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Question 1
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The most important step in vendor certification is to:
a.
Familiarize the vendor with quality requirements
b.
Analyze the vendor's first shipment
c.
Visit the vendor's plant
d.
Obtain copies of the vendor's quality manual
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The correct answer is:
Familiarize the vendor with quality requirements
Question 2
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Strategic quality goals must be subdivided. Thus they are:
a.
Accountable
b.
Delegated
c.
Deployed
d.
Distributed
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The correct answer is:
Deployed
Question 3
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In establishing a quality reporting and information feedback system,
primary consideration must be given to:
a.
Historical preservation of data
b.
The number of inspection systems
c.
A routing copy list
d.
Timely feedback and corrective action
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The correct answer is:
Timely feedback and corrective action
Question 4
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Which of the following techniques is especially beneficial for the
generation of ideas when solving quality and productivity problems?
a.
NGT
b.
Poka-yoke
c.
PERT
d.
Storming
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The correct answer is:
NGT
Question 5
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The best way to disseminate information about a new quality program
is to:
a.
Post the announcement on the company bulletin board
b.
Use a combination of media
c.
Send a memo to all department heads
d.
Send an email to all employees
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The correct answer is:
Use a combination of media
Question 6
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A method of improving the performance in any functional area of a
company, including product or service quality, would be:
a.
Utilizing FMEA or FMECA techniques
b.
Instituting an improved design review
c.
Reading the Baldrige application guidelines
d.
Applying the benchmarking process
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The correct answer is:
Applying the benchmarking process
Question 7
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In spite of the quality engineer's best efforts, situations my develop in
which his/her decision is overruled. The most appropriate action would
be to:
a.
Document his/her findings, report them internally, and move on to the
next task
b.
Discuss his/her findings with co-workers in order to gain support
c.
Resign the position based on his/her convictions
d.
Report his/her findings to an outside source such as a regulatory
agency
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Document his/her findings, report them internally, and move on to the
next task
Question 8
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For employee involvement efforts to succeed, what may be needed?
a.
Increased employee incentives
b.
The initiation of pilot projects
c.
Increased basic training companywide
d.
Employee understanding of how they can make a difference
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The correct answer is:
Employee understanding of how they can make a difference
Question 9
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A thorough review of the works of the major quality gurus would
indicate which of the following to be the most effective way to create
quality?
a.
Effective problem solving
b.
Modern statistical control techniques
c.
Benchmarking the best competition
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The correct answer is:
Benchmarking the best competition
Question 10
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What association does the expression "house of quality" normally
make?
a.
Full quality functional deployment
b.
The organization listens to the voice of the customer
c.
Prompt service and product quality
d.
Our entire organization is quality minded
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The correct answer is:
Full quality functional deployment
Question 1
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Assume that the cost data available for a certain period are limited to the following:
$20,000 - final test
$350,000 - field warranty costs
$170,000 - reinspection and retest
$45,000 - inventory reduction
$4,000 - vendor quality surveys
$30,000 - rework
The total cost of quality is:
a.
$574,000
b.
$621,000
c.
$619,000
d.
$576,000
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The correct answer is:
$574,000
Question 2
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The Baldrige National Quality Award application is divided into how many key categories of
criteria?
a.
7
b.
19
c.
24
d.
20
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The correct answer is:
7
Question 3
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Nonconformances and other deficiencies:
a.
Are indicative that a quality system design change is needed
b.
Must always be avoided
c.
Require reprimands for the person causing the problem
d.
Provide opportunities for improvement
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The correct answer is:
Provide opportunities for improvement
Question 4
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Which of the following elements are basic parts of configuration management?
a.
Design, documentation, and procedures
b.
Control, accounting, and audits
c.
Accounting, procedures, and work instructions
d.
Audits, manuals, and procedures
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The correct answer is:
Control, accounting, and audits
Question 5
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Quality engineering is best characterized as:
a.
A testing and inspection function
b.
A quality planning and analysis function
c.
A quality measuring and reporting function
d.
A staff assistance function
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The correct answer is:
A quality planning and analysis function
Question 6
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The percentages of total cost are distributed as follows: prevention 12%; appraisal 28%;
internal failure 40%; and external failure 20%. One would conclude:
a.
More money should be invested in prevention
b.
Nothing
c.
The amount spent for appraisal seems about right
d.
Expenditures for failure are excessive
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Nothing
Question 7
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Quality policies are principally issued by management to:
a.
State the position of the company on quality
b.
Ensure people are reminded about quality
c.
Provide detailed instructions in regard to quality
d.
Ensure customer satisfaction
Feedback
The correct answer is:
State the position of the company on quality
Question 8
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A customer based evaluation of a relatively small sample of product is characteristic of:
a.
Detailed inspection
b.
A product audit
c.
An assessment audit
d.
A process audit
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The correct answer is:
A product audit
Question 9
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If shop floor employees are exposed to new assembly techniques, the best instructional
proficiency evaluation would be:
a.
Observation of performance results
b.
Oral and written testing of the operators
c.
Training evaluation by the instructed employees
d.
Testing of assembled products
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The correct answer is:
Observation of performance results
Question 10
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The purpose of the quality manual is to:
a.
Standardize the quality methods and decisions of a company
b.
Make it possible to handle every situation in exactly the same manner
c.
Provide a written basis for rejection of lots
d.
Use it as a basis for every quality decision
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Standardize the quality methods and decisions of a company
Question 1
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The QFD process can be described as a:
a.
Technical results driven process
b.
Financial metrics approach
c.
Customer driven process
d.
Customer competitive assessment
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The correct answer is:
Customer driven process
Question 2
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What is the primary purpose of a failure mode, effect, and criticality analysis (FMECA)?
a.
To determine the cause of a failure, by dissecting the item, to help obtain corrective action
b.
To learn as much about the item as possible after qualification test
c.
To determine, by extensive analysis, the reliability of an item
d.
To determine the way an item will most likely fail and to help obtain design safeguards
Feedback
The correct answer is:
To determine the way an item will most likely fail and to help obtain design safeguards
Question 3
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What is the reliability of a system at 850 hours, if the average usage on the system was 400
hours for 1,650, items and the total number of failures was 145? Assume an exponential
distribution.
a.
18%
b.
83%
c.
36%
d.
0%
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The correct answer is:
83%
Question 4
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Maintenance reduces the probability of failure when:
a.
The hazard rate is decreasing
b.
The hazard rate is increasing
c.
The hazard rate is constant
d.
The hazard rate is unknown
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The correct answer is:
The hazard rate is increasing
Question 5
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Which of the following statements is a true description of DFX?
a.
DFX is a targeted development approach
b.
The selection of DFX tools is relatively simple
c.
DFX was first created in the 1990s
d.
DFSS is a subset of DFX
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The correct answer is:
DFX is a targeted development approach
Question 6
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If the average repair time for a system is 3 hours and the MTBMA is 122 hours, what is the
operational availability?
a.
0.975
b.
0.982
c.
0.997
d.
0.976
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The correct answer is:
0.976
Question 7
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The house of quality is used to translate customer wants into engineering design
variables. The linking or prioritizing of customer wants into engineered values occurs in
what element?
a.
A technical review
b.
The competitive analysis
c.
A conflict analysis
d.
The relationship matrix
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The correct answer is:
The relationship matrix
Question 8
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Which of the following activities normally occurs after the final completion of a product
design?
a.
Validation
b.
Verification
c.
Prototype conversion
d.
Apportionment
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The correct answer is:
Validation
Question 9
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A component has a strength distribution with a mean of 7,000 psi and a standard deviation
of 800 psi. It will be subjected to a stress of 5,000 psi with a standard deviation of 700
psi. Assuming both distributions are normal, what is the reliability of the component in this
application?
a.
0.9700
b.
0.9849
c.
0.9664
d.
0.9927
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The correct answer is:
0.9700
Question 10
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A technique whereby various product features are graded as to relative importance is called.
a.
Feature grading
b.
Classification of characteristics
c.
Quality engineering
d.
Classification of defects
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The correct answer is:
Classification of characteristics
Question 1
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When planning quality control functions, which of the following is most directly related to
production of a quality product?
a.
Suitable blueprints and blueprint interpretation
b.
Process control and process capability
c.
Dimensional tolerancing and incoming inspection
d.
Product audits and analytical studies
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
Process control and process capability
Question 2
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Which of the following MRB actions would almost certainly require the involvement of the
customer, when a nonconforming product is discovered internally?
a.
Rework or repair of the product
b.
Require additional inspection or testing
c.
Reject or scrap the product
d.
Initiate a corrective action request
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
Rework or repair of the product
Question 3
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What is the importance of the reaction plan in a control plan?
a.
It lists how often the process should be monitored
b.
It defines the special characteristics to be monitored
c.
It describes what will happen if a key variable goes out of control
d.
It indicates that a new team must be formed to react to a problem
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
It describes what will happen if a key variable goes out of control
Question 4
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Two quantities which uniquely determine a single sampling attributes plan are:
a.
AQL and LTPD
b.
AQL and producer's risk
c.
Sample size and rejection number
d.
LTPD and consumer's risk
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
Sample size and rejection number
Question 5
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The primary reason that nonconforming material should be identified and segregated is:
a.
So that responsibility can be determined and disciplinary action taken
b.
To obtain samples of poor workmanship for use in the company's training program
c.
So that the cause of nonconformity can be determined
d.
So it cannot be used in production without proper authorization
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Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is:
So it cannot be used in production without proper authorization
Question 6
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The purpose of a written inspection procedure is to:
a.
Let the operator know what the inspector is doing
b.
Provide answers to inspections questions
c.
Standardize methods and procedures of inspectors
d.
Fool-proof the inspection function
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
Standardize methods and procedures of inspectors
Question 7
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The steeper the OC curve, the:
a.
More protection for both producer and consumer
b.
Less protection for both the producer and consumer
c.
The smaller the sample size
d.
The lower the AQL
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
More protection for both producer and consumer
Question 8
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Using ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 for a lot of 1,000 parts, a general inspection level II, the code letter J,
an AQL of 1.0%, and a sample size of 80, what is the accept number?
a.
2
b.
1
c.
0
d.
3
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Your answer is incorrect.
The correct answer is:
2
Question 9
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Where inspector efficiency is defined as the ratio of correct decisions to the total decisions
regarding individual items, most inspection operations performed by human inspectors are
approximately:
a.
70% - 95% efficient
b.
55% - 70% efficient
c.
95% - 100% efficient
d.
40% - 55% efficient
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Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
70% - 95% efficient
Question 10
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Using ANSI/ASQ Z1.4, determine the sample size(s) for a lot of 300, AQL = 0.4%, level II
normal inspection, double sampling:
a.
32
b.
50
c.
32, 64
d.
20, 40
Feedback
Your answer is correct.
The correct answer is:
32
Question 1
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Finding the root cause of a nonconformity and applying a remedy, then verifying the
effectiveness is:
a.
Corrective action
b.
Notification
c.
Disposition
d.
Preventative action
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The correct answer is:
Corrective action
Question 2
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After constructing a process flow chart, an improvement team can often generate
improvement ideas by asking which of the following questions?
a.
Are proven components and configurations used?
b.
What are the potential material causes for the problem?
c.
What are the significant few and the trivial many?
d.
Is there any unnecessary complexity?
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The correct answer is:
Is there any unnecessary complexity?
Question 3
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A primary reason to flow chart a process is to:
a.
Help analyze the process and compare it to written instructions
b.
Identify sources of non-conforming products
c.
Reduce process variation and increase productivity
d.
Define ideal locations to add product inspection activities
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Help analyze the process and compare it to written instructions
Question 4
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In what stage of the DMAIC process would a process data collection plan be developed or
customer survey results tallied?
a.
C only
b.
A and I only
c.
M only
d.
D only
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The correct answer is:
M only
Question 5
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When collecting counted data of various types of defects for sequential days, one method
which may be used is:
a.
Affinity diagrams
b.
Recording check sheets
c.
Control charts for individuals
d.
X-bar and R control charts
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The correct answer is:
Recording check sheets
Question 6
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Overproduction, scrap, waiting, and excess motion are all forms of:
a.
TPM
b.
Kanban
c.
Muda
d.
CFM
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The correct answer is:
Muda
Question 7
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The seven basic tools of quality focus on:
a.
Quantitative and qualitative data
b.
Management directed analysis
c.
customer requirements
d.
External and internal customer satisfaction
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Quantitative and qualitative data
Question 8
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A proposed permanent corrective action has been implemented. The solution is an
intervention device to eliminate undersized parts. However, production trials have indicated
that the device is only marginally effective under humid conditions. One would say that:
a.
The production unit requires temperature control
b.
the root cause has been detected
c.
The proposed corrective action is not realistic or maintainable
d.
More work is needed on the device
Feedback
The correct answer is:
The proposed corrective action is not realistic or maintainable
Question 9
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Which of the following statements is the major technical criticism of the use of the causeand-effect diagram?
a.
It treats contributing factors equally, but some may be more significant
b.
It tends to oversimplify the problem by ignoring contributing factor interactions
c.
It tends to ignore contributing factors that do not start with the letter M
d.
It is too time consuming when the major contributing factors to a problem are known
Feedback
The correct answer is:
It tends to oversimplify the problem by ignoring contributing factor interactions
Question 10
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The theory of constraints concentrates mainly on:
a.
Removing process bottlenecks
b.
Developing a value stream map
c.
Understanding customer needs
d.
Achieving on-time goals
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The correct answer is:
Removing process bottlenecks
Question 1
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Given 6 books, how many sets can be arranged in lots of 3, but always in a different order?
a.
18 sets
b.
120 sets
c.
108 sets
d.
54 sets
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The correct answer is:
120 sets
Question 2
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Which of the following measures of variability is independent of the exact value for every
measurement?
a.
Standard deviation
b.
Mean deviation
c.
Range
d.
Variance
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The correct answer is:
Range
Question 3
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Which of the following statements describes discrete data?
a.
There were 5,923 gallons of fuel consumed on the flight
b.
Of 225 people on the airplane, 85 had connecting flights
c.
The flight arrived at 9:08 pm
d.
It takes 3 hours and 48 minutes to fly from LA to New York
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Of 225 people on the airplane, 85 had connecting flights
Question 4
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Which of the following distributions require the use of the natural logarithmic base for
probability calculations?
a.
Binomial, multinomial and uniform
b.
Student t, uniform, F
c.
Weibull, hypergeometric, and geometric
d.
Normal, exponential, and Weibull
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The correct answer is:
Normal, exponential, and Weibull
Question 5
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Calculate the standard deviation of the following complete set of data:
a.
11.8
b.
13.8
c.
12.8
d.
10.8
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The correct answer is:
10.8
Question 6
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A graphical display of the total percentage of results below a certain measurement value is
called a:
a.
Expected Value
b.
Histogram
c.
Cumulative distribution function
d.
Probability density function
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The correct answer is:
Cumulative distribution function
Question 7
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The hypergeometric distribution should be used instead of the binomial distribution when:
a.
There are more than two outcomes on a single trial
b.
There is a fixed number of trials
c.
Sampling does not involve replacement
d.
Each trial is independent
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The correct answer is:
Sampling does not involve replacement
Question 8
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A process is producing items that have defects of either type A, type B, or both. If the
probability of a type A defect is 0.1, and type B defect is 0.2, the probability that an end item
will have no defect is"
a.
0.72
b.
0.68
c.
0.70
d.
0.30
Feedback
The correct answer is:
0.72
Question 9
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Which is the most widespread use of the F distribution?
a.
To compensate for error in the estimated standard deviation for small sample sizes
b.
To test for equality of variances from two normal populations
c.
To model discrete data when the population size is small compared to the sample size
d.
To construct confidence intervals by summing the squares of random variables
Feedback
The correct answer is:
To test for equality of variances from two normal populations
Question 10
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If the probability of a car starting on a cold morning is 0.6, and one has two such cars, what
is the probability of at least one of the cars starting on a cold morning?
a.
0.84
b.
0.81
c.
0.60
d.
0.36
Feedback
The correct answer is:
0.84
Question 1
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Risk management activities include:
a.
Rating the hazard and modifying the mission profile
b.
Identifying, rating, and controlling the hazard
c.
Controlling most mechanical, pressure, and shock risks
d.
Identifying similar hazards on other products
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Identifying, rating, and controlling the hazard
Question 2
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The work breakdown structure to simulate potential areas of risk is part of what risk
management process phase?
a.
Risk handling
b.
Risk planning
c.
Risk assessment
d.
Risk analysis
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The correct answer is:
Risk analysis
Question 3
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Risk control auditing consists of these steps:
a.
Risk appetite, risk strategy, and risk decisions
b.
Risk assessment, risk response, and risk reporting
c.
Risk appetite, risk strategy, and risk mitigation
d.
Risk assessment, risk appetite, and risk culture
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Risk assessment, risk response, and risk reporting
Question 4
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Any action taken to reduce the probability and/or consequences of an adverse outcome
from a development project is called:
a.
Mitigation
b.
Avoidance
c.
Acceptance
d.
Transference
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The correct answer is:
Mitigation
Question 5
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Risk analysis planning should:
a.
Eliminate all associated contingency plans
b.
Be updated upon project completion
c.
Identify and implement a metrics program
d.
Be done at the beginning of the project planning phase
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The correct answer is:
Be done at the beginning of the project planning phase
Question 6
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Which of the following risk assessment methods is a "bottom up" approach?
a.
Brainstorming
b.
Product reliability acceptance testing (PRAT)
c.
Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEAs)
d.
Fault tree analysis (FTA)
Feedback
The correct answer is:
Failure mode and effects analysis (FMEAs)
Question 7
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The analysis of risk involves two measures of failure. These measures are:
a.
Failure mode and failure method
b.
Failure severity and failure probability
c.
Failure analysis and failure effects
d.
Failure mechanism and failure mode
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The correct answer is:
Failure severity and failure probability
Question 8
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Product liability is considered which of the following?
a.
The responsibility to make good on any loss or damage caused as a result of a transaction
b.
The responsibility to reduce hazards and risks in manufactured products
c.
The responsibility of the manufacturer to provide warning labels to the user
d.
The responsibility of a manufacturer to recall product after a law suit
Feedback
The correct answer is:
The responsibility to make good on any loss or damage caused as a result of a transaction
Question 9
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A risk that has an approximate probability of occurrence of 1 in 5,000, based on AIAG
model, has a likelihood of failure of:
a.
Probable
b.
Occasional
c.
Improbable
d.
Remote
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The correct answer is:
Remote
Question 10
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For a major jet engine program, the executive quality engineer has developed a document
which outlines the risks involved, the risk processes, risk analysis, and mitigation plans. This
would be considered:
a.
A disaster plan
b.
A contingency plan
c.
A risk management plan
d.
A system engineering design document
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The correct answer is:
A risk management plan