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Initial results examining the Equity Premium and Volatility puzzles using a modified asset pricing model Oren Shmuel The Graduate Center, City University of New York Current version: June 2015 Abstract I examine the ability of a dynamic asset-pricing model to explain the Equity Premium and the Volatility puzzles. I modify the standard asset pricing model in four aspects. First, I use a time varying price of risk. Second, I incorporate Duesenberryβs demonstration effect. Third, I include tax rates in my model to control for any extreme valuation, relative to GDP, caused by tax rates and not by stock market factors. Fourth, I represent the stock price movement using a right skewed non-Gaussian model (the Gumbel distribution). My results suggest that the model I use can help to better understand both puzzles. I) Introduction The two above puzzles represent the shortcomings of standard asset pricing. The equity premium puzzle emanates from the inability of the theoretical model to explain the empirically observed high equity premium (when the average stock returns so much higher than the average bond returns). It is based on the fact that in order to reconcile the much higher return on stock compared to government bonds in the United States, individuals must have very high risk aversion according to standard economics models. The volatility puzzle manifests itself when the stock market more volatile relative to the consumption volatility. Shiller (1981) found that stock market returns are too volatile relative to the volatility of dividends. One type of tests examines the Euler equation restriction on the product of asset returns with the marginal rate of substitution of the representative agent. The results from this type of tests show that the stock market is still too volatile. When no reasonable parameterizations of the Lucas (1978) asset pricing model, the equity premium puzzle is created because the theoretical equity premium is as large as the empirically observed equity premium. However, the size of the equity premium can not be estimated since there is not enough flexibility in the Lucas model. The Brock (1982) asset Oren Shmuel, The Graduate Center, City University of New York, 365 Fifth Avenue, New York, NY 10016-4309, E-mail: [email protected] , Tel: 914-699-4593 . pricing model can estimate a significant equity premium. Using the Brockβs (1982) asset pricing model, Akdeniz and Dechert (2007) show that there are parameterizations of the Brock model that have equity premia that are more consistent with the empirical evidence than the equity premia that were observed by Mehra and Prescott (1985). Kocherlakota (1996) tries to resolve the equity premium puzzle and the risk free rate puzzle by reviewing the literature. Kocherlakota report the papers that try to explain these two puzzles. Campbell and Cochrane (1999) find the equity premium puzzle using a consumption-based model with external habit formation. They use a power utility and the Sharpe ratio inequality to explain the equity premium puzzle. Campbell and Cochrane (1999) use a discrete time model while I am using a continuous time model. In addition, they use the same utility sensitivity to both the social standard (π½) and the individual consumption (πΌ) while I use different utility sensitivities (πΌ β π½). Constantinides (1990) determines that the Equity Premium pazzle is caused by habit persistence. In this paper, I attempt to modify the standard asset pricing model in four ways. First, I introduce a time varying price of risk (i.e. time varying excess return per unit risk). Second, I introduce the Duesenberryβs demonstration effect [Duesenberry(1949)] and define the Habit formulation. Duesenberryβs demonstration effect is a type of consumption externality where an individualβs utility depends not only upon his consumption level (Ct ) but also upon the social average level (or Habit formation) of consumption ( C t ). I incorporate the Duesenberryβs effect due to its theoretical and empirical attractiveness. Third, I include tax rates in my model to control for any low valuation or high valuation, relative to GDP, caused by tax rates and not by stock market factors. Fourth, I represent the stock price movement using a right skewed nonGaussian model (the Gumbel distribution). To better represent a risk averse investor I use a right skew distribution for the stock price since such a distribution gives higher weight to negative stock return than positive stock return. Economists James Duesenberry and Robert H. Frank, claimed that being aware to the consumption habits of others affects the consumption habits of the individual consumer by emulating the habits of other consumers. Duesenberry (1949) claims that the demonstration effect causes unhappiness with current levels of consumption, which affects savings rates and macroeconomic growth. Ragnar Nurkse (1953) claimed that the exposure to new goods or patterns of living causes unhappiness with normal consumption habits. Such an "international demonstration effect" in developing countries causes increased access to new superior goods because people "come into contact with superior goods or superior patterns of consumption, with new articles or new ways of meeting old wants." Thus, people in such developing countries are "apt to feel after a while a certain restlessness and dissatisfaction. Their knowledge is extended, their imagination stimulated; new desires are aroused" (Nurkse quoted in Kattel et al. 2009, p. 141). The paper is organized as follows: In section II, the theoretical model is presented. Section III derives the closed form solution of the theoretical model. Section IV provides solutions to the equity premium and volatility puzzles. Section V concludes. 2 II) The Model I assume the utility function for the representative agent in this economy to be of the following power type: 1 π’(πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) = πΌ πΆπ‘ πΌ πΆπ‘ (1) π½ where Ct is the per capita consumption rate and C t is the social average consumption rate at time t (or habit behavior), πΌ is the utility sensitivity to the individual consumption (i.e. elasticity of consumption substitution or the risk aversion parameter) and π½ is utility sensitivity to the social standard. C t (the Habit formation) is defined by: π‘ πΆπ‘ = πΆ0 π βππ‘ + π β«0 π π(π βπ‘) πΆ(π )ππ (2) Thus, the coefficient of absolute risk aversion is: π½ (πΌ β 1) πΆπ‘ πΌβ2 πΆπ‘ π’β²β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) 1βπΌ ) π΄(πΆπ‘ = β [ ] = β[ ] = π½ πΆπ‘ π’β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) πΆπ‘ πΌβ1 πΆπ‘ The coefficient of relative risk aversion is: π (πΆπ‘ ) = πΆπ‘ π΄(πΆπ‘ ) = 1 β πΌ Hence, the utility in equation (1) follows Constant Relative Risk Aversion (CRRA). For simplicity, I assume that there are only two assets (without loss of generality), one risky stock and one risk-free bond, to invest in. To better represent a risk averse investor, I use a right skew distribution for the stock price since such a distribution gives higher weight to negative stock return than positive stock return. To represent the stock price motion I use the Gumble probability distribution which is a nonGaussian distribution with an asymmetric right skew. Thus, the formulation of the stock price St is: πππ‘ = [ππ‘ + πππ‘ ]ππ‘ ππ‘ + (3) Where π π β6 π‘ π π π πππ‘ β6 π‘ π‘ is the Gumble distribution standard deviation, ππ‘ + πππ‘ is the Gumble distribution mean, π = 0.577216 the Eulerβs constant, ππ‘ is the distribution scale (i.e. the normal distribution standard deviation) of the price of stock (which is a risky asset), ππ‘ is the distribution location (i.e. the normal distribution mean) of the risky rate of return and πππ‘ is a Wiener process. 3 The percent change, i.e. the return, of the stock price is described as: πππ‘ (4) ππ‘ = [ππ‘ + πππ‘ ]ππ‘ + π π πππ‘ β6 π‘ In McGrattan and Prescott (2001) the authors found that the stock market was neither overvalued nor undervalued in 1962 and 2000. The main reason for the low valuation in 1962 relative to GDP and the high valuation in 2000 relative to GDP is the tax rate on distributions (ππ ) was much higher in 1962 than it was in 2000. Thus, I would like to add tax rates to my model to control for any low valuation or high valuation, relative to GDP, caused by tax rates and not by stock market factors. I define ππ‘ as the wealth before valuation, the tax rate on distributions (ππ ) and the tax rate on corporate income (ππ ). Risky assets (such as stocks) are taxed at the corporate level and then again at the distribution level (dividends). Riskless assets (non stock assets) are taxed only at the distribution level. The change in the per capita wealth ( W t ) is determined by the after tax return from the risky asset (the stock) and the after tax return from the riskless asset (the risk-free bond) less consumption. Hence: πππ‘ = (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ‘ )ππ‘ πππ‘ + (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ ππ‘ (5) πππ‘ ππ‘ β πΆπ‘ ππ‘ where r is risk-free rate of return, Ct is per capita consumption, ππ is the tax rate on distributions, ππ is the tax rate on corporate income, and ο·t is the portion, i.e. weight, of the before tax per capita wealth ( W t ) that is invested in the risky asset. Inserting equation (4) into equation (5) yields the equation governing the changes in the before tax wealth written as follows: (6) πππ‘ = {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ (ππ‘ β π) + πππ‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ ] β (1 β ππ )ππ ππ‘ ππ‘ (ππ‘ + πππ‘ ) β πΆπ‘ }ππ‘ + π + ( 6) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ πππ‘ β where ππ‘ is the before tax per capita wealth, π is risk-free rate of return, ππ‘ is risky rate of return, π€π‘ is the proportion of wealth invested in the risky asset, and πππ‘ is a Wiener process. I define ππ‘ = ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ which can be interpreted as the level of investment in units of risk, and π βπ π΄π‘ = π‘π as the price of the risk (or the excess return per unit risk). I set for the price of risk to π‘ be stochastic so that the rate of return and the volatility rate of the risky asset vary over time. I also assume that the change in the price of risk is represented by a Wiener process. For 4 simplicity, the price of the risk process is set to be perfectly correlated with the process of the risky asset (Ξ¦ = 1). Thus, the process for the price of risk is defined as follows: ππ΄π‘ = π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ + π(π΄π‘ )πππ‘ (7) Using definitions of X t and At , the law of motion of the wealth, equation (6), becomes: (8) πππ‘ = {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β (1 β ππ )ππ [π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ }ππ‘ + π + ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ πππ‘ β6 III) A Closed Form Solution I define the state valuation function, V (.,.), as a function of the two variables, Wt and At. Thus, the maximization problem is: β π(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = max πΈπ‘ β«π‘ π βπ(π βπ‘) π’(πΆπ , πΆπ )ππ (9) Subject to: (7) (8) ππ΄π‘ = π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ + π(π΄π‘ )πππ‘ πππ‘ = {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β (1 β ππ )ππ [π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ }ππ‘ + π + ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ πππ‘ β6 (10) πππ‘ πππ‘ = Ξ¦ ππ‘ = 1ππ‘ where ο² represents the constant utility discount rate, Ξ¦ is the correlation between the price of the risk process and the process of the risky asset, and Et represents the operator for expectations conditional on the information set at time t. The Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman (HJB) equation is derived using the principle of optimality with Itoβs lemma. Itoβs lemma formulation is written as: οΆV οΆV 1 ο¦ο§ οΆ 2V dV (Wt , At ) ο½ dWt ο« dAt ο« ο§ οΆWt οΆAt 2 ο¨ οΆWt 2 οΆ ο¦ 2 ο·ο¨dWt ο©2 ο« 1 ο§ οΆ V ο· 2 ο§ο¨ οΆAt 2 οΈ 5 οΆ ο¦ 2 ο·ο¨dAt ο©2 ο« ο§ οΆ V ο§ οΆW οΆA ο· t t ο¨ οΈ οΆ ο·ο·ο¨dWt ο©ο¨dAt ο© οΈ By dividing both side of the equation by dt I get: (11) dV ο¦ οΆV ο½ο§ dt ο§ο¨ οΆWt οΆο¦ dWt οΆ ο¦ οΆV ο·ο·ο§ ο· ο« ο§ο§ οΈο¨ dt οΈ ο¨ οΆAt οΆο¦ dAt οΆ 1 ο¦ οΆ 2V ο·ο·ο§ ο· ο« ο§ο§ 2 οΈο¨ dt οΈ 2 ο¨ οΆWt οΆο¦ ο¨dWt ο©2 ο·ο§ ο·ο§ dt οΈο¨ οΆ 1 ο¦ οΆ 2V ο·ο« ο§ ο· 2 ο§ οΆA 2 οΈ ο¨ t οΆο¦ ο¨dAt ο©2 ο·ο§ ο·ο§ dt οΈο¨ οΆ ο¦ οΆ 2V ο·ο«ο§ ο· ο§ οΆW οΆA t t οΈ ο¨ οΆ ο¨dWt ο©ο¨dAt ο© ο·ο· dt οΈ Solving the expressions: π (12) πππ‘ ππ΄π‘ = ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ (see Appendix 1) (13) (πππ‘ )2 = ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 (ππ‘ )2 ππ‘ 6 (14) (ππ΄π‘ )2 = [ π(π΄π‘ )]2 ππ‘ β6 π2 Thus Itoβs lemma formulation becomes: (15) Οπ(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = ππ {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β ππ (1 β ππ )[π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ } + 1 π2 πππ ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 (ππ‘ )2 + 2 6 1 π + ππ΄π΄ [ π(π΄π‘ )]2 + πππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ 2 β6 +ππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) + Utilizing the principle of optimality, the Hamilton-Jacobi-Bellman (HJB) equation becomes: (16) Οπ(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = max {π’(πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) + ππ {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β ππ (1 β ππ )[π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ } + ππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) + π 1 π2 1 π ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 (ππ‘ )2 + 2 ππ΄π΄ [ π(π΄π‘ )]2 + 2 ππ 6 πππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ } β6 From the above HJB equation, I can find the two first order conditions for optimality: (17) (18) π’π (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) β ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = 0 π2 ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ )(1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )(π΄π‘ + π) + πππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) ( 6 ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 ππ‘ + π +πππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ ) = 0 β6 6 If Ct* and X t* satisfy the above first order conditions the HJB equation becomes: (19) Οπ(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = π’(πΆπ‘β , πΆπ‘ ) + ππ {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘β + πππ‘β ] β ππ (1 β ππ )[π΄π‘ ππ‘β + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘β ] β πΆπ‘β } 1 π2 1 + ππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) + πππ ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 (ππ‘β )2 + ππ΄π΄ [ π(π΄π‘ )]2 2 6 2 π + πππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘β β6 remember that Ct* and X t* (the optimal choice variables), are functions of the state variables, W and A. To calculate a closed form solution, I make a simplifying assumption: The price of risk follows a stationary lognormal process, and is perfectly correlated with the market risk, thus (20) ππ΄π‘ = π0 π΄π‘ ππ‘ + π0 π΄π‘ πππ‘ Using equations (1) and (20), I verify whether the model allows a closed form solution where both the consumption rate and the risky investment rate are linear function in wealth. Thus, I conjecture the following: (21) πΆπ‘ = πΆ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ (22) ππ‘ = π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ Next, I use the conjecture and verification method to find the form of state valuation function. Using the form of the utility function in equation (1), I conjecture the equation for a state value function to be: (23) π(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ πΌ I will assert the functional form for ο€ ( A) (the discount factor) later. To match the empirical results with the financial data I must use several propositions. Proposition 1: finding πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) (see proof in Appendix 2) βπ½ (24) 1 πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) = (πΆπ‘ )πΌβ1 [πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ]πΌβ1 7 Next, I will formulate the different volatilities in my model. I set ο³ c2 to denote the variance rate of consumption and ο³ W2 denote the variance rate of wealth. Proposition 2: finding ππ (see proof in Appendix 3) π΄π‘ +π β6 ( ) 1β πΌ π ππ = (27) π or π΄π‘ = ππ (1 β πΌ) ( ) β π β6 Proposition 3: finding ππ (see proof in Appendix 4) (28) 1 β6 ππ = ( π ) (πΌβ1)(1βπ π )(1βππ [(πΌ β 1)ππ β ) π(π΄π‘ )πΏ β² (π΄π‘ ) ] πΏ(π΄π‘ ) I conjecture the state valuation function to be of the form as in equation (23). To find an expression for the function ο€ ( A) , I use the above equations to derive a differential equation for ο€ ( A) . The solution for this differential equation will give the correct closed form solution. Since even the simplest differential equation frequently has multiple solutions, my solution cannot be guaranteed to be unique. Proposition 4: finding π0 (π΄π‘ ) and verify my conjecture (see proof in Appendix 5) I define above and in equation (22) that ππ‘ = ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ = π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ that is π0 (π΄π‘ ) = ππ‘ ππ‘ . The proportion of wealth invested in the risky asset, ππ‘ , is proportional to the inverse of the market variance rate, ο³ t . Thus π0 (π΄π‘ ) = π0 , i.e. π0 (π΄π‘ ) does no depend on π΄π‘ . I choose one solution for ο€ ( A) that can create these conditions with parametric restrictions, thus for πΏ(π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 π΄π‘ πΌβ1 (30) I derive 1 1 1 0 = πΌ (πΌβ1) πΎ (πΌβ1) πΏ0 (πΌβ1) πΆπ‘ π½ ( ) 1βπΌ + πΌ(1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) β πΌππ (1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) β βπΌπΆπ‘ [πΌ π0 (π΄π‘ ) = ( π½ ( ) 1βπΌ 1 [πΎπΏ0 πΌ]πΌβ1 π½ 2βπΌ 1 ) ) ( ) ( πΌβ1 (πΏ0 πΎ) πΌβ1 πΆπ‘ 1βπΌ (πΌ β 1)] (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ ) solving for π0 (π΄π‘ ) yields an expression that does not depend on π΄π‘ as per my conjecture. Hence, my conjecture that π0 (π΄π‘ ) = ππ‘ ππ‘ and ππ‘ = π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ is verified. 8 Corollary 5: deriving πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) using the definition for πΏ(π΄π‘ ) πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) = (πΆπ‘ ) (32) ( π½ ) 1βπΌ 1 [πΎπΏ0 πΌ](πΌβ1) π΄π‘ Proof: Insert equation (30) into (24) will yield equation (32) πΏ(π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 π΄π‘ πΌβ1 (30) πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) = (πΆπ‘ ) (24) ( βπ½ ) πΌβ1 1 [πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ](πΌβ1) Corollary 6: deriving ππ using the definition for πΏ(π΄π‘ ) (33) ππ = 1 β6 ( ) [ππ (1βππ )(1βππ ) π β π0 ] Proof: Insert equation (30) into (28) to derive equation (33) πΏ(π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 π΄π‘ πΌβ1 (30) (28) β6 1 ππ = ( π ) (πΌβ1)(1βπ π )(1βππ ) [(πΌ β 1)ππ β π(π΄π‘ )πΏ β² (π΄π‘ ) ] πΏ(π΄π‘ ) IV) Examining the Equity Premium Puzzle and Volatility Puzzle The first step in investigating the puzzles requires that I match the risk-free rate of return ππΆ (r) and the consumption growth rate ( πΆ π‘ ) with real data. In this paper I assumed that the riskπ‘ free rate of return (r) is constant over time. Thus, I can set the constant risk-free rate of return to match the estimate of real average risk-free rate. Using equation (32), I can determine the consumption values and ο€ 0 to fit my estimate of consumption growth rate while taking into account the estimate of the growth of wealth and the price of risk. A) Examining the Equity Premium Puzzle: The formulation for the equity premium derived is: (see proof in Appendix 6) (34) π2 π ππ‘ β π = ππ‘ [βπ + (1 β πΌ)(1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ ππ‘ ( 6 ) + (1 β πΌ)π0 ( )] β6 From equation (34), I can have a high equity premium (ππ‘ β π > 0) without assuming an unreasonable value of the risk aversion parameter, ο‘ . 9 Since ππ‘ > 0 , to create a scenario of the equity premium puzzle the condition should be: π2 π (1 )(1 )π βπ + β πΌ)(1 β ππ β ππ π‘ ππ‘ ( ) + (1 β πΌ)π0 ( ) > 0 6 β6 Hence π0 > π2 π β (1 β πΌ)(1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ ππ‘ ( 6 ) π (1 β πΌ) ( ) β6 π π = [ ] β ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ ππ‘ π β6 (1 β πΌ) ( ) β6 Since ππ‘ > 0 , ππ‘ > 0 , ππ < 1 , ππ < 1 then π πππ₯(π0 ) = [ ] π (1 β πΌ) ( ) β6 In addition, given g0 and ππ‘ , the equity premium (ππ‘ β π ) moves with the variance rate of market portfolio (ππ‘ 2 ) in the same direction. B) Examining the Volatility Puzzle: From equation (27), I can choose the value of elasticity of consumption substitution (πΌ) together with my estimate of the price of risk (π΄π‘ ). This allows me to find the average consumption volatility (ππ ). I derive the following (see proof in Appendix 7) (39) ππ β ππ = 1 β6 ( ) [ππ (1βππ )(1βππ ) π β π0 ] β ππ I can to create a scenario of the volatility puzzle by requiring: ππ β ππ = 1 β6 ( ) [ππ (1βππ )(1βππ ) π β π0 ] β ππ > 0 Hence ππ [1 β ( π ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ ) ] > π0 β6 If the π0 requirement is met then there is more volatile stock market relative to the consumption volatility and a Volatility Puzzle scenario exists. 10 C) Examining both the Equity puzzle and the Volatility Puzzle simultaneously: Using the results from parts A and B above, the required condition for a simultaneous scenario for both puzzles to exist is defined by: π π π ππ [1 β ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ ) ] > π0 > [ ] β ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ ππ‘ π β6 β6 (1 β πΌ) ( ) β6 V) Conclusion In this paper I try to theoretically determine conditions for two puzzles. The Equity Premium puzzle occurs when the average of stock returns are so much higher than the average of bond returns. The Volatility puzzle occurs when the stock market is much more volatile relative to the consumption volatility. I have designed a methodology to help understanding, at least theoretically, these two puzzles by improving the standard asset pricing model. First, I use a time varying price of risk (i.e. time varying excess return per unit risk). Second, I implement the Duesenberryβs demonstration effect and define the Habit formulation. Duesenberryβs demonstration effect is a type of consumption externality where an individualβs utility depends not only upon his consumption level but also upon the social average level (or Habit formation) of consumption. Third, I include tax rates in my model to control for any low valuation or high valuation, relative to GDP, caused by tax rates and not by stock market factors. Fourth, I represent the stock price movement using a right skewed non-Gaussian model (the Gumbel distribution). The results suggest that the model I use can help to better understand both the equity premium and the volatility puzzles. 11 Appendices: Appendix 1: deriving equation (12) (12) πππ‘ ππ΄π‘ = [{(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β (1 β ππ )ππ [π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ }ππ‘ + π + ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ πππ‘ ] {π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ + π(π΄π‘ )πππ‘ } = β6 = {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β (1 β ππ )ππ [π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ } π(π΄π‘ )(ππ‘)2 + +{(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘ + πππ‘ ] β (1 β ππ )ππ [π΄π‘ ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘ ] β πΆπ‘ } π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘πππ‘ + π + ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘πππ‘ + β6 π + ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ π(π΄π‘ )πππ‘ πππ‘ = β6 π = ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ π(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ β6 Since ο¨dt ο© ο½ dtdzt ο½ 0 and dzt dzt ο½ dt 2 Appendix 2: Proof of Proposition 1 Insert equations (1), (21) and (23) into (17). (17) π’π (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) β ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = 0 where (25) π’π (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) = 1 πΌ πΌπΆπ‘ πΌβ1 πΆπ‘ π½ and (26) ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 Inserting all into equation (17) I get π½ [πΆ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ ]πΌβ1 πΆπ‘ = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 Solving for πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) will derive equation (24) 12 Appendix 3: Proof of Proposition 2 The law of motion of the percent change in consumption is: dCt ο¦ dC οΆ 2 ο½ ο c dt ο« ο³ c dz t ο var ο§ ο· ο½ ο³ c dt Ct ο¨ C οΈ The differential on consumption is: dc ο½ CW (W , A)dW ο« C A (W , A)dA Inserting the consumption differential formulation into the variance yields: 1 ο¦ dC οΆ ο¦1 οΆ ο· ο½ var ο§ CW (W , A)dW ο« C A (W , A)dA ο· ο½ C ο¨ C οΈ ο¨C οΈ ο³ c2 dt ο½ var ο§ 2 2 2 ο¦C οΆ ο¦C οΆ ο¦1οΆ ο½ ο§ W ο· var( dW ) ο« ο§ A ο· var( dA) ο« 2ο§ ο· CW C ACov( dW , dA) ο½ ο¨C οΈ ο¨ C οΈ ο¨ C οΈ 2 1 π = { [πΆπ ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π + π(π΄)πΆπ΄ ]} ππ‘ πΆ β6 Therefore, ππ = 1 πΆ π [πΆπ ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π + π(π΄)πΆπ΄ ] β6 ο Next, I calculate the partial derivatives with respect to W and A on equation (17). Thus, VW W (W , A) ο½ u ο’ο’(C , C )CW , VW A(W , A) ο½ u ο’ο’(C , C )C A . and Now, inserting the above two equations and equation (17) into (18) will result in the following: (22) π2 ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ )(1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )(π΄π‘ + π) + πππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) ( 6 ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 ππ‘ + +πππ΄ ( π ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π(π΄π‘ ) = 0 β6 π2 π’β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ )(1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )(π΄π‘ + π) + π’β²β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ )πΆπ ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 ππ‘ + 6 +π’β²β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ )πΆπ΄ ( π ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π(π΄π‘ ) = 0 β6 13 thus π’β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ )(π΄π‘ + π) + π’β²β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) {πΆπ ( π2 π ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ + πΆπ΄ ( ) π(π΄π‘ )} = 0 6 β6 Dividing both sides by π’β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ), and using the expression for ο³ c and the coefficient of Absolute risk Aversion found above I have the following: (π΄π‘ + π) + π’β²β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) π2 π {πΆπ ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘ + πΆπ΄ ( ) π(π΄π‘ )} = 0 6 π’β² (πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) β6 hence (π΄π‘ + π) + πΌβ1 π ( ) ππ πΆπ‘ = 0 πΆπ‘ β6 Solving for ππ I find equation (27). Appendix 4: Proof of Proposition 3 Insert equations (23) into (18) (18) π2 ππ (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )(π΄π‘ + π) + πππ ( 6 ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 ππ‘ + π +πππ΄ ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π(π΄π‘ ) = 0 β6 and from equation (20) π(π΄π‘ ) = π0 π΄π‘ since from equation (23) (23) π(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ πΌ the partial derivatives are: ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 πππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ(πΌ β 1)ππ‘ πΌβ2 πππ΄ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ β² (π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 14 I insert the above partial derivatives and equation (27) into equation (18) and derive π 6 1 (29) ππ‘ = (βπ ) (πΌβ1)(1βπ π‘ π )(1βππ ) [βπ΄π‘ β π(π΄π‘ )πΏ β²(π΄π‘ ) ] πΏ(π΄π‘ ) β6 1 = ( π ) (πΌβ1)(1βπ π )(1βππ ) [(πΌ β 1)ππ β π(π΄π‘ )πΏ β² (π΄π‘ ) ] πΏ(π΄π‘ ) Remember ο³ t2 ο½ ο¨1 ο ο·t ο©2 ο³ c2 ο« ο¨ο·t ο©2 ο³ W2 ο« 2(1 ο ο·t )ο·tο³ cο³ W ο¦ where ο³ t is the standard deviation of At ,which is the price of risk. ο³ W is the standard deviation of the stock market. ο³ c is the standard deviation of consumption. ο· t is the portion of the portfolio that is invested in risky assets (i.e. the stock market). From the above equation I can see that when ο·t ο½ 1 then ο³ t ο½ ο³ W . Since I defined X t ο½ ο³ tο·tWt thus when ο·t ο½ 1 and ο³ t ο½ ο³ W I get X t ο½ ο³ W 1Wt Noting that ο³ W ο½ X and ππ = W π΄π‘ 1β πΌ from proposition 2, (29) becomes (28). Appendix 5: Proof of Proposition 4 Insert equations (1), (20)-(24), (27), (28) and (30) into (19). Then I can derive a differential equation for the function ο€ ( A) . That is, (21) πΆπ‘ = πΆ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ (22) ππ‘ = π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ (23) (24) (20) π(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ πΌ πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) = (πΆπ‘ ) βπ½ πΌβ1 1 [πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ]πΌβ1 ππ΄π‘ = π0 π΄π‘ ππ‘ + π0 π΄π‘ πππ‘ That is π(π΄π‘ ) = π0 π΄π‘ and π(π΄π‘ ) = π0 π΄π‘ (1) 1 π’(πΆπ‘ , πΆπ‘ ) = πΌ πΆπ‘ πΌ πΆπ‘ 15 π½ Using equations (1), (21) and (24) I get: π’(πΆπ‘β , πΆπ‘ ) π½ πΌ 1 β πΌ π½ 1 π½ 1 ( ) 1βπΌ πΌ πΌ πΌβ1 (ππ‘ ) (πΆπ‘ ) = (πΆπ‘ ) (πΆπ‘ ) = [πΆ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ ] (πΆπ‘ ) = [πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ] πΌ πΌ πΌ From (23) the partial derivatives are calculated: ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 πππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ(πΌ β 1)ππ‘ πΌβ2 πππ΄ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ β² (π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 ππ΄ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ β² (π΄π‘ ) ππ‘ πΌ ππ΄π΄ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ β²β² (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ πΌ using equation (30) (30) πΏ(π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 π΄π‘ πΌβ1 thus πΌβ1 πΏ β² (π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 (πΌ β 1)π΄π‘ πΌβ2 = πΏ(π΄π‘ ) ( ) π΄π‘ πΏβ²β² (π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 (πΌ β 1)(πΌ β 2)π΄π‘ πΌβ3 = πΏ(π΄π‘ ) (πΌ β 1)(πΌ β 2) π΄2π‘ Now, insert the above equations into (19) (19) Οπ(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = π’(πΆπ‘β , πΆπ‘ ) + ππ {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ ππ‘β + πππ‘β ] β ππ (1 β ππ )[π΄π‘ ππ‘β + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + πππ‘β ] β πΆπ‘β } 1 π2 1 ) + ππ΄ π(π΄π‘ + πππ ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 (ππ‘β )2 + ππ΄π΄ [ π(π΄π‘ )]2 2 6 2 π + πππ΄ π(π΄π‘ ) ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )ππ‘β β6 16 thus I get: (31) ΟπΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ πΌ = 1 π½ [πΆ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ ]πΌ (πΆπ‘ ) + πΌ +πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 {(1 β ππ )[πππ‘ + π΄π‘ π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ + ππ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ ] β ππ (1 β ππ )[π΄π‘ π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ + ππ‘ ππ‘ π + ππ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ ] β πΆ0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ } + 2 πΌβ1 1 πΌβ2 π +πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ ) ( ) ππ‘ πΌ π0 π΄π‘ + πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ(πΌ β 1)ππ‘ ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 [π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ ]2 π΄π‘ 2 6 (πΌ β 1)(πΌ β 2) πΌ 1 + πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ ) ππ‘ [ π0 π΄π‘ ]2 + 2 π΄2π‘ + πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ ) ( πΌβ1 π ) πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 π0 π΄π‘ ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ )ππ‘ π΄π‘ β6 I insert equations (24) and (30) into equation (31) βπ½ 1 (24) πΆ0 (π΄π‘ ) = (πΆπ‘ )πΌβ1 [πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ]πΌβ1 (30) πΏ(π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 π΄π‘ πΌβ1 and arrive at 1 1 1 (31) 0 = βΟ + π΄π‘ {πΌ (πΌβ1) πΎ (πΌβ1) πΏ0 (πΌβ1) πΆπ‘ βπΌπΆπ‘ ( π½ ) 1βπΌ ( π½ ) 1βπΌ + πΌ(1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) β πΌππ (1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) β 1 [πΎπΏ0 πΌ]πΌβ1 } + +πΌ {(1 β ππ )[π + ππ0 (π΄π‘ )] β ππ (1 β ππ )[ππ‘ π + ππ0 (π΄π‘ )]} + (πΌ β 1)π0 1 π2 2 2 2 + πΌ(πΌ β 1)(1 β ππ ) (1 β ππ ) [π0 (π΄π‘ )] ( ) + 2 6 1 π + (πΌ β 1)(πΌ β 2)[ π0 ]2 + πΌ(πΌ β 1)π0 (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) ( ) 2 β6 I would like to verify that π0 (π΄π‘ ) does not depend on π΄π‘ . 17 Thus, I solve equation (31) for π0 (π΄π‘ ) . After equating the coefficient of π΄π‘ to zero (to eliminate the direct effect of π΄π‘ on π0 (π΄π‘ ) ), I am left with 1 1 1 0 = πΌ (πΌβ1) πΎ (πΌβ1) πΏ0 (πΌβ1) πΆπ‘ π½ ( ) 1βπΌ + πΌ(1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) β πΌππ (1 β ππ )π0 (π΄π‘ ) β βπΌπΆπ‘ π½ ( ) 1βπΌ 1 [πΎπΏ0 πΌ]πΌβ1 And solving for π0 (π΄π‘ ) yields a function that does not depend on π΄π‘ as per my conjecture. π0 (π΄π‘ ) = (πΌ) ( π½ 2βπΌ 1 ) ( ) (1βπΌ) πΌβ1 (πΎπΏ0 ) πΌβ1 πΆπ‘ (πΌ β 1) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ ) Appendix 6: deriving equation (34) Insert π΄π‘ = ππ‘ β π ππ‘ , ππ‘ = ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ , π(π΄π‘ ) = π΄π‘ π0 equations (30) and (23) into equation (18) (18) π2 ππ (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )(π΄π‘ + π) + πππ ( 6 ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 ππ‘ + +πππ΄ ( π ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π(π΄π‘ ) = 0 β6 given π(ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )ππ‘ πΌ (23) πΏ(π΄π‘ ) = πΏ0 π΄π‘ πΌβ1 (30) The partial derivatives are: ππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 πππ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ(πΌ β 1)ππ‘ πΌβ2 πΌβ1 πππ΄ (ππ‘ , π΄π‘ ) = πΎπΏ β² (π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 = πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ ) ( ) πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 π΄π‘ 18 Inserting the above into equation (18) πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )(π΄π‘ + π) + πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ )πΌ(πΌ β 1)ππ‘ πΌβ2 π2 ( ) (1 β ππ )2 (1 β ππ )2 ππ‘ ππ‘ ππ‘ + 6 πΌβ1 π +πΎπΏ(π΄π‘ ) ( ) πΌππ‘ πΌβ1 ( ) (1 β ππ )(1 β ππ )π0 π΄π‘ = 0 π΄π‘ β6 Inserting π΄π‘ = ππ‘ βπ ππ‘ and solving for ο ο r will yield equation (34). 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