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UNIT 07 PRACTICE EXAM: NUTRITION & METABOLISM
1. Any substance required for growth, maintenance and repair of the body:
a. carbohydrate
b. nutrient
c. vitamin
d. b and c
2. The best source of nutrients of all kinds:
a. whole foods
b. supplements
c. fast foods
3. A minor nutrient:
a. water
b. vitamins
c. carbs
d. proteins
4. Which is not part of the general advice provided by the USDA to average Americans?
a. Eat more whole grains
b. Eat less sugar & salt
c. Eliminate all trans fats from the diet
d. Eat more mono- and polyunsaturated fats
e. Eat more cholesterol and less potassium
5. Which is not true about the molecule to the right?
a. Has receptors in the gut so is easy to absorb.
b. Converted by the liver into glucose.
c. Has 9 calories/gram
d. Comes from lactose
e. Is a monosaccharide
6. Which is not true about the molecule to the right?
a. More likely to be turned into fat than glucose.
b. Has the same calories/gram as glucose.
c. Comes from “natural” sources like apples and corn.
d. Is easily absorbable by gut mucosal cells.
e. Is nutritionally equivalent to glucose.
7. About how much of a healthy, balanced diet should consist of carbohydrates?
a. 10-20%
b. 20-30%
c. 30-50%
d. 45-65%
e. 0%; diets excluding carbohydrates are healthy because they help you lose weight!
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8. What is the minimum number of grams of carbohydrate a person needs (even diabetics!) to
prevent ketoacidosis?
a. 95 grams
b. 100 grams
c. 130 grams
d. 212 grams
e. 300 grams
9. On the average, how many grams of fiber does the average person need, as part of a healthy
diet?
a. 0 grams
b. 10 grams
c. 20 grams
d. 30 grams
e. 50 grams
10. What is a good source of dietary fiber?
a. whole grains
b. lean meats
c. fruits and veggies
d. dairy products
e. a and c
11. Which is not a benefit of getting enough fiber in the diet?
a. increases LDL levels in blood
b. helps remove carcinomas from colon epithelium
c. stimulates bile production
d. lowers blood cholesterol
e. keeps circular muscles of bowels healthy
12. Triglycerides are catabolized into
a. glycerol + cholesterol
b. glucose + two fatty acids
c. three fatty acids + glycerol
d. three fatty acids + glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate
13. Primary energy source for both the liver and skeletal muscles:
a. glucose
b. cholesterol
c. protein
d. triglycerides
e. saturated fats
14. No double bonds so they form solid-packed structures at room temperature.
a. polyunsaturated fats
b. saturated fats
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c. monounsaturated fats
d. omega-6 fatty acids
15. Which is not associated with omega-6 fatty acids?
a. reduction of inflammation reactions
b. peristalsis during male and female orgasm
c. blood clotting
d. BP regulation
16. About what percentage of calories in a healthy diet should be from lipids?
a. 0%; fats are unhealthy and should be eliminated from the diet as much as possible
b. 10-15%
c. 20-35%
d. 40-50%
e. 50-75%
17. The USDA recommends consuming how much olive oil per day?
a. 1 tablespoon
b. 2 tablespoons
c. ¼ cup
d. 2 teaspoons
18. Which does not contain saturated fats?
a. olive oil
b. cocoanut oil
c. palm oil
d. animal fats
e. they all contain saturated fats!
19. About what percentage of the fats in a healthy diet should be from omega-6 fats (linoleic
acid)?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 35%
d. 50%
20. Which would contribute most to heart disease and stroke?
a. piece of bread
b. 8-oz steak
c. an orange
d. 2 tablespoons of olive oil
e. hard-boiled egg
21. The best source of omega-3 fatty acids would be
a. corn-fed beef
b. eggs from corn-fed chickens
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c. cold-water, fatty fish like salmon and supplements
d. warm-water fish like tilapia
e. whole grains, fruits and veggies
22. All that you need is made by the liver:
a. saturated fats
b. cholesterol
c. essential fatty acids
d. triglycerides
e. EPA and DHA
23. Relaxes arteries, inhibits inflammation, reduces LDL cholesterol, reduces the risk of heart
disease and is necessary for optimal nervous system/brain development:
a. trans fats
b. saturated fats
c. omega-6 fatty acids
d. omega-3 fatty acids
24. Needed to make bile, vitamin D, testosterone, aldosterone and corticosterone:
a. omega-3 fatty acids
b. saturated fats
c. omega-6 fatty acids
d. DHA
e. cholesterol
25. The RDI of protein for a healthy individual should be about _____ of total daily calories.
a. 12-20%
b. 25-35%
c. 40-55%
d. 0% or as low as possible because excess protein is bad for you!
e. 100% or as close to 100% as possible because a high-protein diet is good for you!
26. The RDI for cholesterol for a healthy individual is
a. < 300 mg
b. < 200 mg
c. > 300 mg
d. < 500 mg
e. < 100 mg
27. One egg has approximately how many milligrams of cholesterol?
a. 180 mg
b. 212 mg
c. 300 mg
d. 500 mg
28. The most complete source of protein:
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a.
b.
c.
d.
beans
whole grains
lean meats, fish
beans and peas
29. Humans are capable of synthesizing essential amino acids, so don’t need them in the diet.
a. True
b. False
c. Only as infants; this is why infants can get all of their nutrition from mom’s milk!
30. A good vegetarian strategy that provides all of the essential amino acids:
a. beans and whole-grain rice
b. peas and barley
c. hummus (chick peas) and couscous
d. beans and whole-grain corn tortillas
e. all the above!
31. Which is not true about PEM (protein energy malnutrition)?
a. About 70% of the elderly in “old folks homes” in the U.S. suffer from PEM.
b. Over 1/3 of poor kids in the U.S. suffer from PEM.
c. Rich kids don’t get PEM because they always consume enough protein.
d. Marasmus and kwashiorchor are common PEM-related conditions that are preventable.
32. Characterized by hepatomegaly caused by the inability to regulate fats and lipids, and
aflatotoxins inducing the liver to swell.
a. ricketts
b. marasmus
c. beriberi
d. kwashiorchor
e. Wernicke-Korsikoff syndrome
33. Must have fat in diet to absorb this vitamin!
a. vitamin C
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin E
d. b-carotene
e. vitamin B1 (thiamin)
34. Caused by insufficient milk as neonate and infant:
a. cretinism
b. kwashiorchor
c. marasmus
d. Wernicke-Worsikoff syndrome
e. scurvy
35. Non-toxic form of vitamin A can be ingested from which?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
yellow, orange and deep-green fruits and veggies
fish
cheese
liver
36. Which is not a characteristic of marasmus?
a. atrophy of muscle tissue
b. increased infections
c. increased basal metabolic rate
d. slowed development of nervous system; mental retardation
e. possible death through failure of heart muscle
37. Which is false about high protein diets?
a. decrease recovery from heart problems due to elevated homocystein levels
b. increase rate of kidney disease
c. increase risk of heart disease
d. decrease bone loss
e. increase risk of some cancers
38. Hepatitis may cause a deficiency in this vitamin:
a. vitamin D
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin B6
d. vitamin B1
e. folate
39. Deficiency causes impaired immune system and the weakening of collagen, so blood pools
from the capillaries into red spots under the epidermis, bruising becomes easy, teeth fall out
and bone break easily.
a. thiamine
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin B12
d. vitamin C
e. folate
40. Is necessary for the absorption of Ca++:
a. thiamine
b. vitamin D
c. folate
d. vitamin C
e. vitamin B12
41. Deficiency would lead to malformation of bones:
a. thiamine
b. vitamin A
c. folate
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d. vitamin K
e. vitamin B12
42. Elevates mood, decreases inflammation, decreases hypertension:
a. vitamin K
b. vitamin B12
c. folate
d. thiamine
e. vitamin D
43. Deficiency directly linked to spina bifida, the formation of mengiocoels and
myelomengiocoels, and even fetuses born with no brains or calvaria (anencephaly); pregnant
moms should take 400 mcg of this per day to prevent these conditions!
a. vitamin K
b. vitamin B12
c. folate
d. thiamine
e. vitamin A
44. Which is not a good source of the nutrient indicated?
a. Calcium: Dairy, fish, dark greens
b. Essential fatty acids: Nuts, seeds, veggie oils
c. Magnesium: Grains, nuts, seeds, legumes, fish
d. B vitamins: FRINT
e. Vitamin C: Fish, lean meats, turkey
45. What is not true about vitamin D synthesis?
a. Light-skinned people need only about 15 minutes per day to make sufficient vitamin D.
b. Dark-skinned people may need up to 3 hours per day to make sufficient vitamin D.
c. Inactive vitamin D is made by the strata basale and spinosum of the skin.
d. Inactive vitamin D is activated by the liver.
e. Vitamin D is synthesized from cholesterol.
46. Taking vitamin D supplements is indicated in the Pacific Northwest by healthy people,
particularly in the winter.
a. True
b. False
47. Dark-skinned babies and toddlers have higher rates of rickets than white kids, especially in
the Pacific Northwest, and should certainly drink vitamin D-fortified 0-fat milk.
a. True
b. False
48. Folate masks deficiency of this vitamin; deficiencies of this vitamin cause irreversible
damage to the nervous system and anemia (which may be masked by folate); children
following a vegan diet are particularly susceptible.
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
vitamin K
biotin
vitamin C
vitamin B6
vitamin B12
49. Taking high doses of vitamin D supplements over a long period of time may lead to
a. marasmus
b. hypocalcemia
c. hyponatremia
d. hypercalcemia
e. xerosis
50. Deficiency causes xerosis of skin and keratinization of the cornea of the eye; needed for
vision.
a. folate
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin A
e. thiamine
51. Deficiency, rare in the U.S. because of our high sodium intake, is suggested in lack of mental
clarity, low levels of working thyroxin and the development of a goiter.
a. iodine
b. vitamin C
c. vitamin A
d. magnesium
e. potassium
52. Decreases hypertension; Americans need to get more in diet!
a. vitamins A and E
b. vitamin C
c. potassium
d. vitamin K
e. sodium
53. Necessary for hemoglobin and myoglobin activation; deficiency leads to anemia.
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B12
c. calcium
d. iron
e. iodine
54. Intrinsic factor, which is insufficiently produced in pernicious anemia, normally facilitates
the absorption of what from the gut?
a. vitamin A
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b.
c.
d.
e.
vitamin E
vitamin K
vitamin B6
vitamin B12
55. Calcium deposits in the heart, lungs, kidneys and arterial walls may be caused by consuming
too much/too many
a. calcium supplements
b. vitamin D supplements
c. vitamin C supplements
d. vitamin A supplements
e. vitamin B12 supplements
56. The #1 preventable cause of mental retardation is linked to deficiency of this nutrient:
a. magnesium
b. vitamin B12
c. potassium
d. calcium
e. iodine
57. Many women and all pregnant women should take iron supplements (found in prenatal
vitamins).
a. True
b. False
58. Dietary sources of the best-absorbed type of iron.
a. nuts, seeds, legumes
b. FRINT
c. red meats and liver only
d. clams, oysters, red meats, liver
e. fruits such as strawberries and blackberries
59. Which would produce the highest absorption of iron?
a. beans and rice with some tomatoes, plus a bran muffin
b. steak and coffee, with ice cream for dessert
c. steak with mashed potatoes, plus a fruit salad containing oranges and strawberries
d. steak and red wine, with ice cream for dessert
e. beans that have been soaked overnight (water thrown out), whole-grain bread with extra
bran, and black tea
60. What is the baseline DRI for water?
a. 3 ¼ quarts for men, 2 ¼ quarts for women
b. 4 ¼ quarts for men, 2 ¼ quarts for women
c. 3 ¼ quarts for men, 3 ¼ quarts for women
d. 2 ¼ quarts for men, 3 ¼ quarts for women
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61. Craving for and actually eating soil and clay is a symptom of a deficiency of what?
a. iron
b. magnesium
c. potassium
d. vitamin C
e. vitamin D
62. What can be used for removing toxic levels of iron from the body (such as from taking too
many supplements)?
a. alcohol
b. strong, black tea
c. milk
d. Gatorade
63. Symptoms of iron toxicity include all of the following except which?
a. gastrointestinal distress through increased inflammation of the gut
b. liver failure; heart failure
c. fatigue; depression
d. decreased infection rates
e. increased risk of diabetes
64. Americans eat too much salt, which leads to high BP! The DRI and upper limit of sodium
are:
a. 1300 mg/2300 mg
b. 1000 mg/3000 mg
c. 2000 mg/4000 mg
d. 1500 mg/3000 mg
e. 3000 mg/5000 mg
65. Americans generally don’t get enough of which?
a. iodine and magnesium
b. magnesium and potassium
c. potassium and sodium
d. iodine and sodium
e. iodine and calcium
66. Loss of elasticity from skin, rapid pulse, lowered BP, dizziness and confusion may indicate
a. dehydration
b. hyponatremia
c. vitamin C toxicity
d. -carotene toxicity
67. An athlete chugs a gallon of water after a marathon, then becomes obviously confused and
unable to walk or speak coherently. What should you do first?
a. call 911
b. get him to eat large amounts of very salty foods
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c. get him to drink some alcohol
d. give him some vitamin B12
e. get him to hyperventilate
68. In eukaryotic cells, located in the cytosol:
a. ATP synthase
b. pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. glycolysis
d. Kreb’s cycle
e. electron transport chain
69. The enzymes involved in the Kreb’s cycle are located in the
a. cytosol
b. matrix of mitochondria
c. inner membranes (cristae) of mitochondria
d. intermemebrane space of the mitochondria
e. b and d
70. Which is false regarding phase 2 of glycolysis?
a. Reactants include NADH
b. Products include ATP
c. Reactants include glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
d. Products include 2 pyruvates
e. Reactants include ADP + P
71. The enzyme, phosphofructokinase, is involved in which?
a. enzymatic mechanisms of the Kreb’s cycle
b. decarboxylation of pyruvate
c. first phase of glycolysis
d. second phase of glycolysis
e. fermentation
72. What is the function of fermentation in eukaryotic cells (such as human cells)?
a. to make CO2 and ethanol
b. to reduce pyruvate levels and generate NAD+s for glycolysis
c. to generate NADHs for glycolysis
d. to decarboxylate pyruvate into lactate
e. to produce lactate for later use by the liver
73. Which organ prefers lactic acid for energy?
a. kidneys
b. liver
c. brain
d. heart
e. gonads
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74. Which is correct regarding phase 1 of glycolysis?
a. Reactants: Glucose, 2 NAD+, 2 ADP
b. Products: 2 Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
c. Reactants: Glucose, 2 NADH, 4 ATP
d. Products: 4 ATP, 2 pyruvate
e. Products: 2 lactates
75. Which vitamin is needed by the enzyme that converts pyruvate into the molecule that can
enter the Kreb’s cycle?
a. vitamin K
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin C
d. folate
e. thiamine
76. Pyruvate dehydrogenase decarboxylates pyruvate into _____, allowing it to be carried into
the Kreb’s cycle.
a. acetyl
b. citrate
c. malate
d. oxaloacetate
e. NAD+
77. High amounts of citrate and/or ATP inhibit _____, thus providing feedback inhibition for
aerobic respiration.
a. pyruvate dehydrogenase
b. ATP synthase
c. electron transport chain
d. ribulose, 1-5 bisphosphate decarboxylase
e. phosphofructokinase
78. Which is not true about the Kreb’s cycle?
a. Reactants include glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
b. Produces include CO2
c. Reactants include NAD+
d. Products include GTP
e. Reactants include FAD
79. In the Kreb’s cycle, what does “CoA” do?
a. joins malate with oxaloacetate
b. joins acetyl with oxaloacetate
c. joins acetyl with pyruvate
d. removes two CO2s from acetyl
e. produces ATP when activated by oxaloacetate
80. In the Kreb’s cycle, _____ + oxaloacetate
_____?
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a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
citrate/acetyl
citrate/malate
NAD+/NADH
FAD/FADH2
acetyl/citrate
81. Which molecules transport H+s and e-s into the electron transport chain?
a. malate and pyruvate
b. NAD+ + FAD
c. NADP + FAD
d. ADP and oxaloacetate
e. ADP and GDP
82. A diet including only white rice (starch), without any enrichment, would inhibit which part of
cellular respiration?
a. Kreb’s cycle
b. electron transport chain
c. glycolysis
d. fermentation
83. In the e- transport chain, the passage of electrons from integral protein to integral protein
a. pumps hydrogens out into the intermembrane space.
b. pumps hydrogens into the matrix from the intermembrane space.
c. directly phosphorylates ADP into ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation
d. builds up a chemiosmotic gradient across the crista membrane
e. a and d
84. What molecule takes the electrons at the end of the e- transport chain, maintaining the flow of
electrons from integral protein to integral protein?
a. H2
b. H2O
c. O2
d. H2S
e. NO385. The chemiosmotic gradient built up by the e- transport chain powers what?
a. phosphorylation of ATP
b. phosphorylation of ADP
c. hydrolysis of water
d. decarboxylation of pyruvate
e. formation of ethanol
86. One gram of fat yields how many calories?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 9
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d. 12
87. Glucose can be synthesized, directly or indirectly, from all of the following except:
a. acetyl
b. glycogen
c. amino acids
d. glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate
e. glycerol
88. Deamination of amino acids occurs in the
a. kidneys
b. blood
c. liver
d. stomach
e. brush-border cells of duodenal epithelium
89. Glycerol, from triglyceride digestion, can enter aerobic respiration and be utilized for energy
(ATP production) by being turned into
a. ketoacids
b. glycogen
c. phosphoenol pyruvate
d. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
e. pyruvate
90. Fatty acids, from triglyceride digestion, can enter aerobic respiration and be utilized for
energy (ATP production) by being turned into
a. pyruvic acid
b. acetyl
c. oxaloacetate
d. ketoacids
e. ketone bodies
91. The ammonia product of amino acid deamination is removed from the blood by the
a. kidneys
b. liver
c. stomach
d. duodenum
e. colon
92. What triggers the catabolism of triglycerides and the use of glycerol for the production of
glucose?
a. high blood lipid levels
b. high blood LDLs
c. low blood amino acids
d. low blood glucose or glucose not being absorbed by cells
e. low insulin levels in blood
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93. Small amounts of ketone bodies in the blood is normal as the primary source of energy for
muscle tissue is fatty acids.
a. True
b. False
KEY
1b, 2a, 3b, 4e, 5c, 6e, 7d, 8c, 9d, 10e, 11a, 12c, 13d, 14b, 15a, 16c, 17b, 18e, 19d, 20b, 21c, 22b,
23d, 24e, 25a, 26a, 27b, 28c, 29b, 30e, 31c, 32d, 33c, 34c, 35a, 36c, 37d, 38a, 39d, 40b, 41d,
42e, 43c, 44e, 45d, 46a, 47a, 48e, 49d, 50d, 51a, 52c, 53d, 54e, 55b, 56e, 57a, 58d, 59c, 60a,
61a, 62b, 63d, 64a, 65b, 66a, 67b, 68c, 69b, 70a, 71c, 72b, 73d, 74b, 75e, 76a, 77e, 78a, 79b,
80e, 81b, 82a, 83e, 84c, 85b, 86c, 87a, 88c, 89d, 90b, 91a, 92d, 93a.
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