Download 1- Regarding the M

1- Regarding the M.R.I.: all the following statement are true except:
A. On T2W C.S.F. shows high signals.
B. Fat shows low signals on T1W and T2W.
C. Cortical bone gives a signal void from a proton density spin-echo sequence.
D. Fat appear dark to grey on STIR sequence.
E. Mascara my cause local susceptibility artifacts.
2-The following statement are true except:
A. The superior mesenteric artery is retroperitoneal.
B. The transverse caliber of the jejunum is about 3.5cm.
C. The valvulae conniventes are about 1mm thick in the middle and distal ileum.
D. A Meckels diverticulum is present in about 2% of people.
E. The stomach receives branches from the common hepatic duct.
3-Regarding CT-scan: all the following statement are true except:
A. A window level of 20 is useful for bone imaging.
B. The Hounsfield number of fat is about -100.
C. Thinner slices reduce the partial volume effect.
D. It is considered high dose equipment.
E. The Hounsfield number of C.S.F. is around 0 .
4- All the following are branches of the internal carotid artery except:
A. Anterior cerebral artery.
B. Accessory meningeal artery.
C. Pterygoid artery.
D. Anterior choroidal artery.
E. Posterior communicating artey.
5- Regarding the 8segments of the liver all the following statement are true except:
A. First segment is the caudate lobe.
B. 2nd,3rd,and 4th segments from the left lobe of the liver.
C. Each bile duct and segmental artery lie lateral to the segmental vein.
D. All lobes drain to the hepatic veins.
E. 4th segment is bordered by the falciform ligament.
6- Concerning the chest: all the following statement are true except
A. The left main bronchus is narrower than the right main bronchus.
B. The cranial angle in normally about 60 degrees in adults
C. There are three segments in the right upper lobe.
D. The right pulmonary artery lies above the right main bronchus.
E. The left main bronchus may normally indent the oesphagus.
7- Concerning the normal abdomen: all the following statement are true except:
A. Unilateral absence of the psoas shadow on plain film is not seen.
B. The ileocaecal valve may simulate a polypoidal mass at barium enema
C. The spleen can indent the stomach at barium meal.
D. Jejunum has an average diameter of 3-3.5cm.
E. The left lobe of the liver may produce a soft –tissue shadow in the stomach.
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8- Concerning the common bile duct: all the following statement are true except:
A. Lies anterior to portal veins.
B. The lies along the margin of the second part of the duodenum.
C. Is related to the left hepatic vein.
D. Lies to the right of the gastro duodenal artery.
E. May normally produce a smooth indentation in the barium –filled duodenal cap.
9- Concerning the normal duodenum: all the following statement are true except:A. The ampula of Vatter opening in to the second part may produce a filling defect
B. The second part is suspended from the diaphragm by the ligament of Treitz.
C. The cap may be indented by the gall-bladder.
D. The second part may be displaced medially by the right kidney .
E. The fourth part ascends medial to the inferior mesenteric vein.
10- Concerning the left kidney: all the following statement are true except:
A. A-Usually lies higher than the right.
B. B-Usually larger than the right.
C. C-Is related to the tail of pancreas .
D. D-Is related anteriorly to jejunum.
E. E-Is drained by the main left renal vein which usually crosses posterior to
aorta above the origin of the superior mesenteric artery.
the
11- Concerning the larynx : all the following statement are true except:
A. It has a high position in the neonate.
B. The epiglottis produces a central ovoid filling defect in a barium swallow in
frontal projection.
C. It is related to the carotid sheath.
D. The vestibule lies between the false and true cords
E. It is developed from foregut.
12-The following structures may be seen on a standard axial view of the skull
except:
A. The foramen ovale.
B. The foramen spinosum.
C. The clivus.
D. The nasal septum.
E. The dorsum sellae
13-In the normal wrist: all the following statement are true except:
A. The scaphoid and the lunate articulate with the distal radius.
B. The scaphoid and the lunate articulate with the head of the capitate.
C. The pisiform articulates with the anterior surface of the triquetrum.
D. The trapezium articulate with the scaphoid.
E. The proximal part of the triquetrum articulates with the trapezium.
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14-Regarding the veins of the lower limb; all the following statement are false
except:
A. The long saphenous vein lies anterior to the medial malleolus.
B. The long saphenous vein always contains less than five valves.
C. The short saphenous vein lies with the sural nerve anterior to lateral malleolus.
D. The long saphenous vein drain in to popliteal veins
E. There is no communication between long saphenous and short saphenous vein.
15-At the pulmonary hilum: all the following statement are true except:
A. The density seen on a plain chest radiograph is mainly due to blood vessels
B. The right main bronchus is shorter than the left.
C. The left pulmonary artery passes anterior to the left main bronchus throughout its
course.
D. The hilar point is where the basal pulmonary artery crosses the upper lobe vein.
E. The left hilum is higher than the right in about 97% of people.
16- In the lung: all the following statement are true except:
A. The right upper lobe is divided in to three segments.
B. The bronchial arteries all arises directly from the aorta.
C. The right middle lobe is divided in to medial and lateral segments.
D. A secondary pulmonary lobule comprises three to five terminal bronchioles.
E. The veins are usually anterior to arteries.
In superior vena cava: all the following statement are true except:-17
A. It has no valves.
B. Has only one tributary.
C. May be left sided.
D. Is formed at the level of T7.
E. Is an immediate relation of the right phrenic nerve.
18- Regarding the large bowel: all the following statement are true except:
A. The appendix is retrocaecal in more than 6%.
B. The appendix has own mesentery from the lower border of the ileum..
C. The ileo cecal valve lies posteromedially in the majority of cases.
D. The haustra are more clearly defined in the ascending colon than in the
descending colon.
E. The ascending colon lies anterior to the left kidney
19- Regarding the ureters: all the following statement are true except:
A. Is retroperitoneal.
B. Is lined by transitional cell epithelium.
C. Has three narrowing along its length.
D. Lies lateral to the tips of the transverse of the lumbar vertebrae.
E. Receives part of its blood supply from the gonadal arteries.
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20- Regarding the external carotid arteries: all the following are branching except:
A. The ascending pharyngeal artery.
B. The inferior thyroid artery.
C. The internal maxillary artery.
D. The occipital artery.
E. The posterior auricular artery.
In the vertebral artery: all the following statement are true except:-21
A. Usually has a wider caliber on the left than the right.
B. Usually enters the foramen transversarium of the seventh cervical vertebra.
C. Arises from the thyrocervical trunk in some individuals.
D. Is usually the first branch of the subclavian artery.
E. Usually gives off the posterior inferior cerebellar artery after entering the cranial
cavity.
22-Regarding the ventricles of the brain: all the following statement are true except:
A. The foramina of Manro connect each lateral ventricle to fourth ventricle.
B. The communicate with the central canal of the spinal cord
C. The roof of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is formed by the corpus
callosum.
D. The pineal body lies in the posterior wall of third ventricle.
E. Foramen Magendie connects the fourth ventricle with the cerebello medullary
cistern
23-Concerning electromagnetic radiation: The following statement are true except
A. attenuated radiation travels in straight lines.
B. The inverse square law applies equally to both extended and point sources of
radiation.
C. The inverse square law applies to all types of high energy electromagnetic
radiation.
D. It is composed of particles and waves.
E. It comprises electric and magnetic fields oscillating perpendicular to each other
and to the direction of propagation.
24-Radioactive decay may be directly accompanied by the following types of
emission:except
A. Positron emission.
B. Gamma rays.
C. Alpha particles.
D. Bremsstrahlung.
E. Characteristic x-radiation.
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25-With radioactive decay: The following statement are true except
A. Metastable nuclides tend to release gamma radiation to reach a stable ground
state.
B. Alpha emission reduces the number of neutrons in an atom by two.
C. Gamma emission results in no change in atomic number.
D. The atomic number increases with beta minus emission.
E. A nucleon is another term for a metastable radioactive nucleus.
26- In a general radiography x-ray tube: The following statement are true except
A. The choice of the atomic number of the target affects the characteristic radiation
produced.
B. The quantity of bremsstrahlung produced increases with the atomic number of the
target.
C. The intensity of x-rays produced is directly proportional to the Kv.
D. The intensity of x-rays produced is approximately proportional to the square of
the kV.
E. Characteristic x-ray peaks make a major contribution to the x-ray beam produced
by a tungsten target at high kV.
27-Regarding the spectrum of an x-ray beam: The following statement are true except
A. It has a maximum energy determined by the kVp setting for the tube.
B. It has a maximum energy which is independent of the atomic number of the
target.
C. Characteristic peaks are only produced if the tube provides electrons with energy
exceeding the K edge energy of the anode material.
D. It is not modified by the amount of filtration employed, as this only influences
beam intensity.
E. At a constant kilo voltage, tube current does not affect the maximum or minimum
photon energy.
28-Regarding the x-ray tube: The following statement are false: except
A. Stationary anodes are still used .
B. Tube and filament current are of the same magnitude.
C. A stationary anode is necessary for high output requirements
D. Impairment of the vacuum does not affect the tube current.
E. Because the beam is directed from the anode out of the tube window, shielding is
only required on the exit window side of the tube.
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29-In an x-ray tube: The following statement are false except
A. Used in medical diagnostic practice the efficiency of x-ray production is about
10%.
B. The intensity of the radiation depends on anode/cathode distance.
C. The intensity of the radiation dosen't depend on the atomic number of the target
material.
D. The quality of x-rays generated depends primarily on the kVp and voltage
waveform.
E. Increasing the kV increases the wavelength of the radiation.
30-In rotating anode tubes: The following statement are true except
A. The anode diameter is typically 100 mm.
B. Increasing anode diameter increases the tube rating.
C. The target surface is angled to direct the x-ray beam.
D. Heat loss depends on thermal conducation to the tube enveloped.
E. The rotor bearings are lubricated with silver.
31-Tungsten is used for the target of most x-ray tubes in preference to other
materials because:
A. The anode heel effect is not as noticeable compared with other materials.
B. The bremsstrahlung process is more efficient.
C. It has high thermal conductivity.
D. It has a very high melting point.
E. It is physical proparties .
32-Regarding an x-ray tube filament ,which of the following is correct:
A. Space charge is formed by tungsten atoms evaporating from the wire.
B. Tungsten is often alloyed with other metals.
C. A minimum filament temperature must be exceeded before a tube current will
flow.
D. Tungsten is used because it has a high atomic number.
E. Molybdenum is used as the filament in mammography x-ray tubes.
33-Compared to a single phase generator, a high frequency generator allows:
A. Shorter exposure times.
B. More variation in kV during an exposure.
C. A larger radiation dose to the patient for a comparable film exposure.
D. The operation of a high speed anode.
E. A lower quality beam to be produced.
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34- X- ray beam intensity: The following statement are true except
A. Is directly proportional to the tube current.
B. Is related to the filament current.
C. Is always proportional to the kVp squared.
D. Depends on the voltage waveform.
E. A greater maximum beam intensity is possible from a rotating anode than from a
stationary anode.
35-The intensity of the radiation from an x-ray tube is dependent on :
A. Focal spot size when kV and mA are constant.
B. Choice of anode material.
C. Beam filtration.
D. The distance from the focal spot.
36-Increasing the kV across an x-ray tube with adjustment of mAs to produce the
same of film blackening: The following statement are true except
A. Increases the x-ray output.
B. Decreases the proportion of scattered to primary radiation at the image receptor.
C. Increases the skin dose to the patient.
D. Decreases the exposure latitude.
E. Decreases the mAs required.
37-Increasing tube kV, with all other factors constant: The following statement are true
except
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increases dose to the patient.
Produces a darker film.
Increases radiographic contrast.
Shifts the peak of the curve for the x-ray spectrum towards the high energy end of
the spectrum.
E. More scatter reaches the film.
38-The following statements are true regarding the maximum rating of an x-ray
tube:except
A. For short exposure times it is limited by heating of the anode surface by bombardment
with high energy electrons.
B. For short exposure times it depends upon the average value of the voltage waveform
across the tube.
C. For long exposure times it is limited by the total amount of heat which accumulates in the
anode.
D. In a modern angiography system active anode cooling mechanisms allow the use of
longer exposure runs.
E. The maximum rating of a modern CT x-ray tube must be of several millions of heat units.
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39-Regarding attenuation of a diagnostic x-ray beam: The following statement are true
except
A. Total attenuation is the sum of attenuations from Compton, elastic and
photoelectric effects.
B. It is related to the atomic number of the absorbing material.
C. By the addition of a series of aluminimum filters of equal thickness, the beam
intensity would be attenuated by equal fractions.
D. Attenuation is related to the inverse square law.
40-Concrening attenuation when a diagnostic x-ray beam interacts with matter: The
following statement are true except
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is the absorption of radiation in matter.
Scatter is a cause of attenuation.
Increasing photon energy always leads to steady reduction in beam attenuation.
It is related to the temperature of a fixed mass of attenuating material.
41-Regarding scatter: The following statement are false except
A. More is produced by the photoelectric effect than the Compton effect.
B. The contribution of x-ray scatter incident upon an image receptor reduces spatial
resolution.
C. Scatter increases the signal to noise ratio.
D. Scattered x-rays escaping a patient during a barium enema examination result in a
negligible radiation hazard to staff.
42-In the Compton effect: The following statement are false except
A.
B.
C.
D.
A photon interacts with a free electron.
The effective atomic number of the object determines the amount of scatter produced.
Scatter is proportional to electron density.
An incident photon of high energy will lose more energy than a low energy photon in a
Compton interaction with an electron at a given angle.
43-Which of the following modalities does not use a form of ionizing radiation.
A. Radiography.
B. Computed tomography.
C. Position emission tomography.
D. Magnetic resonance imaging.
44-The radiofrequency energy used in MRI and X radiation have essentially the
same:
A. Velocity.
B. Photon energy.
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C. Wavelength.
D. Frequency.
45-The characteristics of computed tomography C.T which give (s) it a distinct
advantages over conventional radiography is:
A. Higher visibility of details (resolution).
B. Better contrast sensitivity (low contrast detectability).
C. Lower raise.
D. Femur artifact.
46-Changing the C.T image matrix size will have a significant effect on:
A. C.T number valves.
B. Image details.
C. Image noise.
47-The Value of C.T number (in Hounsfield units) is determined primary by:
A. Matrix size.
B. Slice thickness.
C. KV.
D. Tissue density.
48- Changing from a 2 MHZ to a 5 MHZ ultrasound tranducer would generally
produce:
A. Faster imaging
B. Deeper penetration.
C. Shorter ultrasound pulses.
49-When using Doppler ultrasound to determine blood flow velocity it is necessary
for equipment operator to make a specific adjustment unique to the Doppler
fraction for:
A. Transducer frequency.
B. Depth of vessel
C. Direction of vessel.
D. Size of vessel.
50-The lowest rate of ultrasound absorption occurs in :
A. Fat.
B. Air.
C. None.
D. Lung.
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51-In MRI the resonant frequency of a specific tissue is determined or affected by
the (which is false)
A. Specific isotop being imaged.
B. Charactarestics of the molecule.
C. Orientation of magnetic field.
D. Strength of the magnetic field.
52-Which of the following factors would be most appropriate to produce a T1
weighted image.
A. TR = 2000 TE= 20.
B. TR = 2000 TE= 100.
C. TR= 500 TE = 20.
D. TR = 500 TE = 100.
53- Tissue characteristics which can produce a relative and increased intensity
(brightness) contrast in a magnetic resonance image include (which Is true or
false).
A. Short T1 values.
B. Short T2.
C. Long T2 value.
54-Which quadrant is the most poorly visualized on the MLO mammography view
?
A. Upper inner .
B. Upper outer .
C. Lower inner .
D. Axillary tail .
55-The expected radiation effective dose gram chest x-ray is :
A. 1 mSv .
B. 25 mSv.
C. 0.01 mSv .
D. 5 mSv .
56-In MRI bone imaging is limited because bone do not have :
A. Protons .
B. Electrons.
C. Hydrogen .
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D. Oxygen .
57-A major factor that affects image noise in CT is :
A. Number of detectors .
B. Milliamper .
C. Age of the scanner .
D. Type of the scanner .
58-When you double the slice thickness in CT ,while freezing all other factors ,
image noise will be :
A. Doubled .
B. The same .
C. Decreased by half .
D. Increased 4 times .
59. The most posterior sinuses are the
A. maxillary
B. frontal
C. ethmoid
D. sphenoid
60. The largest sinuses are the
A. maxillary
B. frontal
C. ethmoid
D. sphenoid
61. Sinuses perform which function?
A. warm and mostion inhaled air
B. act as shock absorbers
C. decrease the weight of the skull
D. all the above
62. How many facial bones have sinuses?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
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63. The best projection to demonstrate the frontal sinuses is the :
A. Caldwell
B. towne
C. waters
D. smv
64. The best projection to demonstrate the maxiallry sinuses
is the :
A. Caldwell
B. towne
C. waters
D. smv
65. The best projection to demonstrate the ethmoidal sinuses
is the :
A- Caldwell
B- towne
C- waters
D- smv
66. The waters method requires a 37 degree tube
angulations.
A. True
B. False
67. The petrous ridges are of no concern in sinus
imaging.
A. True
B. False
68. The OML forms a 37 degree angle for a Caldwell method.
A. True
B. False
69. The open-mouth waters method shows the maxillary sinuses
within the open mouth.
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A. True
B. False
70. The paranasal sinuses differ in size and number from patient to patient.
A. True
B. False
71. The lateral projection is the only view that clearly shows all
the sinuses.
A. True
B. False
72. All the paranasal sinuses are associated with
facial bones.
A. True
B. False
73. Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
A. vomer
B. frontal
C. ethmoid
D. sphenoid
74. Which cranial bones are paired?
A. ethmoid
B. parietal
C. temporal
D. b and c
75. Which is not a part of the sphenoid bone?
A. greater wing
B. sella turcica
C. clivus
D. crista galli
76. The G in the positioning line GML stands for:
A. gonion
B. glabella
C. greater wing
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D. greater trochanter
77. The CR enters 2 inches superior to the EAM for which
position?
A. lateral skull
B. Caldwell method
C. townes method
D. AP
78. The CR is angled ________ degrees ________ for a
Caldwell method.
A. 30, caudad
B. 15, cephalic
C. 15, caudad
D. 30, cephalic
79. If the OML is perpendicular on a townes method, the CR
is:
A. 37 degrees caudal
B. 30 degrees caudal
C. 37 degrees cephalic
D. 30 degrees cephalic.
80. The occipital bone is best demonstrated with what two
skull positions?
A. haas and Townes
B. Caldwell and Townes
C. AP and haas
D. PA and Townes
81. The CR location for a Caldwell method is the nasion.
A. True
B. False
82. There are 8 cranial bones and 12 facial bones.
A. True
B. False
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83. The sella turcica is part of the sphenoid bones.
A. True
B. False
84. The submentovertical projection is known as
the haas method.
A. True
B. False
85. The greater and lesser wings are part of the sphenoid
bone.
A. True
B. False
86. Rotatation of the forearm so the palm faces down is
called:
A. hyperflexion
B. inversion
C. supination
D. pronation
87. The ring finger is the_____ digit?
A. first
B. fourth
C. second
D. fifth
88. The wrist is made up of _____ bones?
A. 6
B. 22
C. 8
D. 10
89. The proximal wrist bones include the:
A. lunate
B. capitate
C. trapazoid
D. trapezium
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90. Where is the CR location for an PA oblique hand
projection?
A. perpendicular to the third MCP joint
B. parallel to the third PIP joint
C. perpendicular to the third MCP joint
D. parallel to the third DIP joint
91. What bone is the focus of the PA ulnar deviation
projection of the wrist?
A. lunate
B. scaphoid
C. pisiform
D. capitate
92.
You need place a side marker on all wrist projections even if
done on the same film.
A. True
B. False
93.
A 40 degree tube angle is needed for the PA ulnar deviation
projection of the wrist.
A. True
B. False
94. Which structure is not on the ulna?
A. styloid process
B. head
C. olecranon process
D. Capitulum
95. What is the proper position for an AP forearm
projection?
A. hand supinated
B. hand pronated
C. elbow at 90 degrees
D. A and C
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96. To insure a good AP elbow projection:
A. have the humerous in the
same plane as the forearm
B. center on the joint
C. angle the tube 5 degrees cephalic
D. A and B
97. Which structure is located on the medially on an AP
elbow projection?
A. capitulum
B. trochlea
C. radial head
D. B and C
98. To do a medial oblique projection of the
elbow:
A. pronate the hand
B. place the hand in a neutral position
C. supinate the hand
D. bend the elbow 45 degrees
99. The olecranon fossa is located on:
A. the radius
B. the ulna
C. the scaphoid
D. none
above
of
the
100. The hand should be pronated for an:
A. AP elbow
B. AP forearm
C. internal oblique elbow
D. none of the above
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Good Luck
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