Download Biol 100 - Contemporary Biology Practice Final Exam

Biol 100 - Contemporary Biology
Practice Final Exam
A. Multiple Choice - pick the correct answer. THERE IS ONLY ONE ANSWER PER QUESTION
1. What population growth curve best represents the modern increase in human population?
a. logistic
b. exponential
c. early-loss
d. S-shape
e. equilibrial
2. If you analyzed the age structure of a population and found that there was a high proportion of
individuals at older ages, what could you conclude about the population?
a. The population was growing rapidly
b. The population was not growing rapidly.
c. The population was suffering from the founder effect.
d. The population was way below carrying capacity
e. a and d only
3. What adverse effect might result from the destruction of tropical rainforests?
a. carbon dioxide buildup in the atmosphere
b. increased runoff and erosion
c. extinction of species
d. loss of nutrients (nutrients stored in the biomass)
e. all of the above
f. none of the above
4. Of the following, which is the first distinctively hominid trait to appear in the fossil record?
a. an opposable thumb
b. a cranium and brain much larger relative to body size than those of apes
c. upright walking
d. loss of the tail
e. eyes set close together in the front of the face
5. Which of the following represents a correct sequence of human cultural development?
a. hunting > gathering > urbanization > agriculture
b. gathering > hunting > agriculture > industrialization
c. hunting > agriculture > industrialization > urbanization
d. gathering > urbanization > agriculture > industrialization
e. hunting > gathering > urbanization > industrialization
6. Which interaction between species can involve negative effects on the survival/reproduction of both
species?
a. parasitism
b. competition
c. predation
d. herbivory
e. mutualism
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7. Which came first in evolution?
a. fish
b. land plants
c. autotrophic prokaryotes (blue greens)
d. single-celled eukaryotes
e. soft-bodied marine animals
f. heterotrophic prokaryotes
8. The situation in which a structure that evolved in one context is later adapted for another function is
called
a. preadaptation
b. conversion evolution
c. parallel evolution
d. coincidential adaptation
e. coevolution
9. A change in the relative fequencies of alleles in the gene pool of a population is called
a. genetic drift
b. microevolution
c. mutation
d. diversifying selection
e. directional selection
10. A radially symmetric animal that has tissue layers, a digestive (gastrovascular) cavity but no coelom is
a. sponge
b. jellyfish
c. flatworm
d. roundworm
e. starfish
11. What is one characteristic which separates chordates from all other animals
a. segmentation
b. true coelom
c. bilateral symmetry
d. radial symmetry
e. complete digestive track
f. notochord and gill slits
12. All of the following plant structures are adaptations specifically for a terrestrial environment EXCEPT
a. chloroplasts
b. xylem (vascular tissue)
c. roots
d. waxy cuticle
e. seeds
13. Which of the following would most likely occur if the Kingdom Monera were to suddenly perish?
a. life would flourish due to an absence of all disease
b. life would eventually perish because of increased levels of carbon dioxide leading to the
greenhouse effect and global warming
c. life would die out because decomposition and chemical cycling would virtually stop
d. only the organisms that feed directly on the Monerans would suffer any deleterious effects.
e. very little change would occur because Monerans are not of significant ecological importance
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14. Members of the Chlorophyta (green algae) are sometimes grouped with members of the Kingdom
Protista because they
a. are heterotrophs.
b. are multicellular.
c. have chlorophyll a.
d. store carbohydrates as starch.
e. have cellulose cell walls.
f. are unicellular
15. Which biome is not found in North America
a. taiga (boreal forest)
b. desert
c. savanna (tropical grassland)
d. temperate deciduous forest
e. tundra (herb tundra)
16. Which is not a stage of culture that allowed humans to overcome normal population controls.
a. agriculture
b. Renaissance
c. machine age
d. hunting/gathering
17. Pollutants disperse (mix) most readily in
a. the oceans
b. the atmosphere
c. in lakes
d. on land
18. Which adaptation to life on land is correctly matched to the group of plants in which it first appeared?
a. flowers - gymnopserms (conifers)
b. vascular tissue - ferns
c. pollen - mosses
d. spores - angiosperms (flowering plants)
19. Many animals can determine direction, that is, they have a compass sense. Which one of the following
cues is not usually used to determine direction?
a. sun
b. tides
c. stars
d. magnetism
e. landforms
20. To an ecologist, an “interbreeding groups of individuals that occupies a specific geographic area” is a
a. population
b. species
c. community
d. gene pool
e. ecosystem
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21. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Two species may not live in the same region
b. The more dissimilar the niches of two species, the stronger is their competition
c. No two species can occupy exactly the same niche (habitat).
d. No two species may occupy the same ecosystem.
22. The cycle most important for modifying (moderating) temperature fluctuation is the
a. water cycle.
b. carbon cycle.
c. nitrogen cycle.
d. phosphorus cycle.
e. none of the above.
23. Which of the following smelting pollutants (pollutants from refining metals) contributes most to acid
rain?
a. SO2
b. CO
c. H2 CO3
d. HCO3
e. N2
24. Biological magnification is
a. the increase in size of organisms at higher trophic levels.
b. the increase in number of organisms at higher trophic levels.
c. the concentration of stable, nonexcretable chemicals in organisms at higher trophic levels.
d. the concentration of nitrates and phosphates in a polluted lake.
e. the capture of smaller organisms by larger organisms at higher trophic levels.
25. Combustion of fossil fuels most directly affects the
a. carbon cycle.
b. water cycle.
c. nitrogen cycle.
d. phosphorus cycle.
e. none of the above
26. A table listing such items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life expectancy is
known as a
a. life table.
b. mortality table.
c. survivorship table.
d. rate table.
e. insurance table.
27. Prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells in all of the following ways except that
a. the prokaryotic genome has a unique organization
b. prokaryotes have a relatively simple organization of their cytoplasm.
c. prokaryotes have a cell wall with unique components.
d. prokaryotes lack DNA.
e. prokaryotes are typically much smaller.
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Choose one of the following options to answer Questions 28-30. Each options may be used once, more than
once, or not at all.
a. random selection
b. directional selection
c. stabilizing selection
d. diversifying or disruptive selection
e. sexual selection
28. An African butterfly species exists in two strikingly different color patterns, each of which closely
resembles other species that are distasteful to birds.
29. Brightly colored peacocks mate more frequently than do drab colored peacocks.
30. A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate
individuals are relatively rare.
31. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an equilibrial species?
a. usually one reproductive episode per lifetime with many offspring
b. extensive capability to deal with environmental fluctuations
c. long maturation time and long generation time
d. large body size and large offspring or eggs
e. several reproductive episodes with parental care provided to offspring
Use the survivorship curves in the figure below to answer questions 32-34.
32. Which curve best describes survivorship in fish like lake trout?
33. Which curve best describes survivorship in cows?
34. Which curve is impossible?
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35. How would the dispersion of humans in the United States best be described?
a. dense
b. clumped
c. random
d. intrinsic
e. uniform
36. Which of the following statements about human birth and death rates is correct?
a. Both death rates and birth rates are highest in 30 year olds.
b. Both death rates and birth rates are highest in teenagers.
c. Death rates are highest in middle-aged adults, whereas the birth rates are highest in teenagers.
d. Death rate are highest in newborns and in the elderly, whereas birth rates are highest in 20-yearolds.
e. Death rates are highest in the elderly, whereas birth rates are highest in newborns
37. Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age
structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest
fraction of people in which age range?
a. 50 to 60 years
b. 40 to 50 years
c. 30 to 40 years
d. 20 to 30 years
e. 10 to 20 years
38. Which of the following would be most helpful in solving the world’s environmental problems?
a. increased agricultural productivity
b. new energy sources
c. increased life expectancy
d. more food from the oceans
e. decreased birth rates
39. All of the following have contributed to growth of the human population EXCEPT
a. environmental degradation
b. improved nutrition
c. vaccines
d. pesticides
e. improved sanitation
40. Which of the following types of interactions in incorrectly paired to its effects on the two interacting
species?
a. predation - one benefits, one loses
b. parasitism - one benefits, one loses
c. commensalism - both benefit
d. mutualism - both benefit
41. An insect that has evolved to closely resemble a twig will probable be able to avoid
a. parasitism
b. symbiosis
c. predation
d. competition
e. commensalism
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42. To be certain that two species have coevolved, one would ideally have to establish that
a. the two species are adapted to a common set of environmental conditions.
b. each species has an impact on the population density of the other species.
c. the local extinction of one species results in the extinction of the other species
d. one species has adaptations that specifically followed evolutionary change in the other species.
e. the two species originated at about the same time.
Examine the terrestrial food web below and answer questions 43 to 46.
43. Which species is autotrophic?
44. Which species is most likely the decomposer?
45. A toxic pollutant would probably reach its highest concentration in which species?
46. Excluding the decomposer, biomass would probably be smallest for which species?
47. The high levels of DDT found in birds of prey is an example of
a. eutrophication.
b. ecological concentrating effects.
c. biological magnification.
d. the Gaia hypothesis - the earth as a living being - a superorganism
e. chemical cycling through an ecosystem.
48. In which nutrient cycle are bacteria important for processes other than decomposition?
a. nitrogen cycle
b. hydrologic cycle
c. carbon cycle
d. phosphorous cycle
e. energy cycle
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49. Which of the following statements are true of fixed action patterns?
a. they are highly stereotyped, instinctive behaviors.
b. They are triggered by sign stimuli in the environment and, once begun, are continued to
completion.
c. a supernormal stimulus often produces a stronger response.
d. only a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
50. The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment whereas the ultimate cause of
behavior is
a. hormones
b. evolution
c. sexuality
d. pheromones
e. the nervous system
51. A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a behavior that is
difficult to modify through later experiences is called.
a. insight.
b. imprinting.
c. habituation.
d. operant conditioning
e. trial and error learning.
52. Which of the following lists only abiotic environmental factors?
a. food, temperature, fire wind
b. soil minerals, oxygen level, light, predators
c. food, parasites, predators, competitors
d. wind, temperature, soil minerals, light
e. light, rainfall, food, temperature
53. Most ____ must live in both the benthic and photic zones.
a. sharks
b. seaweeds
c. clams
d. whales
e. phytoplankton
54. Bob was reading the newspaper. “more people burned out of their homes in Southern California”, he
remarked. His wife, Barb, looked up from her reading. “that’s a shame” she said “But I guess you have to
expect a fire once in a while if you live in the ______”.
a. temperate grassland
b. tundra
c. chapparal
d. taiga
e. savanna
55. Change of seasons is caused by
a. change in the distance of the Earth from the sun.
b. the tilt of the earth.
c. variation in output of solar energy.
d. changes in wind patterns
e. gravitational pull of the sun and moon.
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56. Which of the following is not an abiotic factor that shapes ecosystems?
a. soil minerals
b. predators
c. fire
d. rainfall
e. volcanic eruptions
57. When goats were introduced to an island of the California coast, the goats lived in the same areas and
ate the same plants as the native deer. The deer population dwindled, and the deer finally disappeared.
This is an example of
a. commensalism
b. succession
c. a food chain
d. coevolution
e. competitive exclusion.
58 An ecosystem is unlikely to be limited by the supply of ______ because it is obtained from the air
a. water
b. carbon
c. phosphorous
d. calcium
e. nitrogen
59. Which of the following is considered to be the most sophisticated kind of learning?
a. innovation
b. kinesis
c. habituation
d. imprinting
e. trial and error
60. A frog may at first be startled by tree branches swaying in the wind, but it soon gets used to these kinds
of unimportant changes in its environment. This is an example of
a. a fixed-action pattern
b. imprinting.
c. altruism
d. habituation.
e. trail and error learning.
61. When animals engage in _____ , they often perform displays that make them look as large and
dangerous as possible.
a. courtship rituals
b. altruism
c. kin selection
d. kineses
e. agonistic behavior
62. Anthropomorphism is
a. the study of animal behavior under controlled laboratory conditions.
b. a productive and helpful point of view for studying animal behavior
c. the study of human beings’ closest relatives - monkey and apes.
d. attributing human characteristics to animals.
e. communication by means of visual signals.
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63. Human groups known or strongly suspected to have caused major environmental changes or extinction
include
a. Ice Age hunter-gatherers of Euarasia and North America (Pleistocene Extinctions)
b. early plowmen and herders of the Fertile Crescent
c. subsistence farmers of modern Madagascar
d. all of the above
e. both b and c
64. Western fence lizards are sometimes called bluebellies because the undersides of the males are bright
blue. If one male invades another’s territory, the territory owner protest vigorously, doing “pushups” to
display his belly and , if necessary, pushing the invader out. If an intruder’s blue belly is first painted
brown, he is completely ignored by the territory owner. the blue belly of the intruder apparently acts as a
_____, triggering _____.
a. search image .... optimal foraging
b. sign stimulus ..... altruism
c. sign stimulus ... agonistic behavior
d. search image ... altruism
e. fixed-action pattern ... imprinting
65. Which terrestrial biome (listed below) are you likely to find at 30 o N and S latitude
a. tropical rainforest
b. tundra
c. desert
d. temperate forest
e. coniferous forest
66. Which of the following is a potential effect of greenhouse warming
a. an increase of sealevel by 1 to 10 feet
b. an increase in the rates of decomposition
c. melting of alpine glaciers and sea-ice in the arctic ocean
d. changes in precipitation patterns
e. two of the above
f. all of the above
67. What happens when forests are cut
a. transpiration increases
b. nutrients are taken up by decomposition
c. evaporation decreases
d. surface water flow increases, streamflow increases by 40%
e. soils are improved
68. Which of the following is the best shape and organization of a biological reserve to preserve species
a. a large square
b. a sizeable area of irregular shape
c. several smaller circular areas connected by corridors
d. widely spaced small circular areas
e. a single large circular area
69. The maximum number of individuals a habitat can support is called the
a. reproductive potential
b. carrying capacity
c. community size
d. density-dependent factor
e. population growth
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70. A newly mated queen ant founds an ant nest in an unoccupied patch of suitable habitat. Assuming that
no disasters strike the nest, which of the following types of equation is likely to best describe its population
growth?
a. linear
b. quadratic
c. logarithmic
d. logistic
e. exponential
71. If an ecosystem has a carrying capacity of 1000 individuals for a given species, and 2000 individuals of
that species are present, the population
a. is at equilibrium
b. will decline dramatically
c. will show a clumped dispersion pattern
d. will show a uniform dispersion pattern
e. will slowly increase
72. When a New England farm is abandoned, its formerly plowed fields first become weedy meadows, then
shrubby areas, and finally forest. This sequence of plant communities is an example of
a. evolution
b. a phylogenetic trend
c. a trophic chain
d. plant succession
e. genetic drift
73. According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same
a. environmental habitat
b. ecological niche
c. territory
d. range
e. biome
74. A community is made up of
a. different kinds of living organisms
b. one species of organism
c. living organisms and their nonliving environment
d. ecosystems
e. the factors that constitute an organism’s niche
75. Eutrophication of a lake could occur if
a. phosphate-rich detergents are dumped into the lake
b. fertilizers from farms are washed into the lake
c. raw sewage is dumped into the lake
d. runoff from over-fertilized lawns reaches the lake
e. all of the above
76. In experimental studies conducted at the Hubbard Brook Experimental Forest, it was found that water
and minerals (nutrients) were retained most efficiently by
a. areas where trees were cut and allowed to rot on the ground
b. areas where trees were cut and then cleared
c. plots inoculated with genetically engineered bacteria
d. plots where inorganic fertilizer was added
e. undisturbed forests
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77. What is the role of producers in an ecosystem?
a. energy fixation
b. concentration of minerals from the soil
c. carbon fixation
d. recycling of detritus
e. a, b, and c only
78. What is the most important limiting factor in energy flow in ecosystems?
a. activity of detritivores
b. efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels
c. intensity of sunlight
d. activity of producers
e. number of connections in food web
79. How does carbon dioxide contribute to the greenhouse effect?
a. Carbon dioxide is tansparent to visible light but absorbs infrared radiation
b. Carbon dioxide promotes the growth of plants
c. Carbon dioxide is produced by the burning of fossil fuels
d. Carbon dioxide causes ice caps to melt
e. All of the above
80. What causes acid rain?
a. decomposition of organic material
b. destruction of tropical forests
c. combustion of fossil fuels
d. use of chemical fertilizers
e. all of the above
81. What kind of air movement produces rain?
a. surface wind
b. rising air
c. descending air
d. trade winds
e. polar front
82. What kind of behavioral response happens only in newborns?
a. fixed-action pattern
b. imprinting
c. habituation
d. operant conditioning
e. classical conditioning
83. A hypothesis is
1. the same as a theory
2. an educated guess proposed as a tentative explanation for a
specific phenomenon
3. an explanatory idea that is broad in scope and supported by
a large body of evidence
4. a widely accepted idea about a phenomenon
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 1, 3, and 4
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84. A scientist performs a "controlled" experiment. This means that
a. the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate
b. the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all
reactions and process all experimental data
c. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by only a single variable
d. two experiments are conducted, one differing from the other by two or more variables
e. one experiment is performed but the scientist controls the variables
85. Which statement is correct?
a. Genes are proteins that produce DNA.
b. Each organism has its own unique DNA code.
c. The DNA of humans is more similar to the DNA of birds than it is to that of apes.
d. Differences among organisms reflect different nucleotide sequences in their DNA.
e. Each DNA molecule is a single strand of nucleotides.
86. A monohybrid cross is
a. the second generation of a self-fertilized plant
b. a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties have only one trait in common
c. a breeding experiment in which the parental varieties differ in only one trait
d. a triploid plant that results from breeding two very different plants
e. none of these
87. When a gene for a given trait comes in alternative versions that specify different forms of the trait (for
example, purple-flower and white-flower versions of a flower-color gene), the versions of the gene are
called
a. loci
b. supergenes
c. chromosomes
d. alleles
e. gametes
88. An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
c. genotypically similar
d. segregated
e. cross-fertilized
89. A carrier of a genetic disorder who does not show symptoms is most likely to be
a. heterozygous for the trait and able to transmit it to offspring
b. heterozygous for the trait but unable to transmit it to offspring
c. heterozygous for the trait and able to transmit it to male offspring
d. homozygous for the trait and certain to transmit it to offspring
e. homozygous for the trait and not certain to transmit it to
offspring
90. Imagine that beak color in a finch species is controlled by a single gene. You mate a finch homozygous
for orange (pigmented) beak with a finch homozygous for ivory (unpigmented) beak and get numerous
offspring all of which have a pale, ivory-orange beak. This pattern of color expression is most likely to be
an example of
a. incomplete dominance
b. codominance
c. pleiotropy
d. polygenic inheritance
e. crossing over
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91. The monomer units of DNA and RNA are
a. amino acids
b. monosaccharides
c. nucleotides
d. fatty acids
e. nucleic acids
92. Experiments have demonstrated that the "words" of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids)
are
a. single nucleotides
b. two-nucleotide sequences
c. three-nucleotide sequences
d. nucleotide sequences of various lengths
e. enzymes
93. A physical or chemical agent that changes the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called
a. a reverse transcriptase
b. a terminator
c. a transposon
d. a mutagen
e. an anticodon
94. Which of the following is the enzyme that HIV uses to synthesize DNA on an RNA template?
a. ligase
b. RNA polymerase
c. terminator enzyme
d. reverse transcriptase
e. none of these
95. Translation consists in which of the following?
a. the conversion of genetic information from the language of nucleic acids to the language of proteins
b. the conversion of genetic information from DNA nucleotides into RNA nucleotides
c. the addition of nucleotides to a DNA template
d. the conversion of genetic information from the language of proteins to the language of enzymes
e. DNA replication
96. Regions of noncoding DNA within a gene are called
a. introns
b. exons
c. redundant coding sections
d. oncogenes
e. nucleosomes
97. A gene whose abnormal protein product or abnormal rate of expression helps to cause a cell to become
cancerous is called
a. a mutagen
b. a cancer-stimulating gene
c. an oncogene
d. a carcinogen
e. a promoter
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98. A normal gene with the potential to become a cancer-causing gene is called
a. a hyperreactive gene
b. an oncogene
c. a proto-oncogene
d. a malignant gene
e. an operon
99. Mutations that lead to cancer most often occur in _____ cells, and thus _____ be inherited.
a. sex cells, can
b. somatic, cannot
c. sex cells, cannot
d. somatic, can
e. epithelial, can
100. In many bacteria, genes that confer resistance to antibiotics are carried on
a. F factors
b. R plasmids
c. dissimilation plasmids
d. transposons
e. exons
101. Segments of eukaryotic DNA that are able to move from one site to another in the genome are called
a. alleles
b. plasmids
c. transposons
d. introns
e. vectors
102. The gene-cutting tools of recombinant DNA technology are
a. restriction enzymes
b. DNA ligases
c. plasmids
d. DNA vectors
e. helicases
103. What kind of cells wander the interstitial fluid eating whatever bacteria and virus-infected cells they
encounter and recognize?
a. neutrophils
b. monocytes
c. leukocytes
d. macrophages
e. interferons
104. A substance that can elicit an immune response is called
a. a complement
b. an interferon
c. a histamine
d. an antibody
e. an antigen
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105. The immune system is capable of mounting specific responses to particular microorganisms because
a. lymphocytes are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection
b. stem cells determine which type of B and T cells to make
c. the body contains an enormous diversity of lymphocytes, each with
a specific kind of antigen receptor
d. stem cells make different antigen receptors depending on the invading microorganism
e. stem cells are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection
106. Antibodies are
a. amino acids
b. lipids
c. carbohydrates
d. proteins
e. nucleic acids
107. Which of the following hormones causes a rise in the concentration of sugar in the blood?
a. insulin
b. glucagon
c. melatonin
d. calcitonin
e. oxytocin
108. Which of the following statements is not true of the resting potential?
a. The cell membrane is much more permeable to potassium than to sodium.
b. The concentration of sodium is much higher inside the cell than outside it.
c. Large organic molecules do not diffuse out of the cell.
d. Most of the proteins dissolved in the cell's cytoplasm are negatively charged.
e. Inside the cell, the concentration of potassium is much higher
than the concentration of sodium.
109. The gray matter of brains is largely composed of
a. dendrites and axons
b. cell bodies
c. myelinated axons
d. dendrites
e. synapses
110. An experimenter takes a group of oat seedlings and inserts a thin, horizontal sheet of glass halfway
through each coleoptile just below the tip. The coleoptiles are then lit horizontally so that either the side
with the glass sheet or the opposite side is illuminated. After 6 hours, the coleoptiles illuminated on the
same side as the glass sheet have bent toward the light, whereas the coleoptiles illuminated on the side
opposite the glass sheet are straight. These results demonstrate that
a. growth-promoting substances were transported from the coleoptile tip down the shaded side
b. growth-promoting substances were transported from the coleoptile tip down the lit side
c. growth-promoting substances were transported from the lit to the
shaded side of the coleoptile
d. coleoptile bending is induced by the auxin indoleacetic acid
e. growth-promoting substances are degraded faster in cells that receive more light
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111. Your uncle, who has been reading your biology textbook, finds some dormant iris rhizomes in his
basement in July and wonders if he can get them to bloom in the fall by using flashes of red light from a
modified darkroom setup. Iris is a long-day plant that normally flowers in the spring. Which of the
following regimens would you recommend as the most effective?
a. punctuating the plants' nights at 2:00 a.m. with a flash of far-red light
b. punctuating the plants' nights at 2:00 a.m. with a flash of red
light followed by a flash of far-red light
c. punctuating the plants' nights at 2:00 a.m. with a red flash,
then a far-red flash, then a red flash
d. punctuating the plants' nights at 2:00 a.m. with a red flash,
then a far-red flash, then a red flash, then a far-red flash
e. punctuating the plant's days at 2:00 p.m. with a flash of red light
112. The most reliable way to stimulate branching in a plant is to
a. apply auxin to the axillary buds
b. remove the apical bud
c. give short-day light treatments
d. apply ethylene
e. add extra fertilizer
113. In the past, all green bean varieties were vines and had to be grown on poles ("pole beans"). Modern
field-grown varieties, however, are dwarf mutants called bush beans. Bush beans grow as small bushes
largely because their internodes are short and because they tend to branch close to the apical meristem.
Application of which of the following substances might make a bush bean revert to a vine habit?
a. a cytokinin
b. a gibberellin
c. abscisic acid
d. ethylene
e. phytochrome
114. John Smith is a deaf individual born to parents with normal hearing. Deafness is a recessive trait that
is associated with the abnormal allele d. The normal allele at this locus, associated with normal hearing, is
D. John Smith's parents could have which of the following genotypes?
1. DD and dd
3. Dd and Dd
2. dd and dd
4. DD and DD
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. either 3 or 4
115. Human muscle cells contain how many chromosomes?
a. 11
b. 23
c. 46
d. 79
e. 82
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True/False - mark true = a, and false = b.
116. The energy loss at each trophic level is approximately 90%.
117. An organism's niche is analogous to its address.
118. Animals whose flesh is poisonous are likely to be brightly colored.
119. After infection by the AIDS virus, a cell's genome contains the information required to make more
viruses.
120. Vaccination with a genetically engineered cowpox virus that carries the surface antigens of a second virus
can induce immunity to the second virus.
121. Half of your genes are devoted to coding for antibodies with unique antigen-binding sites.
122. Radioactive iodine is dangerous because it accumulates in the thyroid gland.
123. Fungi can produce hormones that regulate the growth of plants.
124. Plants may defend themselves by producing chemicals that resemble insect hormones.
125. As a cell increases in size (without changing shape), its surface-to-volume ratio increases.
126. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
127. Biological and physical factors interact to govern the abundance and distribution of organisms.
128. Mathematical models can be used to predict population growth.
129. The phyletic history of any organism is likely to include both phyletic gradualism and punctuated
equilibrium.
130. A behavioral pattern may be controlled by a single gene.
131. Cro-Magnons were the first humans to show definite signs of cultural transmission.
132. The smaller the diameter of an axon, the faster it can conduct nerve impulses.
133. Sensory neurons are found only in organs of special senses.
134. The autonomic nervous system controls the foot-kicking reflex that is stimulated by a blow to the knee.
135. Only eucaryotes can translate eucaryote genes into proteins.
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