Download A. Androgen insensitivity - Palestine Medical Council

Palestine Medical Council
Previous Part I Exam- MCQs
1- Regarding carbohydrate metabolism in normal pregnancy , the following
is true except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fasting hyperglycemia , postprandial hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia
fasting hypoglycaemia , postprandial hypoglycaemia and hypoinsulinemia
fasting hypoglycaemia , postprandial hyperglycemia and hyperinsulinemia
fasting hypoglycaemia, postprandial hypoglycaemia and hyperinsulinemia
fasting hyperglycemia, postprandial hypoglycaemia and hypoinsulinemia
2- Thrombocytopenia during pregnancy is defined as platelet number
between ;
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
120.000- 150.000
100.000- 120.000
80.000- 100.000
50.000-80.000
20.000- 50.000
3- The following is true during pregnancy
A. first heart sound shows decrease splitting
B. cardiac output at term increase almost 10% when the pregnant woman was moved
from her back to her left side
C. the arteriovenous oxygen gradient increase in pregnancy
D. left ventricular function increase during pregnancy
E. the increase in read cell mass occurs steadly until tearm
4- The following are true in human cytogenetics EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the Y chromosome is acrocentric
pentasomy of sex chromosomes is compatible with life
trisomy 16 is the commonest trisomy found in first trimester spontaneous abortions
trisomy 1 is present in almost 10% of the first trimester spontaneous abortion
a cause of trisomy is non-disjunction at meiosis
5- Testicular feminisation is characterized by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
XY mosaicism
A hypoplastic uterus
Chromatine negative
Poorly developed breasts
Pure Gonadal dysgenisis
6- One of the following conditions is X linked:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Classical achondroplasia
Hurler’s syndrome
Glactosaemia
7- All are true about standard deviation EXEPT:
A. is a test of significance
1
B.
C.
D.
E.
gives an indication of the scatter of the observations
can only apply to a normal distribution
is calculated from the mean and the number of observation
is not the same as the median
8- The following is falls during pregnancy
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
functional residual capacity and the residual volume decrease
respiratory acidosis occurs
glomerular filtration rate and renal plasma flow increase
hydroureter and hydronephrosis
maximal intraurethral pressure increase from 70 to 90 cm H2O
9- The following is true in pregnancy except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
gastric empting time is not prolonged
alkaline phosphates , double .
the pituitary gland enlarges by approximately 135%
plasma prolactine decrease during pregnancy
the amniotic fluid has no prolactin .
10 – The following affect the Q- T interval in ECG in pregnancy except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
digoxin .
quinidine.
magnesium
heart rate
it is between 2.5 and 3.0 large squares
11- The following is true in pregnancy
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the thyroid volume is unchanged
T3 decreased
hyperparathyroidism
aldosteron increase
dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate decrease
12- Regarding nervous system which of the following is true
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
pregangilionic sympathetic fibres are short
cholinergic stimulation leads to decrease bronchial secreations
pilcarpine decrease the activity of endings of parasympathetic neurons
fibres from temperature receptore dose not cross the midline of spinal cord
cortical lesions affect pain sensations
13- Regarding iron deficiency anemia the following is true
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.5mg/day is the daily requirement of iron in pregnancy
normal plasma ferritin is 150-300micro grams/liter
increase in MCHC occurs in severe forms of iron depletion
ferritin is aglycoprotein affected by recent iron ingestion
14 – The following is true about urinary bladder
A. residusl volume is 100 mg
B. maximum flow rate is 80 mls/second
C. voiding volume between 220 – 320 mml
2
D. bladder capacity is 300mml
E. voiding pressure is 145-170 cm H2O
15-In human genetics
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the total number of chromosomes in both normal male and female is 23
in the female the sex chromosome are XY
chromatin positive cells are characteristics of normal males
the sexual differentiation of the fetal gonads occurs the seventh week
the Y chromosome determines the development of the ovary
16-The following are true about fetal circulation EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the foramen ovale permits blood to pass from right to left atrium
the ductus arteriosus carries blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta
the ductus venosus carries blood to the inferior vena cava from the umbilical artery
the ductus arteriosis is contractile
the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the adult
17- In the development of fetal sex organs:
A. the pronephric duct degenerates as the mesonephros develops
B. ova originates outside the developing gonads
C. the presence of ovaries is necessary for the development of the paramesonephric
ducts
D. the vagina is formed entirely by invagination of the paramesonephric ducts
E. sexual differentiation of the external genitalia is complete before the tenth week of
life
18- The Mullerian ducts:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
are derived from intermediate cell mass
appear between the eighth and ninth weeks of embryonic development
develop lateral to the Wolffian ducts
fuse throughout their length by the 12th week of fetal development
become the sinovaginal bulbs in their lower part
19-Features of untreated Turner’s syndrome include:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a low serum gonadotrophin levels
high serum estrogen levels
hot flushes
lymphoedema
increased incidence of gonadal malignant tumor
20- All are true about amniotic fluid EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
is more alkaline than blood
has decreased bilirubin concentration with increased gestation
contains glial cells in the presence of open neural tube defects
does not contain fibrinogen
has increased insulin concentrate with increased gestation
21- All are true about fetal circulation EXCEPT:
3
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the right to the left atrium
the ductus arteriosus carries blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta
the ductus venosus carries blood to the inferior vena cava from the umbilical artery
the ductus arteriosus is contractile
the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres of the adult
22- Select the antibiotic most frequently associated with the following fetal
side effects.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Tetracycline.
Streptomycin.
Nitrofurantoin.
Chloramphenicol.
Sulfonamides.
23-Which of the following statements about twinning is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The frequencies of monozygosity and dizygosity are the same.
Division after formation of the embryonic disk results in conjoined twins.
The incidence of monozygotic twinning varies with race.
A dichorionic twin pregnancy always denotes dizygosity.
Twinning causes no appreciable increase in maternal morbidity and mortality over
singleton pregnancies.
24-Velamentous insertion of the cord is associated with an increased risk for
A.
B.
C.
D.
Premature rupture of the membranes.
Fetal exsanguinations before labor.
Torsion of the umbilical cord.
Fetal malformations.
E. Uterine malformations.
25-A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater
than the transverse diameter is classified as:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Gynecoid.
Android.
Anthropoid.
Platypelloid.
26-An abnormal attitude is illustrated by
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Breech presentation.
Face presentation.
Transverse position.
Occiput posterior.
Occiput anterior.
27-Which of the following statements concerning placenta previa is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Its incidence decreases with maternal age.
Its incidence is unaffected by parity.
The initial hemorrhage is usually painless and rarely fatal.
Management no longer includes a double setup.
Vaginal examination should be done immediately on suspicion of placenta previa.
4
28- A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine fetal
demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and has not had a
miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. This patient is at
increased risk for
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Septic abortion.
Recurrent abortion.
Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia.
Future infertility.
Ectopic pregnancies.
29-Indications for instituting single-agent chemotherapy following evacuation
of a hydatidiform mole usually include
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A rise in hCG titers.
A plateau of hCG titers for 1 week.
Return of hCG titer to normal at 6 weeks after evacuation.
Appearance of liver metastasis.
Appearance of brain metastasis.
30- A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following
events would be most likely to predispose to ectopic pregnancy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Previous tubal surgery.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD).
Induction of ovulation.
Exposure in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES).
31-All of the following are appropriate tocolytics for this patient except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indocin.
Nifedipine.
Terbutaline.
Ritodrine.
Magnesium sulfate.
32-At 29 weeks gestational age, it becomes apparent that the fetus has
developed hydrops. All of the following are characteristics of fetal hydrops
except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Polyhydramnios.
Small placenta.
Pericardial effusion.
Ascites.
Subcutaneous edema.
33- A pregnant woman is discovered to be an asymptomatic carrier of
Neisseria gonorrhoeae. A year ago, she was treated with penicillin for a
gonococcal infection and developed a severe allergic reaction. Treatment
of choice at this time is
A. Tetracycline.
5
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ampicillin.
Spectinomycin.
Chloramphenicol.
Penicillin.
34-True statements concerning infants born to mothers with active
tuberculosis include which of the following?
A. The risk of active disease during the first year of life may approach 90% without
prophylaxis.
B. Bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination of the newborn infant without evidence
of active disease is not appropriate.
C. Future ability for tuberculin skin testing is lost after BCG administration to the
newborn.
D. Neonatal infection is most likely acquired by aspiration of infected amniotic fluid.
E. Congenital infection is common despite therapy.
35-A 21-year-old has difficulty voiding 6 h postpartum. The least likely cause
is which of the following?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Preeclampsia.
Infusion of oxytocin after delivery.
Vulvar hematoma.
Urethral trauma.
Use of general anesthesia.
36- Breast-feeding can be encouraged despite which of the following
conditions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Maternal hepatitis B.
Maternal reduction mammoplasty with transplantation of the nipples.
Maternal acute puerperal mastitis.
Maternal treatment with lithium carbonate.
Maternal treatment with tetracyclines.
37-A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which lymph
node group would be the first involved in metastatic spread of this disease
beyond the cervix and uterus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Common iliac nodes.
Parametrial nodes.
External iliac nodes.
Paracervical or ureteral nodes.
Paraaortic nodes.
38- Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of delayed puberty?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Breast budding in a 10-year-old girl.
Menarche delayed beyond 16 years of age.
Menarche 1 year after breast budding.
FSH values less than 20 mIU/mL.
39- Which of the following medications is used as first-line therapy in the
treatment of endometriosis?
A. Unopposed estrogens.
6
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dexamethasone.
Danazol.
Gonadotropins.
Parlodel.
40- During the evaluation of secondary amenorrhea in a 24-year-old woman,
hyperprolactinemia is diagnosed. Which of the following conditions could
cause increased circulating prolactin concentration and amenorrhea in
this patient?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Stress.
Primary hyperthyroidism.
Anorexia nervosa.
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Polycystic ovarian disease.
41-The presentation of Asherman syndrome typically involves
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hypomenorrhea.
Oligomenorrhea.
Menorrhagia.
Metrorrhagia.
Dysmenorrhea.
42- Following a cesarean birth, contraindications for a trial of labor in a
subsequent pregnancy include
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Breech presentation.
Lack of prior vaginal delivery.
The fact that the first section was for cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD).
Unavailability of x-ray pelvimetry.
Classic cesarean section scar.
43- A patient at 17 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine
fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and has not had a
miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. This patient is
at increased risk for
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Septic abortion
Recurrent abortion
Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
Future infertility
Ectopic pregnancies
44-The following arteries are branches of the internal iliac artery , except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
internal pudendal
ovarian
iliolumber
obturator
middle rectal
45 – The pudendal nerve
A.
B.
C.
D.
lies medial to the ischial spine
arises from S3,4,5 .
contains parasympathetic fibres to the anal canal
receives sensory fibres from the cervix
7
46- The uterine cervix , except
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
has a canal lined by columnar epithelium
has an alkalin secreations
loses the whole of its lining during menstruation
undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle
has a profuse watery discharge during ovulation
47- The gynaecoid pelvis , except
A.
B.
C.
D.
is the commonest type of feemal pelvis
has a wider aneroposterior than transvers diameter at the prim
has a shallow , wide sacrosciatic notch
has parallel pelvic side – walls
48- The primary source of progesterone during the reproductive cycle of a
non-pregnant female is (are) the:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
granulosa cells.
theca cells.
corpus luteum.
pituitary.
hypothalamus
49-GnRH, all are false EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
is distinct from LH-RH
is produced in the posterior pituitary
is a decapeptide produced in pulses at ninety minute
exerts its main effect directly on the ovary
is used to induce ovulation in IVF programmes
intervals
50- Life cycle of Corpus luteum is completed in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
6 - 12 days
12 - 14 days
14 - 18 days
18 - 22 days
51- During nonnal menstrual cycle. ovulation occurs as a result of
A. excess Estrogen level
B. low Estrogen level
C. surge of leutenizing hormone
D. low level of HCG
52- The intercellular chemical signal that is released by cells and has a local
effect on the same cell type as that from which the chemical signal is
released is:
A. autocrine chemical signal
B. pheromone
8
C. paracrine chemical signal
D. hormone
E. neurotransmitter
53-Estrogen,progesterone, testosterone, and glucocorticoids are all examples
of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
proteins.
glycoproteins.
polypeptides.
amino acid derivatives.
steroids
54- Which of the following is not associated with an increased risk for ovarian
carcinoma ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Nulliparity
Radiation exposure
A diet low in fibre and Vit A.
Familial tendency
55- Approximately 75 - 80% of ovarian tumors originate from:
A. Epithelium
B. Stroma
C. Germ cells
D. Mesoderm
E. Unclassified tissue
56- A 26 year old nullipara presents with smooth , pedunculated ovarian
mass anterior to the uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. luteoma
B. cystic teratoma
C. theca lutein cyst
D. serous cystadenoma
E. brenner's tumor
57- Germ cell tumours, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Are all malignant
B. Progress in patients with endodermal sinus tumours can be monitored using alphafetoprotein (AFP)
C. Etoposide is a useful agent for anaplastic tumours
D. Lactate denydrogenase (LDH) may be raised in some of these tumours
58- The Brenner tumour of the ovary, all are false EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Is not hormonally active
Is classified as a germ cell tumour
Usually measures 6-10 cm in diameter
Contains nests of epithelial cells
59-Which one of the following statements is false?
A.
B.
C.
D.
During sexual excitement, breasts swell due to vasocongestion.
During sexual excitement, nipples become erect.
During sexual excitement, vaginal smooth muscles constrict
During orgasm, the vagina contracts.
9
E. Orgasm in women consists of 3-15 rhythmic contractions of the uterus
60- In which of the following is there an absent vagina?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Androgen insensitivity
Turner syndrome
CAH in female
adrenal hyperplasia
Gonadal agenesis
61-A 55 year old woman has recurrent urinary retention after a hysterectomy
done for huge fibroid. The most likely cause is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Atrophic and stenotic urethra.
Lumbar disc prolapse.
Injury to the bladder neck.
Injury to the hypogastric plexi
62- Detrusor instability, all are false EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
May occur de novo after bladder neck surgery
A pressure rise during filling of between 5-15 CmH2O
Always symptomatic
Implies a neurological disorder
63- Which one of the following is not associated with cervical carcinoma?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Multiple sexual partners
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
Young age at first sexual intercourse
Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs)
64- The age at which the peak incidence of cervical carcinoma develops.
Choose the single most likely time or time-interval:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
30 years
45 years
50 years
55 years
65 years
65- Intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs) except :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Increase the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease.
Are commonly used as a method of contraception in Egypt.
May be used in a nulligravida.
Act through prevention of implantation.
Commonly cause an increase in menstrual flow.
66- Using a condom and spermicide concurrently has a method effectiveness
rate of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
50 percent
75 percent
85 percent
>90 percent
10
67- Vulval Dystrophy, all are true EXCEPT:
A. Associated with pruritis
B. Extends to perineum
C. Premalignant condition
D. Malignant condition
E. Histological diagnosis
68- Melanoma of the vulva, all are false EXCEPT:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
constitutes 2 to 9 percent of most series of vulvar cancer
occurs mostly in the fifth decade
occurs mostly in premenopausal women
has an overall survival rate of 70 percent
is non aggressive
69- Female pseudohermaphrodites have a genetic karyotype with:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
xx
xy
xy/xo
xxx
xx/xy
70- Side effects of Gn RH agonists includes all of the following EXCEPT
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hot flashes
Vaginal dryness
Bone resorption & osteoporosis
Headache
Decreased high density lipoproteins
71- According to Tanner, which developmental stage of pubic hair and breast
development is characterized by downy pubic hair and breast buds?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
3
4
72- The production of testosterone in the interstitial cells is stimulated
by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
inhibin.
luteinizing hormone (LH).
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
progesterone
73- Viability of sprmatozoa in Female genital tract is:
A. 6 hrs
B. 24 hrs
C. 48 hrs
D. 12 hrs
11
74- Characteristic features of choriocarcinoma include which of the
following:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Haematuria
Gastritis
Haemoptysis and vaginal bleeding
Haematemesis
75-All of the following are features of good-prognosis metastatic gestational
trophoblastic disease except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Serum beta-hCG of less than 40,000 mIU/mL.
Disease duration of less than four months.
Gestational trophoblastic disease following a normal term pregnancy.
No metastases to the brain or liver.
All of the above are features of good-prognosis gestational trophoblastic disease
76- Which of the following side effects is least common with cisplatin?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Thrombocytopenia
Hypomagnesimia
Cardiac toxicity
Neuropathy
High frequency hearing loss
77- The most common sarcoma of the uterus is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
endometrial stromal sarcoma
carcinosarcoma
leiomyosarcoma
mixed mesodermal sarcoma
rhabdomyosarcoma
78- Carcinoma of the ovary:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Are the most common malignant tumor of the female genital tract.
Is classified as stage II if it has spread to the pelvic peritoneum.
Can be detected by tumor markers.
The most important route of spread is by lymphatics.
Occurs only in old females.
79- Mucin secreting tumors of the ovary,except
A.
B.
C.
D.
Can reach huge sizes.
Are usually bilateral.
Are usually multilocular.
Can be seen by ultrasound
12
80- A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of "bumps" on her
vulva that she has just recently noticed. These bumps do not cause her
symptoms, but she wants to know what they are and wants them removed.
She has no medical problems, takes no medications, and has no allergies to
medications. She smokes one-half pack of cigarettes per day. She is sexually
active with 3 partners. Examination shows 3 cauliflower-like lesions on the
right labia majora. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step
in management?
A. Acyclovir
B. Penicillin
C. Cone biopsy
D. Cryotherapy
E. Vulvectomy
81-A 29-year-old patient comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has
normal menstrual periods every 30 days. She was 15 years old when she first
began having intercourse. She uses condoms for contraception. Her past
medical history is significant for multiple sclerosis. This condition has required
her to use a wheelchair for the past 4 years, which makes pelvic examination
somewhat difficult for her. She smokes one pack of cigarettes per day. Given
her difficulty with the pelvic examination, she inquires as to how often she
needs to have a Pap smear performed. Which of the following is the correct
answer?
A. A Pap smear should be performed every year
B. A Pap smear should be performed every 3 years
C. A Pap smear should be performed every 5 years
D. A Pap smear should be performed only if there are symptoms
E. A Pap smear is not necessary
82-A 32-year-old nulliparous woman at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the labor
and delivery ward with regular painful contractions after a gush of fluid two
hours ago. Her temperature is 98.6 F (37 C). She is found to have gross rupture
of membranes and to have a cervix that is 6 centimeters dilated. The fetus is in
breech position. The patient is then brought to the operating room for cesarean
delivery. Which of the following represents the correct procedure for antibiotic
administration?
A. Administer intravenous antibiotics 30 minutes prior to the procedure
B.
Administer
intravenous
antibiotics
after
the
cord
is
clamped
C. Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately after the procedure
D. Administer intravenous antibiotics for 24 hours after the procedure
E. Administer oral antibiotics for 1 week following the procedure.
13
83- A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician for followup of an abnormal Pap test. One month ago, her Pap test showed a high-grade
squamous intraepithelial lesion (HGSIL). Colposcopy demonstrated acetowhite
epithelium at 2 o'clock. A biopsy taken of this area demonstrated HGSIL.
Endocervical curettage (ECC) was negative. The patient has no other medical
problems, has never had cervical dysplasia, and takes no medications. Which
of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Repeat Pap test in 1 year
B. Repeat Pap test in 6 months
C. Repeat colposcopy in 6 months
D. Loop electrode excision procedure (LEEP)
E. Hysterectomy
84- A previously healthy 21-year-old woman has a profuse, malodorous vaginal
discharge. Examination shows a greenish gray "frothy" discharge with a
"fishy" odor and petechial lesions on the cervix. There is no cervical motion
tenderness. Her temperature is 37.5 C (99.4 F), blood pressure is 120/80 mm
Hg, pulse is 60/min, and respirations are 16/min. Microscopic evaluation of the
discharge is most likely to show which of the following?
A. "Clue cells"
B. Gram-negative diplococci
C. Gram-positive diplococci
D. Motile, flagellated organisms
E. Pseudohyphae or hyphae
85- A 24-year old woman comes to the physician because of burning with
urination. She states that every time she urinates there is pain and that she has
a feeling that she constantly needs to urinate even though only a little comes
out. She has never had any similar symptoms before. She has no medical
problems and no known drug allergies. Examination is unremarkable.
Urinalysis demonstrates that the urine is positive for leukocyte esterase and
nitrites. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Intramuscular ceftriaxone
B. Intravenous levofloxacin
C. Oral levofloxacin for 7 days
D. Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
E. Wait for the culture results to institute therapy
86- which of the following is most likely to be damaged during parturition
A.
B.
C.
D.
ureter
ovary
urethra
round ligament of the uterus
87- The ureter all true except
A.
B.
C.
D.
are innervated by the renal nerve plexus
obtain blood supply from the branches of the common iliac arteries
pass above the lateral fornix of the vagina
lie medial to the ampulla of the ductus deferenc
14
88- The ureter is lined by
A.
B.
C.
D.
simple cuboidal epithelium
transitional epithelium
pseudostratified columnar epithelium
mesothelium
89- The mucosa of the bladder is covered by
A.
B.
C.
D.
endothelium
transitional epithelium
squamous non-keratinized epithelium
ciliated columnar epithelium
90- A 75 year old woman presents with a 7cm adnexal mass . approximately
what percentage of such masse in postmenopausal women are malignant ;
A.
B.
C.
D.
10%
30%
c-50%
70%
91- the incidence of sarcomatous degeneration in uterine leiomyoma is
A.
B.
C.
D.
<1%
3%
10%
15%
92- The risk of placenta accreta in women with a placenta previa with four or
more previous CS is
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 to 5 percent,
b-11 to 25 percent
35 to 47 percent
50 to 67 percent
93- Treatment of Asherman syndrome involve lysis of the adhesions and
treat with :
A.
B.
C.
D.
estrogen
progesterone
steroid
oral contraceptive
94- the most common chromosomal abnormality in abortuses is
A.
B.
C.
D.
trisomy
45, XO
triploidy
unbalanced translocation
15
95- The following risks apply to drug administration in first trimester in
pregnancy
A.
B.
C.
D.
sodium valproate and neural tube defects
tetracycline and dental discoloration
metronidazol and skeletal abnormalities
azathioprine and cranio-facial abnormality
96- the most significant prognostic factor in cervical carcinoma is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Histological type
tumour volume
smoking
age
97- fetal blood is returned to the umbilical arteries and the lacenta through
the :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
hypogastric arteries
ductus venosus
portal vein
inferior vena cava
foramen ovale
98- A 20 week anomaly scan will detecte the following percentage of
anomalies
A.
B.
C.
D.
60% of trisomy
30% of cardiac anomaly
90% of cases of duodenal atresia
80% of cleft lip
99- in a pregnant woman whose first and only delivery was by cs for a breech
presentation ;
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the chance of vaginal delivery are over 60%
the risk of scar rupture or dehiscence is over 1%
erec lateral pelvimetry should be performed to exclude CPD
intrauterine pressure monitoring has been shown to reduce risk of uterin rupture
continous electronic fetal heart rat monitoring should not be used in labour
100- epidurals are indicated in labour in the following cardiovascular
condition
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
previous myocardial infarction ( MI)
aortic stenosis
hypertrophic obstructive cardimyopathy
eisenmengers syndrome
pulmonary hypertention
16