-Congenital infection is common despite therapy.
35-A 21-year-old has difficulty voiding 6 h postpartum. The least
likely cause is which of the following?
a-Preeclampsia.
b-Infusion of oxytocin after delivery.
C-Vulvar hematoma.
d-Urethral trauma.
e-Use of general anesthesia.
36- Breast-feeding can be encouraged despite which of the
following conditions?
a-Maternal hepatitis B.
b-Maternal reduction mammoplasty with transplantation of
the nipples.
c-Maternal acute puerperal mastitis.
d-Maternal treatment with lithium carbonate.
e-Maternal treatment with tetracyclines.
37-A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer.
Which lymph node group would be the first involved in
metastatic spread of this disease beyond the cervix and uterus?
a-Common iliac nodes.
b-Parametrial nodes.
c-External iliac nodes.
d-Paracervical or ureteral nodes.
e-Paraaortic nodes.
38- Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of
delayed puberty?
a-Breast budding in a 10-year-old girl.
b-Menarche delayed beyond 16 years of age.
c-Menarche 1 year after breast budding.
d-FSH values less than 20 mIU/mL.
39- Which of the following medications is used as first-line
therapy in the treatment of endometriosis?
a-Unopposed estrogens.
b-Dexamethasone.
c-Danazol.
d-Gonadotropins.
e-Parlodel.
40- During the evaluation of secondary amenorrhea in a 24year-old woman, hyperprolactinemia is diagnosed. Which of the
following conditions could cause increased circulating prolactin
concentration and amenorrhea in this patient?
a-Stress.
b-Primary hyperthyroidism.
c-Anorexia nervosa.
d-Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
e-Polycystic ovarian disease.
41-The presentation of Asherman syndrome typically involves
a-Hypomenorrhea.
b-Oligomenorrhea.
c-Menorrhagia.
d-Metrorrhagia.
e-Dysmenorrhea.
42- Following a cesarean birth, contraindications for a trial of
labor in a subsequent pregnancy include
a-Breech presentation.
b-Lack of prior vaginal delivery.
c-The fact that the first section was for cephalopelvic
disproportion (CPD).
d-Unavailability of x-ray pelvimetry.
e-Classic cesarean section scar.
43- A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an
intrauterine fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks
later and has not had a miscarriage, although she has had
some occasional spotting. This patient is at increased risk for
a-Septic abortion
b-Recurrent abortion
c-Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
d-Future infertility
e-Ectopic pregnancies
44-The following arteries are branches of the internal iliac
artery , except
a- internal pudendal
b- ovarian
c- iliolumber
d- obturator
e- middle rectal
45 – The pudendal nerve
a- lies medial to the ischial spine
b- arises from S3,4,5 .
c- contains parasympathetic fibres to the anal canal
d- receives sensory fibres from the cervix
46- The uterine cervix , except
a- has a canal lined by columnar epithelium
b –has an alkalin secreations
c-loses the whole of its lining during menstruation
d- undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle
e- has a profuse watery discharge during ovulation
47- The gynaecoid pelvis , except
a- is the commonest type of feemal pelvis
b- has a wider aneroposterior than transvers diameter at
the prim
c- has a shallow , wide sacrosciatic notch
d- has parallel pelvic side – walls
48- The primary source of progesterone during the reproductive
cycle of a non-pregnant female is (are) the:
A) granulosa cells.
B) theca cells.
C)
corpus luteum.
D)
pituitary.
d- hypothalamus
49-GnRH, all are false EXCEPT:
A) is distinct from LH-RH
B) is produced in the posterior pituitary
C) is a decapeptide produced in pulses at ninety minute
intervals
D)exerts its main effect directly on the ovary
E-is used to induce ovulation in IVF programmes
50-- Life cycle of Corpus luteum is completed in:
A) 6 - 12 days
B) 12 - 14 days
C) 14 - 18 days
D) 18 - 22 days
51- - During nonnal menstrual cycle. ovulation occurs as a
result of
A) excess Estrogen level
B) low Estrogen level
C) surge of leutenizing hormone
D) low level of HCG
52- The intercellular chemical signal that is released by cells and
has a local effect on the same cell type as that from which the
chemical signal is released is:
A) autocrine chemical signal
B) pheromone
C)paracrine chemical signal
D)hormone
d- neurotransmitter
53-Estrogen,progesterone, testosterone, and glucocorticoids are
all examples of:
A) proteins.
B) glycoproteins.
C) polypeptides.
D) amino acid derivatives.
E) steroids
54- Which of the following is not associated with an increased risk
for ovarian carcinoma ?
A) Nulliparity
B) Radiation exposure
C) A diet low in fibre and Vit A.
D) Familial tendency
55- Approximately 75 - 80% of ovarian tumors originate from:
A) Epithelium
B) Stroma
C) Germ cells
D) Mesoderm
E) Unclassified tissue
56- - A 26 year old nullipara presents with smooth , pedunculated
ovarian mass anterior to the uterus. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) luteoma
B) cystic teratoma
C) theca lutein cyst
D) serous cystadenoma
E)brenner's tumor
57- Germ cell tumours, all are true EXCEPT:
A) Are all malignant
B) Progress in patients with endodermal sinus tumours can be
monitored using alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
C) Etoposide is a useful agent for anaplastic tumours
D)Lactate denydrogenase (LDH) may be raised in some of
these tumours
58- The Brenner tumour of the ovary, all are false EXCEPT:
A) Is not hormonally active
B) Is classified as a germ cell tumour
C) Usually measures 6-10 cm in diameter
D) Contains nests of epithelial cells
59-Which one of the following statements is false?
A) During sexual excitement, breasts swell due to
vasocongestion.
B) During sexual excitement, nipples become erect.
C) During sexual excitement, vaginal smooth muscles constrict
D) During orgasm, the vagina contracts.
E) Orgasm in women consists of 3-15 rhythmic contractions of
the uterus
60- In which of the following is there an absent vagina?
A) Androgen insensitivity
B) Turner syndrome
C) CAH in female
D) adrenal hyperplasia
E) Gonadal agenesis
61-A 55 year old woman has recurrent urinary retention after a
hysterectomy done for huge fibroid. The most likely cause is:
A) Atrophic and stenotic urethra.
B) Lumbar disc prolapse.
C) Injury to the bladder neck.
D-Injury to the hypogastric plexi
62- Detrusor instability, all are false EXCEPT:
A) May occur de novo after bladder neck surgery
B) A pressure rise during filling of between 5-15 CmH2O
C) Always symptomatic
D) Implies a neurological disorder
63- Which one of the following is not associated with cervical
carcinoma?
A) Multiple sexual partners
B) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
C) Young age at first sexual intercourse
D) Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs)
64- - The age at which the peak incidence of cervical carcinoma
develops. Choose the single most likely time or time-interval:
A) 30 years
B) 45 years
C) 50 years
D) 55 years
E) 65 years
65- Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs) except :
A. Increase the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease.
B. Are commonly used as a method of contraception in Egypt.
C. May be used in a nulligravida.
D. Act through prevention of implantation.
E. Commonly cause an increase in menstrual flow.
66- Using a condom and spermicide concurrently has a method
effectiveness rate of:
A) 50 percent
B) 75 percent
C) 85 percent
d- >90 percent
67- - Vulval Dystrophy, all are true EXCEPT:
A) Associated with pruritis
B) Extends to perineum
C)Premalignant condition
D)Malignant condition
E)Histological diagnosis
68- - Melanoma of the vulva, all are false EXCEPT:
A) constitutes 2 to 9 percent of most series of vulvar cancer
B) occurs mostly in the fifth decade
C) occurs mostly in premenopausal women
D) has an overall survival rate of 70 percent
E) is non aggressive
69-- Female pseudohermaphrodites have a genetic karyotype with:
A) xx
B) xy
C) xy/xo
D) xxx
E) xx/xy
70- Side effects of Gn RH agonists includes all of the following
EXCEPT
A) Hot flashes
B) Vaginal dryness
C) Bone resorption & osteoporosis
D) Headache
E- Decreased high density lipoproteins
71- According to Tanner, which developmental stage of pubic hair
and breast development is characterized by downy pubic hair
and breast buds?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
72- The production of testosterone in the interstitial cells is
stimulated by:
A) inhibin.
B) luteinizing hormone (LH).
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D- progesterone
73-- Viability of sprmatozoa in Female genital tract is:
A) 6 hrs
B) 24 hrs
C) 48 hrs
D) 12 hrs
74- - Characteristic features of choriocarcinoma include which of
the following:
A) Haematuria
B) Gastritis
C) Haemoptysis and vaginal bleeding
D) Haematemesis
75-All of the following are features of good-prognosis metastatic
gestational trophoblastic disease except:
A) Serum beta-hCG of less than 40,000 mIU/mL.
B) Disease duration of less than four months.
C) Gestational trophoblastic disease following a normal term
pregnancy.
D) No metastases to the brain or liver.
E) All of the above are features of good-prognosis gestational
trophoblastic disease
76- - Which of the following side effects is least common with
cisplatin?
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Hypomagnesimia
C) Cardiac toxicity
D) Neuropathy
E) High frequency hearing loss
77- The most common sarcoma of the uterus is:
A) endometrial stromal sarcoma
B) carcinosarcoma
C) leiomyosarcoma
D) mixed mesodermal sarcoma
E) rhabdomyosarcoma
78- . Carcinoma of the ovary:
A. Are the most common malignant tumor of the female genital
tract.
B. Is classified as stage II if it has spread to the pelvic peritoneum.
C. Can be detected by tumor markers.
D. The most important route of spread is by lymphatics.
E. Occurs only in old females.
79- . Mucin secreting tumors of the ovary,except
A. Can reach huge sizes.
B. Are usually bilateral.
C. Are usually multilocular.
D-. Can be seen by ultrasound
80- . A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of
"bumps" on her vulva that she has just recently noticed. These
bumps do not cause her symptoms, but she wants to know what
they are and wants them removed. She has no medical problems,
takes no medications, and has no allergies to medications. She
smokes one-half pack of cigarettes per day. She is sexually active
with 3 partners. Examination shows 3 cauliflower-like lesions on
the right labia majora. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in management?
a)Acyclovir
b)Penicillin
c)Cone biopsy
d)Cryotherapy
e)Vulvectomy
81-.A 29-year-old patient comes to the physician for an annual
examination. She has normal menstrual periods every 30 days.
She was 15 years old when she first began having intercourse.
She uses condoms for contraception. Her past medical history is
significant for multiple sclerosis. This condition has required her to
use a wheelchair for the past 4 years, which makes pelvic
examination somewhat difficult for her. She smokes one pack of
cigarettes per day. Given her difficulty with the pelvic examination,
she inquires as to how often she needs to have a Pap smear
performed. Which of the following is the correct answer?
a)A Pap smear should be performed every year
b)A Pap smear should be performed every 3 years
c) A Pap smear should be performed every 5 years
d)A Pap smear should be performed only if there are symptoms
e) A Pap smear is not necessary
82- . A 32-year-old nulliparous woman at 38 weeks' gestation
comes to the labor and delivery ward with regular painful
contractions after a gush of fluid two hours ago. Her temperature is
98.6 F (37 C). She is found to have gross rupture of membranes
and to have a cervix that is 6 centimeters dilated. The fetus is in
breech position. The patient is then brought to the operating room
for cesarean delivery. Which of the following represents the correct
procedure for antibiotic administration?
a) Administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the
procedure
b)Administer intravenous antibiotics after the cord is clamped
c) Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately after the
procedure
d)Administer intravenous antibiotics for 24 hours after the
procedure
e)Administer oral antibiotics for 1 week following the procedure.
83-. A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the
physician for follow-up of an abnormal Pap test. One month ago,
her Pap test showed a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion
(HGSIL). Colposcopy demonstrated acetowhite epithelium at 2
o'clock. A biopsy taken of this area demonstrated HGSIL.
Endocervical curettage (ECC) was negative. The patient has no
other medical problems, has never had cervical dysplasia, and
takes no medications. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in management?
a)Repeat Pap test in 1 year
b)Repeat Pap test in 6 months
c)Repeat colposcopy in 6 months
d)Loop electrode excision procedure (LEEP)
e)Hysterectomy
84-. A previously healthy 21-year-old woman has a profuse,
malodorous vaginal discharge. Examination shows a greenish gray
"frothy" discharge with a "fishy" odor and petechial lesions on the
cervix. There is no cervical motion tenderness. Her temperature is
37.5 C (99.4 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 60/min,
and respirations are 16/min. Microscopic evaluation of the
discharge is most likely to show which of the following?
a) "Clue cells"
b)Gram-negative diplococci
c)Gram-positive diplococci
d)Motile, flagellated organisms
e)Pseudohyphae or hyphae
85-. A 24-year old woman comes to the physician because of
burning with urination. She states that every time she urinates
there is pain and that she has a feeling that she constantly needs
to urinate even though only a little comes out. She has never had
any similar symptoms before. She has no medical problems and
no known drug allergies. Examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis
demonstrates that the urine is positive for leukocyte esterase and
nitrites. Which of the following is the most appropriate
pharmacotherapy?
a)Intramuscular ceftriaxone
b)Intravenous levofloxacin
c)Oral levofloxacin for 7 days
d)Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
e) Wait for the culture results to institute therapy
86- which of the following is most likely to be damaged during
parturition
a- ureter
b- ovary
c- urethra
d- round ligament of the uterus
87- The ureter all true except
a- are innervated by the renal nerve plexus
b- obtain blood supply from the branches of the common iliac
arteries
c- pass above the lateral fornix of the vagina
d- lie medial to the ampulla of the ductus deferenc
88- The ureter is lined by
a- simple cuboidal epithelium
b- transitional epithelium
c- pseudostratified columnar epithelium
d- mesothelium
89- The mucosa of the bladder is covered by
a- endothelium
b- transitional epithelium
c- squamous non-keratinized epithelium
d- ciliated columnar epithelium
90- a 75 year old woman presents with a 7cm adnexal mass .
approximately what percentage of such masse in
postmenopausal women are malignant ;
a- 10%
b- 30%
c-50%
d- 70%
91- the incidence of sarcomatous degeneration in uterine
leiomyoma is
a- <1%
b- 3%
c- 10%
d- 15%
92- The risk of placenta accreta in women with a placenta previa
with four or more previous CS is
a- 1 to 5 percent,
b-11 to 25 percent
c- 35 to 47 percent
d- 50 to 67 percent
93- treatment of Asherman syndrome involve lysis of the
adhesions and treat with ,
a- estrogen
b- progesterone
c- steroid
d- oral contraceptive
94- - the most common chromosomal abnormality in abortuses
is
a- trisomy
b- 45, XO
c- triploidy
d- unbalanced translocation
95- the following risks apply to drug administration in first trimester
in pregnancy
a- sodium valproate and neural tube defects
b- tetracycline and dental discoloration
c- metronidazol and skeletal abnormalities
d- azathioprine and cranio-facial abnormality
96- the most significant prognostic factor in cervical carcinoma is
a- Histological type
b- tumour volume
c- smoking
d- age
97- fetal blood is returned to the umbilical arteries and the
lacenta through the :
a- hypogastric arteries
b- ductus venosus
c- portal vein
d- inferior vena cava
e-foramen ovale
98- a 20 week anomaly scan will detecte the following
percentage of anomalies
a- 60% of trisomy
b- 30% of cardiac anomaly
c- 90% of cases of duodenal atresia
d- 80% of cleft lip
99- in a pregnant woman whose first and only delivery was by
cs for a breech presentation ;
a- the chance of vaginal delivery are over 60%
b- the risk of scar rupture or dehiscence is over 1%
c- erec lateral pelvimetry should be performed to exclude CPD
d- intrauterine pressure monitoring has been shown to reduce
risk of uterin rupture
e- continous electronic fetal heart rat monitoring should not be
used in labour
100- epidurals are indicated in labour in the following
cardiovascular condition
a- previous myocardial infarction ( MI)
b- aortic stenosis
c- hypertrophic obstructive cardimyopathy
d- eisenmengers syndrome
e- pulmonary hypertention