Download Mid-semester exam- example items

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Survey Research & Design in Psychology
Semester 1, 2007
Practice Mid-semester Exam
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This practice exam has 50 multiple choice items;
each is worth ½ mark. The actual mid-semester exam
will have 60 multiple choice items.
2. The mid-semester exam will be worth 30% of your
final mark for this unit.
3. There is a time limit of 90 minutes for the midsemester exam – to meet this pace, these practice
items should be done in 75 minutes.
4. For each item select the best answer.
5. Some questions in this practice exam require
matching or an exact answer.
6. You are permitted to use a non-programmable
calculator.
NAME:
ID:
Date:
1 of 13 pages
1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gender is usually operationalised as:
nominal/categorical data
ordinal data
interval data
ratio data
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Placings in a horse race is an example of:
nominal/categorical data
ordinal data
interval data
ratio data
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Class ranking on a test is:
nominal/categorical data
ordinal data
interval data
ratio data
4.
Someone's annual income (in dollars) would be usually be coded
as:
a. nominal/categorical data
b. ordinal data
c. interval data
d. ratio data
5.
Political party affiliation(Labour, Liberal etc.) would be
recorded as:
a. nominal/categorical data
b. ordinal data
c. interval data
d. ratio data
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following statements is true?
Ratio data is continuous
Interval data is continuous
Ordinal data is continuous
Categorical data is continuous
7.
The most appropriate statistic for indicating central tendency
in nominal/categorical data would be:
a. Frequency / Mode
b. Median
c. Mean
d. range
8.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If the mean was smaller than the median, the skewness would be:
Positive
Negative
Zero
Irrelevant
9.
A normal distribution can be described by ___ statistical
parameters or moments.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
10.
Classify the most likely purpose of this research question:
"What is the likelihood of a case of bird flu being detected in
Australia in the next 12 months?"
2 of 13 pages
a.
b.
c.
d.
exploratory
descriptive
explanatory
predictive
11.
In a study of university student satisfaction, which of the
following is most likely to be a dependent variable?
a. Students' age
b. Type of university course
c. Satisfaction with university rating
d. Students’ residential status
12.
A semantic differential response format typically involves what
kind of stimuli?
a. Ratings made in response to adjectives with opposite meanings
b. A true/false format
c. Selecting a graphic representation of affective state
d. “Shopping list” type items for memory recall
13.
Results obtained from a sample population:
a. Are generalised to the target population
b. Are identical to those in the target population
c. Are usually non-representative
d. Are only obtained in quasi-experiments
14.
Which of the following is not one of Tufte’s guidelines for
preparing graphs:
a. Present many numbers in a small space
b. Show the data
c. Reveal data at several levels
d. Keep it simple
15.
Cannell makes which of the following comments about this survey
question: “Did you eat breakfast yesterday?”
a. The definition of ‘breakfast’ varies widely.
b. It is a leading question.
c. The question is not specific enough.
d. A better question would be “What did you eat for breakfast
yesterday?”
16.
The most appropriate statistic for indicating central tendency
in normally distributed ratio data would be:
a. Standard deviation
b. Variance
c. Mean
d. Standard error
17.
The variance is calculated based on:
a. positive skewness
b. leptokurtosis
c. the sum of squared deviation scores
d. the mode
18.
In creating a plot to show the relationship between the rate of
skin cancer and exposure to UV light, which variable should be shown
on the X axis?
a. exposure to UV light
b. rate of skin cancer
c. the Y axis
d. all of the above
3 of 13 pages
19.
Which of the following best describes the standard deviation:
a. The average amount to which scores in a distribution differ from
the mean
b. the average of the scores in a distribution
c. The variance multiplied by the range
d. the mean of the standardised scores
20.
The standard deviation is:
a. the square root of the variance
b. the variance squared
c. also known as the standard error of the mean
d. the variance divided by N
21.
Correlation is:
a. the covariance of standardised scores
b. the mean of the population standard deviations
c. a way of testing cause and effect
d. for comparing mean differences
22.
The appropriate statistic(s) for examining the relationship
between ordinal variables is/are:
a. spearman’s rho / kendall’s tau
b. phi / Cramer’s V
c. point-biserial
d. product-moment correlation
23.
Product-moment correlations are used for examining
____________.
a. univariate descriptives
b. bivariate differences
c. bivariate relations
d. multivariate relations
24.
The degrees of freedom for Pearson’s r is equal to:
a. N
b. N – 1
c. N – 2
d. N + 7
25.
A curvilinear relationship is often described as being:
a. straight line
b. broken line
c. U- or J-shaped
d. A big mistake
26.
A point biserial coefficient is for estimating the linear
relationship between:
a. two dichotomous variables
b. one dichotomous variable and one continuous variable
c. two ordinal variables
d. one ordinal variable and one continuous variable
27.
Non-parametric statistics are most likely to be used for:
a. string variables
b. Non-normally distributed ratio data
c. Normally distributed interval data
d. Normally distributed ratio data
28.
From a practical data analysis point of view, an interval scale
can be generally be treated as continuous data when there are _____
or more intervals.
4 of 13 pages
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
5
29.
Which of the following checks are not relevant to deciding
whether the Pearson product-moment correlation is an appropriate
indication of the degree of linear association between two variables?
a. Check the scatterplot for outliers
b. Each variable is normally distributed
c. The data represent a sample, not a population
d. Check the scatterplot for linearity
30.
The square of the correlation coefficient or r2; is called the
a. coefficient of determination
b. variance
c. covariance
d. coefficient of discontent
31.
Cronbach’s alpha is a measure of:
a. test-retest reliability
b. external validity
c. internal reliability
d. internal validity
32.
The eigen values in a factor analysis add up to 120. Two
factors explain 20% of the variance. What is the total of the eigen
values for factors 3 to 120 (inclusive)?
a. 96
b. 100
c. 117
d. 97
33.
Match the 4 factor analysis terms with their best partner.
1. Principal Components
2. Oblimin
3. Varimax
4. Principal Axis Factoring
a.
b.
c.
d.
Theoretical
Practical
Pattern Matrix
Rotated Factor Matrix
34.
These two tables are based on the same dataset. Which of the
following statements (may be more than one) are correct according to
the tables?
5 of 13 pages
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
A one factor model could be viable
A two factor model could be viable
A three factor model be viable
A varimax solution is better than an oblimin solution
An oblimin solution is better than a varimax solution
PAF was used
PC was used
6 of 13 pages
35.
This data has a simple factor structure with factors which
could be meaningfully named Product Quality (factor 1), Product
Familiarity (factor 2), and Product Accessibility (factor 3).
a. True
b. False
36.
Which of the following 3 items do you think should be
eliminated? (may be more than 1)
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
7 of 13 pages
h.
i.
j.
k.
l.
m.
n.
o.
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
37.
Match the following values of Cronbach's Alpha with the
interpretations.
1. .40
2. .60
3. .70
4. .80
5. .90
6. 1.00
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Poor
OK
Moderate
Strong
Very strong
Too high; redundant
38.
Internal reliability refers to the extent to which a measure is
consistent within itself.
a. True
b. False
39.
Validity is the degree to which a measure accurately reflects
the underlying concept. (The degree to which a measure actually
measures what it is supposed to.)
a. True
b. False
40.
Measured value =
a. True value of concept
b. True value of concept + random error
c. True value of concept + non-random error
d. True value of concept + non-random error + random error
41.
Test-retest reliability is a measure of internal reliability.
a. True
b. False
42.
Which of the following would not be an appropriate method for
creating a unit-weighted composite score:
a. Adding all the items together and dividing by the number of items
b. Adding all the items together and dividing by any number
c. Multiplying the scores on each item by a weight and adding the
products together
d. Multiplying the scores on each item by the same weight and adding
the products together
43.
Which are the two most closely correlated university student
motivational factors according to the following tables? (may be more
than 1)
8 of 13 pages
9 of 13 pages
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Altruism
Reject alternatives
Qualifications & careers
Social pressure
Social enjoyment
Self exploration
44.
What percentage of variance did the following factor analysis
explain when 6 factors were extracted? (report to 3 decimal places)
10 of 13 pages
Correct Answer:
58.276%
45.
Match the following pictures with the appropriate combination
of reliability and validity. The bullseye represents a target
construct, the darts represent measurement items.
Bulleye #1:
Bullseye#2:
Bullseye#3:
1. Bullseye#1
2. Bullseye#3
3. Bullseye#2
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reliable & Valid
Reliable but not Valid
Not Reliable not Valid
Valid but not Reliable
46.
Which components in the following linear equation are
"weights"?
Y = a1X1 + a2X2 + a3X2 + a4X4 + e
a. Y
b. a1, a2, a3, a4
c. X1, X2, X3, X4
d. e
47.
Cronbach's Alpha is an indicator of the extent to which a
measure yields similar results among its different parts as it
measures a single phenomenon.
a. True
b. False
48.
Reliability is the degree to which a measure of the same object
would produce the same value on repeated measurements.
a. True
b. False
49.
An instrument that is not reliable may be valid.
a. True
b. False
50.
Based on the following tables, which items do you think belong
in the factor examined in the reliability analysis?
11 of 13 pages
12 of 13 pages
a.
b.
c.
d.
2,
2,
8,
2,
8, 20, 26, 29
8, 20, 26
20, 26
8, 26, 29
13 of 13 pages