* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Download Children`s infectious diseases
Herd immunity wikipedia , lookup
Globalization and disease wikipedia , lookup
Vaccination policy wikipedia , lookup
Urinary tract infection wikipedia , lookup
Gastroenteritis wikipedia , lookup
Common cold wikipedia , lookup
Immunocontraception wikipedia , lookup
Schistosomiasis wikipedia , lookup
Marburg virus disease wikipedia , lookup
Henipavirus wikipedia , lookup
Human cytomegalovirus wikipedia , lookup
Hospital-acquired infection wikipedia , lookup
Neonatal infection wikipedia , lookup
Hepatitis C wikipedia , lookup
Infection control wikipedia , lookup
Childhood immunizations in the United States wikipedia , lookup
1 What system is most sensible to the virus of poliomyelitis? A. Nervous system B. Cardio-vascular system C. Lymphatic system D. Bone-muscular system E. System of blood ANSWER: A 2 What vaccination is done for the prophylaxis of poliomyelitis? A. Specific active prophylaxis by anatoxin B. Specific active prophylaxis by the living attenuated vaccine C. Unspecific active prophylaxis D. By specific Ig E. Specific active prophylaxis by the killed vaccine ANSWER: B 3 When vaccination against poliomyelitis is performed? A. From 3 months triply with an interval 1 week B. In 1 year, 3 and 6 years C. Only by an epidemic testimony D. From 3 months triply with an interval 1 month E. First day, 1, 6 months ANSWER: D 4 Indicate the way of vaccine introduction against poliomyelitis at the third vaccination and next revaccinations. A. Through a mouth B. Subcutaneously C. Intracutaneously D. Intramuscularly E. Intranasal ANSWER: A 5 What is the characteristic pose of children who have poliomyelitis? A. The Lessage symptom B. Orthopnoe C. Pose of ballet-dancer D. Pose of frog E. A symptom of tripods ANSWER: E 6 Enteroviral infections are caused: A. By rheovirus B. By herpes virus C. By poliomyelitis virus D. By the respiratory syncitial virus E. By ЕCНО and Coxacie viruses ANSWER: E 7 The way of the Enteroviral infection transmission is: A. contact-domestic and water B. water, domestic and transmissive C. orally-fecal and air-droplet D. transmissive and ascending E. air-droplet and domestic ANSWER: C 8 More frequent entrance gate (atrium) of Enteroviral infection is: A. Wound surface B. Mucus membranes of the pharynx and intestine C. Mucus membranes of the upper respiratory tracts and stomach D. Mucus membranes of the intestine E. Lymphatic and blood circulatory system ANSWER: B 9 What are the typical clinical signs of Enteroviral infection? A. Meningeal signs B. Sings of conjunctivitis and rhinitis C. Presence of papulous rashes and itch D. Hectic temperature and signs of intoxication E. Hyperemia of the face and neck, sometimes with appearance of the maculo-papulous rashes ANSWER: E 10 Medical tactic at enteroviral infection is: A. Diet. Only pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment. B. Specific treatment is not present. Antibiotics and symptomatic treatment. C. Diet. Antiviral and pathogenetic therapy. D. No diet. Gamma-globulin and RNA-sum is specific treatment. E. A diet is not appointed. Antibiotics and dehydration treatment. ANSWER: D 11 What is the specific prophylaxis of enteroviral infection? A. Vaccination by inactivated vaccines in age of 1 year. B. A specific prophylaxis is absent C. Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 3 and 9 years. D. Specific Ig injection in 3 months. E. Specific Ig injection in 15 months. ANSWER: B 12 Indicate preventive measures in the focus of enteroviral infection: A. Supervision after patients and contacts, final disinfection B. Hospitalization of sick and contacts for 10 days, current disinfection C. Hospitalization of patients, isolation of contacts for 14 days, current disinfection D. The supervision after patients, isolation of contacts for 7 days, final disinfection E. Supervision after patients and contacts, giving them interferon ANSWER: C 13 What medicine is given to the children in the focus of enterovirus infection? A. Gamma-globulin and interferon for 14-15 days B. Anaferon for 10 days C. Antibiotics for 5 days D. Specific Ig for 3 days E. Specific anatoxin for the first 2 days ANSWER: A 14 The influenza virus contains: A. hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. B. hemagglutinin and reverse transcriptase. C. hemolysin and revertase. D. hemolysin and neuraminidase. E. hemagglutinin and mucinase. ANSWER: A 15 How many time will last immunity of organism to the influenza B virus after the disease? A. 14 - 21 day B. 1 - 2 months C. 1 - 2 years D. 3 - 5 years E. during all the life ANSWER: D 16 What etiotrope medicine will be the most effectively in case of severe influenza in the 1 years old child? A. Remantadin B. Amantadin C. Interferon D. Laferon E. Influenza immune globulin ANSWER: E 17 What serological method could be used to put diagnosis of influenza? A. Braked hemagglutination reaction B. Complement binding reaction C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction D. Neutralization reaction E. Direct hemagglutination reaction ANSWER: A 18 Name a leading syndrome at patients with the Respiratory-syncitial infection (for children of early age): A. Toxic. B. Catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract. C. Obstructive. D. Asthenia. E. Dyspepsia. ANSWER: C 19 The source of adenoviral infection is: A. Patients with the typical and atypical forms of adenoviral infection. B. People and birds with adenoviral infection. C. Patients with adenoviral infection and transmitters of adenovirus. D. People and small mammals with adenoviral infection. E. People and animals with adenoviral infection. ANSWER: C 20 Which method of express-diagnostics is better to use for adenovirus infection diagnosis? A. The separation of the virus on tissue culture B. Immunofluorescent method C. Serological investigation D. Bacteriological investigation E. Bacteriosсopy investigation of pharyngeal swab ANSWER: B 21 What features of shigellosis are typical for infants? A. A continuously relapsed course. B. Absence of inflammation signs at sigmoscopy. C. Feces often without fecal mass. D. Expressed vomits and frequent regurgitation. E. In 20 % develops neurotoxicosis. ANSWER: E 22 What is the duration of furazolidone treatment (to the child of 1 year) in case of acute mild shigellosis? A. 3 days. B. 5 days C. 7 days. D. 10 days. E. 14 days. ANSWER: B 23 When the course of shigellosis becomes chronic? A. If it lasts for 3 weeks. B. If it lasts for 1 month. C. If it lasts from 1.5 till 3 months. D. If it lasts for 3 months. E. If it lasts more than 3 months. ANSWER: E 24 Indicate the mechanism of shigellosis transmission. A. by food B. by water C. fecal-oral D. contact-domestic E. air-droplet ANSWER: C 25 Indicate the typical signs of colitis syndrome in case of shigellosis: A. liquid feces with undigested meal; B. watery feces which looks like a rice-water; C. pain in epigastrium, nausea, vomiting; D. paroxysmal stomach-ache, tenesmus, «rectal spit»; E. yellow-orange feces with mucus in a small amount. ANSWER: D 26 Contact persons in case of shigellosis are observed during: A. 5 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of feces B. 7 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of feces C. 7 days and 2 bacteriological inspections of feces D. 10 days and 2 bacteriological inspections of feces E. 14 days and 3 bacteriological inspections of feces ANSWER: B 27 What form of salmonellosis is the most often in newborns? A. gastrointestinal (gastritis); B. gastrointestinal (gastroenteritis); C. gastrointestinal (enterocolitis); D. septic; E. typhoid. ANSWER: D 28 Main sign of salmonellosis is: A. respiratory syndrome; B. rash; C. hyperthermia; D. disuria; E. dyspepsia. ANSWER: E 29 Typhoid form of salmonellosis is not characterized by: A. hectic fever; B. toxic syndrome; C. roseols rush on skin; D. osteomyelitis; E. dyspepsia. ANSWER: D 30 What dose of fluorquinolones is used to treat severe cases of salmonellosis? A. 10-20 mg/kg per day, B. 40-50 mg/kg per day, C. 50-100 mg/kg per day, D. 150 mg/kg per day, E. 200 mg/kg per day. ANSWER: A 31 Which from the representatives of the E.coli family cause coli enteritis in infants? A. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine B. enteropathogenic E.coli C. enteroaggregative E.coli D. enteroinvasive E.coli E. enterohemolytic E.coli ANSWER: B 32 What method will prove the etiology of acute intestinal infection? A. Serological B. Biological C. Allergic D. Microscopic E. Bacteriological ANSWER: E 33 Which from the representatives of the E.coli family cause the dysentery-like disease at children elder than 1 year and adults? A. enteroinvasive E.coli B. enteropathogenic E.coli C. enteroaggregative E.coli D. enterohemolytic E.coli E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine ANSWER: A 34 Which from the representatives of the E.coli family cause the cholera-like diseases? A. enteroinvasive E.coli B. enteropathogenic E.coli C. enterotoxigenic E.coli D. enterohemolytic E.coli E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine ANSWER: C 35 Indicate the source of illness at Rotavirus infection: A. sick man; virus carrier; B. virus carrier; C. sick animal; virus carrier; D. sick birds E. sick animal; sick man; ANSWER: A 36 Indicate the basic mechanism of Rotavirus infection transmission: A. air-droplet; B. fecal-oral; C. transmissive; D. contact E. alimentary. ANSWER: B 37 What formula is given to the children in case of Rotavirus infection? A. with probiotics; B. for preterm infants; C. sour-milk; D. containing soya; E. lactose-free. ANSWER: E 38 Rotavirus infection is characterized by such syndromes: A. cardio-vascular; toxic; respiratory; B. dyspepsia; dehydration. C. cardio-vascular; dyspepsia; dehydration. D. toxic; dyspepsia; dehydration. E. cardio-vascular; respiratory; dehydration. ANSWER: D 39 What from laboratory methods are used in early diagnostics of Rotavirus infection? A. bacteriological; B. koprogram; C. reaction of binding the complement; D. method of immune-enzyme analysis; E. reaction of neutralization. ANSWER: D 40 What features of respiratory syndrome are typical for Rotavirus infection? A. expressed catharrhal signs; B. mild catharrhal signs; C. long lasting catharrhal signs; D. moderate throat hyperemia; E. expressed throat hyperemia ANSWER: E 41 What is the stools character in case of Rotavirus infection? A. «sprinkling», colorless, watery; B. in a small amount, with mucus, blood; C. watery, bright-yellow with the two-bit of mucus; D. muddy with large amount of mucus E. with undigested parts of food. ANSWER: A 42 Indicate the etiology of the intestinal yersiniosis. A. Yersinia frederiksenia B. Yersinia intermedia C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D. Yersinia enterocolitica E. Yersinia pestis ANSWER: D 43 Indicate the main ways of the intestinal yersiniosis transmission. A. fecal-oral, contact-domestic B. by food, water C. contact, water D. by food, contact E. droplet, contact ANSWER: B 44 Name the clinical periods of intestinal yersiniosis. A. Incubation, height, recovery B. Incubation, initial, height, recovery C. Initial, height, recovery D. Initial, height, exacerbation, recovery E. Initial, height, recovery, relapses ANSWER: C 45 What part of the intestinum is damaged more frequently in case of intestinal yersiniosis? A. cecum, ascending and transversal colon B. cecum, appendix C. duodenum, small intestinum, cecum D. Terminal department of small intestinum, cecum, appendix E. Descending colon, sygmoid colon ANSWER: D 46 What changes in complete blod test will be present in case of intestinal yersiniosis? A. leucocytosis, neutrophylosis, eosynopenia, elevated ESR B. leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, elevated ESR C. leucocytosis, neutrophylia, eosynophylia, elevated ESR D. leucopenia, anaemia, lymphocytosis, elevated ESR E. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis, normal ESR ANSWER: C 47 Hepatitis A incubation period lasts for: A. 3-7 days B. 8-10 days C. 7-14 days D. 7-21 days E. 10-45 days ANSWER: E 48 The pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A is characterized by the increase of: A. Indirect bilirubin, tymol test B. Cholesterol, ALAT C. tymol test, alkaline phosphatase D. cholesterol, beta-lipoproteins, indirect bilirubin E. ALAT, ASAT, direct bilirubin ANSWER: E 49 Name hepatitis C markers: A. anti HAV IgМ and anti HAV IgG B. anti HCV IgМ, viral RNA C. anti HЕV IgМ, viral RNA D. anti HВV IgМ and HВV IgG E. HBsAg, HbeAg, HbcAg, anti НВс IgM, IgG ANSWER: B 50 What diseases is it necessary to differentiate with the inborn hepatitis С? A. Hepatitis A, Е, biliary dyskinesia B. sepsis, biliary atresia, TORCH-infections, massive hemorrhages C. sepsis, pseudotuberculosis, infectious mononucleosis D. Gilbert syndrome, leptospirosis, hemolytic anemia E. hemolytic disease of new-born, hepatitis Delta, cholecystitis. ANSWER: B 51 When is it necessary to give choleretics in case of hepatitis B, moderate degree? A. From the 1st day of jaundice period B. From the 2nd week of jaundice period C. From the 3rd week of jaundice period D. From the 4th week of jaundice period E. Does not need to give ANSWER: C 52 What is the most typical version of the primary rash in meningococcemia? A. Papules B. Erythema C. Excoriation D. Roseols E. Vesicles ANSWER: A 53 Define the meningitis criterion in infants: A. Bulging fontanelle. B. Kernig’s Symptom. C. Single vomiting. D. Paralysis. E. Confusion. ANSWER: A 54 For which viral infection meningeal syndrome is the most typical? A. Influenza. B. Parainfluenza. C. Reovirus infection D. Rhinovirus infection. E. Astrovirus infection ANSWER: A 55 Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment? A. Chloramphenicol succinate. B. Cephalosporin Antibiotics. C. Diphenhydramine. D. Dicarboxylic. E. Penicillin. ANSWER: A 56 Select the most typical features of paralysis in poliomyelitis: A. Proximal. B. Symmetrical C. Hypertension of muscles. D. Hyperreflexia. E. Violation of sensitivity. ANSWER: A 57 Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of meningococcemia treatment? A. Prednisolone. B. Diphenhydramine. C. Dicarboxylic. D. Penicillin. E. Verospiron ANSWER: A 58 Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of unknown etiology: A. Cefotaxim A. Chloramphenicol. B. Cefasolin C. Cyprofloxacin. D. Streptomycin. ANSWER: A 59 What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock? A. Pale skin. B. Oliguria. C. Hypothermia. D. Loss of consciousness. E. Reduction of blood pressure. ANSWER: A 60 Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectious-toxic shock: A. Hyperthermia. B. Acrocyanosis. C. Total cyanosis. D. Venous stasis. E. Violation of consciousness. ANSWER: A 61 What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema? A. Convulsions. B. Hypothermia. C. Oliguria. D. Venous stasis. E. Bulging fontanelle. ANSWER: A 62 Which symptom is not typical for neurotoxicosis? A. Sunken fontanel. B. Hyperthemia. C. Acrocyanosis. D. Oliguria. E. Hyperpnoe. ANSWER: A 63 Severe complications (anaphylactic shock) in case of a previous vaccine dose introduction is a medical contraindication to vaccination by A. All vaccines and toxoids B. All live vaccines C. DTP D. OPV E. BCG ANSWER: A 64 Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein is a medical contraindication to vaccination by: A. Rubella vaccine B. DTP C. BCG D. All vaccines and toxoids E. OPV ANSWER: A 65 Name the medical contraindications for OPV vaccination: A. Malignancies B. Convulsions in history C. Anaphylactic reactions to egg proteine in history D. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides E. Blood infision ANSWER: A 66 Name the medical contraindications for vaccination by rubella vaccine: A. decompensated hydrocephalic syndrome B. birth weight less than 2000 g C. lymphadenitis after a previous vaccine D. keloid scar after a previous vaccine E. convulsions in history ANSWER: A 67 Name the medical contraindications for DPT vaccination: A. epilepsy B. micobacteria tuberculosis infection C. defects in phagocytosis D. blood infision E. allergy to aminoglycosides ANSWER: A 68 Enter disease, against which for the active immunization is used inactivated vaccine: A. Whooping cough B. Rubella C. Measles D. Tuberculosis E. Mumps infection ANSWER: A 69 Specify live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. Measles B. Against Hepatitis B C. DTP D. BCG E. Against Haemophilus influenzae ANSWER: A 70 Specify live vaccines that are used for routine immunization: A. BCG B. Against Hepatitis B C. IPV D. DTP E. Against Haemophilus influenzae ANSWER: A 71 What is used for active immunization? A. Live vaccines B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin C. Human specific immunoglobulin D. Antitoxic serum E. Polyvalent bacteriophage ANSWER: A 72 Which medicin causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. All listed B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin ANSWER: A 73 Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity? A. Antitoxic serum B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines ANSWER: A 74 Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. All listed B. Toxoid C. Acellular vaccine D. Inactivated vaccine E. Live vaccines ANSWER: A 75 Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity? A. Inactivated vaccine B. Antitoxic serum C. Plasma D. Whole blood E. Immunoglobulin ANSWER: A 76 In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should definitely be vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except A. Varicella B. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio C. Hepatitis B D. Hib E. Rubella, measles, mumps infection ANSWER: A 77 Against what diseases (in accordance with Ukrainian vaccination calendar) vaccination is not obligatory? A. All listed are not obligatory B. Meningococcal infection C. Varicella D. Hepatitis A E. Encephalitis ANSWER: A 78 Which of the following is a direct contraindication for prophylactic vaccinations? A. Pathologically strong reaction to the earlier introduction of this vaccine B. Acute infectious disease at the time of routine vaccination C. Local reaction to previous administration of this vaccine D. Frequent respiratory infections (more than 6 times per year) E. All of the above ANSWER: A 79 What requirements must have the ideal vaccine? A. Have all these requirements B. Call lifelong immunity in 100% vaccinated by a single dose C. Being polyvalent D. Be safe E. Be oral vaccine ANSWER: A 80 What is the recommended method to enter DPT vaccine? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth ANSWER: A 81 What is the recommended method to enter the vaccine against measles? A. Subcutaneously B. Intravenously C. Intramuscular D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth ANSWER: A 82 What is the recommended method to enter BCG vaccine? A. Intradermally B. Intravenously C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneously E. Through mouth ANSWER: A 83 What is the recommended method to enter polio vaccine (live vaccine)? A. Through a mouth B. Intravenously C. Intramuscular D. Subcutaneously E. Intradermally ANSWER: A 84 What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against hepatitis B? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth ANSWER: A 85 What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against Haemophilus influenzae? A. Intramuscular B. Intravenously C. Subcutaneously D. Intradermally E. Through a mouth ANSWER: A 86 What the swelling consistency is typical for mumps? A. Doughy B. Cartilaginoid C. Firm D. Fluctuating E. Nodular ANSWER: A 87 The causative agent of mumps belongs to: A. Myxoviruses B. Adenoviruses C. Enteroviruses D. Rotaviruses E. Cytomegalovirus ANSWER: 88 What is the main cause of low mumps virus distribution in the environment? A. No patients with catarrhal symptoms, and virus isolation from large drops of saliva B. The virus is transmitted from person to person primarily through contaminated saliva C. The relatively high percentage (30-40) of atypical forms of mumps D. Virus is not stable to the effects of physical and chemical factors E. Lack of virus transmission via third parties ANSWER: A 89 Which of the following is best to do in a presumptive diagnosis of toxic tonsillar diphtheria? A. Hospitalization without the prior laboratory examination B. Pharynx and nose swab bacteriologic test for the diphtheria bacillus C. Microscopy of material from the pharynx D. Serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis E. Otolaryngologist consultation ANSWER: A 90 Constrictive laryngitis (croup) may be a complication of the following diseases except: A. Mumps B. Diphtheria C. Influenza D. Measles E. Parainfluenza ANSWER: A 91 For which viral infections meningeal syndrome is the most typical? A. Enteroviral infection. B. Parainfluenza. C. Adenovirus infection. D. Rhinovirus infection. E. Rotavirus ANSWER: A 92 Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome? A. Poliomyelitis. B. Parainfluenza. C. Adenovirus infection. D. Rhinovirus infection. E. Respiratory syncytial infection ANSWER: A 93 Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome? A. Herpesvius infection. B. Respiratory syncytial infection C. Adenovirus infection. D. Rotavirus infection E. Reovirus infection ANSWER: A 94 What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia? A. Haemorrhagic. B. Excoriated. C. Roseolous. D. Vesicular. E. Pustular. ANSWER: A 95 For typical scarlet fever is characteristically: A. the prolonged period of fever precedes the rashes eruption B. the Koplick’s spots appear two days before the rashes period C. semisynthetic penicillins provoke the rashes eruption D. new elements of the rash are accompanied by the increased body temperature E. skin desquamates on the second week after the rashes appear ANSWER: E 96 When the child, who had scarlet fever, may visit the organized child's establishments? A. on 6 day from the beginning of disease B. on 10 day from the beginning of disease C. on 15 day from the beginning of disease D. on 22 day from the beginning of disease E. on 30 day from the beginning of disease ANSWER: D 97 How long the symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart (vagus-phase) are present? A. 3-4 days B. 5-6 days C. 10 days D. 1-2 weeks E. 3-4 weeks ANSWER: E 98 What investigations is it necessary to do on the 20-21st day of scarlet fever? A. Complete blood analysis, urinanalysis, ECG B. Pharyngeal culture C. Blood culture D. USI of the heart, ECG, USI of abdominal organs E. Smear from the nose and throat on C.diphtheriae ANSWER: A 99 What is the dose of benzyl penicillin in case of scarlet fever? A. 10-15 mg/kg/day B. 100 mg/kg/day C. 25-50 thousand IU/kg/day D. 50-100 thousand IU/kg/day E. 100-200 thousand IU/kg/day ANSWER: D 100 Name the mechanism of the pseudotuberculosis transmission. A. droplet B. contact C. fecal-oral D. alimentary E. by water ANSWER: C