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ch final rvw
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. Which field of science studies the composition and structure of matter?
a. physics
c. chemistry
b. biology
d. geology
2. Which of the following would a chemist be most likely to study?
a. a leaf floating on water
c. a leaf being blown by the wind
b. a leaf changing color in autumn
d. a leaf being eaten by insects
3. Which of the following best describes an example of pure chemistry?
a. testing the effects of lower concentrations of a drug on humans
b. studying chemicals containing carbon
c. developing a cure for osteoporosis
d. finding an antidote for a new strain of virus
4. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Knowledge of chemistry allows the public to make informed decisions.
b. Studying chemistry ensures that officials make correct choices in funding technology.
c. Knowledge of chemistry helps prepare people for careers in soil science.
d. Chemistry explains many aspects of nature.
5. Which of the following is NOT an example of chemistry research in the main area of energy?
a. producing hook-and-loop tape
b. determining the usefulness of oil from soybean plants
c. developing rechargeable batteries
d. studying the effects of insulation
6. Which of the following is an example of a current research focus in chemistry?
a. development of smoke detectors for common use
b. using hook-and-loop tape in the clothing industry
c. applying gene therapy to treat certain diseases
d. studying coal combustion as an energy source
7. Which of the following can be observed only in a microscopic view?
a. foam insulation
c. shape of a soybean plant
b. X-ray of a knee joint
d. structure of a muscle cell
8. Which of the following was a major contribution to chemistry by Antoine Lavoisier?
a. He showed that oxygen is required for material to burn.
b. He demonstrated the presence of phlogiston in air.
c. He encouraged scientists to form explanations based on philosophical arguments.
d. He developed the science of alchemy.
9. One characteristic of a scientific theory is that ____.
a. it can never be proved
c. it cannot be modified
b. it can be proved
d. it summarizes a set of observations
10. Which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information?
a. revising a hypothesis
c. making an observation
b. designing an experiment
d. stating a theory
11. Which of these steps should always be followed for effective problem solving?
a. buying a larger quantity of material than estimated
b. performing metric conversions
____ 12.
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____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
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____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
____ 22.
____ 23.
____ 24.
____ 25.
c. developing a plan and then implementing the plan
d. using a trial-and-error approach and then evaluating
How do conceptual problems differ from numeric problems?
a. Solutions to conceptual problems involve analysis, while numeric solutions do not.
b. Logic is not usually involved in solving numeric problems.
c. A plan is necessary to solve numeric problems, but is not necessary for conceptual
problems.
d. Solutions to conceptual problems normally do not involve calculations.
Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?
a. air
c. smoke
b. heat
d. water vapor
A golf ball has more mass than a tennis ball because it ____.
a. takes up more space
c. contains different kinds of matter
b. contains more matter
d. has a definite composition
An example of an extensive property of matter is ____.
a. temperature
c. mass
b. pressure
d. hardness
All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____.
a. mass
c. melting point
b. color
d. ability to rust
Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?
a. It has a boiling point of 100 C.
b. It is a colorless liquid.
c. It is composed of hydrogen and oxygen.
d. Sugar dissolves in it.
Which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance?
a. color and odor
c. malleability and hardness
b. melting and boiling points
d. all of the above
A vapor is which state of matter?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. all of the above
A substance that forms a vapor is generally in what physical state at room temperature?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. liquid or solid
Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its container?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. both b and c
Which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container?
a. solid
c. gas
b. liquid
d. both b and c
Which state of matter is characterized by having an indefinite shape, but a definite volume?
a. gas
c. solid
b. liquid
d. none of the above
Which state of matter is characterized by having a definite shape and a definite volume?
a. gas
c. solid
b. liquid
d. all of the above
Which state of matter expands when heated and is easy to compress?
____ 26.
____ 27.
____ 28.
____ 29.
____ 30.
____ 31.
____ 32.
____ 33.
____ 34.
____ 35.
____ 36.
____ 37.
____ 38.
____ 39.
a. gas
c. solid
b. liquid
d. all of the above
All of the following are physical properties of a substance in the liquid state EXCEPT ____.
a. indefinite volume
c. not easily compressed
b. definite mass
d. indefinite shape
Which of the following is a physical change?
a. corrosion
c. evaporation
b. explosion
d. rotting of food
Which of the following CANNOT be classified as a substance?
a. table salt
c. nitrogen
b. air
d. gold
Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a. air
c. steel
b. salt water
d. soil
Which of the following CANNOT be considered a single phase?
a. a pure solid
c. a homogeneous mixture
b. a pure liquid
d. a heterogeneous mixture
Which of the following is true about homogeneous mixtures?
a. They are known as solutions.
b. They consist of two or more phases.
c. They have compositions that never vary.
d. They are always liquids.
Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a. vinegar in water
c. oil and vinegar
b. milk
d. air
Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
a. salt water
c. sand and water
b. beef stew
d. soil
An example of a homogeneous mixture is ____.
a. water
c. noodle soup
b. stainless steel
d. oxygen
Which of the following items is NOT a compound?
a. baking soda
c. sucrose
b. salad dressing
d. table salt
Which of the following is true about compounds?
a. They can be physically separated into their component elements.
b. They have compositions that vary.
c. They are substances.
d. They have properties similar to those of their component elements.
Which of the following materials is a substance?
a. air
c. stainless steel
b. gasoline
d. silver
What is one difference between a mixture and a compound?
a. A compound consists of more than one phase.
b. A compound can only be separated into its components by chemical means.
c. A mixture can only be separated into its components by chemical means.
d. A mixture must be uniform in composition.
What distinguishes a substance from a mixture?
____ 40.
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____ 44.
____ 45.
____ 46.
____ 47.
____ 48.
____ 49.
____ 50.
____ 51.
____ 52.
a. Substances are compounds, and mixtures are not.
b. Mixtures are groupings of elements, and compounds are not.
c. Samples of the same substance can have different intensive properties.
d. Mixtures can be separated physically, while compounds cannot.
The first figure in a properly written chemical symbol always is ____.
a. boldfaced
c. italicized
b. capitalized
d. underlined
Which of the following is used for chemical symbols today?
a. drawings
c. letters
b. icons
d. numbers
Which of the following represents a compound?
a. H
c. H2O
b. H-3
d. O-16
The chemical formula of a compound does NOT indicate the ____.
a. identity of the elements in the compound
b. how elements are joined in the compound
c. the composition of the compound
d. relative proportions of the elements in the compound
What do chemical symbols and formulas represent, respectively?
a. elements and compounds
b. atoms and mixtures
c. compounds and mixtures
d. elements and ions
Which substance has a chemical symbol that is derived from a Latin name?
a. calcium
c. oxygen
b. hydrogen
d. potassium
Which of the following is a chemical property?
a. color
c. freezing point
b. hardness
d. ability to react with oxygen
In the chemical reaction in which sucrose is heated and decomposes to form carbon dioxide and water, which
of the following is a reactant?
a. sucrose
c. water
b. carbon dioxide
d. heat
What must occur for a change to be a chemical reaction?
a. There must be a change in chemical properties.
b. There must be a change in physical properties.
c. The change must involve a change in mass.
d. The change must involve a change in volume.
Which of the following is NOT a physical change?
a. grating cheese
c. fermenting of cheese
b. melting cheese
d. mixing two cheeses in a bowl
All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____.
a. bending
c. rusting
b. melting
d. polishing
Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change?
a. mixing
c. grinding
b. melting
d. decomposing
Which of the following processes does NOT involve a change in chemical properties?
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____ 54.
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____ 60.
____ 61.
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a. rusting
c. boiling
b. fermenting
d. burning
A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____.
a. is split
c. decays
b. is painted
d. is cut
Which of the following is a chemical property of water at 4 C?
a. its color
b. its state
c. its temperature
d. its ability to decompose into hydrogen and oxygen
What must be done to be certain that a chemical change has taken place?
a. Check for the production of bubbles before and after the change.
b. Demonstrate that a release of energy occurred after the change.
c. Check the composition of the sample before and after the change.
d. Demonstrate that energy was absorbed by the reactants after the change.
When paper turns yellow-brown upon exposure to sunlight, what type of change is likely taking place?
a. a physical change
b. a chemical change
c. neither a physical change nor a chemical change
d. both a physical change and a chemical change
Which of the following indicates that a chemical change has happened during cooking?
a. The food darkens.
b. Bubbles form in boiling water.
c. Butter melts.
d. Energy is transferred from the stove to a pan.
Which of the following does NOT indicate that a chemical change may have taken place?
a. fracture formation
c. precipitate formation
b. gas production
d. energy transfer
Which action changes the identity of the substance referenced?
a. melting gold
b. running an electric current through copper
c. corroding iron
d. breaking an ice cube
What happens to matter during a chemical reaction?
a. Matter is neither destroyed or created.
b. Some matter is destroyed.
c. Some matter is created.
d. Some matter is destroyed and some is created.
Which of the following is true for all chemical reactions?
a. The total mass of the reactants increases.
b. The total mass of the products is greater than the total mass of the reactants.
c. The total mass of the products is less than the total mass of the reactants.
d. The total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products.
The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?
a. 1.54 10 m
c. 1.54 10 m
b. 1.54 10
d. 1.54 10
m
m
____ 63. What is the result of multiplying 2.5
a. 8.75 10
10
by 3.5 10 ?
c. 8.75 10
b. 8.75
10
d. 8.75
10
____ 64. What is the result of adding 2.5 10 and 3.5 10 ?
a. 2.9 10
c. 2.9 10
b. 6.0 10
d. 6.0 10
____ 65. Which of the following measurements contains two significant figures?
a. 0.004 00 L
c. 0.000 44 L
b. 0.004 04 L
d. 0.004 40 L
____ 66. When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve?
a. precision
c. reliability
b. accuracy
d. all of the above
____ 67. Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate?
a. 3.1000 g
c. 3.122 22 g
b. 3.100 00 g
d. 3.000 000 g
____ 68. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.)
a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g
c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g
b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g
d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g
____ 69. Three different people weigh a standard mass of 2.00 g on the same balance. Each person obtains a reading of
7.32 g for the mass of the standard. These results imply that the balance that was used is ____.
a. accurate
c. accurate and precise
b. precise
d. neither accurate nor precise
____ 70. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures?
a. 0.007 m
c. 7.30 10 km
b. 7077 mg
d. 0.070 mm
____ 71. In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit?
a. 5
b. the 0 immediately to the left of the 3
c. 3
d. the 0 to the left of the decimal point
____ 72. How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg?
a. two
c. five
b. four
d. This cannot be determined.
____ 73. How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg?
a. two
c. four
b. three
d. five
____ 74. How many significant figures are in the measurement 811.40 grams?
a. two
c. four
b. three
d. five
____ 75. Express the sum of 1111 km and 222 km using the correct number of significant digits.
a. 1300 km
c. 1333 km
b. 1330 km
d. 1333.0 km
____ 76. Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits.
a. 12.68 m
c. 13 m
b. 12.7 m
d. 10 m
____ 77. Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of significant digits.
a. 10 mm
c. 11.0 mm
b. 11 mm
d. 11.00 mm
____ 78. What is the measurement 111.009 mm rounded off to four significant digits?
a. 111 mm
c. 111.01 mm
b. 111.0 mm
d. 110 mm
____ 79. What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits?
a. 1.0 10 L
c. 1050 L
b. 1040 L
d. 1.1 10 L
____ 80. Express the product of 4.0
a. 3 10
b. 3.0 10
10
m and 8.1
10 m using the correct number of significant digits.
c. 3.2 10
d. 3.24 10
____ 81. What is the volume of a salt crystal measuring 2.44 10 m by 1.4 10 m by 8.4
a. 2.9 10 m
c. 2.9 10 m
b. 2.9 10 m
d. 2.9 10 m
____ 82. What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix deci-?
a. 1000
c. 0.1
b. 100
d. 0.01
____ 83. What is the metric system prefix for the quantity 0.000 001?
a. centic. kilob. decid. micro____ 84. Which of the following units is NOT an official SI unit?
a. kilogram
c. mole
b. ampere
d. liter
____ 85. Which of the following volumes is the smallest?
a. one microliter
c. one milliliter
b. one liter
d. one deciliter
____ 86. What is the SI unit of mass?
a. liter
c. candela
b. joule
d. kilogram
____ 87. What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C?
a. –373 C
c. –173 C
b. –273 C
d. –73 C
____ 88. Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?
a. Celsius
c. Joule
b. Fahrenheit
d. Kelvin
____ 89. What is the boiling point of water in kelvins?
a. 0 K
c. 273 K
b. 100 K
d. 373 K
____ 90. Which of the following mass units is the largest?
a. 1 cg
c. 1 mg
b. 1 dg
d. 1 ng
____ 91. The weight of an object ____.
a. is the same as its mass
c. is not affected by gravity
b. depends on its location
d. is always the same
____ 92. What is the temperature –34 C expressed in kelvins?
a. 139 K
c. 239 K
b. 207 K
d. 339 K
____ 93. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C?
10
m?
a. 0 C
c. 100 C
b. 37 C
d. 273 C
____ 94. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius?
a. 93 C
c. –61 C
b. 34 C
d. –34 C
Prefix
mega (M)
kilo (k)
deci (d)
centi (c)
milli (m)
micro ( )
nano (n)
pico (p)
Commonly Used Metric Prefixes
Meaning
1 million times larger than the unit it precedes
1000 times larger than the unit it precedes
10 times smaller than the unit it precedes
100 times smaller than the unit it precedes
1000 times smaller than the unit it precedes
1 million times smaller than the unit it precedes
1000 million times smaller than the unit it precedes
1 trillion times smaller than the unit it precedes
Factor
10
10
10
10
10
10
10
10
____ 95. What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters? Use the table above to help you.
a. 0.075 cm
c. 7.5 cm
b. 0.75 cm
d. 70.5 cm
____ 96. What is the quantity 7896 millimeters expressed in meters? Use the table above to help you.
a. 7.896 m
c. 789.6 m
b. 78.96 m
d. 789,600 m
____ 97. What is the quantity 987 milligrams expressed in grams? Use the table above to help you.
a. 0.000 987 g
c. 9.87 g
b. 0.987 g
d. 98,700 g
____ 98. Which of the following equalities is NOT correct? Use the table above to help you.
a. 100 cg = 1 g
c. 1 cm = 1 mL
b. 1000 mm = 1 m
d. 10 kg = 1 g
____ 99. A cubic meter is about the same as the volume occupied by a ____.
a. kilogram of water
c. washing machine
b. cup of milk
d. basketball arena
____ 100. Density is found by dividing ____.
a. mass by volume
c. mass by area
b. volume by mass
d. area by mass
____ 101. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm ?
a. 0.32 g/cm
c. 3.1 g/cm
b. 2.0 g/cm
d. 200 g/cm
____ 102. What is the volume of 80.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL?
a. 5.6 10
c. 8.8 10
b. 1.1 10
d. 8.0 10
____ 103. What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL?
a. 0.23 mL
c. 479 mL
b. 4.34 mL
d. none of the above
____ 104. If a liter of water is heated from 20 C to 50 C, what happens to its volume?
____ 105.
____ 106.
____ 107.
____ 108.
____ 109.
____ 110.
____ 111.
____ 112.
____ 113.
a. The volume decreases.
b. The volume increases.
c. The volume first increases, then decreases.
d. The volume first decreases, then increases.
If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its density?
a. The density decreases.
b. The density increases.
c. The density does not change.
d. The density first increases, then decreases.
Who was the man who lived from 460B.C.–370B.C. and was among the first to suggest the idea of atoms?
a. Atomos
c. Democritus
b. Dalton
d. Thomson
Which of the following was NOT among Democritus’s ideas?
a. Matter consists of tiny particles called atoms.
b. Atoms are indivisible.
c. Atoms retain their identity in a chemical reaction.
d. Atoms are indestructible.
Dalton's atomic theory included which idea?
a. All atoms of all elements are the same size.
b. Atoms of different elements always combine in one-to-one ratios.
c. Atoms of the same element are always identical.
d. Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope.
Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?
a. All elements are composed of atoms.
b. Atoms are always in motion.
c. Atoms of the same element are identical.
d. Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios.
Which of the following was originally a tenet of Dalton's atomic theory, but had to be revised about a century
ago?
a. Atoms are tiny indivisible particles.
b. Atoms of the same element are identical.
c. Compounds are made by combining atoms.
d. Atoms of different elements can combine with one another in simple whole number ratios.
The comparison of the number of atoms in a copper coin the size of a penny with the number of people on
Earth is made to illustrate which of the following?
a. that atoms are indivisible
b. that atoms are very small
c. that atoms are very large
d. that in a copper penny, there is one atom for every person on Earth
The range in size of most atomic radii is approximately ____.
a. 2 to 5 cm
c. 5 10
m to 2 10
m
b. 2 to 5 nm
d. 5 10
m to 2 10
m
Dalton hypothesized that atoms are indivisible and that all atoms of an element are identical. It is now known
that ____.
a. all of Dalton's hypotheses are correct
b. atoms of an element can have different numbers of protons
c. atoms are divisible
d. all atoms of an element are not identical but they must all have the same mass
____ 114. Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements?
a. Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles.
b. Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets.
c. An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom.
d. Charge-to-mass ratio of electrons was the same, regardless of the gas used.
____ 115. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles?
a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle.
b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle.
c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle.
d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.
____ 116. Who conducted experiments to determine the quantity of charge carried by an electron?
a. Rutherford
c. Dalton
b. Millikan
d. Thomson
____ 117. What is the relative mass of an electron?
a. 1/1840 the mass of a hydrogen atom
c. 1/1840 the mass of a C-12 atom
b. 1/1840 the mass of a neutron + proton
d. 1/1840 the mass of an alpha particle
____ 118. Which hypothesis led to the discovery of the proton?
a. When a neutral hydrogen atom loses an electron, a positively-charged particle should
remain.
b. A proton should be 1840 times heavier than an electron.
c. Cathode rays should be attracted to a positively-charged plate.
d. The nucleus of an atom should contain neutrons.
____ 119. Which of the following is correct concerning subatomic particles?
a. The electron was discovered by Goldstein in 1886.
b. The neutron was discovered by Chadwick in 1932.
c. The proton was discovered by Thomson in 1880.
d. Cathode rays were found to be made of protons.
____ 120. All atoms are ____.
a. positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons
b. negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons
c. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons
d. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the
number of neutrons
____ 121. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is thought to be
true?
a. Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom.
b. The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons.
c. Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the atom.
d. The nucleus is made of electrons and protons.
____ 122. The nucleus of an atom is ____.
a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons
b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons
c. negatively charged and has a high density
d. negatively charged and has a low density
____ 123. The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus?
a. neutrons
c. electrons
b. protons
d. protons and electrons
____ 124. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent?
a. the atomic number
c. the sum of the protons and electrons
b. the mass number
d. twice the number of protons
____ 125. Isotopes of the same element have different ____.
a. numbers of neutrons
c. numbers of electrons
b. numbers of protons
d. atomic numbers
____ 126. Isotopes of the same element have different ____.
a. positions on the periodic table
c. atomic numbers
b. chemical behavior
d. mass numbers
____ 127. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of
electrons given correctly?
a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons
c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons
b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons
d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons
____ 128. Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in O.
a. 4
c. 16
b. 8
d. 24
____ 129. How many protons, electrons, and neutrons does an atom with atomic number 50 and mass number 125
contain?
a. 50 protons, 50 electrons, 75 neutrons
c. 120 neutrons, 50 protons, 75 electrons
b. 75 electrons, 50 protons, 50 neutrons
d. 70 neutrons, 75 protons, 50 electrons
____ 130. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Atoms of the same element can have different masses.
b. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons.
c. The nucleus of an atom has a positive charge.
d. Atoms are mostly empty space.
____ 131. If E is the symbol for an element, which two of the following symbols represent isotopes of the same
element?
1. E
2. E
3. E
4. E
a. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 4
b. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
____ 132. Select the correct symbol for an atom of tritium.
a.
c.
n
H
b.
d.
H
H
____ 133. Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element?
a.
c.
J
J
J
M
M
M
b.
d.
L
L
L
Q
Q
Q
____ 134. How is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated?
a. Add the number of electrons and protons together.
b. Subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons.
c. Subtract the number of protons from the mass number.
d. Add the mass number to the number of electrons.
____ 135. In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented?
a.
c.
F has 0 neutrons.
Mg has 24 neutrons.
b.
d.
As has 108 neutrons.
U has 146 neutrons.
____ 136. How do the isotopes hydrogen-1 and hydrogen-2 differ?
a. Hydrogen-2 has one more electron than hydrogen-1.
b. Hydrogen-2 has one neutron; hydrogen-1 has none.
c. Hydrogen-2 has two protons; hydrogen-1 has one.
d. Hydrogen-2 has one proton; hydrogen-1 has none.
____ 137. Which of the following isotopes has the same number of neutrons as phosphorus-31?
a.
c.
P
Si
b.
d.
S
Si
____ 138. What unit is used to measure weighted average atomic mass?
a. amu
c. angstrom
b. gram
d. nanogram
____ 139. Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit?
a. the mass of one electron
b. the mass of one helium-4 atom
c. the mass of one carbon-12 atom
d. one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12 atom
____ 140. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Protons have a positive charge.
b. Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu.
c. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
d. Neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom.
____ 141. Why do chemists use relative masses of atoms compared to a reference isotope rather than the actual masses
of the atoms?
a. The actual mass of an electron is very large compared to the actual mass of a proton.
b. The actual masses of atoms are very small and difficult to work with.
c. The number of subatomic particles in atoms of different elements varies.
d. The actual masses of protons, electrons, and neutrons are not known.
____ 142. The atomic mass of an element depends upon the ____.
a. mass of each electron in that element
b. mass of each isotope of that element
c. relative abundance of protons in that element
d. mass and relative abundance of each isotope of that element
____ 143. Which of the following is necessary to calculate the atomic mass of an element?
a. the atomic mass of carbon-12
b. the atomic number of the element
c. the relative masses of the element’s protons and neutrons
d. the masses of each isotope of the element
____ 144. In Bohr's model of the atom, where are the electrons and protons located?
a. The electrons move around the protons, which are at the center of the atom.
b. The electrons and protons move throughout the atom.
c. The electrons occupy fixed positions around the protons, which are at the center of the
atom.
d. The electrons and protons are located throughout the atom, but they are not free to move.
____ 145. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus?
a. It decreases.
c. It stays the same.
b. It increases.
d. It doubles.
____ 146. The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron?
a. position
c. energy level
b. speed
d. electron cloud shape
____ 147. What is the shape of the 3p atomic orbital?
____ 148.
____ 149.
____ 150.
____ 151.
____ 152.
____ 153.
____ 154.
____ 155.
____ 156.
____ 157.
____ 158.
____ 159.
____ 160.
a. sphere
c. bar
b. dumbbell
d. two perpendicular dumbbells
How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
What is the maximum number of f orbitals in any single energy level in an atom?
a. 1
c. 5
b. 3
d. 7
What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 5
What is the maximum number of orbitals in the p sublevel?
a. 2
c. 4
b. 3
d. 5
What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy level?
a. 2
c. 18
b. 8
d. 32
When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ____.
a. always doubles its energy
b. absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy
c. absorbs a quantum of energy
d. moves closer to the nucleus
If the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the other electron in that orbital?
a. zero
c. counterclockwise
b. clockwise
d. both clockwise and counterclockwise
What types of atomic orbitals are in the third principal energy level?
a. s and p only
c. s, p, and d only
b. p and d only
d. s, p, d, and f
What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p?
a. 2d
c. 3f
b. 3d
d. 4s
According to the aufbau principle, ____.
a. an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons
b. electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins
c. electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first
d. electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first
What is the number of electrons in the outermost energy level of an oxygen atom?
a. 2
c. 6
b. 4
d. 8
What is the electron configuration of potassium?
a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
c. 1s 2s 3s 3p 3d
b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s
If three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals, how will the electrons be distributed in
the three orbitals?
a. one electron in each orbital
b. two electrons in one orbital, one in another, none in the third
c. three in one orbital, none in the other two
d. Three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals.
____ 161. How many unpaired electrons are in a sulfur atom (atomic number 16)?
a. 0
c. 2
b. 1
d. 3
____ 162. How many half-filled orbitals are in a bromine atom?
a. 1
c. 3
b. 2
d. 4
____ 163. Stable electron configurations are likely to contain ____.
a. filled energy sublevels
b. fewer electrons than unstable configurations
c. unfilled s orbitals
d. electrons with a clockwise spin
____ 164. What is the basis for exceptions to the aufbau diagram?
a. Filled and half-filled energy sublevels are more stable than partially-filled energy
sublevels.
b. Electron configurations are only probable.
c. Electron spins are more important than energy levels in determining electron
configuration.
d. Some elements have unusual atomic orbitals.
____ 165. Which electron configuration of the 4f energy sublevel is the most stable?
a. 4f
c. 4f
b. 4f
d. 4f
____ 166. Which of the following electron configurations of outer sublevels is the most stable?
a. 4d 5s
c. 4d 5s
b. 4d 5s
d. 4d 5s
____ 167. How does the speed of visible light compare with the speed of gamma rays, when both speeds are measured
in a vacuum?
a. The speed of visible light is greater.
b. The speed of gamma rays is greater.
c. The speeds are the same.
d. No answer can be determined from the information given.
____ 168. Which color of visible light has the shortest wavelength?
a. yellow
c. blue
b. green
d. violet
____ 169. Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest frequencies?
a. ultraviolet light waves
c. microwaves
b. X-rays
d. gamma rays
____ 170. Which type of electromagnetic radiation includes the wavelength 10 m?
a. gamma ray
c. radio wave
b. microwave
d. visible light
____ 171. How are the frequency and wavelength of light related?
a. They are inversely proportional to each other.
b. Frequency equals wavelength divided by the speed of light.
c. Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency by the speed of light.
d. They are directly proportional to each other.
____ 172. What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave that travels at 3
MHz? (1 MHz = 1,000,000 Hz)
10 m/s and has a frequency of 60
a.
b. 60 MHz
c.
300,000,000 m/s
d. No answer can be determined from the information given.
____ 173. Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron ____.
a. drops from a higher to a lower energy level
b. jumps from a lower to a higher energy level
c. moves within its atomic orbital
d. falls into the nucleus
____ 174. As changes in energy levels of electrons increase, the frequencies of atomic line spectra they emit ____.
a. increase
c. remain the same
b. decrease
d. cannot be determined
____ 175. The atomic emission spectra of a sodium atom on Earth and of a sodium atom in the sun would be ____.
a. the same
b. different from each other
c. the same as those of several other elements
d. the same as each other only in the ultraviolet range
____ 176. What is the approximate energy of a photon having a frequency of 4
a. 3 10
c. 2 10
J
J
b. 3 10
d.
J
3 10 J
10 Hz? (h = 6.6
10
J s)
____ 177. What is the approximate frequency of a photon having an energy 5 10
J? (h = 6.6 10
J s)
a. 8 10 Hz
c. 3 10
Hz
b. 3 10
d. 1 10
Hz
Hz
____ 178. Which of the following quantum leaps would be associated with the greatest energy of emitted light?
a. n = 5 to n = 1
c. n = 2 to n = 5
b. n = 4 to n = 5
d. n = 5 to n = 4
____ 179. Which variable is directly proportional to frequency?
a. wavelength
c. position
b. velocity
d. energy
____ 180. How do the energy differences between the higher energy levels of an atom compare with the energy
differences between the lower energy levels of the atom?
a. They are greater in magnitude than those between lower energy levels.
b. They are smaller in magnitude than those between lower energy levels.
c. There is no significant difference in the magnitudes of these differences.
d. No answer can be determined from the information given.
____ 181. What are quanta of light called?
a. charms
c. muons
b. excitons
d. photons
____ 182. Which scientist developed the quantum mechanical model of the atom?
a. Albert Einstein
c. Niels Bohr
b. Erwin Schrodinger
d. Ernest Rutherford
____ 183. Bohr's model could only explain the spectra of which type of atoms?
a. single atoms with one electron
b. bonded atoms with one electron
____ 184.
____ 185.
____ 186.
____ 187.
____ 188.
____ 189.
____ 190.
____ 191.
____ 192.
____ 193.
____ 194.
____ 195.
c. single atoms with more than one electron
d. bonded atoms with more than one electron
The quantum mechanical model of the atom ____.
a. defines the exact path of an electron around the nucleus
b. was proposed by Niels Bohr
c. involves the probability of finding an electron in a certain position
d. has many analogies in the visible world
Who predicted that all matter can behave as waves as well as particles?
a. Albert Einstein
c. Max Planck
b. Erwin Schrodinger
d. Louis de Broglie
According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is known, what other
quantity CANNOT be known?
a. mass
c. spin
b. charge
d. velocity
How can the position of a particle be determined?
a. by analyzing its interactions with another particle
b. by measuring its velocity
c. by measuring its mass
d. by determining its charge
The wavelike properties of electrons are useful in ____.
a. defining photons
b. writing electron configurations
c. magnifying objects
d. determining the velocity and position of a particle
In an s orbital, the probability of finding an electron a particular distance from the nucleus does NOT depend
on ____.
a. a quantum mechanical model
c. the Schrodinger equation
b. direction with respect to the nucleus
d. the electron energy sublevel
What is another name for the representative elements?
a. Group A elements
c. Group C elements
b. Group B elements
d. transition elements
What is another name for the transition metals?
a. noble gases
c. Group B elements
b. Group A elements
d. Group C elements
Which of the following elements is in the same period as phosphorus?
a. carbon
c. nitrogen
b. magnesium
d. oxygen
Who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of
missing elements?
a. Henry Moseley
c. John Dalton
b. Antoine Lavoisier
d. Dmitri Mendeleev
Which of the following categories includes the majority of the elements?
a. metalloids
c. metals
b. liquids
d. nonmetals
Of the elements Pt, V, Li, and Kr, which is a nonmetal?
a. Pt
c. Li
b. V
d. Kr
____ 196. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of
electrons given correctly?
a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons
c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons
b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons
d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons
____ 197. The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the nucleus?
a. neutrons
c. electrons
b. protons
d. protons and electrons
____ 198. What element has the electron configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p ?
a. nitrogen
c. silicon
b. selenium
d. silver
____ 199. Which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the noble gases?
a. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely filled.
b. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are partially filled.
c. The electrons with the highest energy are in a d sublevel.
d. The electrons with the highest energy are in an f sublevel.
____ 200. Which of the following electron configurations is most likely to result in an element that is relatively
inactive?
a. a half-filled energy sublevel
b. a filled energy sublevel
c. one empty and one filled energy sublevel
d. a filled highest occupied principal energy level
____ 201. Which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties of an element?
a. proton
c. neutron
b. electron
d. none of the above
____ 202. Which of the following elements is a transition metal?
a. cesium
c. tellurium
b. copper
d. tin
____ 203. Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements?
a. Cu, Co, Cd
c. Al, Mg, Li
b. Ni, Fe, Zn
d. Hg, Cr, Ag
____ 204. Which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the representative elements?
a. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely filled.
b. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are partially filled.
c. The electrons with the highest energy are in a d sublevel.
d. The electrons with the highest energy are in an f sublevel.
____ 205. What are the Group 1A and Group 7A elements examples of?
a. representative elements
c. noble gases
b. transition elements
d. nonmetallic elements
____ 206. Of the elements Fe, Hg, U, and Te, which is a representative element?
a. Fe
c. U
b. Hg
d. Te
____ 207. How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table?
a. It tends to decrease.
c. It first increases, then decreases.
b. It tends to increase.
d. It first decreases, then increases.
____ 208. How does atomic radius change from left to right across a period in the periodic table?
a. It tends to decrease.
c. It first increases, then decreases.
b. It tends to increase.
d. It first decreases, then increases.
____ 209. What causes the shielding effect to remain constant across a period?
____ 210.
____ 211.
____ 212.
____ 213.
____ 214.
____ 215.
____ 216.
____ 217.
____ 218.
____ 219.
____ 220.
a. Electrons are added to the same principal energy level.
b. Electrons are added to different principal energy levels.
c. The charge on the nucleus is constant.
d. The atomic radius increases.
Atomic size generally ____.
a. increases as you move from left to right across a period
b. decreases as you move from top to bottom within a group
c. remains constant within a period
d. decreases as you move from left to right across a period
What element in the second period has the largest atomic radius?
a. carbon
c. potassium
b. lithium
d. neon
Which of the following factors contributes to the increase in atomic size within a group in the periodic table
as the atomic number increases?
a. more shielding of the electrons by the highest occupied energy level
b. an increase in size of the nucleus
c. an increase in number of protons
d. fewer electrons in the highest occupied energy level
Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?
a. sulfur
c. selenium
b. chlorine
d. bromine
What is the charge of a cation?
a. a positive charge
b. no charge
c. a negative charge
d. The charge depends on the size of the nucleus.
Which of the following statements is true about ions?
a. Cations form when an atom gains electrons.
b. Cations form when an atom loses electrons.
c. Anions form when an atom gains protons.
d. Anions form when an atom loses protons.
The metals in Groups 1A, 2A, and 3A ____.
a. gain electrons when they form ions
c. all have ions with a 1 charge
b. all form ions with a negative charge
d. lose electrons when they form ions
Which of the following statements is NOT true about ions?
a. Cations are positively charged ions.
b. Anions are common among nonmetals.
c. Charges for ions are written as numbers followed by a plus or minus sign.
d. When a cation forms, more electrons are transferred to it.
Why is the second ionization energy greater than the first ionization energy?
a. It is more difficult to remove a second electron from an atom.
b. The size of atoms increases down a group.
c. The size of anions decreases across a period.
d. The nuclear attraction from protons in the nucleus decreases.
In which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions?
a. Na , Mg , Al
c. Rb , Ba , P
b. K , Sr , O
d. N , O , F
In which of the following groups of ions are the charges all shown correctly?
____ 221.
____ 222.
____ 223.
____ 224.
____ 225.
____ 226.
____ 227.
____ 228.
____ 229.
____ 230.
____ 231.
____ 232.
a. Li , O , S
c. K , F , Mg
b. Ca , Al , Br
d. Na , I , Rb
What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a. cesium
c. calcium
b. helium
d. fluorine
Which of the following elements has the smallest ionic radius?
a. Li
c. O
b. K
d. S
What is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous state called?
a. nuclear energy
c. shielding energy
b. ionization energy
d. electronegative energy
For Group 2A metals, which electron is the most difficult to remove?
a. the first
b. the second
c. the third
d. All the electrons are equally difficult to remove.
Which of the following factors contributes to the decrease in ionization energy within a group in the periodic
table as the atomic number increases?
a. increase in atomic size
b. increase in size of the nucleus
c. increase in number of protons
d. fewer electrons in the highest occupied energy level
Which of the following elements has the smallest first ionization energy?
a. sodium
c. potassium
b. calcium
d. magnesium
Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?
a. lithium
c. bromine
b. carbon
d. fluorine
Which statement is true about electronegativity?
a. Electronegativity is the ability of an anion to attract another anion.
b. Electronegativity generally increases as you move from top to bottom within a group.
c. Electronegativity generally is higher for metals than for nonmetals.
d. Electronegativity generally increases from left to right across a period.
Which of the following decreases with increasing atomic number in Group 2A?
a. shielding effect
c. ionization energy
b. ionic size
d. number of electrons
Which of the following statements correctly compares the relative size of an ion to its neutral atom?
a. The radius of an anion is greater than the radius of its neutral atom.
b. The radius of an anion is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.
c. The radius of a cation is greater than the radius of its neutral atom.
d. The radius of a cation is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.
Which of the following factors contributes to the increase in ionization energy from left to right across a
period?
a. an increase in the shielding effect
b. an increase in the size of the nucleus
c. an increase in the number of protons
d. fewer electrons in the highest occupied energy level
____ 233. As you move from left to right across the second period of the periodic table ____.
a. ionization energy increases
c. electronegativity decreases
b. atomic radii increase
d. atomic mass decreases
____ 234. Of the following elements, which one has the smallest first ionization energy?
a. boron
c. aluminum
b. carbon
d. silicon
ch final rvw
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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C
Ch.Pro.2.1
B
Ch.Pro.2.2
B
Ch.Pro.2.2
B
Ch.Pro.4
A
C
1.2.2
D
1.2.3
A
A
Ch.Pro.6.4
C
Ch.Pro.6.4
C
D
B
Ch.Ch.1.5
B
Ch.Pro.1.1
C
Ch.Pro.1.1
D
Ch.Ch.1.5
C
Ch.Ch.1.5
D
Ch.Ch.1.5
C
Ch.Ch.1.5
D
Ch.Ch.1.5
B
Ch.Ch.1.5
C
Ch.Ch.1.5
B
Ch.Ch.1.5
C
DIF: L1
REF: p. 7
OBJ: 1.1.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 7
OBJ: 1.1.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 9
OBJ: 1.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 10, p. 11
OBJ: 1.1.3
DIF: L2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 12, p. 13 OBJ: 1.2.1
REF: p. 12, p. 13, p. 14
DIF:
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REF: p. 8, p. 12, p. 13
L1
Ch.Pro.1.2
L2
L1
REF: p. 20, p. 21
REF: p. 23
OBJ: 1.3.1
OBJ: 1.3.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 22
OBJ: 1.3.2
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 28
REF: p. 29, p. 31
REF: p. 39
OBJ: 1.4.1
OBJ: 1.4.3
OBJ: 2.1.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 39
OBJ: 2.1.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 39
OBJ: 2.1.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 40
OBJ: 2.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 40
OBJ: 2.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 40
OBJ: 2.1.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 42
OBJ: 2.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 42
OBJ: 2.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 41
OBJ: 2.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 42
OBJ: 2.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 41
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DIF: L1
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Ch.Ch.1.5
A
DIF: L2
Ch.Ch.1.5
A
DIF: L2
Ch.Ch.1.5
C
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.1
B
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.1
D
DIF: L1
Ch.Pro.2.1
D
DIF: L1
Ch.Pro.2.1
A
DIF: L1
Ch.Pro.2.1
C
DIF: L1
Ch.Pro.2.1
A
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.1
B
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.2
B
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.2, Ch.Ch.1.4
C
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.2, Ch.Ch.1.4
D
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.1
B
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.2, Ch.Ch.1.4
D
DIF: L3
Ch.Pro.2.2
B
DIF: L1
C
DIF: L1
C
DIF: L1
B
DIF: L2
A
DIF: L2
D
DIF: L2
D
DIF: L1
Ch.Pro.2.1
A
DIF: L1
Ch.Ch.2.2
A
DIF: L1
Ch.Ch.2.2
C
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.1
C
DIF: L2
Ch.Pro.2.1
D
DIF: L2
REF: p. 42
OBJ: 2.1.3
REF: p. 41
OBJ: 2.1.3
REF: p. 42
OBJ: 2.1.4
REF: p. 40
OBJ: 2.2.1
REF: p. 45
OBJ: 2.2.2
REF: p. 45
OBJ: 2.2.2
REF: p. 45
OBJ: 2.2.2
REF: p. 45
OBJ: 2.2.2
REF: p. 45
OBJ: 2.2.2
REF: p. 45
OBJ: 2.2.2, 2.2.3
REF: p. 50
OBJ: 2.3.1
REF: p. 48
OBJ: 2.3.1
REF: p. 50
OBJ: 2.3.2
REF: p. 50
OBJ: 2.3.2
REF: p. 50, p. 51
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2.3.3
2.3.3
2.4.1
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
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B
Ch.Pro.2.1
A
Ch.Pro.2.1
A
Ch.Pro.2.1
C
Ch.Pro.2.1
A
Ch.Ch.2
D
Ch.Pro.1.1
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
C
A
C
B
Ch.Pro.1.2
D
Ch.Pro.1.1
C
Ch.Pro.1.2
B
Ch.Pro.1.1
C
C
A
B
D
C
B
B
B
A
C
A
Ch.Pro.1.1
C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.4.1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 54
OBJ: 2.4.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 54
OBJ: 2.4.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 54
OBJ: 2.1.4, 2.4.1, 2.4.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 54
OBJ: 2.1.4, 2.4.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 53
OBJ: 2.1.4, 2.4.1, 2.4.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 55
OBJ: 2.4.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 55
OBJ: 2.4.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 63
OBJ: 3.1.1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
L2
L2
L1
L2
p. 63, p. 71
p. 63, p. 71
p. 66
p. 64
3.1.1
3.1.1
3.1.2
3.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
OBJ: 3.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
OBJ: 3.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 64
OBJ: 3.1.2
DIF:
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OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
L2
L1
L1
L1
L1
L1
L1
L1
L2
L2
L2
L3
DIF: L1
p. 66
p. 66
p. 66
p. 66
p. 66
p. 68
p. 68, p. 70
p. 68, p. 71
p. 66, p. 68
p. 66, p. 68
p. 68, p. 71
p. 68
REF: p. 74
3.1.2
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
3.1.3
OBJ: 3.2.1
STO:
83. ANS:
STO:
84. ANS:
STO:
85. ANS:
STO:
86. ANS:
STO:
87. ANS:
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103. ANS:
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104. ANS:
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105. ANS:
STO:
106. ANS:
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
A
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
C
Ch.Pro.1.3
C
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
A
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
D
Ch.Pro.1.3
C
Ch.Pro.1.3
A
Ch.Pro.1.3
A
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
B
Ch.Pro.1.3
C
DIF: L1
REF: p. 74
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 73
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 74, p. 75
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 76
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 74, p. 76
OBJ: 3.2.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 76
OBJ: 3.2.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77, p. 78
OBJ: 3.2.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 77, p. 78
OBJ: 3.2.3
DIF: L2
REF: p. 77, p. 78
OBJ: 3.2.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 84
OBJ: 3.3.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 84
OBJ: 3.3.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 84
OBJ: 3.3.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 84
OBJ: 3.3.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 84
OBJ: 3.3.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 90, p. 91
OBJ: 3.4.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 90, p. 91
OBJ: 3.4.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 91
OBJ: 3.4.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 91
OBJ: 3.4.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 91
OBJ: 3.4.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 91
OBJ: 3.4.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 101
OBJ: 4.1.1
107. ANS: C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 101
OBJ:
108. ANS: C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 102
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
109. ANS: B
DIF: L2
REF: p. 102
OBJ:
110. ANS: A
DIF: L2
REF: p. 104
OBJ:
111. ANS: B
DIF: L2
REF: p. 103
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
112. ANS: C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 103
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
113. ANS: C
DIF: L1
REF: p. 104
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
114. ANS: D
DIF: L2
REF: p. 105
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
115. ANS: D
DIF: L2
REF: p. 104, p. 105, p. 106
OBJ: 4.2.1
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1, Ch.Ch.1.2
116. ANS: B
DIF: L2
REF: p. 105
OBJ:
117. ANS: A
DIF: L2
REF: p. 105
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
118. ANS: A
DIF: L3
REF: p. 106
OBJ:
119. ANS: B
DIF: L3
REF: p. 105, p. 106
OBJ: 4.2.1
120. ANS: C
DIF: L3
REF: p. 106
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
121. ANS: C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 108
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1, Ch.Pro.5.1
122. ANS: A
DIF: L2
REF: p. 107, p. 108
OBJ: 4.2.2
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
123. ANS: B
DIF: L1
REF: p. 110
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
124. ANS: B
DIF: L1
REF: p. 111
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
125. ANS: A
DIF: L1
REF: p. 112, p. 113
OBJ: 4.3.1
126. ANS: D
DIF: L1
REF: p. 112, p. 113
OBJ: 4.3.1
127. ANS: A
DIF: L2
REF: p. 110
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
128. ANS: B
DIF: L2
REF: p. 111
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
129. ANS: A
DIF: L2
REF: p. 111
OBJ:
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
130. ANS: B
DIF: L2
REF: p. 110, p. 112, p. 113
OBJ: 4.3.1
131. ANS: C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 112
OBJ:
132. ANS: D
DIF: L2
REF: p. 113
OBJ:
133. ANS: C
DIF: L3
REF: p. 112, p. 113
OBJ: 4.3.1
134. ANS: C
DIF: L2
REF: p. 111
OBJ:
4.1.1
4.1.2
4.1.2
4.1.2
4.1.3
4.1.3
4.2.1
4.2.1
4.2.1
4.2.1
4.2.1
4.2.1
4.2.2
4.3.1
4.3.1
4.2.1, 4.3.1
4.3.1
4.3.1
4.3.1
4.3.1
4.3.2
STO:
135. ANS:
OBJ:
136. ANS:
OBJ:
137. ANS:
138. ANS:
139. ANS:
140. ANS:
141. ANS:
142. ANS:
143. ANS:
144. ANS:
STO:
145. ANS:
STO:
146. ANS:
147. ANS:
148. ANS:
149. ANS:
OBJ:
150. ANS:
OBJ:
151. ANS:
OBJ:
152. ANS:
153. ANS:
154. ANS:
155. ANS:
156. ANS:
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158. ANS:
OBJ:
159. ANS:
OBJ:
160. ANS:
161. ANS:
OBJ:
162. ANS:
OBJ:
163. ANS:
164. ANS:
165. ANS:
166. ANS:
OBJ:
167. ANS:
168. ANS:
Ch.Ch.1.1
D
4.3.2
B
4.3.1, 4.3.2
B
A
D
B
B
D
D
A
Ch.Pro.5.1
A
Ch.Ch.1.2
C
B
B
D
5.1.3
D
5.1.3
B
5.1.3
B
C
C
C
D
D
C
5.2.1
D
5.2.1
A
C
5.2.1
A
5.2.1
A
A
D
A
5.2.2
C
D
DIF: L2
STO: Ch.Ch.1.1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 112, p. 113
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
L3
L1
L1
L2
L2
L2
L2
L2
REF: p. 111, p. 112, p. 113
p. 111
p. 115
p. 114
p. 114
p. 114
p. 115
p. 116
p. 128
DIF: L2
REF: p. 128
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
L2
L2
L2
L2
4.3.2
4.3.3
4.3.3
4.3.3
4.3.3
4.3.3
4.3.3
5.1.2
OBJ: 5.1.3
p. 131
OBJ: 5.1.3
p. 131
OBJ: 5.1.3
p. 131
OBJ: 5.1.3
p. 131, p. 132
DIF: L2
REF: p. 131, p. 132
DIF: L2
REF: p. 131, p. 132
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
STO:
DIF:
STO:
DIF:
DIF:
STO:
DIF:
L3
L3
L1
L2
L2
L2
L2
Ch.Ch.1.2
L2
Ch.Pro.5.2
L3
L3
Ch.Ch.1.2
L3
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
L1
L2
L2
L3
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
p. 132
p. 128
p. 134
p. 131
p. 133
p. 133
p. 134, p. 135
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
5.1.3
5.1.3
5.2.1
5.2.1
5.2.1
5.2.1
REF: p. 133, p. 134, p. 135
REF: p. 134
OBJ: 5.2.1
REF: p. 133, p. 134
REF: p. 133, p. 134
p. 136
OBJ: 5.2.2
p. 136
OBJ: 5.2.2
p. 136
OBJ: 5.2.2
p. 133, p. 134, p. 135, p. 136
REF: p. 139
REF: p. 139
OBJ: 5.3.1
OBJ: 5.3.1
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
ANS:
ANS:
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OBJ:
ANS:
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ANS:
STO:
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OBJ:
ANS:
STO:
ANS:
STO:
ANS:
STO:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
STO:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
ANS:
STO:
ANS:
STO:
ANS:
OBJ:
D
D
A
C
A
A
5.3.2
A
A
A
A
D
B
D
B
A
C
D
D
A
C
B
A
Ch.Ch.1.3
C
Ch.Ch.1.3
B
6.1.1
D
Ch.Ch.1.3
C
Ch.Ch.1.3
D
Ch.Ch.1.3
A
6.2.1
A
Ch.Ch.1.1
C
A
D
B
Ch.Ch.1.2
B
Ch.Ch.1.3
C
6.2.3
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
L2
L2
L2
L3
L2
L2
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
p. 139
p. 139
p. 139
p. 140
p. 141
p. 142, p. 143
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
5.3.1
5.3.1
5.3.1
5.3.1
5.3.2
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
L2
L2
L2
L2
L3
L3
L1
L1
L2
L2
L2
L2
L2
L2
L3
L1
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
p. 141
p. 142
p. 142
p. 143
p. 142
p. 143
p. 144
p. 130
p. 143
p. 145
p. 144
p. 145
p. 145
p. 144
p. 131
p. 164
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
5.3.2, 5.3.3
5.3.3
5.3.3
5.3.3
5.3.3
5.3.3
5.3.4
5.3.4
5.3.3, 5.3.4
5.3.4
5.3.4
5.3.4
5.3.4
5.3.4
5.1.4, 5.3.4
6.1.1
DIF: L1
REF: p. 166
OBJ: 6.1.1
DIF: L1
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 162, p. 163
REF: p. 156
OBJ: 6.1.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 6.1.3
DIF: L2
REF: p. 158
OBJ: 6.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 162, p. 163
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3, Ch.Ch.1.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 157
OBJ: 6.2.1
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
DIF:
L2
L2
L2
L2
REF:
REF:
REF:
REF:
p. 164
p. 164
p. 164
p. 164
DIF: L1
REF: p. 166
DIF: L1
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
REF: p. 164, p. 166
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
OBJ:
6.2.2
6.2.2
6.2.2
6.2.2
OBJ: 6.2.3
204. ANS: B
205. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
206. ANS: D
OBJ: 6.2.3
207. ANS: B
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
208. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
209. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
210. ANS: D
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
211. ANS: B
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
212. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
213. ANS: B
OBJ: 6.3.1
214. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.2
215. ANS: B
STO: Ch.Ch.1.2
216. ANS: D
OBJ: 6.3.2
217. ANS: D
STO: Ch.Ch.1.2
218. ANS: A
219. ANS: B
OBJ: 6.3.2
220. ANS: B
OBJ: 6.3.2
221. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
222. ANS: D
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
223. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
224. ANS: B
225. ANS: C
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
226. ANS: A
227. ANS: C
228. ANS: A
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
229. ANS: D
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
230. ANS: C
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 164
REF: p. 164
OBJ: 6.2.2, 6.2.3
OBJ: 6.2.3
DIF: L3
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 162, p. 163, p. 164
REF: p. 171
OBJ: 6.3.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 171
OBJ: 6.3.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 171
OBJ: 6.3.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 171
OBJ: 6.3.1
DIF: L2
REF: p. 171
OBJ: 6.3.1
DIF: L3
REF: p. 171
OBJ: 6.3.1
DIF: L3
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 171, p. 175
REF: p. 172
OBJ: 6.3.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 172
OBJ: 6.3.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 162, p. 163, p. 172, p. 176
STO: Ch.Ch.1.3, Ch.Ch.1.2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 172
OBJ: 6.3.2
DIF: L2
DIF: L3
REF: p. 173
OBJ: 6.3.2
REF: p. 162, p. 163, p. 172
DIF: L3
STO: Ch.Ch.1.2
DIF: L1
REF: p. 162, p. 163, p. 172
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L1
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L2
REF: p. 175
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 173
REF: p. 173
OBJ: 6.3.3
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
DIF: L2
REF: p. 174
REF: p. 173
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 6.3.1, 6.3.3
OBJ: 6.3.3
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L2
REF: p. 177
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L2
REF: p. 178
OBJ: 6.3.1, 6.3.3
STO:
231. ANS:
OBJ:
232. ANS:
STO:
233. ANS:
STO:
234. ANS:
STO:
Ch.Ch.1.3
A
6.3.3
C
Ch.Ch.1.3
A
Ch.Ch.1.3
C
Ch.Ch.1.3
DIF: L2
REF: p. 172, p. 176
DIF: L3
REF: p. 174
OBJ: 6.3.3
DIF: L3
REF: p. 178
OBJ: 6.2.1, 6.3.3
DIF: L3
REF: p. 173
OBJ: 6.3.3