Survey
* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Download multiple-choice-question-chapters-6-to-9
Document related concepts
no text concepts found
Transcript
lOMoARcPSD|9801498 Multiple Choice question chapters 6 to 9 Business Information System (Algonquin College) StuDocu is not sponsored or endorsed by any college or university Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 Chapter 06 Systems Development: Phases, Tools, and Techniques Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following systems development techniques requires IT specialists that are inhouse to develop information systems? A. Outsourci ng B. Insourcin g C. In-house specialization D. Selfsourcin g 2. Which of the following systems development techniques allows end users to develop information systems? A. Outsourci ng B. Insourcin g C. Netsourci ng D. Selfsourcin g 3. If you were developing marketing strategies and you decided to create a database that tracked the progress of your marketing efforts, what kind of development would you be engaging in? A. Outsourci ng B. Netsourci ng C. Selfsourcin g D. Insourcin g 1 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 4. Which of the following systems development techniques delegate development tasks to a third party for a specified cost, period of time, and level of service? A. Netsourci ng B. Outsourci ng C. Insourcin g D. Selfsourcin g 5. What is the difference between insourcing and selfsourcing? A. Selfsourcing requires the use of internal consultants; insourcing requires staff from the IT department. B. Selfsourcing is self-regulating; insourcing requires internal quality controls. C. Selfsourcing allows for end user development; insourcing requires internal IT staff. D. Selfsourcing allows for one person to complete the systems development life cycle; insourcing is a team effort. 6. The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is: A. a method for testing new IT applications. B. a structured approach for developing information systems. C. the analysis and assessment tasks that need to be completed when designing and developing information systems. D. a set of guidelines that an end user follows when developing their own business applications. 7. The waterfall methodology is: A. a sequential, activity-based process in which one phase of the SDLC is followed by another. B. an assessment methodology that ensures quality applications. C. an outsource development methodology to information systems. D. a process management technique that identifies and includes end users and management in the SDLC. 2 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 8. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase is devoted to creating a solid plan for developing your information system? A. Initiati on B. Plannin g C. Desig n D. Analysi s 9. Which of the following is a characteristic of a proposed system that is essential to the success of your organization? A. Quality and essence metric B. Vital requirement C. Critical success factor D. Essential design feature 10. A project scope document is: A. a document that outlines the project's strategy, the responsibilities of project team members, and the assessment measures that will determine the rate of success B. a one-paragraph statement about the scope of the proposed project C. a detailed document identifying the goals, scope and strategy for the proposed project D. a document that identifies the parameters or boundaries of the proposed system and how it fits into existing systems 11. Which of the following occurs when the scope of the project increases beyond its original intentions? A. Scope creep B. Feature creep C. Mileston e D. Rolling stone 3 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 12. Which of the following occurs when developers and end users add extra features that were not part of the initial requirements? A. Scope creep B. Feature creep C. Mileston e D. Rolling stone 13. What document defines the what, when, and who questions of systems development including all activities to be performed, the individuals, or resources, who will perform the activities, and the time required to complete each activity? A. Requiremen ts B. Project plan C. Project milestones D. Critical success factors 14. _____ defines and develops the project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure that all key project milestones are completed on time. A. End user B. Project manager C. Project executive D. IT Administrator 15. _____ represent key dates by which you need a certain group of activities performed. A. Enduring goals B. Business plans C. Feature creeps D. Project milestones 4 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 16. Which phase in the SDLC involves end users and IT specialist working together to gather, understand, and document the business requirements for the proposed system? A. Initiati on B. Plannin g C. Desig n D. Analysi s 17. Business requirements are: A. the strategic and tactical goals that a business establishes for itself that software must align with. B. the detailed set of requests that the proposed information system must meet to be successful. C. the planning documents identifying the characteristics and functionality of the proposed information system. D. the logical designs for the proposed information system. 18. "The proposed information system must connect 25,000 employees, working in five satellite sites of Europe, U.S., and Africa" is an example of a(n) ____. A. company mission B. milesto ne C. feature creep D. business requirement 19. When IT specialists and end users meet in one location to define and review the business requirements of a proposed system, the meeting is called a ____. A. requirements meeting B. planning and analysis meeting C. joint application development session D. rapid prototyping 5 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 20. Once all the business requirements are defined, you must prioritize them in order of business importance and place them in a formal comprehensive document, called a(n) ____. A. requirements assessment document B. requirements definition document C. document of requisites D. essential requirements document 21. The primary goal of which phase in the SDLC is to build a technical blueprint of how the proposed system will work? A. Desig n B. Plannin g C. Analysi s D. Developme nt 22. Which of the following is considered a technical architecture for a proposed system? A. A description of the needed hardware, software, and telecommunications equipment. B. A drawing or graphical representation of the proposed system including proposed screens, reports, software, and databases. C. A logical model that defines the structure of needed modules and sub modules and their interrelationships. D. The needed data structures, definitions and business rules. 23. What is the difference between the design phase and the analysis phase? A. The analysis phase follows the design phase and examines the requirements developed during the design phase. B. The design phase creates the code from the logical requirements developed in the analysis phase. C. Analysis and design belong to the same phase and create an iterative process between the two activities. D. The design phase takes the requirements developed in the analysis phase and creates a design based on that. 6 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 24. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase transforms the design into an actual system? A. Desig n B. Expansio n C. Developme nt D. Transformati on 25. Which phase in the SDLC verifies that the system works and meets all the business requirements developed in the analysis phase? A. Developme nt B. Transformati on C. Implementati on D. Testin g 26. To ensure that the newly developed information systems functions properly, what should you create that lists the expected steps that the system should perform and expected results from these steps? A. Requirement documents B. Test conditions C. Design specifications D. Logical design specifications 27. _____ verifies that separate systems can work together. A. Unit testing B. System testing C. Integration testing D. User acceptance testing 7 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 28. The SDLC contains seven phases. Which phase distributes the system to all the users so that they can use it to perform their jobs? A. Implementati on B. Testin g C. Maintenan ce D. Expansio n 29. When you install the system, you must provide employees with _____ that highlights how to use the system. A. test conditions B. user documentation C. technical architecture D. requirements definition document 30. _____ training is most suitable for difficult systems for which employees need one-on-one time with an individual instructor. A. Onlin e B. Virtu al C. Worksho p D. Corresponden ce 31. If you were to implement the new system while the existing system continued to run, what type of implementation method would you be following? A. Pilot implementation B. Phase implementation C. Parallel implementation D. Plunge implementation 8 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 32. If you were to allow only a select group of people to use the new system so that you could determine if it was working correctly, what type of implementation method would you be following? A. Pilot implementation B. Parallel implementation C. Plunge implementation D. Phase implementation 33. During the _____ phase of the SDLC, the new system is monitored and supported to ensure it continues to meet the business goals. A. implementati on B. testin g C. maintenan ce D. operatio ns 34. What is the difference between the implementation phase and the maintenance phase? A. The implementation phase creates the physical design (code) and tests it; the maintenance phase places it into operations. B. The implementation phase monitors new systems to ensure that they are working properly; the maintenance phase makes minor adjustments when needed to meet existing business goals. C. The maintenance phase monitors new systems to ensure that they are working properly; the implementation phase makes minor adjustments when needed to meet new business goals. D. The maintenance phase monitors and adjusts new and existing systems; the implementation phase places new systems into operation. 9 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 35. _____ focuses on building small self-contained blocks of code that can be reused across a variety of applications within an organization. A. Rapid prototyping B. Project scoping C. Agile development D. Component-based development 36. Which of the following methodologies emphasizes extensive user involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes? A. SDLC B. Waterfall modeling C. Project scoping D. Rapid application development (RAD) 37. Which of the following methodologies breaks a project into tiny phases; programmers must develop the code for each phase before they can continue to the next phase? A. Project milestones B. Extreme programming C. Operational prototyping D. Design and build prototyping 10 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 38. _____ is a form of XP, which aims for customer satisfaction through early and continuous delivery of useful software components. A. The agile methodology B. The service-oriented architecture C. Vist a D. Macintos h 39. What is the difference between extreme programming (XP) and the agile methodology to software development? A. XP focuses on component-base development; the agile methodology focuses on the RAD. B. XP uses prototyping; the agile methodology does not. C. Agile methodology involves users much more than XP. D. XP focuses more on team coding; the agile methodology focuses on limiting project scope. 40. _____ is a high-level, holistic organizational approach to how your organization views and acts on all its software needs. A. Service-oriented architecture B. Rapid prototyping C. RAD D. XP 11 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 41. _____ is the development and support of IT systems by knowledge workers with little or no help from IT specialists. A. End-user involvement B. Outsourci ng C. Insourcin g D. Requirements definition 42. What group of people knows little about IT but a lot about their own domain? A. Domain experts B. Project managers C. End users D. Field professionals 43. Which of the following is not an advantage of selfsourcing? A. It increases the speed of systems development. B. It analyses the various design alternatives which lead to subpar IT systems. C. It increases end user participation and sense of ownership. D. It improves requirements determination. 12 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 44. Which of the following is a potential risk of selfsourcing? A. Reduced technological know-how for future innovation. B. Lack of documentation and external support leads to short-lived systems. C. Reduced degree of control. D. Increased dependency on outside organizations. 45. What type of selfsourcing development tool is paramount to the success of the proposed software? A. Easy to use development tools B. Evolutionary prototyping tools C. Extreme programming (XP) tools D. Video editing tools 46. Because end users work with a wide range of data, what toolset should they select for selfsourcing support? A. Sophisticated GUI development B. Online meeting software C. Collaboration software D. Database management systems 13 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 47. _____ is the process of building a model that demonstrates the features of a proposed product, service, or system. A. RAD B. XP C. Prototypi ng D. Modelin g 48. What is used to prove the technical feasibility of a proposed system? A. Technical prototype B. Virtual Prototype C. Proof-of-concept prototype D. Selling prototype 49. A prototype you use to convince people of the worth of a proposed system is a(n) ____. A. buying prototype B. physical prototype C. proof-of-concept prototype D. selling prototype 50. What is the first step in the prototyping process? A. Revise and enhance the prototype B. Develop initial prototype C. Identify basic requirements D. End user reviewing 14 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 51. What is the fourth and last step in the prototyping process? A. Identify basic requirements B. Develop initial prototype C. Users reviewing D. Revise and enhance the prototype 52. Which of the following is an advantage of prototyping? A. Encourages active user participation B. Helps resolve discrepancies among end users C. Gives users a feel for the final system D. All of the above 53. Which of the following is a disadvantage to prototyping? A. Prototyping does not encourage active user participation. B. Prototyping does not give an indication of performance under operational conditions. C. Prototyping does not help determine technical feasibility. D. Prototyping does not help resolve discrepancies among users. 15 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 54. According to the Outsourcing Research Council, which business function is the top outsourcing area for many contemporary companies? A. I T B. Accountin g C. Human Resources D. Financ e 55. Which SDLC phase is performed with both internal software development and outsourcing? A. Desig n B. Developme nt C. Maintenan ce D. Analysi s 56. _____ is a formal document that describes in detail your logical requirements for a proposed system and invites vendors to submit bids for its development. A. Requirements document B. Design specification C. Request for proposal (RFP) D. Project scope document 16 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 57. If you were constructing a legal document for your software vendor that stipulated needed requirements, schedules, costs, acceptance criteria, and assessment metrics, what would you be creating? A. Service level agreement B. Critical milestones C. Critical success factors D. Request for proposal 58. If your U.S.-based company were to hire a vendor located in New York City, you would be using _____ outsourcing. A. nearshor e B. domest ic C. onshor e D. interi or 59. If your U.S.-based company were to hire a vendor from Mexico City, you would be using _____ outsourcing. A. offshor e B. onshor e C. nearshor e D. exteri or 17 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 60. What is the trend called when a U.S. company outsources IT functions to other countries that are geographically far away? A. Foreign outsourcing B. Offshore outsourcing C. External outsourcing D. Outer outsourcing 61. Which of the following is an advantage of outsourcing? A. Increases technical know-how for future innovation B. Reduces costs C. Increases degree of control D. Reduces vulnerability of your strategic information 62. Which of the following is a disadvantage of outsourcing? A. It acquires outdated technology. B. It increases dependency on other organizations. C. It decreases performance accountability. D. It cannot predict future costs. True / False Questions 63. The systems development life cycle is an unstructured approach for developing information systems. True False 18 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 64. Project scope clearly defines the high-level system requirements. True False 65. Adding additional features that were not part of the initial project definition is an example of scope creep. True False 66. Scope creep and feature creep lead to better systems development projects. True False 67. The project plan defines the what, when, and who questions of system development. True False 68. Joint application development is a meeting between users and IT specialists to define and review business requirements for the project. True False 69. Sign-off occurs when users and IT specialists meet to define or review the business requirements for the system. True False 70. During the development phase, you develop a technical blueprint of how the proposed system will work. True False 71. Users are usually involved in the testing phase as they are the most familiar with the business requirements and test conditions. True False 72. Online training is excellent when employees need one-on-one time with a trainer. True False 73. Plunge implementation discards the old system completely and immediately uses the new system. True False 74. Once a system has been created and implemented, no changes should be made to it. True False 19 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 75. Component based development is a general approach to systems development that focuses on building small self-contained blocks of code that can be reused across a variety of applications within an organization. True False 76. Rapid application development discourages end user involvement as it tends to slow down the systems development process. True False 77. Extreme programming (XP) methodology breaks the project down into many smaller pieces or phases. True False 78. The XP methodology, unlike the RAD methodology, relies heavily on reusing existing software components contained in a software library. True False 79. One of the reasons for XP's success is that it stresses customer satisfaction. True False 80. The agile methodology is similar to XP but with more focus on team coding and less on limiting project scope. True False 81. The services within the SoA architecture perspective are exactly the same as components in any of the component-based development methodologies. True False 82. End users often use tools like DBMSs and spreadsheets to develop applications for their own needs. True False 83. Rather than combating the trend toward end-user application development, IT staff should leverage it to offload solution building to end users. True False 84. When you're developing a system just for yourself, you don't need to document how it works. True False 20 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 85. One of the advantages of selfsourcing is that it increases the speed of systems development. True False 86. One of the potential pitfalls of selfsourcing is that it increases the invisible backlog. True False 87. Lack of organizational focus creates "privatized" IT systems. True False 88. Lack of documentation and external support leads to short-lived systems. True False 89. Prototyping is an essential part of the RAD methodology. True False 90. An initial prototype cannot just include only user interfaces. True False 91. Prototyping gives no indication of performance under operational conditions. True False 92. The Internet is one of the main reasons behind the rapid growth of the outsourcing industry. True False 93. A service level agreement is an informal agreement between two parties. True False 94. A U.S. bank doing onshore outsourcing of some of its work is using another U.S. company. True False 95. A U.S. media company is paying an Indian company to do its help desk support. This would be an example of nearshore outsourcing. True False 96. Outsourcing increases the technical know-how for future innovation. True False 21 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 22 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 Chapter 07 Infrastructure, Cloud Computing, Metrics, and Business Continuity Planning: Building and Sustaining the Dynamic Enterprise Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is true of service-oriented architecture (SOA)? A. It is a perspective that focuses on acquiring brand new systems. B. It builds applications from non-reusable blocks of code. C. It focuses on the development, use, and reuse of services. D. It defines the source code for application programming interfaces. 2. Which of the following is true of an organization with a service-oriented architecture philosophy? A. Ensures that HR initiatives remain constant regardless of changes in the workforce B. Takes a prolonged amount of time to implement well thought-out decisions C. Maintains static work processes and structures D. Adapts quickly to new advances in technology 23 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 3. Genesis Technologies has adopted an SOA approach to systems development. A new "disruptive" technology, Senstor, has recently been launched in the market which promises to provide significant benefits to software companies that focus on collaborative process. In such a scenario, how is Genesis Technologies most likely to react? A. It will delay the decision making process with regard to the adoption of the new technology. B. It will continue to use its existing systems instead of trying out the new technology. C. It will use its resources efficiently to adapt itself to the new technology. D. It will maintain static processes and technologies which have proven to be beneficial in the past. 4. In terms of software development, which of the following would most likely be the focus of a company with a service-oriented architecture philosophy? A. New deployments like Web 2.0 B. Integration of different technology platforms C. Standard information formats D. Safe and secure telecommunications platforms 5. Which of the following is part of the hardware requirements of an SOA philosophy? A. Large storage capacity B. Mobile computing C. Standard information formats D. RAD and XP development methodologies 24 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 6. Which of the following is true about the end user of IT, according to an SOA philosophy? A. The end user should be thought of in the same way as an external customer. B. The end user's needs should be considered secondary to customers' needs. C. The end user's access to data should be limited to a specific geographic area due to security reasons. D. Multi-channel service delivery should be available exclusively to end users and not customers. 7. Which of the following is a Web 2.0 application? A. PowerPoin t B. Mashup s C. Intran et D. Extran et 8. According to the SOA philosophy, which of the following is the most important organizational resource? A. Service s B. Financial resources C. Informati on D. Internal customers 25 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 9. Which of the following is a requirement of an SOA approach? A. Information should be maintained in multiple formats. B. Strict and rigorous integrity controls should be in place. C. Data from different sources should not be coupled together. D. Duplicate information should be maintained for security reasons. 10. Which of the following is a requirement of an SOA approach with reference to hardware? A. The integration of different technologies should be kept to a minimum. B. Only wired networks should be used to reduce the risk of unauthorized access. C. Organizations should avoid using multiple technology platforms. D. Powerful storage area networks should have the capacity to store all information needs. 11. Which of the following represents the different layers of structure, which provide support or services? A. Processe s B. Dat a C. Infrastructu re D. System s 26 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 12. Which of the following refers to the capability of two or more computing components to share information and other resources, even if they are made by different manufacturers? A. Multitenancy B. Interoperabil ity C. Consisten cy D. Serviceabili ty 13. A team of engineers are in the process of customizing an ERP suite to meet their organization's business needs. During the process of customization, they choose to replace certain software modules with software that has been developed in-house. After this, they also add modules from other vendors and plug them directly into the ERP solution. This is an example of which of the following concepts? A. Service level agreement B. Sustainable interoperability C. Multitenancy D. Encapsulati on 14. Which of the following is a fundamental underlying infrastructure for any IT environment? A. Metadat a B. Cach e C. Networ k D. Primary key 27 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 15. Which of the following refers to two or more computers sharing information, software, peripheral devices, and processing power? A. Cold site B. Networ k C. Rootk it D. Cach e 16. Which of the following best defines an infrastructure which allocates the information and processing power of IT systems via a network? A. Layered infrastructure B. Critical infrastructure C. Tiered infrastructure D. Distributed infrastructure 17. Which of the following is known as the first true network infrastructure? A. n-tiered infrastructure B. Critical infrastructure C. Layered infrastructure D. Distributed infrastructure 28 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 18. Which of the following is an advantage of a distributed infrastructure? A. It allows only specific locations within an infrastructure to share information and applications. B. It ensures that each application is stored exclusively in one location to ensure information security. C. It can allocate its processing activity to a location where it can most efficiently be done. D. It divides an IT system into different tiers where each part performs a specific function. 19. How does a distributed infrastructure improve performance? A. By storing the same application in two or more locations B. By assigning its processing activity to one specific location C. By creating information silos in disparate locations D. By partitioning an IT system into different tiers 20. Which of the following is true of a client/server infrastructure? A. It starts with a basic 3-tier model and expands on it to allow scalability. B. It has several layers and each layer undertakes a specific task. C. It reduces the load placed on the network capacity and ensures efficiency. D. It centralizes processing and storage for all information on a server. 21. Which of the following is a form of distributed infrastructure? A. 3-tier infrastructure B. Client/server infrastructure C. n-tier infrastructure D. Critical infrastructure 29 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 22. A client/server infrastructure offloads the application programs and information from the ____. A. mainfra me B. serve r C. CPU D. por t 23. Which of the following is a disadvantage of a client/server infrastructure? A. It places a heavy load on the network capacity. B. It overloads the server with application programs. C. It allows processing to occur at only one client location. D. It transfers information between servers and clients at a slow pace. 24. Which of the following is a typical component of a client/server infrastructure? A. DBM S B. Web analytics C. Web browser D. Hot site 25. In which of the following infrastructures is the IT system partitioned into layers? A. Client/serv er B. Tiere d C. Distribut ed D. Critic al 30 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 26. A tiered infrastructure is also known as ____. A. distributed infrastructure B. client/server infrastructure C. critical infrastructure D. layer infrastructure 27. A _____ can be defined as one of two or more rows, levels, or ranks arranged one above another. A. benchma rk B. cel l C. ran k D. tie r 28. Which of the following is true of tiered infrastructure? A. It has multiple layers, each performing a specific type of functionality. B. It has evolved from n-tier to 3-tier infrastructure. C. It is a form of peer-to-peer infrastructure. D. It has an n-tier infrastructure which is the most basic set up. 31 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 29. Which of the following is the most basic setup of a tiered infrastructure? A. 1-tier infrastructure B. 2-tier infrastructure C. 3-tier infrastructure D. n-tier infrastructure 30. Which of the following is an example of a 1-tier infrastructure? A. Web browsers B. Word processors C. Database management systems D. Intran et 31. Which of the following is a type of tiered infrastructure which refers to the basic client/server relationship? A. 1-tier infrastructure B. 2-tier infrastructure C. 3-tier infrastructure D. n-tier infrastructure 32 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 32. In the _____ infrastructure, the client handles the display and the server handles the request. A. 1-tier infrastructure B. 2-tier infrastructure C. x-tier infrastructure D. n-tier infrastructure 33. Which of the following is true of a 2-tier infrastructure? A. It has an application tier which is contained on one or both of the two tiers. B. It is the most basic setup of a tiered infrastructure. C. It balances the work of the network over several different servers. D. It starts with a basic n-tier model and expands on it for more benefits. 34. Which of the following is an example of a 3-tier infrastructure? A. Word processor B. PowerPoin t C. Web browser D. Spreadshe et 33 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 35. A(n) _____ infrastructure is the most common approach used for Web applications today. A. 1tier B. 2tier C. 3tier D. ntier 36. A(n) _____ infrastructure starts with a basic 3-tier model and expands on it to allow for greater performance, scalability, and a host of other benefits. A. 1tier B. 2tier C. xtier D. ntier 37. A(n) _____ infrastructure balances the work of the network over several different servers. A. 1tier B. 2tier C. 3tier D. ntier 34 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 38. _____ is a delivery model for software which provides the ability to customize data entry forms, screens, reports, and the like, and access to software development tools to alter the way in which the software works by adding new modules (services) and/or making modifications to existing modules. A. Iaa S B. Saa S C. SL A D. PaaS 39. _____ involves using the cloud for a vast majority of your computing needs. A. Iaa S B. Saa S C. SL A D. PaaS 40. Which of the following is true of cloud computing? A. It does not offer pay-per-use options and increases a firm's capital expenditures. B. It raises barriers to entry in markets that require an investment in technology. C. It gives immediate access to a broad range of application software. D. It is a risk-free alternative to acquiring physical computing infrastructure. 35 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 41. Which of the following is a process of continuously measuring system results and comparing those results to baseline values that a system seeks to attain? A. Interoperabil ity B. Benchmarki ng C. Business continuity planning D. Crowdsourci ng 42. Accuracy, an infrastructure-centric metric, is usually measured inversely as ____. A. error rate B. downti me C. throughp ut D. abandon rate 43. Which of the following is often associated with bandwidth such as transmission speeds expressed as kilobits per second and megabits per second? A. Throughp ut B. Response time C. Clickthrough D. Total hits 36 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 44. EasyBuy.com is an online retailer that sells books and magazines at half-price. They recently found out that due to the huge amounts of traffic that Web site receives, most users are unable to access the site when they want to and, when they do, the pages load very slowly. This is driving customers away to other rival online bookstores. This is an example of which of the following infrastructure-centric metrics? A. Abandon rate B. System availability C. Error rate D. Time service factor 45. The Twitter "Fail Whale" is a common sight for most users of the micro blogging site. This error message appears whenever the system is over capacity and users cannot access their accounts or the pages of other Twitter users. Thus, the "Fail Whale" is indicative of Twitter's ____. A. transaction speed B. abandon rate C. response time D. downti me 46. An online publication regularly checks the articles turned in by its writers for plagiarism. To do this, it utilizes an online plagiarism checker called CopyTheft. All the user needs to do is upload the file to the software and within 20 seconds, the system generates a report which highlights the various instances of plagiarized work, if any. This is an example of which of the following infrastructure-centric metrics? A. Conversion rate B. Response time C. Time service factor D. Downti me 37 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 47. Future Travels, a travel Web site, recently started advertising extensively about their travel services. Due to this, they have had an enormous increase in online traffic to their Web site. The company is now in the process of determining how well the current infrastructure can handle the increased flow of visitors to the site and the additional infrastructure requirements that will be needed in order to provide uninterrupted services to customers. The firm is measuring the _____ of its existing system. A. response time B. conversion rate C. scalabili ty D. accurac y 48. The marketing department of Ebony, a new hotel chain, needs to determine the number of people who visited the company's Web site over the last two months. Which of the following metrics should the department use? A. Unique visitors B. Total hits C. Conversion rate D. Page exposures 49. Shoe Mart is an online shopping Web site which offers a range of footwear. Through an analysis of its online data, the company recently determined that only 25 percent of all the visitors to the Web site actually ended up placing an order and completing the online transaction. Which of the following metrics did the company most likely use? A. Unique visitors B. Conversion rate C. Clickthrough D. Cost-perthousand 38 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 50. Harriet, a patisserie maker, recently advertised her services on a popular event management company Web site. After the holiday season, she wanted to know whether the advertisement generated sufficient traffic to her own Web site. Which of the following metrics will help determine this? A. Conversion rate B. Total hits C. Unique visitors D. Clickthrough 51. Orbit Bank is planning to host a marathon, the proceeds from which will be donated to charities for underprivileged children. Interested participants need to visit the bank's Web site and fill in their details for the event. The organizers of the event, however, noticed that a large number of people who visited the site to provide their details, quit the process half way. Which of the following metrics did the bank most likely use to arrive at such a finding? A. Clickthrough B. Abandoned registrations C. Page exposures D. Total hits 52. John is a process manager at a call center for a telecom company. Lately, he has been receiving negative feedback from customers about the prolonged amount of time taken to answer their calls. To understand this better, John studied certain metrics, one of which indicated that over 85 percent of all customers ended up hanging up the phone when no one answered their calls. Which of the following call center metrics did John use? A. Downti me B. Error rate C. Time service factor D. Abandon rate 39 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 53. Delore, a company that manufactures home appliances, has set a target of increasing its customer satisfaction levels by 15 percent. To achieve this, they aim to increase the efficiency levels of their call center executives. They know that, on average, customers who contact the call center for assistance, have to hold the line for over 60 seconds before being connected to a representative. The company strives to bring this down to 20 seconds to show their customers that they value their time. Which of the following call center metrics is the company using? A. AS A B. FCR C. CPM D. SL A 54. The managers at Synopsis Telecom recently analyzed the efficiency and productivity levels of their call center executives. Their findings showed that 50 percent of all calls were answered within 30 seconds, 40 percent within 60 seconds, and 10 percent within 90 seconds. Which of the following metrics is the company using? A. Abandon rate B. Transaction time C. Response time D. Time service factor 55. The managers at Synopsis Telecom recently analyzed the efficiency and productivity levels of their call center executives. They were pleased to find that 85 percent of all customer complaints and queries were answered by executives during the initial call, without the customers having to call back. Which of the following call center metrics did the managers most likely use? A. Time service factor B. Average speed to answer C. First call resolution D. Transaction speed 40 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 56. GenTech, a software company, is situated in Tokyo, Japan. Given that the country is prone to several earthquakes, GenTech is keen to build a back-up plan which will guide the company on how to recover should disaster strike. Which of the following will help the company in this regard? A. Enterprise resource plan B. Business continuity plan C. Operational plan D. Annual growth plan 57. Morrison and Sons, a financial firm, is developing a business continuity plan. The firm has already compiled a list of the various potential threats to the organization and its assets and is now in the process of identifying the impact each these threats would have on the business's operations, should they come to fruition. The company is in which phase of business continuity planning? A. Maintenan ce B. Analysi s C. Desig n D. Implementati on 58. The management at Solitaire Inc. is building a business continuity plan and has identified its core, critical, and noncritical IT applications. Each of these applications have been categorized on the basis of their estimated recovery costs and the affect the loss of these applications will have on the firm's business The company is in which phase of business continuity planning? A. Testin g B. Desig n C. Analysi s D. Implementati on 41 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 59. Which of the following refers to an area available to a company that rents space and telecommunications equipment from another company? A. Collocation facility B. Hot site C. Virtual environment D. Cold site 60. The _____ phase of the business continuity plan involves using the requirement recovery document to develop a formal, technical, and detailed plan for recovering from a disaster. A. analysi s B. testin g C. maintenan ce D. desig n 61. Which of the following phases of the business continuity plan involves executing simulated scenarios of disasters and having employees execute on a disaster recovery plan? A. Maintenan ce B. Implementati on C. Testin g D. Desig n 42 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 62. What is the last phase of the business continuity planning process? A. Implementati on B. Maintenan ce C. Desig n D. Testin g True / False Questions 63. An organization with an SOA philosophy reacts proactively to perceived changes in the market. True False 64. SOA places several structural constraints on an organization. True False 65. An IT-enabled SOA philosophy allows your organization to provide customers with multichannel service delivery options and customizable products and services. True False 66. In terms of information needs, a company with a service-oriented architecture philosophy would focus on business intelligence and integrated information. True False 67. An ERP system in an SOA should prevent interoperability among multiple vendors. True False 68. Ajax and WSDL are some of the infrastructure platforms that do not support a serviceoriented architecture approach. True False 69. Infrastructure is the most important organizational resource that a service-oriented architecture philosophy leverages. True False 43 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 70. An SOA approach to information requires duplicate information to be maintained in silos in an organization. True False 71. An SOA approach to information requires that information be available in multiple formats in order to support interoperability. True False 72. In a corporation, the IT infrastructure should enable people, processes, and customers to interact and perform their tasks. True False 73. An example of a client/server infrastructure would be a person surfing the Internet. True False 74. The concept of a tiered infrastructure has developed from 1-tier to n-tiers. True False 75. In a client/server infrastructure, the functions of an information system are divided among computers on a network while centralizing processing and storage for all information on a server. True False 76. A major drawback of the client/server infrastructure is that it does not have the capacity to offload application programs and information from the server. True False 77. An n-infrastructure is one which has a single tier on a single machine. True False 78. The objective of cloud computing is to have one's computing costs align with the activity level of one's organization. True False 79. Software as a service (SaaS) is a delivery model for software in which one buys low quality software for basic software needs. True False 44 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 80. The infrastructure-as-a-service model maximizes one's capital investment in technology. True False 81. A service level agreement (SLA) is provided by one's cloud service provider. True False 82. A private cloud is one which exists on the Internet but is not available to all Internet users. True False 83. A disadvantage of cloud computing is that it increases barriers to entry in markets that require a significant investment in technology. True False 84. Benchmarks are often industry-specific, process specific, generated internal to one's organization, or a combination of the three. True False 85. Throughput, transaction speed, and accuracy are infrastructure-centric metrics. True False 86. Throughput is often associated with telecommunication capabilities such as transmission speed. True False 87. System availability includes regularly scheduled maintenance time. True False 88. Effectiveness metrics calculate results of technologies or applications in an environment. True False 89. Number of stockouts and excess inventory are supply chain management metrics. True False 90. As a Web-centric metric, total hits does not include the number of visits to a Web site made by the same user. True False 45 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 91. Abandoned shopping carts is a Web-centric metric which refers to the number of visitors who pay for merchandise before abandoning a shopping cart. True False 92. A business continuity plan starts with the design phase. True False 93. A disaster recovery cost curve charts the cost to your organization of the unavailability of information and technology. True False 94. In business continuity planning, one must test the disaster recovery plan before implementing it. True False 46 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 Chapter 08 Protecting People and Information: Threats and Safeguards Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is an example of the unethical use of computers? A. Employees failing to answer a large number of e-mail messages due to network problems. B. Employees searching organizational databases for information on celebrities and friends. C. Employees sending messages without spell checking and proofreading them. D. Employees updating their passwords at the end of every month. 2. Which of the following is true of an ethical dilemma? A. It is faced exclusively by unethical, immoral people. B. It occurs when one's responsibilities seem to lead in opposite directions. C. It is the choice of whether or not to act ethically. D. It involves choosing between compatible good outcomes. 3. _____ can be defined as the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people. A. Ethi cs B. Model s C. Eugenic s D. Aestheti cs 4. Which of the following is true of ethics and ethical people? A. Ethical people do not face ethical dilemmas since they know the difference between right and wrong. B. Ethical people's values are free from the influence of their history, culture, and religion. C. Ethical norms change radically because of society's dynamic nature. D. Acting ethically means behaving in a principled fashion and treating others with dignity. 47 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 5. David works as process supervisor at an industrial plant. In his company, he is known by all his colleagues and superiors as an honest worker whose decisions are always guided by ethical values. Recently, David came to know that due to the irresponsible disposal of company waste, the local groundwater has been contaminated. Because of this, a large number of people living in close proximity to the plant have been suffering from severe ailments. However, in spite of knowing this, David does not take any action. Which of the following, if true, most likely explains David's decision not to act? A. David's decision was guided by morality and ethical values. B. David considered the impact of toxins on the environment while making the decision. C. David's decision was influenced by the dilemma of losing his job at the plant. D. David made the decision by considering the well-being of the people living in close proximity to the plant. 6. Which of the following is part of the outermost level of an individual's ethical structure? A. Actions that are considered serious ethical violations by both society and oneself. B. Behavior that causes extreme ethical discomfort to the person. C. Behavior that calls for stringent measures against the person. D. Actions that most people would not consider unacceptable or unethical. 7. Among the three levels of an individual's ethical structure, the _____ level involves things that most people would not consider bad, such as taking a couple of paper clips or sending an occasional personal e-mail on company time. A. innermo st B. outerm ost C. secon d D. middl e 8. Which of the following is part of the innermost level of an individual's ethical structure? A. Ethical violations that one would consider extremely serious. B. Ethical behavior that a society considers acceptable. C. Behavior that does not call for action against the person. D. Actions that seem acceptable to one's values and morals. 48 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 9. Among the three levels of an individual's ethical structure, the _____ level involves ethical violations that one would consider very serious, such as embezzling funds or selling company records to a competitor. A. innerm ost B. outermo st C. extern al D. middl e 10. Michelle works as an engineer at a software firm and often checks her personal e-mail while at work. Due to the long hours she puts in at the office, she does not have any time to check her e-mail at home and hence, feels that her actions are acceptable. Michelle's behavior relates to which of the following levels of her ethical structure? A. Innermo st B. Outerm ost C. Insid e D. Middl e 11. Palmer Inc. recently found out that a senior researcher at the company, Jessica Hughes, has been selling the firm's trade secrets to a leading competitor. Though Jessica knew that her actions would result in serious consequences, she went ahead and shared the confidential information with the rival firm. Jessica's behavior relates to which of the following levels of her ethical structure? A. Innerm ost B. Extern al C. Outermo st D. Middl e 49 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 12. An assessment of what is right or wrong can be determined by considering ____, which can be understood as the benefit or harm that will come from a particular decision. A. the consequences B. society's opinion C. the time till the consequences take effect D. the reach of the result 13. Peter works as a quality inspection officer at a coffee factory. Due to personal obligations, he needs to leave work early one day, because of which certain consignments will be shipped without any quality checks. Peter is now thinking about the actions that the company will take against him if they find out about it. Which of the following is Peter considering before making his decision? A. Reach of result B. Relatedne ss C. Time to consequences D. Consequen ces 14. The management at Belle Cosmetics, a company headquartered in Jakarta, is contemplating whether or not to use palm oil extracts for their hair products. Though the extracts are proven to nourish hair, using palm oil for commercial products is a major cause of deforestation in Indonesia. They feel that using palm oil extracts will make their customers shift their loyalties to other brands. Which of the following considerations is the company taking into account while making their decision? A. Likelihood of effect B. Relatedne ss C. Society's opinion D. Time to consequences 50 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 15. Kelly, who works at an advertising firm, regularly receives calls from friends and family during office hours. Though she knows that it is not right on her part to spend a lot of time answering personal calls, she feels that the management will not take any strict action against her because she always meets project deadlines and provides quality work. Which of the following is Kelly considering while making her decision to continue taking calls? A. Time to consequences B. Likelihood of effect C. Relatedne ss D. Reach of result 16. An assessment of what is right or wrong can be determined by considering ____, which refers to the probability that the harm or benefit will occur if one undertakes an action. A. the likelihood of effect B. society's opinion C. the time to consequences D. relatedne ss 17. An assessment of what is right or wrong can be determined by considering the ____, which may be defined as how long it will take for the benefit or harm to take effect. A. likelihood of effect B. reach of result C. time to consequences D. consequenc es 18. _____ refers to the extent to which one identifies with the person or persons who will receive the benefit or suffer the harm associated with a particular decision. A. Reach of result B. Tangibilit y C. Likelihood of effect D. Relatedn ess 51 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 19. An assessment of what is right or wrong can be made by considering _____ which focuses on the number of people that will be affected by one's action. A. society's opinion B. the consequences C. the likelihood of effect D. the reach of result 20. The management at Corpus Inc. is weighing the pros and cons of moving their factory from Michigan to Vermont. They know that the move will lower their operating costs, however, they are also aware that several of their factory workers will be left without a job because of their inability to relocate. Which of the following considerations is the company taking into account while making their decision? A. Time to consequences B. Reach of result C. Cause s D. Society's opinion 21. The software development team at Magnus Corporation recently created a unique mobile application that helps users locate themselves anywhere on the globe. In addition, the software provides information on traffic jams, fueling stations, restaurants, and hotels. This is an example of ____. A. public property B. intellectual property C. real property D. personal property 22. _____ refers to intangible creative work that is embodied in physical form. A. Real property B. Public property C. Intellectual property D. Immovable property 52 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 23. An architectural firm's blueprints, sketches and other proprietary documents are examples of ____. A. public property B. intellectual property C. real property D. immovable property 24. Katherine Wood, a critically acclaimed feminist poet, recently published her second anthology of poetry. Which of the following will protect her work from being used by other people without her permission? A. Copyright law B. Patent law C. Trademark law D. Fair use 25. A _____ refers to the legal protection offered for the expression of an idea, such as a song, video game, and some types of proprietary documents. A. copyri ght B. tradema rk C. pate nt D. fair use agreement 26. The _____ says that you may use copyrighted material in certain situations, for example, in the creation of new work or, within certain limits, for teaching purposes. A. Fair Use Doctrine B. First-Sale Doctrine C. Orphan work rule D. Open-source rule 53 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 27. Jeanne Sanders, a celebrity chef, recently published a book titled "Easy to Bake Cakes and Pastries." However, in spite of copyrighting her work, James Riley, a critic with News Today, used some excerpts from her book for his news article. Jeanne is upset and consults her lawyer who tells her that, according to law, James has the right to use excerpts from her book and has not violated any laws. This is an example of ____. A. a Creative Commons license B. the open-source rule C. the Fair Use Doctrine D. the First-Sale doctrine 28. Alice recently prepared a report on the impact of climate change on developing countries. While writing her report, she referred to several online articles and took excerpts from them. Which of the following should Alice provide in the report to indicate that these excerpts are not her original work? A. Annotatio ns B. Citatio ns C. Watermar ks D. Inscriptio ns 29. _____ is the unauthorized use, duplication, distribution, or sale of copyrighted software. A. Pirated software B. File sharing C. Torrent poisoning D. Phishin g 54 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 30. Sarah recently downloaded a few songs by her favorite artist a month before the artist's album was released. After downloading the songs, she distributed them to all her friends. Which of the following is Sarah doing? A. Spammin g B. Phishin g C. Pirati ng D. Spoofin g 31. _____ is the right to be left alone when one wants to be, to have control over one's own personal possessions, and not to be observed without one's consent. A. Nondisclosure B. Intellectual property C. Personalizati on D. Priva cy 32. _____ refers to programs that Web sites offer to help people monitor what is happening on a computer. A. Abandonwa re B. Snoopw are C. Freewar e D. Sharewar e 33. Claytons and Sons, a finance firm in Manhattan, has a large number of employees who handle huge amounts of online transactions everyday. The management feels that it is crucial to monitor their online activities. Which of the following can the company use for this purpose? A. Snoopw are B. Sneakwar e C. Spywar e D. Stealthwa re 55 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 34. Which of the following is a program that, when installed on a computer, records every mouse click? A. Honeyp ot B. Spear phishing C. Clickstreami ng D. Key logger 35. Starlit Corporation recently had an incident where one of their employees sent out confidential information to a competitor. The company has now decided to use a certain software which tracks their employees' online activities based on their mouse clicks. Which of the following is the company most likely planning to use? A. Spear phishing B. Spywar e C. Key trapper software D. Clickstrea m 36. Janice works in the IT department of a multinational bank and is responsible for monitoring information that is being transmitted over a digital network. This helps her ensure that there is no breach in security. Which of the following is Janice most likely using? A. Spywar e B. Key logger C. Packet sniffer D. Rootk it 37. _____ refer(s) to devices on networks that connect computers to each other. A. Packet sniffers B. Route rs C. Adwar e D. Modem s 56 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 38. _____ is a kind of identity theft where the victim knows the person who stole his/her identity. A. Friendly fraud B. PayPa l C. Peer-to-peer computing D. Pretextin g 39. _____ is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, usually by means of fraudulent e-mail. A. Greylisti ng B. Phishi ng C. Sniffin g D. Wire fraud 40. Ashley recently received an e-mail from a bank asking for her account number and verification of her password. The e-mail contained the bank's logo and was signed by the branch manager. She immediately replied to the e-mail, providing the requested details. However, a few days later, she noticed that her bank statement showed a zero balance. On checking with the bank authorities, she was told that the e-mail was not sent by them. Ashley was most likely a victim of which of the following types of fraud? A. Brand spoofing B. Key logging C. Piratin g D. Pharmin g 41. _____ is a technique to gain personal information for the purpose of identity theft, where specific individuals are targeted and the creator of a fraudulent e-mail already has some of the victim's personal information and wants more. A. Spear phishing B. Vishin g C. Spyphishing D. Pharmin g 57 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 42. _____ is the use of phishing targeted at senior business executives, government leaders, and other types of high-profile individuals. A. Spammin g B. Whali ng C. Vishin g D. Keystroke logging 43. Which of the following should a person do to protect their personal information? A. Avoid using special characters in passwords. B. Do not provide information to people who contact you by e-mail. C. Avoid providing answers that are hard to guess as responses to security questions. D. Do not enter those Web sites where https:// appears in the Web browser. 44. The most recent federal bill that addressed electronic monitoring of employees is the ____. A. Homeland Security Act of 2002 B. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986 C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 D. USA Patriot Act of 2003 45. A _____ is a small file that contains information about a person and his/her Web activities, which a Web site one visits places on their computer. A. cook ie B. bo t C. cach e D. key logger 58 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 46. _____ refers to unsolicited e-mail (electronic junk mail) from businesses that advertise goods and services. A. Adwar e B. Spywar e C. Pharmin g D. Spa m 47. Jennifer recently installed a free media player for downloading music onto her laptop. Without her knowledge, along with the media player, a software was installed on her system which constantly tracked her online activities in addition to the data saved on her laptop. Which of the following was most likely downloaded without Jennifer's knowledge? A. Adwar e B. Spywa re C. Firmwar e D. Cooki e (( 48. _____ refers to software that generates advertisements and installs itself on your computer when you download some other, usually free, program from the Web. A. Antivirus software B. Adwa re C. Spywar e D. AdSens e 49. _____ refers to malicious software that collects information about a person and his/her computer and reports it to someone without their permission. A. Firmwar e B. Spywa re C. Adwar e D. Spa m 59 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 50. Spyware is also known as ____. A. adwar e B. malwar e C. stealthw are D. firmwar e 51. A _____ consists of one line of information for every visitor to a Web site and is usually stored on a Web server. A. Web log B. firewa ll C. cooki e D. copyrig ht 52. A _____ records information about you during a Web surfing session such as what Web sites you visited, how long you were there, what ads you looked at, and what you bought. A. copyrig ht B. key logger C. firewa ll D. clickstre am 53. The _____ allows law enforcement to get access to almost any information, including library records, video rentals, bookstore purchases, and business records when investigating any act of terrorism or hostile intelligence activities. A. USA Patriot Act B. Sarbanes-Oxley Act C. CAN-Spam Act D. Homeland Security Act 60 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 54. The _____ sought to protect investors by improving the accuracy and reliability of corporate disclosures and requires companies to implement extensive and detailed policies to prevent illegal activity within the company and respond in a timely manner to investigate illegal activity. A. USA Patriot Act B. Homeland Security Act C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act D. Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act 55. The _____ provided new authority to government agencies to mine data on individuals and groups including e-mails and Web site visits, and put limits on the information available under the Freedom of Information Act. A. CAN-Spam Act B. Sarbanes-Oxley Act C. Homeland Security Act D. USA Patriot Act 56. The _____ sought to regulate interstate commerce by imposing limitations and penalties on businesses sending unsolicited e-mail to consumers. A. USA Patriot Act B. Identity Theft and Assumption Deterrence Act C. Homeland Security Act D. CAN-Spam Act 57. _____ are types of hackers who break into other people's computer systems and may just look around. They may steal credit card numbers or destroy information, or otherwise do damage. A. Zombie s B. White-hat hackers C. Black-hat hackers D. Drone s 61 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 58. _____ have philosophical and political reasons for breaking into systems and often deface Web sites as a sign of protest. A. Zombie s B. White-hat hackers C. Hacktivi sts D. Screenage rs 59. A _____ floods a server or network with so many requests for service that it slows down or crashes. A. rootk it B. denial-of-service attack C. wi ki D. Trojan horse 60. A(n) ______ is hardware and/or software that protects a computer or a network from intruders. A. Web log B. wor m C. firew all D. public key 61. _____ refers to the use of physiological characteristics such as fingerprints, the blood vessels in the iris of the eye, and the sound of one's voice to provide identification. A. Pharmin g B. Biometr ics C. Intellectual property D. Whalin g 62 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 62. _____ is a way of protecting messages and files by scrambling the contents of a file so that one cannot read it without having the right key. A. Encrypti on B. Feature creep C. Biometri cs D. Encapsulati on True / False Questions 63. An ethical dilemma refers to the choice of whether or not to be ethical. True False 64. Intellectual property is defined as the principles and standards that guide our behavior toward other people. True False 65. A factor that affects how one makes a decision when faced with an ethical dilemma is one's basic ethical structure, which develops as one grows up. True False 66. Intellectual property refers to tangible creative work that is embodied in non-physical form. True False 67. Copyright law completely forbids the use of intellectual property. True False 68. In the United States, making a copy of copyrighted software for backup purposes amounts to software piracy. True False 69. In order to monitor computer use, screen capture programs can be used to capture every single screen that a user views. True False 70. Log analysis is a monitoring tool that keeps track of logons, deletions, and so forth. True False 71. Identity theft is often for financial gain, and the stolen identity is used to apply for and use credit cards in the victim's name or to apply for loans. True False 72. Phishing is a technique which delays incoming e-mail messages for a long period of time to defend one's computer against viruses and worms. True False 63 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 73. Key logging refers to the rerouting of a person's request for a legitimate Web site to a fake site which then collects information from the person. True False 74. Pharming is accomplished by getting access to the giant databases that Internet providers use to route Web traffic. True False 75. A reason that companies monitor employees' e-mail is that they can be sued for what their employees send to each other and to people outside the company. True False 76. A hardware key logger cannot capture backspaces and deletions. True False 77. A unique cookie is one that started out as a common cookie, but the original site sold access to it to a third party. True False 78. One way to block cookies is to set one's browser to accept or reject all cookies. True False 79. Spammers can penetrate through spam filters by including nonprinting characters in their subject lines. True False 80. The CAN-Spam Act is an anti-spam law passed by the Federal Government which bans spamming entirely. True False 81. Adware is software to generate ads that installs itself on your computer when you download some other program from the Web. True False 82. Spyware is a kind of software that blocks malicious software from entering one's computer. True False 83. Without spyware, a Web site cannot tell a lot about its Web visitors. True False 84. Anonymous Web browsing (AWB) services help in hiding a person's identity from the Web sites one visits. True False 85. The Homeland Security Act of 2002 sought to protect investors by improving the accuracy and reliability of corporate disclosures. True False 86. Hackers who have a philosophical or political message that they want to share are called hacktivists. True False 64 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 87. Black-hat hackers are known as the "good guys" who test the vulnerability of systems so that protective measures may be taken. True False 88. A virus is software that is written with malicious intent to cause annoyance or damage. True False 89. Benign viruses are the worst kinds of viruses as they have the capacity to damage computers. True False 90. Script kiddies work at the request of the owners of computer systems, find vulnerabilities in systems, and plug the holes. True False 91. The objective of a denial-of-service attack is to prevent legitimate customers from accessing the target site. True False 92. A virus has the capacity to hurt the processor of a computer. True False 93. A drawback of spam protection is that it may mark something as spam when it is not. True False 94. Anti-phishing software protects a person from identity theft. True False 95. A firewall examines each message as it seeks entrance to the network. True False 65 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 Chapter 09 Emerging Trends and Technologies: Business, People, and Technology Tomorrow Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is true of personal software-as-a-service (personal SaaS)? A. It involves the purchase of high quality, productivity software. B. It is cost effective because it provides discounted rates on personal productivity software. C. It involves paying for personal productivity software on a pay-per-use basis. D. It ensures high levels of security as all data is stored directly on a user's personal computer. 2. Which of the following is a drawback of personal software-as-a-service (personal SaaS)? A. It provides customers with limited options for purchasing different types of software. B. It does not ensure high levels of privacy as data is maintained on a Web-based server. C. It is an expensive proposition for most customers as software licenses involve high costs. D. It hosts the software and related data offline and hence, cannot be accessed online. 3. Which of the following is a delivery model that enables a person to rent productivity software such as Microsoft Office? A. F2b2 C B. Push technology C. Personal SaaS D. VoIP 66 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 4. Johanna works for a child rights organization and is required to travel during the first quarter of the year to different underdeveloped countries. Her role is to visit the different country offices to help define project goals, brainstorm fundraising ideas, and realize the scope of projects at the onset of campaigns. For these sessions, she uses a mind mapping software. She prefers to rent the software prior to her travel instead of purchasing it, since she needs it only for a few months of the year. Which of the following is most likely being used by Johanna? A. Personal SaaS B. F2b2 C C. Push technology D. VoIP 5. Which of the following is an advantage of personal software-as-a-service (personal SaaS)? A. It represents a cost effective solution for most users. B. It offers customers a wide range of options to purchase software. C. It ensures high levels of information security by storing data on users' personal computers. D. It guarantees reliability as the risk of network outages is minimal. 6. Which of the following refers to an environment in which businesses and organizations come to customers via technology with information, services, and product offerings based on their profiles? A. Open source technology B. Push technology C. F2b2 C D. Pull technology 7. Which of the following is an example of push technology? A. Web sites that feature pop-up advertisements to increase the number of online visitors. B. Retail companies that use Internet media to promote the sale of newly launched products. C. Travel Web sites that e-mail holiday offers to customers based on their membership profiles. D. Newly-established companies that use mass e-mails to build a large customer base. 67 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 8. Abigail, a corporate lawyer, pursues art as a hobby in her spare time. Recently, she started maintaining a blog in which she regularly writes about her favourite artists, types of art, and any art works that she has purchased. Since then, she has started receiving updates via email and text message about art events based on her tastes and preferences. This is an example of ____. A. personal SaaS B. F2b2 C C. push technology D. VoIP 9. Which of the following is true of push technology? A. Databases and data warehouses affect the development of push technologies. B. Users request for information from a program or computer via a Web browser. C. Businesses send mass e-mails to customers about products that are mostly of no use to them. D. Companies push products to customers without knowing their preferences. 10. Which of the following is an e-commerce business model in which a consumer communicates through a business on the Internet, and directly provides product specifications to a factory that produces the product and ships it directly to the consumer? A. F2b2 C B. Push technology C. Personal SaaS D. VoIP 68 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 11. Dell Inc., the multinational IT corporation that manufactures computers and related products, pioneered the direct selling model, wherein customers could customize their PCs by placing orders online along with their product specifications. Dell would then manufacture the computers according to customers' requirements and subsequently ship the product directly to them. This is an example of which of the following e-commerce business models? A. G2 C B. C2 C C. B2 B D. F2b2 C 12. iTunes, Apple's online music store, allows users across the globe to download music, videos, games, audiobooks, podcasts, and other forms of digital content, all at the push of a button. Effectively, iTunes allowed users to bypass traditional channels such as music stores and other retailers that would normally distributes such products. This is an example of ____. A. push technology B. personal SaaS C. disintermedi ation D. F2b2 C 13. An example of _____ would be the travel industry where the Internet connects customers directly to an airline to purchase tickets and travel agents no longer play an important role in the process. A. crowdsourci ng B. differentiati on C. disintermedi ation D. encrypti on 69 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 14. Which of the following best defines disintermediation? A. The use of the Internet as a delivery vehicle whereby middle men in a distribution channel can be bypassed B. The process of using predictive analysis to strengthen the role of intermediate players in a distribution process C. The enlisting of people (i.e., crowds)—instead of designated paid employees—to create, modify, and oversee the development of a product or service D. The transmission of voice communications over the Internet in order to avoid toll charges 15. Which of the following allows you to send voice communications over the Internet and avoid the toll charges that you would normally receive from your long distance carrier? A. VPN B. Saa S C. F2b2 C D. VoI P 16. Sally who lives in New Jersey needs to constantly be in touch with her husband who works in Italy. She uses a certain technology which allows her to make phone calls over the Internet and charges her a basic monthly fee for all her international calls. Which of the following is Sally most likely to be using? A. F2b2 C B. Push technology C. VPN D. VoI P 17. _____ focuses on online collaboration, users as both creators and modifiers of content, and other engaging Web-based services. A. Web 2.0 B. VoIP C. F2b2 C D. CAVE 70 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 18. Which of the following focuses on semantics i.e., the ability of Internet technologies to interpret and understand human-generated content? A. F2b2 C B. VoIP C. Web 3.0 D. Web 2.0 19. Which of the following is true of Web 2.0? A. It creates, captures, and displays images in threedimensional form. B. It adds the sense of touch to an environment that previously had only textual elements. C. It views the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it. D. It focuses on dynamic and customized information feeds. 20. Which of the following best describes the process of viewing the physical world with computer-generated layers of information added to it? A. Disintermediati on B. Augmented reality C. Virtual reality D. Feature analysis 21. Which of the following is an example of augmented reality? A. A person communicates through an Internet business and directly provides product specifications to a factory that makes customized products. B. An organization uses a retinal scanner for the purpose of employee identification. C. A sports broadcast of a golf tournament uses digital overlays to indicate the yardage of the golf course. D. An online bookstore ships products directly to shoppers thereby bypassing traditional bookstores. 71 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 22. Lesley who recently traveled to Paris was anxious prior to her visit because it was her first trip to the city. However, while she was in the city, she used a certain technology which helped her find places at the click of a button. Whenever she was outdoors, she would click a photo of the street on her palmtop and a list of museums, parks, and eateries would automatically appear on the screen. With the help of this technology, she could easily make her way through the city. Which of the following technologies did Lesley's palmtop utilize? A. Augmented reality B. Feature analysis C. Push technology D. VoIP 23. Which of the following captures and utilizes real body characteristics, such as breadth, voice, height, and weight to interact with a computer system? A. F2b2 C B. RFI D C. Physiological interfaces D. Multi-state computing 24. The National Museum maintains the highest levels of security due to the invaluable range of artefacts that are on display. At the entrance of each level in the museum, there is equipment that scans the facial features of every visitor that enters the floor. This helps them protect the artefacts by monitoring the flow of visitors in and out of the museum. Which of the following is the museum using? A. Physiological interfaces B. Artificial intelligence C. Extreme programming D. Network interfaces 72 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 25. Which of the following is an example of a physiological innovation? A. Optical mark readers B. Haptic interfaces C. 3G technology D. Image scanners 26. Which of the following refers to a system which not only captures spoken words but also distinguishes word groupings to form sentences? A. Automatic speech recognition B. Haptic interface C. Biometri cs D. CAVE 27. Which of the following refers to a system which converts the digital signals of one's speech into phonemes? A. Feature analysis B. Language processing C. Pattern classification D. Haptic interface 28. Which of the following refers to a system that matches one's spoken phonemes to a phoneme sequence stored in an acoustic model database? A. Encapsulati on B. Feature analysis C. Pattern classification D. Language processing 73 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 29. Which of the following best describes a system which attempts to make sense of what a person is saying by comparing the word phonemes generated in pattern classification with a language model database? A. Structured Query Language B. Language processing C. Feature analysis D. Voice over Internet Protocol 30. Which of the following is undertaken by a feature analysis system? A. Adds extra features that were not part of the initial requirements B. Provides identification by evaluating facial characteristics of a person C. Compares a person's word phonemes with a language model database D. Eliminates background noises and converts digital speech signals into syllables 31. Certain cell phones provide users with the option of voice dialling. All that the user has to do is give a command stating the name of the person they would like to call, (e.g., "Call Roger") and the cell phone automatically dials the person's number. Which of the following physiological innovations do such cell phones utilize? A. VoIP B. AS R C. CAVE D. RFI D 32. Some in-car GPS navigation systems are voice activated. All that a driver has to do is state the name of one's destination or dictate an address and the system automatically instructs the driver on how to get there. Which of the following physiological innovations do such GPS systems utilize? A. VoIP B. CAVE C. RFI D D. AS R 74 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 33. Several airline pilots are trained in flight simulators which recreate the environment of actual airplane cockpits. Using such technology, pilots are trained to respond to various conditions that they might encounter while on the job, such as turbulence, engine failure, bad weather, and the like. Flight simulators are real-world applications of ____. A. near field communication B. radio frequency identification C. virtual reality D. network interfaces 34. The most common applications of virtual reality are found in the _____ industry. A. hospitali ty B. manufacturi ng C. trav el D. entertain ment 35. Which of the following refers to a technology with a three-dimensional computer simulation in which a person actively and physically participates? A. Wireless fidelity B. Virtual reality C. Augmented reality D. Agile methodology 36. Reuben spends most of his free time playing on his PlayStation 3 (PS3). His favorite game "Sports Champions" includes the use of PS3's motion controller, a device which allows the user to physically participate in a game. The PS3 Eye, a gaming camera, captures the movements of the motion controller and displays it on the TV screen. In this scenario, the game "Sports Champions" is using ____. A. virtual reality B. open source technology C. wireless fidelity D. disintermediati on 75 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 37. Which of the following represents a device which contains a screen that covers a user's entire field of vision and displays various views of an environment based on the user's movements? A. Glov e B. Trackba ll C. Walke r D. Heads et 38. Which of the following is an input device that captures and records the shape and movement of your hand and fingers and the strength of their movements? A. Glov e B. Motion controller C. Handheld device D. Trackba ll 39. Which of the following refers to a special 3-D virtual reality room that can display images of people and objects located in other similar environments all over the world? A. CAV E B. RFI D C. VPN D. Wireless fidelity 40. Which of the following is true about a CAVE? A. The system collaborates online data and customizes information feeds. B. The system matches spoken phonemes to a sequence stored in an acoustic database. C. Images are created, captured, and/or displayed in true threedimensional form. D. Internet protocol sends high-quality voice messages routed through a VoIP provider. 76 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 41. Which of the following is a holographic device? A. Data manipulation subsystem B. Intrusion detection system C. Geographic information system D. Cave automatic virtual environment 42. Which of the following uses technology to add the sense of touch to an environment that previously only had visual and textual elements? A. Augmented reality B. Haptic interfaces C. Holographic devices D. Feature analysis 43. Touch screen cell phones have ____. This is evidenced by the vibrations that the user senses when he or she presses a button on the screen. A. CAVEs B. holographic devices C. biometri cs D. haptic interfaces 44. _____ is the use of physiological characteristics—such as your fingerprint, the blood vessels in the iris of your eye, the sound of your voice, and even your breath—to provide identification. A. Biometr ics B. Bluetoot h C. Feature analysis D. Holographi cs 77 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 45. Chic! is a high-end luxury boutique in Paris that is especially popular among its clientele because of the well-fitted dresses that it offers. All that customers needs to do is decide on the design and color of a dress and then enter a room in the store which scans their entire body. The store then creates a dress based on the customer's exact body structure and shape, which fits them perfectly. Which of the following is the store using? A. Augmented reality B. Pattern classification C. Feature analysis D. Biometr ics 46. Illuminas, a research firm in Moscow, maintains a high level of security due to the sensitive research data that they handle. Certain parts of the facility have restricted access and are accessible only to authorized personnel. To validate the identity of such personnel, the firm uses a certain technology which scans employees' irises before granting them entry to such areas. This is an example of which of the following aspects of personal identification? A. What you do B. What you know C. What you have D. Who you are 47. The "_____" aspect of personal identification refers to something like a password which everyone can create and has. A. what you know B. what you do C. what you feel D. who you are 78 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 48. Which of the following can perform a variety of physiological functions when inserted into the human body? A. RFID chip B. Rootk it C. Bioch ip D. Implant chip 49. Which of the following can be placed in the human body to store important information about a person, such as medical history, and can be GPS-enabled to offer a method of tracking? A. Trackba ll B. Implant chip C. Multi-state CPU D. Bluetoot h 50. Which of the following is a standard for transmitting information in the form of short-range radio waves over distances of up to 30 feet? A. Blueto oth B. WiF i C. NFC D. Broadban d 51. Melissa and her friend, Erica, go on a hike to get away from the hustle bustle of city life. During the hike, Melissa takes several photographs with her cell phone camera and she uses a certain technology to transfer them to Erica. However, when she tries sending them to her friends who lives in the next city, she is unable to transfer the photographs. Which of the following technologies is Melissa using? A. Wik i B. WiF i C. Blueto oth D. NFC 79 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 52. Which of the following refers to a standard for transmitting information in the form of radio waves over distances up to about several miles? A. LA N B. Wi Fi C. Bluetoot h D. NFC 53. Which of the following refers to a wireless transmission technology developed primarily for mobile phones to support mobile commerce and other phone activities? A. Bluetoot h B. WiF i C. LA N D. NF C 54. Which of the following uses a microchip in a tag to store information, and information is transmitted from the tag when the microchip is exposed to the correct frequency of radio waves? A. CAVE B. RFI D C. Saa S D. F2b2 C 55. With RFID technologies, each individual piece of merchandise will have a unique ____. A. USP B. EP C C. tradema rk D. UPC 80 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 56. Which of the following is a discipline that seeks to control matter at the atomic and subatomic levels for the purpose of building devices on the same small scale? A. Push technology B. Haptic technology C. Nanotechnol ogy D. Pull technology 57. Which of the following refers to the process of countries being defined by the extent to which they have only limited access to and use of technology? A. Great digital divide B. Selfsourcin g C. Competitive advantage D. Prototypi ng True / False Questions 58. Personal software-as-a-service allows users to rent personal productivity software. True False 59. Push technology comprises of mass e-mailings. True False 60. A person searching for information on car rental services online is an example of push technology. True False 61. Push technology is unaffected by the development of data warehouse technologies. True False 62. F2b2C is an e-commerce model where a customer can specify a custom order directly to a factory. True False 63. Most VoIP providers offer free unlimited long distance calling only within one's country. True False 64. VoIP provides users with a number of value-added services such as call-waiting and caller ID. True False 81 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 65. Contrary to popular opinion, Web 2.0 is actually the third generation of the Web. True False 66. Web 3.0 will use technologies such as intelligent agents and will be more personable than Web 2.0. True False 67. An ASR system uses haptic interfaces to capture spoken words. True False 68. A cave automatic virtual environment is an example of a physiological innovation. True False 69. A drawback of the ASR system is that it cannot distinguish word groupings to form sentences. True False 70. ASR allows one to speak in a normal voice and thus supports physiological interaction. True False 71. A CAVE is an e-commerce business model in which a consumer communicates directly through the Internet with a factory for customized products. True False (F2b2C) 72. Holographic devices create and capture information in a two-dimensional form. True False (3 dimensions) 73. A difference between a CAVE and virtual reality is that in some CAVEs, one does not need to use special gear. True False 74. With the help of CAVE technologies, you can visit your friends and relatives on a daily basis no matter where they live. True False 75. An ATM password is an example of the "what you have" aspect of personal identification. True False 76. An iris scan is an example of the "what you know" aspect of personal identification. True False 77. A biochip provides identification by evaluating facial characteristics. True False 78. An implant chip stores a person's medical history. True False 79. WiFi is usually the type of wireless communication used in a network environment. True False 82 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected]) lOMoARcPSD|9801498 80. A drawback of smartphone technology is that the development of antivirus smartphone software is in its infancy. True False 81. The most common implementation of RFID is the active RFID chip. True False 82. A passive RFID chip has no power source itself and sits idle until passed near a reader that emits radio waves. True False 83. Library book tracking and livestock tracking are examples of applications of RFID technologies. True False 84. Nanotechnology and traditional manufacturing are similar to one another. True False 85. Multi-state CPUs are binary state, capable of working with information represented by a 1 or a 0. True False 86. A holographic storage device is a device which stores information on a storage medium composed of 3-D crystal like objects. True False 87. The great digital divide enhances global stability. True False 88. In today's technology-based world, you give up privacy when you surf the Web or register on a Web site. True False 83 Downloaded by Ju Wang ([email protected])
