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UNIVERSITY OF EAST ANGLIA
School of Pharmacy
Main Series UG Examination 2013-14
CELLS, PHYSIOLOGY AND PHARMACOLOGY
PHA-4004Y
Time allowed: 2 hours
Part ONE
Answer ALL questions. For each question, there is ONE correct answer. Use the
answer grid provided for ALL your answers.
Part TWO
Answer THREE of the FOUR questions.
Use a SEPARATE answer book for EACH question in Part TWO.
Each question has the same value.
The marks distribution is shown as a percentage for each section of the question.
Answer all parts of each of the individual questions you select.
The mark allocation for the paper is:
 Part ONE carries 50% of the total mark.
 Part TWO carries 50% of the total mark.
You are advised to spend approximately 1 hour on Part ONE and 1 hour on Part
TWO.
The paper consists of 9 pages in total.
The following is provided: Multiple choice answer grid.
Dictionaries are not permitted in this examination.
Calculators are permitted in this examination.
Notes are not permitted in this examination.
Do not turn over until you are told to do so by the Invigilator.
Do not take this question paper out of the examinations room.
(PHA-4004Y)
Module Contact: Dr Vicky Sherwood, PHA
Copyright of the University of East Anglia
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PART ONE
Answer ALL questions. For each question, there is ONE correct answer. Use the
answer grid provided for ALL your answers.
1.
Which ONE of the following is NOT a direct function of membrane bound
proteins?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cell-cell attachment
Enzymatic function
Receptor function
Intercellular adhesion
Protein translation
2.
In the mitotic spindle apparatus, which ONE of the following types of
cytoskeletal filaments attaches to the replicated chromosomes?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Astral microtubules
Kinetochore microtubules
Overlap microtubules
Astral microfilaments
Kinetochore microfilaments
3.
Which part of the epidermis is a highly impenetrable barrier to water?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The stratum corneum
The stratum lucidum
The stratum granulosum
The stratum spinosum
The stratum basale
4.
In human anatomy, which ONE of the following is the functional unit of the
kidney?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The renal pyramid
The renal medulla
The renal cortex
The nephron
The nexus
5.
Which ONE of the following types of receptor(s) is NOT classed in the GPCR
family of receptors?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Adrenergic
Muscarinic
Dopamine
Opioid
TGFβ
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6.
An intracellular signalling protein becomes phosphorylated in response to an
extracellular signalling ligand interacting with its cognate receptor. Which ONE
of the following types of enzymes is responsible for this phosphorylation
event?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
A phosphatase
An oxidoreductase
A transferase
A ligase
A kinase
7.
In the absence of growth factor signalling, a normal cell will remain in which
ONE of the following cell cycle phases?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
S
G1
G2
G0
M
8.
Which ONE of the following is part of the adaptive immune system?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The skin
Mucosa
The complement system
Antibodies
Fever
9.
Which ONE of the following statements about drug-receptor interactions is
TRUE?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Potency governs the activation of a receptor after drug binding
Affinity is the ability of a drug to bind a receptor
Efficacy of a drug is the concentration which produces 50% of the maximum
response rate
The higher the KD value, the higher the affinity of a drug for the receptor
Drugs with a lower KA value need more drug for 50% receptor occupancy
10.
A drug that binds to a cell receptor and elicits no cellular response is called?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
An agonist
A neutral antagonist
A receptor blocker
A channel blocker
An inhibitor
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11.
Which ONE of the following statements about the therapeutic index (TI) and
its calculation is TRUE?
(A)
(B)
The TI is only used when comparing antagonists
The LD50 gives the lethal dose of a drug to all of the population of animal
experiments
The ED50 describes the effective dose of the drug in all of the animals
The lower the TI, the safer the drug
The TI is calculated by LD50/ED50
(C)
(D)
(E)
12.
Which ONE of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to monocytes and
macrophages?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Undifferentiated macrophages are called monocytes
Macrophages can phagocytose infected cells
Inflammatory macrophages can contain active peroxidases
Monocytes start to produce antibodies after differentiation
Monocytes are classified as agranulocytes
13.
Which ONE of the following is the principle route of drug elimination?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Exhalation
Sweating
Breast milk secretion
Bile
Urine
14.
Which ONE of the following statements is FALSE regarding drug distribution?
(A)
The capillaries that feed the brain do not contain pores and also have a fatty
layer to provide an extra barrier through which drugs must cross
Polar drugs easily cross the blood brain barrier
Drugs that are excessively hydrophobic are often absorbed into fatty tissues
and removed from the blood supply
Some drugs bind to albumin and plasma proteins and when bound they are
unable to interact with their targets
The placental membranes separate the mother’s blood from the blood of her
foetus.
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
15.
Which ONE of the following is a common phase II conversion?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Dealkylation
Glutathione conjugation
Hydroxylation
Epoxidation
Oxidation of an amine to give an N-oxide
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16.
Which ONE of the following is a known inhibitor of the Cytochrome P450
enzyme system?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Warfarin
Chronic alcohol use
St John's-Wort
Erythromycin
Amoxicillin
17.
Which ONE of the following is NOT a connective tissue?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cartilage
Bone
Adipose tissue
Blood
Epithelium
18.
The incidence rate of a disease is a measure of which ONE of the following?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The number of people dying from the disease
The number of people spreading the disease
The number of people contracting the disease
The number of people at risk from the disease
The number of people being cured of the disease
19.
Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence of levels of organisation
in organisms?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cell-tissue-organ-system-organism
Cell-organ-tissue-system-organism
Cell-organ-system-tissue-organism
Cell-system-tissue-organ-organism
Cell-tissue-system-organ-organism
20.
Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding epithelial
tissue?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Columnar epithelium lines the digestive tract
It is involved in glandular secretions
Squamous epithelium is important in gas exchange in the lungs
It is important in fat storage
It can be cilliated
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21.
Which ONE of the following is the correct sequence of hormones released by
the hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid gland?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
TSH-TRH-thyroxine
Thyroxine-TRH-TSH
TRH-TSH-thyroxine
TSH-thyroxine-TRH
TRH-thyroxine-TSH
22.
Which ONE of the following pairs of systems is involved in co-ordination of
homeostasis in humans?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cardiovascular and nervous
Nervous and endocrine
Endocrine and respiratory
Digestive and endocrine
Cardiovasular and respiratory
23.
Which ONE of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding
interneurons?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
They are found exclusively in the peripheral nervous system
They have a cell body containing the nucleus
They transmit information from one neuron to another neuron
They are found in the brain and spinal cord
They are the most common type of neuron
24.
How many incisors do adult humans normally have?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
2
4
6
8
12
25.
Which ONE of the following is NOT a trace element?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Copper
Fluorine
Iodine
Iron
Potassium
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26.
Which ONE of the following removes the introns from pre-mRNA?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
Histone deacetylase
RNA primase
The spliceome
TFIIH
27.
Which ONE of the following is a purine that is found in DNA?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Cytosine
Guanine
Ribose
Thymine
Uracil
28.
Which ONE of the following antibiotics blocks translation by inhibiting binding
of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase to the A site on the ribosome?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Rifamycin
Streptomycin
Tetracycline
29.
Which ONE of the following statements about the structure of eukaryotic
genes is INCORRECT?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
The promoter contains enhancer regions for gene transcription
Approximately 20% of the human genome encodes for protein
Introns are non-coding regions within genes
Non-coding regions of the gene are involved in regulating transcription
Alternative splicing generates different protein products from the same gene
30.
Which ONE of the following is NOT an autosomal dominant disorder?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Achondroplasia
Ehler-Danlos syndrome
Marfan syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Tay Sachs disease
END OF PART ONE
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PART TWO
Answer THREE of the FOUR questions. Use a SEPARATE answer book for EACH
question.
31.
Answer ALL parts (a) to (c).
(a)
Suggest two possible phase I metabolic conversions that could occur on the
structure of terfenadine. Fully describe the two conversions you have suggested.
[60%]
(b)
Describe Lipinski’s rules and use them to predict if terfenadine would be orally
available.
[30%]
(c)
Briefly explain why some general anaesthetics have to be supplied in higher
doses during surgery for obese patients.
[10%]
32.
Answer ALL parts (a) to (c).
Pharmacists play an important role in identifying and managing drug interactions.
With respect to drug interactions:
(a)
Define pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics interactions, giving examples
of each type.
[35%]
(b)
Give TWO examples where drug interactions are considered to be
beneficial.
[15%]
(c)
Describe the mechanism underlying the following pharmacokinetic
interactions. For each one give an example of drugs that interact by this
mechanism with an explanation of the clinical consequence on the patient of the
drug interaction.
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
Changes of gastric motility
Protein binding
Enzyme inhibition
Active tubular secretion
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33.
Draw a figure of a normal electrocardiogram during one cardiac cycle and
describe what occurs during each stage, including electrical stimulation of the
cardiac muscle, contraction and relaxation of the heart chambers, valve movement
and flow of blood.
[100%]
34.
Answer ALL parts: (a) to (c).
The p53 tumour suppressor protein is encoded by the TP53 gene in humans
and is named in reference to its molecular mass (53 Kilodaltons). With respect to
p53 function:
(a)
Which cell cycle checkpoint is controlled by p53?
[5%]
(b)
Explain the molecular mechanism of how p53 is activated in response to DNA
damage.
[80%]
(c)
Why are p53 mutations so commonly associated with cancer development?
[15%]
END OF PAPER
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