Download Cell Quiz Review

Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
1)
The function (or functions) of a hematology
laboratory is (are) to
confirm the physician’s impression of a
possible hematological disorder, establish or
rule out a diagnosis, screen for
asymptomatic disorders
protect the patient and laboratory personnel
2)
The major intended purpose of the laboratory
safety manual is to
3)
What is not an appropriate safety practice?
C
A. Disposing of needles in biohazard, puncture-proof
containers
B.
Frequent handwashing
C.
Sterilizing lancets for reuse
D. Keeping food out of the same areas as specimens
4)
If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench absorb blood with disposable towels
or floor area, the first step in cleanup should be
5)
What procedure is the most basic and effective in
Washing hands between patient contacts
preventing nosocomial infections?
6)
The likelihood of infection after exposure to HBVA
infected or HIV-infected blood or body fluids depends
on all of the following factors except the
A. source (anatomical site) of the blood or fluid
B.
concentration of the virus
C.
duration of the contact
D. presence of nonintact skin
7)
HBV and HIV may be directly transmitted in the
D
occupational setting by all of the following except
A. parenteral inoculation with contaminated blood
B. exposure of intact skin to contaminated blood or
certain body fluids
C. exposure of intact mucous membranes to contaminated
blood or certain body fluids
D. sharing bathroom facilities with an HIV-positive
person
8)
Standard precautions have been instituted in
D
clinical laboratories to prevent _____ exposures of
healthcare workers to bloodborne pathogens such as
HIV and HBV.
A. parenteral
B.
nonintact mucous membrane
C.
nonintact skin
D. all of the above
9)
Exposure to _____ constitutes the major source of
blood
HIV and HBV infection in healthcare personnel.
10) The transmission of HBV is _____ probable than
B
transmission of HIV.
A. less
B. more
1
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
11) Gloves for medical use may be
A. sterile or nonsterile
B.
latex or vinyl
C.
used only once
D. all of the above
12) Diluted bleach for disinfecting work surfaces,
equipment, and spills should be prepared daily by
preparing a _____ dilution of household bleach.
13) The above dilution requires _____ mL of bleach
diluted to 100 mL with H2O.
14) The laboratory procedure manual does not need to
include
15) What statements is not a nonanalytical factor in a
Quality Assessment system?
16) In what laboratory situations is a verbal report
permissible?
17) Accuracy is _____
18) Calibration is _____
19) Control is _____
20)
21)
Precision is _____
Standards is _____
22)
Quality is _____
23) What is not a function of a quantitative QC
program?
24) Define Mean
25) Define Range
26)
Define Variance
27)
Define Standard Deviation
28)
The coefficient of variation is the
29)
The z score measures
30)
31)
Acceptable limits of a control value must fall
A trend change in QC data is
32) A continuously increasing downward variation in a
control sample in one direction from the mean can
indicate
A. deterioration of reagents used in the test
B.
deterioration of the control specimen
C.
deterioration of a component in an instrument
D. all of the above
D
1:10
10
the name of the supplier of common
laboratory chemicals
Monitoring the standard deviation and
reporting results of normal and abnormal
controls
When emergency test results are needed by
a physician
Closeness to the true value
Comparison to a known physical constant
The value is known in a specimen similar
to a patient’s whole blood or serum.
How close test results are when repeated.
A purified substance of a known
composition.
The process of monitoring accuracy and
reproducibility of known control results.
Confirms the correct identity of patient
specimens
The arithmetic average
The difference between the upper and
lower measurements in a series of results
The degree to which test data vary about
the average
The expression of the position of each test
result to the average
standard deviation expressed as a
percentage of the mean
how many standard deviations a particular
number is from the R/L of the mean
within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
a progressive change all in one direction
away from the mean for at least 3 days
D
2
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
33)
What statements is true of a gaussian curve?
34) Two standard deviations (2 SD) from the mean in a
normal distribution curve would include
35) Which agency is responsible for ensuring safe and
healthful working conditions for every U.S. worker?
36) What mandated regulation did the Occupation
Safety & Health Administration (OSHA) implement to
improve safety against bloodborne pathogens in the
laboratory?
37) Standard Precautions was implemented by the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as a
way to protect healthcare workers from
38) Basic personal protective equipment includes all of
the following except
A. Gloves
B. Gowns
C. Face mask
D. Respirator
39) What does the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention (CDC) estimate to be the approximate
number of needlestick injuries that occur each year in
the United States?
40) What type of container is appropriate for the
disposal of needles and other sharp objects that have
come into contact with blood or body fluids?
41) What viruses is stable in dried blood at room
temperature for 7 days?
42) In 1991, what did OSHA issue as a federal mandate
that all employers must provide to their employees?
43) What diseases must a laboratory worker and
phlebotomist demonstrate immunity against?
44) What is the minimum contact time that bleach or an
EPA-registered disinfectant must be in contact with a
work surface to properly destroy human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
45) Implementation of Standard Precautions eliminates
46) According the CLSI, the minimum components of
a laboratory procedure document must include
A) Principle of the procedure and clinical application
B) Reagent, supplies, and equipment information
C) Limitation of the procedure
D)
All of the above
47) What did the Clinical Laboratory Improvement
Amendments (CLIA) act establish?
48) What component is not part of laboratory quality
assessment?
It represents a normal bell-shaped
distribution
95% of all values
Occupation Safety & Health
Administration (OSHA)
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne
Pathogens
Bloodborne pathogen exposure
D
380,000
Red biohazard puncture resistant
containers
Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
Hepatitis B vaccine
Measles and HBV, HBV and rubella
10 minutes
Need for separate isolation for infectious
patients, Need for warning labels on
specimens
D
Levels of testing
Standardized break time
3
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
49) What is the most common source of laboratory
error?
50) If a delay is encountered in the analysis of a whole
blood specimen, it should not be
51) ISO 15189 is
52)
53)
54)
Accuracy describes the
Precision describes the
Quality control assay
55)
Calibration
56)
A standard
57) Proficiency testing
58) Calculate the mean for the following series of
numbers.
12, 15, 18, 19, 11, 17, 16
59) Calculate the median for the following series of
numbers.
12, 15, 18, 19, 11, 17, 16
60) In terms of standard deviations, what is the
confidence limit that laboratories should meet?
61) What is not a type of changes in the LeveyJennings approach?
62) You are the quality control supervisor reviewing
the results of last week. You notice that during the first
part of the week the results for hemoglobin were
trending down with a result on the 4th at the minus 2
SD line. The next day the results rebounded and were
above the plus 2 SD line. What do you think happened?
63) The fire department inspector enters the lab asking
you about your chemical safety protocol. What do you
do?
64) What is the best way for you to dispose of extra
HCl after you finish using it?
65) When the coagulation of fresh whole blood is
prevented through the use of an anticoagulant, the
straw-colored fluid that can be separated from the
cellular elements is
66) Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to
the anticoagulant K3 EDTA?
67) Heparin inhibits the clotting of fresh whole blood
by neutralizing the effect of
State the color of the stopper with the appropriate
anticoagulant.
68. _____ EDTA
69. _____ Heparin
70. _____ Sodium citrate
71. _____ No anticoagulant
Preanalytical/preevaluation
Frozen or left at room temperature
An optional accreditation in the United
States
Closeness to the true value
Closeness of values with repeated analyses
Monitors accuracy and reproducibility of
assay results
Is comparison of instrument to known
constant
Contains a known concentration of purified
substances
Involves multiple labs
15.4
16
2 SD
Drop off of results
The tech noticed that the results were out
and opened a new bottle of control
material.
Show the inspector the safety manual with
MSDS sheets for all chemicals in the lab
Pull out your chemical safety manual and
look for the MSDS sheet for HCl
plasma
Is used for most routine coagulation studies
thrombin
68. Lavender
69. Green
70. Blue
71. Red
4
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
The following five procedural steps are significant
activities in the performance of a venipuncture. Place
these steps in the correct sequence.
A. Select an appropriate site and prepare the site.
B. Identify the patient, check test requisitions,
assemble equipment, wash hands, and put on latex
gloves.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle, apply pressure
to site, and label all tubes.
D. Apply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain the
procedure to the patient.
77) The appropriate veins for performing a routine
venipuncture are the
78) A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV
fluids running in both arms. What is an acceptable
procedure?
79) The bevel of the needle should be held _____ in the
performance of a venipuncture.
80) A hematoma can form if
a. improper pressure is applied to a site after the
venipuncture
b. the patient suddenly moves and the needle comes out of
the vein
c. the needle punctures both walls of the vein
d. all of the above
81) Phlebotomy problems can include
a. the use of improper anticoagulants
b. misidentification of patients
c. improper angle of the needle or having the needle up
against the side of the vessel wall
d. all of the above
82) What skin puncture areas is (are) acceptable for the
collection of capillary blood from an infant?
83) The proper collection of capillary blood includes
a. wiping away the first drop of blood
b. occasionally wiping the site with a plain gauze pad to
avoid the buildup of platelets
c. avoiding the introduction of air bubbles into the column
of blood in a capillary collection tube
d. all of the above
E. Introduce yourself and briefly explain
the procedure to the patient.
B. Identify the patient, check test
requisitions, assemble equipment, wash
hands, and put on latex gloves.
A. Select an appropriate site and prepare
the site.
D. Apply the tourniquet and perform the
venipuncture.
C. Remove tourniquet, remove needle,
apply pressure to site, and label all
tubes.
cephalic, basilic, and median cubital
Obtain sample from below the IV site with
special restrictions.
upward
D
D
Medial or lateral plantar surface
D
5
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
84) A peripheral blood smear can be prepared from
a. EDTA-anticoagulated blood within 1 hour of collection
b. free-flowing capillary blood
c. citrated whole blood
d. both A and B
85) Identify the characteristic(s) of a good peripheral
blood smear.
a. It progresses from thick at the point of origin to thin.
b. It has a blunt feathered termination.
c. The outer margins do not touch the edges of the slide.
D. All of the above.
86) Poor blood smears can be caused by
a. a delay in preparing the smear once the drop of blood
has been placed on the slide
b. a drop of blood that is too large or too small
c. holding the pusher slide at the wrong angle and poor
drying conditions
d. all of the above
87) If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be
resolved by
88) The examination of bone marrow is useful in
a. diagnosing a bleeding disorder
b. diagnosing some disorders associated with erythrocytes
and leukocytes
c. diagnosing acute leukemias
d. both B and C
89) Appropriate bone marrow aspiration sites in an
adult are the
Name the color the following stains gives to blood
cells.
90)
91)
92)
_____ Basic stain
_____ Acidic stain
_____ Neutrophilic
Identify the following as Romanowsky-type or non–
Romanowsky-type stains
93)
94)
95)
_____ Wright
_____ May-Grünwald
_____ Giemsa
96) _____ Methylene blue
97) If a blood smear stains too red on microscopic
examination of a Wright-stained preparation, possible
causes include that
D
D
D
increasing the angle of the pusher slide
D
anterior and posterior iliac crest and
sternum
90. Blue-purple color
91. Orange-red color
92. Pink-lilac color
93. Romanowsky-type
94. Romanowsky-type
95. Romanowsky-type
96. Non–Romanowsky-type
the buffer was too acidic and the exposure
time was too short
6
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
98)
Identify the red blood cell layer.
A.
99) Name the most common anticoagulant used in the
hematology laboratory.
100) Choose the correct ratio of anticoagulant to blood
in the citrate evacuated tube used for aPTT testing.
101) Thrombin is inactivated by which anticoagulant?
102) What is the correct “order of draw” when using
multiple evacuated tubes?
103) A specimen for complete blood count (CBC) is
dropped off in the lab and you notice that the doctor has
drawn a green-top tube. What do you tell the
physician?
104) The mode of action for the EDTA anticoagulant is
105) The agency that posted the Safety and Health
Information Bulletin regarding the reuse of phlebotomy
supplies was
106) What evacuated tube stopper color and
anticoagulant additive combinations is incorrect?
107) You recently moved to Denver. On your first day
of performing phlebotomies, you notice that all of your
tubes are underfilling. Why is this happening?
108) After greeting the patient, what is the first thing the
phlebotomist must do?
109) You enter a patient’s room to draw blood from a
patient named Mr. Jones. Upon inspection of the name
bands, you find that both patients are named Jones.
Choose your next course of action.
Bottom layer
EDTA
9:1
Heparin
Yellow, light blue, red, lavender (light
purple)
The incorrect tube was drawn and the
specimen cannot be used for a CBC.
Chelation
Occupational and Safety Health
Administration (OSHA)
Blue and sodium fluoride
You are using out-of-date plastic evacuated
tubes.
Have patients say and spell their name
Refuse to draw blood from either patient
7
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
110) Identify the median cubital vein.
Should point to the median cubital
111) You need to collect blood from a left breast
mastectomy patient with an intravenous tube (IV) in
her right arm. Which option is your best for this
patient?
112) You are the supervisor of the outpatient
phlebotomy laboratory and one of your patients just
fainted. In which order do you perform the following
first aid steps?
113) Hematoma formation at the site of venipuncture is
considered what type of complication?
114) What is the second most common complication of
venipuncture?
115) A hematoma that occurs during the phlebotomy
procedure is usually due to
116) Which finger on the adult patient is best when
performing a capillary blood collection?
117) Which site on the infant patient is best when
performing a capillary blood collection?
118) Why should the first drop of blood from a capillary
puncture be wiped away?
119) What is the best way to increase blood flow in an
infant’s foot?
120) What is the proper angle for the pusher slide when
making a bedside peripheral blood smear?
121) When making a blood smear at the bedside, you
notice that all of your smears are too short. What two
things can you do to increase the length?
122) What components of a Romanowsky-type stain is
considered to be the acidic stain?
123) What components of a Romanowsky-type stain is
considered to be the basic stain?
Draw the blood specimen from at least 3
inches below the IV on the right side
Lie the patient down, loosen tight clothing,
and elevate the patient’s legs
Vascular
Infection
The needle going through the vein and too
slowly
Ring (third) finger
Heel
Contamination with alcohol and lymphatic
fluid
Use a heel warmer or warm water
45 degrees
Use a bigger drop of blood and decrease
the angle of the pusher slide
Eosin
Methylene blue
8
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
124) When drawing blood from a pediatric or adult
patient with small veins, what is the most appropriate
needle size?
125) What area of the body is the most common site for
bone marrow aspiration and collection?
126) What is not a technique for preparing a bone
marrow slide?
127) You are in charge of the blood slide staining station
today and are getting complaints from the laboratory
staff performing the microscopic differential white
blood cell slide examination that the blood slides are
“too red”. What do you need to do?
128) The smallest organized unit of living tissue is the
129) The cell membrane’s major components are
130) What is a characteristic of osmosis?
131) What is a characteristic of active transport?
A. Requires energy (ATP)
B. Movement of molecules up the concentration
gradient
C. Requires a carrier molecule
D. All of the above
132) Phagocytosis is
A. a type of endocytosis
B. the engulfment of fluid molecules
C. the engulfment of particulate matter
D. Both A and C
Match the following organelles with their appropriate
function.
133) _____ Centrioles
134) _____ Rough ER
135) _____ Smooth ER
136) _____ Golgi apparatus
Match the following organelles with their appropriate
function.
137. _____ Lysosomes
138 _____ Microtubules
139 _____ Mitochondria
149. _____ Ribosomes
141) Glycogen is a
142) A cellular inclusion that represents a common
storage form of iron is
143) The nucleus of the cell contains
144) The overall function of DNA is
145) Heterochromatin is
23G
Iliac crest
Thick prep
Increase the pH of the staining solution
cell
proteins and lipids
Movement of water molecules
D
D
133. Points of attachment of the spindle
fibers
134. Protein production
135. Lipid synthesis
136. Concentration of secretory granules
137. Intracellular digestion
138. Cytoskeleton
139. Energy production and
heme synthesis
140. Protein synthesis
carbohydrate
ferritin
chromatin, nucleoli, and nucleoplasm
control of cellular function and
transmission of genetic information
genetically inactive and found in patches or
clumps
9
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
146) Chromosomal translocation is
a. a frequent activity of homologous chromosomes in
meiosis
b. a rearrangement of genetic material
c. the process in which a segment of one chromosome
breaks away from its normal location
D. All of the above
147) A chromosomal deletion is
Match the following activities with the appropriate period
of time. Use an answer only once.
140. _____ G1
141. _____ S
142. _____ G2
143. _____ G0
Match the following mitotic activities with the
appropriate cellular activity. Use an answer only once.
144. _____ Prophase
145. _____ Metaphase
146. _____ Anaphase
147. _____ Telophase
148. _____ Cytokinesis
149) In meiosis, the cells produced contain
150) Hematologists are interested in inherited disorders.
What are inherited disorders?
a. Sickle cell trait
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Hemophilia
d. All of the above
151) Molecular techniques are being used to detect
abnormalities of
a. erythrocytes
b. leukocytes
c. some coagulation factors
d. All of the above
152) The first inherited hematologic disorder to be
diagnosed using molecular biologic assay was
153) PCR testing is useful in
a. forensic testing
b. genetic testing
c. disease diagnosis
d. All of the above
154) The traditional PCR technique
155) PCR protocol
a. doubles the specific amount of DNA with each cycle
b. typically has three temperature steps
c. repeats the number of cycles about 30
d. all of the above
D
loss of a segment of chromosome
140. An active period of protein synthesis
and cellular metabolism
141. DNA replication
142. Immediately precedes actual mitotic
division
143. Protracted state of mitotic inactivity
144. Chromosomes tightly coil and
condense
145. Chromosomes line up at the cell’s
equator
146. Chromatids separate and move to
opposite ends of the mitotic spindle
147. Two identical daughter cells form
148. Division of the cellular cytoplasm
23 chromosomes
D
D
sickle cell anemia
D
amplifies low levels of specific DNA
sequences
D
10
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
156) Variations of PCR include
D
a. nested primers
b. real-time PCR
c. microarray analysis
d. both A and B
157) The method considered to be the “gold standard” of DNA sequencing
molecular methods is
158) The Southern blot procedure has diagnostic
D
applications for diseases or disorders associated with
a. significant changes in DNA (e.g., deletion)
b. determination of clonality in lymphomas of T- or B-cell
origin
c. detection of restriction fragment length polymorphisms
d. all of the above
159) The Northern blot procedure can be used
for analysis of the proximal product of gene
expression
160) All of the following are true of FISH except _____
D
a. The acronym stands for fluorescent in situ
hybridization.
b. It is a tissue-based molecular diagnostic assay.
c. It is a prenatal diagnosis of a genetic disorder.
d. It is useful in the diagnosis of various anemias.
161) Microarrays are
DNA probes bonded on glass chips
162) Molecular techniques provide a diagnostic tool to
D
a. detect MRD in hematological malignancies
b. monitor patients following bone marrow transplantation
c. detect an early relapse in a patient treated for a
hematological malignancy
d. all of the above
163) The composition of cellular membranes is made of
C
all of the following except
a. Proteins
b. Cholesterol
c. Triglycerides
d. Phospholipids
164) The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane is a
Protein
dynamic structure composed of ________ floating in
lipids.
165) What is the definition of osmosis?
The process of net movement of water
molecule through a semipermeable
membrane that allows water to move at an
equal rate
166) Why is diffusion important in cellular physiology?
A passive process in which substances
It is ____.
move from areas of high to low
concentration
167) The process of active transport is important to
Sodium-potassium pump to move against
cellular function because it drives the ____.
the concentration gradient
168) Endocytosis is the process in which a phagocytic
Engulfs and transports to the cellular
cell does what to particle(s) or molecule(s)?
cytoplasm where it is formed into a
vacuole
11
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
169) Dysplasia is defined as
170) The term metaplasia can be defined by what?
171) What is considered the functional unit of the cell?
172) What is the visible effect of hypotonic solution on
the shape of RBCs?
173) What is the visible effect of hypertonic solution on
the shape of RBCs?
174) Ribosomes, the small dense granules found in cells,
contain what?
175) The cells lysosome contains what?
176) Genetic material composed of nucleic acids and
protein is known as
177) Where is the most likely location in the body to
find the storage form of iron known as ferritin?
178) Heterochromatin is a substance that is characterized
by all of the following except
a. Appears condensed and darkly staining in the nucleus
of the cell
b. Is the genetically inactive area of the nucleus
c. Replicates in the later parts of the S phase
d. Is the pale staining uncoiled areas in the cell
179) Histones are thought to be
180) A chromosomal trisomy is a term that is used to
describe what chromosomal characteristic?
181) Which is not one of the phases of mitosis?
182) What is the programmed cell death that is
associated with normal physiology known as?
183) A patient being seen in by the oncology practice
has been informed that his lab results are showing low
levels of leukemic cells but has been reassured that he
is in remission. What is this condition known as?
184) The in vitro method of polymerase chain reaction
takes low levels of what substance and amplifies it to
higher quantities for laboratory testing?
185) The physician calls the lab to order ‘the lab test for
DNA deletion’. What test is the physician requesting?
186) Which is the correct order for the four basic phases
of mitotic division?
187) What blood cell would most likely have the highest
concentration of glycogen due to its body defense
functions?
188) In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes
finish arriving at the opposite poles of the dividing cell?
189) What are the base pair combinations of
deoxyribonucleic acid?
The appearance of abnormal cytologic
features and tissue organization
The change from one adult cell type to
another cell type
Organelles
They rupture and release hemoglobin
(hemolysis).
They shrivel up (crenate).
Ribonucleic acid
Hydrolytic enzymes
Chromatin
Spleen and bone marrow
D
Important to structural integrity of
chromatin
A chromosome that fails to separate from
its sister chromatid that leads to a set of
three chromosomes
Cellophase
Apoptosis
Minimal residual disease
ADeoxyribonucleic acid
Southern blot
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Neutrophilic leukocyte
Telophase
Adenine with thymine; cytosine with
guanine
12
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
190) You are the technologist performing polymerase
chain reactions testing today. How long should your
primers segments be?
191) Why is deoxyribonucleic acid sequencing the best
laboratory technique or ‘gold standard’?
192) The Southern blot procedure examines what
proximal product of gene expression?
193) The normal sequence of blood cell development is
194) The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte
(platelet) is
195) The maturational sequence(s) of the erythrocyte is
(are)
196) The cell maturation sequence of the segmented
neutrophil is
197) As a blood cell matures, the overall cell diameter in
most cases
198) As a blood cell matures, the ratio of nucleus to
cytoplasm (N:C) in most cases
199) The chromatin pattern, in most cells, as the cell
matures
200) The presence of nucleoli is associated with
a. immature cells
b. all young cells, except myeloblasts
c. only erythroblasts
d. disintegrating cells
201) In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the
cytoplasm of the cell
Describe the cellular characteristics of the appropriate
mature leukocyte.
202) Segmented neutrophil
203) Monocyte
204) Lymphocyte
205) Band form neutrophil
206) Eosinophil
207) Choose the most immature form of stem cell found
in the human body.
208) The multipotential hematopoietic stem cell found in
the bone marrow can produce
209) What is the name of the connective tissue cell that
originates from mesenchymal origins?
210) These cells are present several days after
fertilization and can develop into any cell type except
they cannot become a fetus. Name this cell.
A. Multipotential
B.
Pluripotential
C.
Totipotential
D. Omnipotential
16–20 base pairs
It displays the exact base sequence of a
fragmented specimen.
Fragmented deoxyribonucleic acid
yolk sac—liver and spleen—red bone
marrow
megakaryoblast—promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte
rubriblast—prorubricyte—rubricyte—
metarubricyte—reticulocyte—mature
erythrocyte
myeloblast—promyelocyte—myelocyte—
metamyelocyte—band or stab—segmented
neutrophil (PMN)
decreases
decreases
becomes more clumped
A
light blue and lacks granules
202. Averages approximately 56% of
normal adult leukocytes in the peripheral
blood
203. Kidney bean–shaped nucleus
204. Light, sky-blue cytoplasm
205. An elongated and curved nucleus
206. Large orange granules
Totipotential
Red blood cells
Tissue mast cells
B
13
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
211) This type of cell is derived from pluripotential stem
cells, is found in adults, and is limited to form specific
types of tissues. Name this cell.
212) During the second trimester of pregnancy, which
site becomes the primary site for blood cell
development?
213) . During fetal development, when does the liver
first take over as the primary site for blood cell
development?
214) . During fetal development, when does the bone
marrow become the primary functional location for the
production of blood cells?
215) Bone marrow contains all of the following except
A. Fat tissue
B.
Hematopoietic cells
C.
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
D. Muscle
216) Bone marrow storage and production are most
likely to be found in which areas of an older adult?
217) The progression of multipotential stem cell into
colony-forming units (CFU-GEMM) influences which
cell line(s) development?
218) The hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) that
exist in the bone marrow contain a diverse population
of stromal cells and all of the following except
A. Fibronectin
B.
Collagens
C.
Interleukin-5
D. Proteoglycans
219) Hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPCs) can be
found in what source that can be cryopreserved for
autologous transplantation if needed?
220) The location of erythopoiesis in the adult human is
located within
221) Myeloid cells account for a maximum percentage
of _____ in normal bone marrow?
222) What developmental feature of lymphoid cells
distinguishes them from other cells? Lymphoid cells
develop in the ____, a feature that distinguishes them
223) A macrophage that has ingested iron-rich
hemosiderin is called?
224) When trying to determine the maturity of a cell by
using the nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio (N:C ratio), what
statements about the nucleus is true?
225) In which cell line does the mature cell have an
anuclear appearance?
226) In a mature monocyte, the chromatin pattern is best
described by which statement?
227) In a mature granulocyte, the chromatin pattern is
best described as?
Multipotential
Liver
Second month of gestation
Fourth month of gestation
D
Axial skeleton
Granulocyte-erythrocyte-monocytemegakaryocyte
C
Umbilical cord blood
Erythopoietic islands
85%
Lymphoid follicles
Siderophage
As the N:C ratio decreases, the cell is more
mature.
Erythrocytes
The chromatin pattern is loose and lacy.
The chromatin pattern is highly clumped.
14
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
228) All of the following mature cells have segmented
nuclei attached by fine filaments, except
A. Monocytes
B.
Neutrophils
C.
Eosinophils
D. Basophils
229) A mature lymphocyte’s nuclear shape is best
described by which statement?
230) When examining a Wright-stained blood smear, the
smear appears to have many cells with a high N:C ratio
and dark-blue staining cytoplasm. The cells staining
dark blue are ___.
231) Which cell line does not exhibit granules during the
entire maturation sequence?
232) In which cell line are you most likely to observe
pseudopod formation?
233) In which cell line are you most likely to observe
vacuolization throughout its life cycle?
234) All of the following situations may cause cells to
exhibit vacuoles except
A. Bacterial infection
B.
Viral infection
C.
Malignancies
D. Slow blood flow during the collection process
235) In which cell line are you most likely to see a paleblue cytoplasm in a normal mature cell?
236) The presence of nucleoli in cells is associated with
Match the Growth Factors with the cells
237) EPO
238) IL-7
239) IL-15
240) IL-4
241) G-SF
What test measures the percentage of blood volume
that consists of erythrocytes by measuring the ratio
of packed red blood cells to total blood volume?
What is the normal percentage of erythrocytes in
blood?
Hematocrit measures the percentage of blood
volume that consists of what cells?
What is the most abundant type of WBC?
What WBC is the first to respond to infection?
How do they destroy bacteria?
Which WBCs are the ones that primarily destroy the
dissolved toxins that bacteria secrete into body
fluids?
A
Has a round or oval nucleus that is small
and may contain a cleft
Immature cells
Erythrocytes
Granulocytes
Monocytes
D
Lymphocytes
Ribosomal RNA
237.RBCs
238.T cells
239.NK cells
240.B cells
241.Neutrophils
Hematocrit
45%
erythrocytes
NEUTROPHILS
NEUTROPHILS
Phagocytize bacteria
Neutrophils
15
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
What WBC secretes histamines?
What is it called when it leaves the circulation to
enter the tissues?
Which WBC fights allergies and parasitic infections,
and during these conditions, their numbers increase.
What are MONOCYTES called when they leave the
circulation and enter the tissues?
Which WBCs phagocytize bacteria?
Do monocytes and neutrophils kill viruses?
What WBC kills viruses?
What WBC acts against a specific foreign molecule
What are the two main classes of lymphocytes?
Which WBC attacks organs after an organ transplant?
How do B cells fight infection?
What are the actual cells that produce the antibodies?
What are the two main features of mononucleosis?
BASOPHILS
MAST CELL
EOSINOPHILS
MACROPHAGES
Monocytes (macrophages) and
neutrophils.
No
Lymphocytes (specifically, the Tlymphocytes, also called T-cells)
All lymphocytes (B-cells and T-cells) act
against a specific foreign molecule.
T cells (T-lymphocytes) and B cells (B
lymphocytes)
T cells
by becoming cells that produce
antibodies
Plasma cells
Inflammation of lymph vessels
(lymphangitis)
Infection of B lymphocytes with the
Epstein-Barr virus
T cells (T-lymphocytes).
Which immune system cell type is preferentially
destroyed by the AIDS virus?
By secreting hormones, the thymus causes which
T cells (T-lymphocytes).
cells to become active?
Why are most people sick more often as children than We build up many varieties of memory
as adults in their 20s through 30’s?
lymphocytes during childhood,
providing immunity from more and
more antigens during adulthood
What is a plasma protein involved in blood clotting?
fibrin
What are platelets responsible for?
Blood clotting
List the blood cells in order of longevity (life span),
lymphocytes, erythrocytes, platelets,
from longest—lived to shortest—lived.
neutrophils
What is a condition in which the blood’s capacity for ANEMIA
carrying oxygen is diminished?
What blood disease is a form of anemia where the
THALASSEMIA
RBCs have abnormal hemoglobin that deforms the
cells into strange shapes (target cells, spheres, but not
sickled)
Which form of anemia is found especially in the
SICKLE CELL DISEASE
African race; always characterized by sickle-shaped
erythrocytes
16
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
Which form of anemia is from a single amino acid
mutation resulting in a valine amino acid substituted
for glutamic acid?
Which form of anemia is characterized by very large
erythrocytes?
What type of anemia is from loss of intrinsic factor; a
frequent result of gastric bypass surgery?
What type of anemia can occur due to a blood
transfusion of mismatched blood?
What type of anemia is it when a person cannot
maintain iron in a reduced state?
What type of anemia is from chronic blood loss?
What type of disorder of the blood cells causes them
to shrink over time due to problems with the red
blood cell membrane?
What disorder of blood is characterized by too few
mature white blood cells?
What condition is too few platelets (abnormally low
concentration)?
What is a hereditary disease of males, where they are
unable to clot properly because they are missing some
clotting factors?
What blood type is the universal donor?
What blood type is the universal acceptor?
What disorder happens to an RH positive baby of an
Rh negative mother?
What type of immunity is when the body is naturally
exposed to an infectious agent and launches an
immune reaction?
What type of immunity is when a person receives a
vaccination?
What type of immunity is when a baby receives
antibodies through mother’s milk?
What type of immunity is when a person receives an
infusion of antibodies?
What types of allergies are immediate and deadly?
What type of allergic response is when the body’s
first exposure to the substance will not cause a
reaction, but all exposures afterward will trigger the
response, such as with poison ivy?
What is a hereditary problem where the body thinks
its own tissues are foreign bodies, and it constantly
tries to kill off its own tissues?
SICKLE CELL DISEASE
Megaloblastic anemia
Megaloblastic anemia
Acquired Hemolytic anemia
G6PD deficiency
Hemorrhagic anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
LEUKEMIA
Thrombocytopenia
Hemophilia
Type O negative
Type AB positive
HDN (Hemolytic Disease of the
Newborn)
Naturally acquired active immunity
Artificially acquired active immunity
Naturally acquired passive
Artificially acquired passive immunity
Anaphylactic
Delayed allergic reaction
Autoimmune disease
17
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 1
What can cause hypoxia (decreased oxygen to the
tissues)
What is the antidote for arsenic poison (found in rat
poison)
What is the effect of baby aspirin on prostaglandin
synthesis?
What does a decrease in PG synthesis do to clotting
times?
A) Ischemia (reduced blood flow to a
tissue)
B) Malfunctioning hemoglobin
C) Increasing altitude
I.V. injection of vitamin K
It blocks the ability of COX to cleave
arachidonic acid into prostaglandin
(decreases PG synthesis)
Increases them so it takes longer to form
blood clots
18