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AP 26 TEST BANK 1. A condition of WWI warfare that was NOT present in WWII was a. Trench warfare b. Women in factories c. Use of planes d. Use of submarines e. Rationing 2. American entry into WWI was mostly triggered by a. America’s economic rivalry with Germany b. America’s desire to seize German colonies c. The sinking of American vessels by German U-Boats d. The fall of Paris to the Germans e. The Zimmerman Note 3. The battle of Gallipoli in 1915 was a. An Allied attempt to break into the Black Sea and connect with Russia b. An Allied attempt to break the stalemate of trench warfare in France c. A famous sea battle involving submarines d. That last battle in which Russia played a decisive roles e. A battle in the Alps of Northern Italy 4. The Schlieffen Plan in place in Germany on the eve of WWI a. Warned Germany to beware of the English b. Said to attack and destroy Russia first, then deal with the West c. Advised a naval war using submarines d. Had been altered to bolster Alsace and Lorraine e. Did all of the above 5. During WWI , British Col. T.E. Lawrence worked against the Central Powers by a. Helping Arabs revolt against the Ottoman Empire b. Uncovering the plot of the Zimmerman note c. Encouraging Jewish migration to the Middle East d. Urging the Irish to ignore German scheming e. e.Negotiation with the US to enter the war 6. In the context of WWI, the phrase “total war” referred to a. The bombing of civilians in major cities b. The total conversion of the economy to fulfill wartime needs c. The refusal to take prisoners d. The fighting of the war on multiple continents e. All of the above 7. During WWI , Japan a. Sided with the allies b. Advanced its claims in China c. Became increasingly militaristic d. Secretly issue its “Twenty-One demands” e. Did all of the above 8. The Schlieffen Plan was designed by the German military to A. address U.S. troop deployments in France. B. strengthen the defense of Germany's colonies. C. neutralize Great Britain's naval control of the North Sea. D. avoid the problem of fighting Allied powers on two fronts. 9. Why was the 1914 Battle of the Marne significant to an Allied victory over Germany? A. The battle stopped Germany from a planned invasion of France. B. It allowed Russia time to mobilize its army. C. It prompted Great Britain to enter the war. D. Germany's loss ended hopes for a quick victory on the Western Front. 10. What developed as a consequence of the stalemate that occurred on the Western Front in 1914? A. Trench warfare. B. A lack of casualties on both sides. C. Various calls for cease-fire agreements. D. Established demilitarized zones. 11. World War I resulted in new technologies being first developed and used including A. chemical and biological weapons. B. machine guns, aircraft, and zeppelins. C. submarines and tanks. D. all of the above. 1 AP 26 TEST BANK 12. Why did most combat on the Western Front in World War I take place in a relatively small area? A. There is only a small amount of flat land in all of Europe. B. The armies became immobile because of trench warfare. C. Each side cut off the fuel supply of the other. D. Germany’s military tactics were based on “static warfare.” 13. Which of the following most affected the course and outcome of World War I? A. Allied withdrawal from the Turkish peninsula of Gallipoli. B. British victories in the Sinai that secured the Suez Canal. C. American military and financial intervention in the war. D. The switch in allegiance of Italy from the Central Powers to the Allies. 14. In the early 20th century, before World War I, what France most resented about Germany was a. its build up of a naval force b. its seizure of Alsace and Lorraine in 1871 c. the militaristic attitude of William I d. competition for colonies in Africa e. the big increase in Germany’s armed forces 15. Total war during World War I included A. universal conscription, and naval blockades. B. increased taxes, censorship of the press. C. use of propaganda on both sides and women in the work force. D. all of the above. 16. The book "All Quiet on the Western Front" dealt with life on the front lines from the perspective of which people? A. French. B. British. C. German. D. American. 17. One contribution of overseas colonies to the Allied effort during World War I, was that they provided A. large numbers of soldiers to reinforce the Allied armies. B. protected sites for new Allied industrial factories. C. most of the agricultural labor in the Allied nations. D. places of refuge for displaced Allied civilian populations. 18. Ottoman Turk oppression and persecution of Armenian Christians during World War I resulted in A. between 600,000 and 1.5 million Armenians killed. B. Armenians being deported to Iran and Afghanistan. C. Armenians gaining control of Turkey after World War I. D. Allied forces aiding Armenian guerrilla forces against Germany. 19. Which World War I military tactic of Germany was seen internationally as an atrocity and crime of war? A. The Schlieffen Plan. B. Unrestricted submarine warfare. C. Aerial Dogfight. D. The Armenian massacre. 20. Women’s suffrage was first achieved at the national level in Germany and Great Britain in the period (A) 1848- 1870 (B) 1871-1885 (C) 1886-1900 (D) 1901-1913 (E) 1914-1930 2 AP 26 TEST BANK “We see men living with their skulls blown open; we see soldiers run with their two feet cut off . . . Still the littlest piece of convulsed earth in which we lie is held. We have yielded no more than a few hundred yards of it as a prize to the enemy. But on every yard there lies a dead men.” 21. The quotation above presents a major theme in (A) Emile Zola’s Germinal (B) Albert Camus’s The Stranger (C) T.S. Eliot’s The Waste Land (D) James Joyce’s Ulysses (E) Erich Remarque’s All Quiet on the Western Front 22. Which of the following factors most stimulated the entrance of large numbers of women into the labor force in many European countries during the First World War? (A) The decline in the average size of families (B) The increase in divorce rates (C) Woman suffrage (D) The spread of Wilsonian principles (E) The shortage in the labor supply 23. The primary purpose of the First World War poster shown above was to: (A) encourage women to serve in the armed forces along with men (B) encourage and facilitate female recruitment in the munitions industry (C) encourage men to volunteer for military service (D) evacuate women and children to rural areas for safety (E) persuade families to house soldiers 24. Which of the following authors wrote of the suffering of soldiers fighting during the First World War? (A) James Joyce (B) Charles Baudelaire (C) Erich Maria Remarque (D) Thomas Mann (E) Leo Tolstoi 3 AP 26 TEST BANK 25. In which of the following ways did the Russian revolution affect the course of WWI? A. It gave the Allies a new enemy B. Russia joined the Triple Entente C. Russia withdrew from the war D. It caused the Germans to launch a new offensive in the east E. None of the above 26. World War I had been called a “total war” for all of the following reasons EXCEPT a. Campaigns were fought on every continent b. It involved the whole civilian population of the belliigerents c. The entire resources of the nations at war were marshaled for the war effort d. Those not serving in the military, including women, were expected to work in war plants, buy bonds to support the war, morally back the nation’s aims e. There were more civilian that military casualities 27. All of the following contributed to the outbreak of WWI EXCEPT A. Rival alliances B. Conflicting colonial claims C. Slavic nationalism D. A naval arms race E. Japanese militarism 30. An important cause of the Anglo-German rivalry from the last decades of the 19th century to 1914 was A. Competition in world trade and territorial expansion B. The declining strength of the German navy C. The conflict over the Berlin to Bagdad railway D. Britain’s Entente Coridal with France E. Traditional enmities between the nations 31. The significance of the Algeciras Conference of 1906 was that a. It granted Morocco independence from France b. It gave Germany a foothold in North Africa c. It demonstrated the resolve of the Triple Alliance d. It solidified the rivalry of the two camps, the Triple Alliance and the Triple Entente e. It embarrassed Kaiser Wilhelm II 32. Generally, the offensives on the Western Front a. Made significant territorial gains b. Were minor skirmishes c. Saw the slaughter of massed infantry units d. Were won by the attacking army e. Were fought in one or two days 33. After the assassination of Archduke Ferdinand in June of 1914, the infamous “blank check “ issued by Germany to Austria a. Promised support in whatever action Austria stook against England b. Was matched by a “blank check” from Russia to Serbia c. Encouraged Austrian military against Serbia and Russia d. Created a rift between Russia and France e. Brought an ultimatum from Britain to Germany 34. The German Schlieffen Plan failed for all of the following Reasons EXCEPT a. It was based on the strategy of attrition in a drawn –out war b. Russian mobilization was too swift to allow the “holding action” in the east c. Belgian resistance to their violated neutrality was stiff d. German divisions were transferred from France to East Prussia e. The French counter attack at the Marne was successful 35. Bismarck’s alliance system was designed to isolate France and a. Expand German territory eastward b. Challenge Britain’s dominant world position c. Create rival diplomatic blocs in Europe d. Maintain peace between Russia and Austria-Hungary e. Prevent Russia from moving toward a parliamentary system 4 AP 26 TEST BANK 36. War on the Eastern Front a. Quickly degenerated into static trench warfare b. Was similar in character to that on the Western Front c. Involved a defensive stand by the German armies against the numerically superior Russians d. Was characterized by decisive German victories, horrific Russian losses, and the German acquisition of vast territories e. Was marked by spectacular Austrian victories against the Turks and the Russians 37. Which was an innovation first employed in WWI a. Massed artillery b. Tank warfare c. Naval blockade d. Large-scale infantry assaults over a broad front e. Trench warfare 38. The belligerent nations directed the war effort by instituting all the following controls on their civilian populations EXCEPT a. Press censorship b. Allocation of raw materials for industry c. Mobilization of industrial output for war production d. Outlawing of labor strikes e. Denial of religious freedom 39. The spark that ignited the Balkan “powder keg” was the assassination of a. Archduke Franz Ferdinand b. Emperor Francis Joseph c. Chancellor Bethmann-Holweg d. Tsar Nicholas II e. Tsar Alexander II 40. As a result of the war, all these empires ended EXCEPT a. The French b. The Ottoman c. The Austro-Hungarian d. The Russian e. The German 41. All of the following states were granted independence at the peace conferences that ended WWI EXCEPT a. Poland b. Czechoslavakia c. Yugoslavia d. Hungary e. Romania 42. After the assassination of Russia’s tsar Alexander II in 1881, his successor, Alexander III, adopted the policy of a. Constitutional reform b. Industrialization c. “Orthodoxy, Russification, and Autocracy” d. Westernization e. Modern scientific rationalism 43. What was the social significance of women working in factories during WWi a. Due to the wartime shortage of male workers, even supervisors were women b. Women were found to be more adept than men at close detail work c. Universal suffrage had been granted with the outbreak of war, and women used the vote as leverage for getting industrial jobs d. The vital contribution of women to the war effort helped in their liberation from narrow social roles e. Only women in those days would accept such tedious , menial work “God is on our side, each claimed and fervently believed as they marched off in 1914. They denied themselves the freedom to learn the truth and speak out against the insanity of it all, and they sent a whole generation of their young men to the slaughter.” 44. The “they” in the passage above refers to a. The kaiser’s military High Command b. The British General Staff c. The leaders of the Central Powers d. The czarist government in Russia e. The belligerent nations of WWI 5 AP 26 TEST BANK “ You can no more win a war than you can win an earthquake.” Jeanette Rankin 45. Had the above quote been written in 1914 in one of the warring countries, its writer would likely have been a. Published in the mainstream press b. Applauded by the general public c. Publically debated by an official of the government d. Ostracized and censored e. A member of parliament 46. All were weapons first employed in combat during WWI EXCEPT a. Armored tanks b. Poison gas c. Observation balloons d. Diesel-powered submarines e. Fighter aircraft 47. Which was NOT a provision of the Treaty of Versailles? a. Germany accepted sole responsibility for starting WWI b. Austria was required to pay reparations to the Allies c. Germany was effectively disarmed d. The Rhineland was demilitarized e. Germany was to pay the cost of damage done to the property of Allied citizens 48. All are important reasons for the failure of the League of Nations EXCEPT a. Each member nation of the Assembly got one vote regardless of it power b. The US never joined c. Economic sanctions could be ignored by member nations d. The league could but never did raise an international force to repel aggression e. Italy and Japan’s defence of league mandates in the 1930s reduced its credibility 49. Before it disbanded, the Versailles peace congerence did all of the following EXCEPT a. Set a very high amount of reparations payment b. Limited the German army to 100,000 troops c. Establish the nations of Czechoslavakia and Kingdom of Slav(Yougoslavia) d. Created the League of Nations e. Made Germany sign a war guilt clause 50. Of the three main negotiators at the Paris Peace Conference of 1919, which one was most concerned to make sure that Germany would never threaten again? a. David Lloyd George b. Woodrow Wilson c. Charles deGaulle d. Georges Clemenceau e. e.None of the above 51. What aim did Italian leader Vittorio Orlando have during the creation of the Treaty of Versailles? A. to gain territory from Austria-Hungary B. to assume control of Austria’s industries C. to guarantee the partition of Germany D. to gain possession of Austria’s overseas colonies 52. What basic idea was shared by both Britain and France at the Paris Peace Conference in 1919? A. Italy should give up its colonies in Africa. B. Germany should be divided into occupation zones. C. German military power should be permanently restricted. D. The Central Powers should divide the cost of the war equally. 53. American President Wilson stated that his Fourteen Points would provide a framework for A. a lasting peace. B. determining war reparations. C. expanding colonial empires. D. punishing aggressor nations. 54. Of the nations that signed the Treaty of Versailles, which one failed to join the League of Nations? A. France. B. Great Britain. C. Belgium. D. United States. 6 AP 26 TEST BANK 55. A major goal of both France and Britain at the Conference of Versailles was to A. to assume control of Austria's industry. B. to keep Germany from rebuilding its military. C. help Germany to rebuild its industrial economy. D. to restore pre-war imperial governments to power. 56. Why did the U.S. fail to join the League of Nations? A. Isolationism. B. Lack of support by American public. C. Rejection by the American Senate. D. All of the above. 57. The harsh conditions of the Treaty of Versailles imposed on Germany after the war helped lay the foundation for the A. Bolshevik Revolution in Russia. B. rise of Fascism in Germany. C. fascist uprisings in Italy. D. rise of Japan as an imperial power. 58. Who was the Premier of France who rejected the Fourteen Points and wanted to punish Germany for World War I? A. David Lloyd George. B. Georges Clemenceau. C. Woodrow Wilson. D. Vladimir Lenin. 59. The major impact of the Treaty of Versailles on Germany was that the treaty led to a. an era of peace and international good will in Germany b. a stable Germany that was both democratic and strong c. an increase in Germany’s desire to regain its power and prestige d. a leadership position for Germany in the League of Nations 60. A comparison of two maps indicates that one of the results of the war and the peace treaty was the A. partitioning of Germany into zones of occupation. B. dismemberment of the Austrian-Hungarian Empire. C. shift of the balance of power from Western to Southern Europe. D. new dominant role for Russia in Eastern Europe. 61. The collapse of the Russian and AustroHungarian empires during World War I contributed directly to the a. formation of the European Union. b. start of the Cold War. c. development of the Marshall Plan. d. creation of new nations in Eastern Europe. 62. Which of the following describes the reaction of the German Kaiser following the assassination of the Archduke Franz Ferdinand a. He urged that a European summit be held to possibly bring about a mediated compromise b. He urged Austria to invade Serbia, because he feared that the crisis could destroy Austria c. The Kaiser remained indecisive on what to do and basically waited while events unfurled around him d. The Kaiser immediately sent troops into Russia to make sure the Russians could not come to the aid of their Serbian allies e. The Kaiser urged France and Great Britain to practice restraint before coming to the assistance of the Serbs 7 AP 26 TEST BANK 63. Which of the following did NOT contribute to the outbreak of WWI? a. The Anglo-German rivalry b. The Alliance System c. The rise of a unified Germany as an industrial and military power in Europe d. German military planning e. The remilitarization of the Rhineland 64. The celabratory mood at the outset of WWI is best explained by a. A fascination with militarism that pervaded European culture b. Feelings of fraternity or botherhood that a war effort brought out in people who lived in an increasingly fragmented and dived society c. A sense of romantic adventurim that cast war as an alternative to the mundane, working life of industrial Europe d. Expectations that the war would be short e. All of the above 65. The atmosphere of “celebration” that accompanied the declarations of war in 1914 is partially explained by a. Feeling of brotherhood and glory b. Deep racial hatreds c. Germany’s strong desire to repudiate the humiliating conditions of the Versailles Treaty d. Deep resentment towards the Continental System e. All of the above 66. In the early 20th century, before WWI , what France most resented about Germany was a. It build up of a naval force b. Its seizure of Alsace and Lorraine in 1871 c. The militaristic attitude of William I d. Competition for colonies in Africa e. The big increase in Germany’s armed forces 67. After the assassination of Francis Ferdinand in 1914, Serbia agreed to all of Austria’s demands EXCEPT a. Ending anti-Hapsburg publications b. Allowing Austria to enter Serbia to search out threats c. Bringing and end to Serbian nationalist organizations d. The elimination of certain officials and army officers e. Responding within 48 hours 68. Why did Great Britain, France and Russia form the Triple Entente in 1907? A. To protect their colonies from invasion by other nations. B. To develop an economic alliance based on open markets. C. To suppress minority nationalism in their own countries. D. To respond to the increased military power of Germany. 69. In what ways were the nations of Europe competing for domination of Europe and the world? A. Control of sea lanes for purposes of trade. B. Creation of powerful armies to control continental Europe. C. Forcing European states to become tributaries to dominant European powers. D. Imperialism, militarism, nationalism, and competition for resources. 70. The assassination of ____________ of Austria and his wife by ____________, a member of the terrorist group "Black Hand", led to the start of World War I. A. Winston Churchill / Kaiser Wilhelm II B. George Clemenceau / Otto von Bismark C. Archduke Franz Ferdinand / Gavrillo Princip D. Gavrillo Princip / Kaiser Wilhelm II 71. According to some historians, Europe’s system of alliances prior to 1914 increased the likelihood that A. democratic ideals would spread throughout the continent. B. nations would be protected from economic exploitation. C. colonization of undeveloped nations would cease. D. small disputes would develop into largescale wars. 72. Great Britain’s stated reason for declaring war on Germany in 1914 was the a. French attacks on German colonies. b. U.S. entry into the war. c. Serbian assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand. d. German invasion of Belgium. 8 AP 26 TEST BANK 73. One major reason for the tension between France and Germany before World War I was that a. France had begun to surpass Germnay in industrial output. b. Germany wanted to join the Triple Entente with Great Britain. c. Germany controlled French access to the North Sea. d. France wanted to regain lands previously seized by Germany. 74. What was the consequence of Russia's withdrawal from World War I? A. It strengthened the Allied position by giving them more respect. B. It strengthened the Central Powers by allowing Germany to shift forces to the Western Front. C. It helped Central Powers in the Battle of Gallipoli. D. It strengthened the assault of Italy on the Austrian Empire. 75. How did Russia’s participation in World War I affect its empire? A. A string of decisive military victories gained land from the Central Powers. B. Russia’s sale of supplies to its western allies strengthened its economy. C. The czar adopted the reforms necessary to win the support of the Russian people. D. Economic hardships brought on by the war resulted in the downfall of the czar. 79. In which of the following ways did the Russian revolution affect the course of WWI a. It gave the Allies a new enemy b. Russia joined the Triple Entente c. It cause the Germans to launch a new offensive in the east d. It caused the Germans to launch a new offensive in the East e. None of the above 80. As a result of the Russian “Revolution” of 1905, a. Nicholas II instituted the Duma b. The Bolsheviks gained political power c. A number of political prisoners were released d. The kulaks received more land e. The soviets gained strength 82. The figure most responsible of Russia’s industrialization was a. Gregory Plakhanov b. P.A. stolypin c. Sergei Witte d. Grigory Rasputin e. Vladamir Lenin 83. Which country’s government most aggressively and thoroughly restricted the freedom of Jews during the second half of the 19th century a. France b. Germany c. Austria-Hungary d. Italy e. Russia 90. All of the following were late 19th century Russian authors EXCEPT Tolstoy Dostoevsky Pasternak Turgenev Chekhov 95. The immediate cause of the 1905 Russian Revolution was social strain resulting from (A) the agitation of the Russian Social Democratic party (B) the mass emigration of skilled workers to the New World (C) attempts by the government to reform the Russian Orthodox church (D) the demands of ethnic groups for political autonomy (E) Russian losses in the Russo-Japanese War 96. Which of the following factors most stimulated the entrance of large numbers of women into the labor force in many European countries during the First World War? (A) The decline in the average size of families (B) The increase in divorce rates (C) Woman suffrage (D) The spread of Wilsonian principles (E) The shortage in the labor supply 9 AP 26 TEST BANK 100. As a result of the 1905 Revolution, Tsar Nicholas II of Russia agreed to: (A) withdraw from the Russo-Japanese War (B) break up the system of communal landholding and farming (C) abdicate in favor of his son (D) create a national legislative assembly (E) assist the Pan-Slavic movement in the Balkans 102. Which of the following resulted from the Russian Revolution of 1905? a. Emancipation of the serfs b. Legalization of the Bolshevik party c. Universal suffrage d. A free press e. The creation of the Duma 111. All of the following were results of Russia’s dramatic industrialization on the 1890s EXCEPT a. The doubling of its railroad mileage b. Vastly increased exports c. The growth of the proletariat d. The growth of the commercial middle class e. Private ownership of all industry 112. Which is the best characterization of Lenin’s program at the Russian Marxist Party Conference in Brussels and London, 1903 a. Democratic socialism open to all new members b. Professional revolutionaries with a small, elite leadership c. Rank and file participation in policy formulation d. Party division along the lines of autonomous national groups e. Party cooperation with liberal and socialist parties 113. All are results of the Russo-Japanese War (1904-1905) EXCEPT a. Russian forces were decisively defeated b. Japan was given some of the Sakhalin islands c. Russia was forced to pay Japan indemnity d. Japan got Russia’s railway concessions in Manchuria e. Japan’s Korean protectorate was recognized 114. Which is the most valid statement regarding the October Manifesto ussued by Tsar Nicholas II in 1905? a. It precipitated a general strike that paralyzed the economy b. It brought about significant constitutional reform of the government c. It created the Duma(national legislature), to which the tsar’s ministers were directly responsible d. It was an expedient and temporary promise of reform in response to civil unrest e. It imposed martial law and suppressed antigovernment political activities 115. The Russian people’s support for the Russian participation in WWI changed drastically a. When Rasputin took virtual control of the government b. After the Battles of Masurian Lakes and Tannenberg c. Because the Duma was reconvened in 1916 d. When the Germans and Austrians went on the offensive in 1915 e. After the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917 117. Within a year of the October Revolution, the Bolsheviks had accomplished all of these EXCEPT a. The abolition of the provisional government b. The establishment of the Council of Commissars to rule Russia c. The election of the National Constituent Assembly to frame a new government d. The nationalization of large industries e. The confiscation of Russian Orthodox Church lands 128. Which of the following advocated an evolutionary, as opposed to a revolutionary, theory of Marxism? a. Eduard Bernstein b. V.I. Lenin c. Rosa Luxemburg d. Joseph Stalin e. Leon Trotsky 10 AP 26 TEST BANK 129. Of the following, which of Wilson’s Fourteen Points was fully implanted? (A) “Adequate guarantees given and taken that national armaments will be reduced to the lowest point consistent with domestic safety.” (B) “Open covenants of peace, openly arrived at . . . .” (C) “A free, open-minded, and absolutely impartial adjustment of all colonial claims.” (D) “All French territory should be freed and the invaded portions restored, and the wrong done to France by Prussia in 1871 in the matter of Alsace-Lorraine . . . should be righted . . .” (E) “A readjustment of the frontiers of Italy should be effected along clearly recognizable lines of nationality.” 130. The League of Nations differed from the United Nations in that the League (A) could send troops to any area to stop a war or enforce economic sanctions (B) was not concerned with the improvement of world health standards (C) did not have as members several of the world’s most important industrialized nations (D) had a larger treasury from which to make grants for food and technological assistance (E) had authority to enforce decisions made by the World Court 131. Which of the following best describes a League of Nations “mandate”? (A) A colonial territory assigned to a member nation to be administered for the League (B) A League action requiring parties in a dispute to observe a “cooling-off period” (C) A call on member nations to take action against an aggressor (D) An appointment of a member nation to the Council of the League of Nations (E) A report of a finding by the League that an act of aggression has been committed 132. Which of the following provisions affecting Germany in the Versailles Treaty (1919) was LEAST important in fostering antagonisms that led to the Second World War? (A) The loss of Germany’s Pacific island possessions (B) The creation of the Polish Corridor and the establishment of Danzig as a self-governing city within the Polish tariff area (C) The payment by Germany of reparations for war damages (D) The limitation of the German army to 100,000 members (E) The assignment of sole responsibility for planning and instigating the war to Germany 134. Most historians would agree with which of the following descriptions of the Treaty of Versailles of 1919? (A) A treaty that spelled out the Soviet Union’s reparation obligations (B) A triumph of farsighted political and economic planning (C) A treaty that dismantled the British Empire (D) A destructive peace dictated by the United States (E) A treaty that the defeated thought too harsh and the victors thought too lenient 135. All of the following were among President Wilson’s Fourteen Points EXCEPT (A) an independent Poland (B) absolute freedom of navigation (C) the limitation of armaments (D) the autonomous development of the peoples of Austria-Hungary (E) the autonomous development of the peoples of the Russian Empire 11 AP 26 TEST BANK 135. ‘The Allied and Associated Governments affirm, and Germany accepts, the responsibility of Germany and her allies for causing all the loss and damage…..as a consequence of the War.” —Treaty of Versailles, 1919 Which of the following best states one purpose of the treaty clause above? (A) To give the League of Nations the power to impose economic and military sanctions (B) To provide a basis for international disarmament talks (C) To encourage independence for European colonies (D) To include Germany in the peace negotiations (E) To justify large reparations payments from Germany 136. France regained which of the following as part of the peace settlement after the First World War? (A) Alsace-Lorraine (B) Burgundy (C) Flanders (D) The Rhineland (E) The Ruhr 137. After the First World War, it was difficult to write a peace treaty according to Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points primarily because: (A) the Great Depression caused the Allies to insist on reparations (B) the Allies had secret treaties that conflicted with the Fourteen Points (C) Germany would not accept the Fourteen Points\ (D) Wilson had disavowed the Fourteen Points after Germany resumed unrestricted submarine warfare (E) Wilson and his Fourteen Points were largely unknown in Europe 138. Which of the following empires did NOT collapse as a result of WWI? The Russian The British The German The Austro-Hungarian The Ottoman Turk 139. During WWI, mobilization for war and planned economies helped set the stage for which of the following? Post-war democratic gains An increase in wartime strikes by unions The entrance of women into the workplace after the war Totalitarianism The establishment of laissez faire economies in Europe 140. What is the best characterization of the Treaty of Versailles that ended WWI? It the League of Nations, it established an effective deterrent to future wars It rejected the principle of national selfdetermination It sowed the seeds for the growth of Nazism It served as a foundation for the post-war alliance between Britain and France It ended European imperialism 141. Which was not considered a long-term cause of World War I? The assassination of the Austrian Archduke A system of rival military alliances Nationalism A naval arms race between Germany and Britain Competition for colonies and markets 142. European though in the early 20th century was LEAST influenced by which of the following? The concept of existentialism proffered by Nietzsche The Darwinist concept of evolution The Enlightenment works of Voltaire and Montesquieu Wittgenstein’s ideas of logical positivism The uncertainty principle of Heisenberg The British economist John Maynard Keynes proposed that governments deal with the Great Depression by a. Increasing their expenditures and running temporary deficits b. Decreasing their expenditures c. Tightening the supply of money d. Raising tariffs on imported goods e. Going to war 12 AP 26 TEST BANK The influential theory of the 20th century British economist John Maynard Keynes was that a. Harsh war reparations are a mistake that backfires later b. International free trade should prevail c. Immigration should be regulated d. Governments should stimulate the economy and create jobs in difficult economic times e. Welfare states are necessary The deficit spending theories of this economist were employed by governments attempting to boost GNP during the Great Depression a. Gustav Stresemann b. John Maynard Keynes c. Charles C. Dawes d. Bertrand Russell e. Aristide Briand 13