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UNIVERSITY OF EAST ANGLIA School of Pharmacy Main Series UG Examination 2013-14 CELLS, PHYSIOLOGY AND PHARMACOLOGY PHA-4004Y Time allowed: 2 hours Part ONE Answer ALL questions. For each question, there is ONE correct answer. Use the answer grid provided for ALL your answers. Part TWO Answer THREE of the FOUR questions. Use a SEPARATE answer book for EACH question in Part TWO. Each question has the same value. The marks distribution is shown as a percentage for each section of the question. Answer all parts of each of the individual questions you select. The mark allocation for the paper is: Part ONE carries 50% of the total mark. Part TWO carries 50% of the total mark. You are advised to spend approximately 1 hour on Part ONE and 1 hour on Part TWO. The paper consists of 9 pages in total. The following is provided: Multiple choice answer grid. Dictionaries are not permitted in this examination. Calculators are permitted in this examination. Notes are not permitted in this examination. Do not turn over until you are told to do so by the Invigilator. Do not take this question paper out of the examinations room. (PHA-4004Y) Module Contact: Dr Vicky Sherwood, PHA Copyright of the University of East Anglia Version 1 2 PART ONE Answer ALL questions. For each question, there is ONE correct answer. Use the answer grid provided for ALL your answers. 1. Which ONE of the following is NOT a direct function of membrane bound proteins? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Cell-cell attachment Enzymatic function Receptor function Intercellular adhesion Protein translation 2. In the mitotic spindle apparatus, which ONE of the following types of cytoskeletal filaments attaches to the replicated chromosomes? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Astral microtubules Kinetochore microtubules Overlap microtubules Astral microfilaments Kinetochore microfilaments 3. Which part of the epidermis is a highly impenetrable barrier to water? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) The stratum corneum The stratum lucidum The stratum granulosum The stratum spinosum The stratum basale 4. In human anatomy, which ONE of the following is the functional unit of the kidney? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) The renal pyramid The renal medulla The renal cortex The nephron The nexus 5. Which ONE of the following types of receptor(s) is NOT classed in the GPCR family of receptors? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Adrenergic Muscarinic Dopamine Opioid TGFβ (PHA-4004Y) Version 1 3 6. An intracellular signalling protein becomes phosphorylated in response to an extracellular signalling ligand interacting with its cognate receptor. Which ONE of the following types of enzymes is responsible for this phosphorylation event? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) A phosphatase An oxidoreductase A transferase A ligase A kinase 7. In the absence of growth factor signalling, a normal cell will remain in which ONE of the following cell cycle phases? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) S G1 G2 G0 M 8. Which ONE of the following is part of the adaptive immune system? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) The skin Mucosa The complement system Antibodies Fever 9. Which ONE of the following statements about drug-receptor interactions is TRUE? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Potency governs the activation of a receptor after drug binding Affinity is the ability of a drug to bind a receptor Efficacy of a drug is the concentration which produces 50% of the maximum response rate The higher the KD value, the higher the affinity of a drug for the receptor Drugs with a lower KA value need more drug for 50% receptor occupancy 10. A drug that binds to a cell receptor and elicits no cellular response is called? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) An agonist A neutral antagonist A receptor blocker A channel blocker An inhibitor TURN OVER (PHA-4004Y) Version 1 4 11. Which ONE of the following statements about the therapeutic index (TI) and its calculation is TRUE? (A) (B) The TI is only used when comparing antagonists The LD50 gives the lethal dose of a drug to all of the population of animal experiments The ED50 describes the effective dose of the drug in all of the animals The lower the TI, the safer the drug The TI is calculated by LD50/ED50 (C) (D) (E) 12. Which ONE of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to monocytes and macrophages? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Undifferentiated macrophages are called monocytes Macrophages can phagocytose infected cells Inflammatory macrophages can contain active peroxidases Monocytes start to produce antibodies after differentiation Monocytes are classified as agranulocytes 13. Which ONE of the following is the principle route of drug elimination? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Exhalation Sweating Breast milk secretion Bile Urine 14. Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE regarding drug distribution? (A) The capillaries that feed the brain do not contain pores and also have a fatty layer to provide an extra barrier through which drugs must cross Polar drugs easily cross the blood brain barrier Drugs that are excessively hydrophobic are often absorbed into fatty tissues and removed from the blood supply Some drugs bind to albumin and plasma proteins and when bound they are unable to interact with their targets The placental membranes separate the mother’s blood from the blood of her foetus. (B) (C) (D) (E) 15. Which ONE of the following is a common phase II conversion? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Dealkylation Glutathione conjugation Hydroxylation Epoxidation Oxidation of an amine to give an N-oxide (PHA-4004Y) Version 1 5 16. Which ONE of the following is a known inhibitor of the Cytochrome P450 enzyme system? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Warfarin Chronic alcohol use St John's-Wort Erythromycin Amoxicillin 17. Which ONE of the following is NOT a connective tissue? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Cartilage Bone Adipose tissue Blood Epithelium 18. The incidence rate of a disease is a measure of which ONE of the following? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) The number of people dying from the disease The number of people spreading the disease The number of people contracting the disease The number of people at risk from the disease The number of people being cured of the disease 19. Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence of levels of organisation in organisms? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Cell-tissue-organ-system-organism Cell-organ-tissue-system-organism Cell-organ-system-tissue-organism Cell-system-tissue-organ-organism Cell-tissue-system-organ-organism 20. Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding epithelial tissue? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Columnar epithelium lines the digestive tract It is involved in glandular secretions Squamous epithelium is important in gas exchange in the lungs It is important in fat storage It can be cilliated TURN OVER (PHA-4004Y) Version 1 6 21. Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence of hormones released by the hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid gland? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) TSH-TRH-thyroxine Thyroxine-TRH-TSH TRH-TSH-thyroxine TSH-thyroxine-TRH TRH-thyroxine-TSH 22. Which ONE of the following pairs of systems is involved in co-ordination of homeostasis in humans? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Cardiovascular and nervous Nervous and endocrine Endocrine and respiratory Digestive and endocrine Cardiovasular and respiratory 23. Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding interneurons? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) They are found exclusively in the peripheral nervous system They have a cell body containing the nucleus They transmit information from one neuron to another neuron They are found in the brain and spinal cord They are the most common type of neuron 24. How many incisors do adult humans normally have? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) 2 4 6 8 12 25. Which ONE of the following is NOT a trace element? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Copper Fluorine Iodine Iron Potassium (PHA-4004Y) Version 1 7 26. Which ONE of the following removes the introns from pre-mRNA? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase Histone deacetylase RNA primase The spliceome TFIIH 27. Which ONE of the following is a purine that is found in DNA? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Cytosine Guanine Ribose Thymine Uracil 28. Which ONE of the following antibiotics blocks translation by inhibiting binding of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase to the A site on the ribosome? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Rifamycin Streptomycin Tetracycline 29. Which ONE of the following statements about the structure of eukaryotic genes is INCORRECT? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) The promoter contains enhancer regions for gene transcription Approximately 20% of the human genome encodes for protein Introns are non-coding regions within genes Non-coding regions of the gene are involved in regulating transcription Alternative splicing generates different protein products from the same gene 30. Which ONE of the following is NOT an autosomal dominant disorder? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Achondroplasia Ehler-Danlos syndrome Marfan syndrome Neurofibromatosis Tay Sachs disease END OF PART ONE TURN OVER (PHA-4004Y) Version 1 8 PART TWO Answer THREE of the FOUR questions. Use a SEPARATE answer book for EACH question. 31. Answer ALL parts (a) to (c). (a) Suggest two possible phase I metabolic conversions that could occur on the structure of terfenadine. Fully describe the two conversions you have suggested. [60%] (b) Describe Lipinski’s rules and use them to predict if terfenadine would be orally available. [30%] (c) Briefly explain why some general anaesthetics have to be supplied in higher doses during surgery for obese patients. [10%] 32. Answer ALL parts (a) to (c). Pharmacists play an important role in identifying and managing drug interactions. With respect to drug interactions: (a) Define pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics interactions, giving examples of each type. [35%] (b) Give TWO examples where drug interactions are considered to be beneficial. [15%] (c) Describe the mechanism underlying the following pharmacokinetic interactions. For each one give an example of drugs that interact by this mechanism with an explanation of the clinical consequence on the patient of the drug interaction. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Changes of gastric motility Protein binding Enzyme inhibition Active tubular secretion (PHA-4004Y) [50%] Version 1 9 33. Draw a figure of a normal electrocardiogram during one cardiac cycle and describe what occurs during each stage, including electrical stimulation of the cardiac muscle, contraction and relaxation of the heart chambers, valve movement and flow of blood. [100%] 34. Answer ALL parts: (a) to (c). The p53 tumour suppressor protein is encoded by the TP53 gene in humans and is named in reference to its molecular mass (53 Kilodaltons). With respect to p53 function: (a) Which cell cycle checkpoint is controlled by p53? [5%] (b) Explain the molecular mechanism of how p53 is activated in response to DNA damage. [80%] (c) Why are p53 mutations so commonly associated with cancer development? [15%] END OF PAPER (PHA-4004Y) Version 1