Download Practice Final (Type II MC)

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1) Select the correct statement(s) about HIV Regulatory and Accessory proteins:
A. Regulatory proteins include TAT and NEF
B. Accessory proteins include VPR and VIF
C. VPU targets CD8 for proteasomal degradation
D. REV allows export of late, unspliced RNA to the cytoplasm
2) The REV protein:
A. Is necessary for cytoplasmic expression of an unspliced 9kb mRNA fragment
B. Is necessary for cytoplasmic expression of a spliced 2kb mRNA fragment
C. Transports mRNA with the assistance of CRM-1 and Ran-GTP
D. Uses a lysine rich motif to bind REV Responsive Elements in mRNA
3) Protein Kinase R:
A. Phosphorylates eIF2 alpha
B. Is inhibited by PACT, and activated by ADAR1 and TRBP
C. Is inactive when T cells are infected with high HIV burden
D. Activates translation
4) Tat can interact with which of the following cellular receptor(s) to trigger intracellular signaling cascades?
A. CD4
B. Integrins
C. CCR2
D. VEGF tyrosine kinase receptor 2
5) Which of the following is/are correct piece(s) of evidence supporting Nef’s involvement in HIV pathogenesis?
A. Several long-term non progression (LNTP) patients have Nef mutations
B. Macaques infected with Nef -/- SIV strains did not develop disease
C. Intact Nef expression was necessary for inducing disease in transgenic mice expressing the complete HIV-1 genome
D. High amounts of extracellular Nef protein can be found in Kaposi Sarcoma lesions of HIV patients
6) The Berlin Patient:
A. Received an allogeneic bone marrow transplant
B. Developed chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Is still HIV-free today
D. Inspired allogeneic bone marrow transplants in Boston which resulted in cure without viral rebound
7) Sterilizing cure:
A. Involves generation of effective host immunity to HIV that would result in lifelong control of the virus in absence of therapy
B. Involves the elimination of all HIV-infected cells
C. May be possible with integrase inhibitors
D. Is realistic and easy to achieve in terms of killing HV brain cells
8) Which of the following is/are of the seven key priorities towards an HIV cure?
A. Origins of immune activation and inflammation during ART
B. Measure persistent HIV infection and detect latently infected cells
C. Therapeutic agents or immunological strategies to safely eliminate latent infection
D. Host mechanisms that control HIV replication in absence of therapy
9) CanCURE:
A. Is a collaboration between NSERC and the Canadian Foundation for Aids Research (CANFAR)
B. Is a collaboration between CIHR and the International AIDS society
C. Involves a project on the impact of early treatment in HIV-infected elderly patients
D. Involves a project on the impact of early treatment in HIV-infected children
10) Which of the following are consequences of untreated HIV infection?
A. Increase in Tregs
B. CMV replication
C. Increased thymus integrity
D. Microbial Translocation
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11) Which of the following is/are functional classes of HIV drugs discussed in class?
A. Fusion Inhibitors
B. CCR5 Inhibitors
C. Integrase Inhibitors
D. Ribonuclease Inhibitors
12) Which of the following statements about approved HIV drugs is/are true?
A. The first approved HIV drug, AZT, is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
B. The first approved HIV drug, AZT, is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
C. The most recently approved HIV drug, dolutegravir, is a protease inhibitor
D. The most recently approved HIV drug, dolutegravir, is an integrase inhibitor
13) Genetic barrier to resistance can be defined as:
A. Duration of exposure to drug in order for resistance to occur
B. Time to development of clinically relevant resistance
C. Number of mutations needed for resistance to be greater than 10-fold
D. Number of SNPs in a gene encoding an enzyme that metabolizes a given drug
14) Which of the following statements about the 2013 clinical trials with dolutegravir is/are correct?
A. The dolutegravir arm consisted of the following three drugs: dolutegravir + efavirenz + 3TC
B. The atripla arm consisted of the following three drugs: efavirenz + tenofavir + abacavir
C. Subjects treated with the atripla arm had greater survival than subjects treated with the dolutegravir arm
D. Subjects treated with the dolutegravir arm had greater survival than subjects treated with the atripla arm
15) Which of the following statements about Pre-exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) is/are correct?
A. It involves taking drugs even if not actively infected
B. Studies of drug adherence were conducted in STD clinics in Los Angeles, Chicago, and Houston
C. The efficacy of the drug Tenofavir in this context was tested
D. It has been shown to be beneficial exclusively for homosexual males, and not female sex workers
16) Which of the following HIV drugs is/are correctly associated with their drug classes?
A. Dolutegravir: Protease Inhibitor
B. Neverapine: Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI)
C. AZT: Integrase Inhibitor
D. Doravarine: Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor (NRTI)
17) What pieces of advice, which were later determined to be unrealistic and ineffective, did people historically give to prevent HIV infection?
A. Wear condoms
B. Take AZT prophylactically
C. Stay abstinent
D. Get circumcized
18) GARDEL:
A. Did not show a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of double therapy vs. triple therapy
B. Showed a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of double therapy vs. triple therapy
C. Double therapy included a Protease Inhibitor
D. Double therapy included a Fusion Inhibitor
19) The drug d4t:
A. Causes few negligible adverse effects
B. Is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
C. Use has been increasing globally in recent years
D. Is cheap
20) The drug doravarine:
A. Is developed by the company Merck
B. Was FDA-approved in 2014
C. Is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
D. Is significantly more effective than Efavirenz
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21) GAG consists of the following domain(s):
A. Integrase (IN)
B. Capsid (CA)
C. GP120
D. Spacer Peptide 1 (SP1)
22) Which of the following statements about GAG is/are correct in the context of membrane targeting and multimerization?
A. In GAG MA’s M domain, a myristic acid conjugated to a glutamine is essential for membrane targeting
B. In GAG MA’s M domain, acidic amino acid residues are essential for membrane targeting
C. In GAG NC’s I domain, acidic amino acid residues are essential for multimerization
D. In GAG NC’s I domain, basic amino acid residues are essential for multimerization
23) Which of the following virus(es) discussed in class other than HIV-1 require pentamers for proper capsid assembly?
A. Molooney Murine Leukemia Virus
B. HTLV-1
C. Mason Pfeitzer Monkey Virus
D. Mouse Mammary Tumour Viruses
24) The new experimental HIV drug PA-457:
A. Causes significantly increased cleavage of p25
B. Structurally involves many conjoined cyclohexane rings
C. Has a high genetic barrier and is revolutionarily potent
D. Treatment affects capsid assembly
25) HIV-1’s Env protein:
A. Consists of the transmembrane domain GP120 and the surface domain GP41
B. Contains HR helix bundles in its GP41
C. Uses its p6 sequence to package Vpr into the virus particle
D. Depends on a MA sequence of the Gag precursor to be recruited to the assembly site on the plasma membrane
26) All human endogenous retroviruses encode the following element(s):
A. 5’ LTR
B. Gag
C. 3’ LTR
D. Pol
27) Mechanisms of human endogenous retrovirus propagation in the human genome include:
A. Retrotransposition
B. Replication with the help of other retroviruses
C. Reinfection
D. Replication with the help of other non-retroviruses
28) How do cells control activity of LINEs?
A. Promoter CpG Demethylation
B. Promoter CpG Methylation
C. Interferon-induced Nucleases
D. siRNA silencing
29) Advantages of using pigs for xenotransplantation include:
A. Attain sexual maturity within 4 months
B. Gestation periods of only 3.5 months
C. No risk of zoonotic infection
D. Unlike many monkeys, pigs aren’t endangered
30) Porcine endogenous retroviruses:
A. Become more infectious when passing to human cells
B. Cases of active transmission to human beings in vivo have not been reported yet
C. Can infect human kidney embryonic cell lines like 293T in vitro
D. Can be found in all of the following viral families: Lentivirus, Alphavirus, and Gammaretrovirus
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31) The following TLRs is/are located in the endosome:
A. TLR4
B. TLR9
C. TLR10
D. TLR3
32) Which of the following cell type(s) without a doubt express TLR7?
A. Dendritic Cells
B. T Cells
C. Macrophages
D. Monocytes
33) Which of the following experimental findings about TLRs is/are correct?
A. TLR3 -/- mice have decreased survival upon West Nile Virus and Influenza A Virus infection
B. TLR9 is associated with mother to child HCV infection
C. TLR9 is associated with spontaneous HBV resolution
D. TLR4 -/- mice are protected from acute lung injury caused by inactivated H5N1
34) RIG-I:
A. Can bind 5’ppp dsRNA
B. Can bind 5’ppp dsDNA
C. Can bind certain RNA secondary structures
D. Trimerizes in its active form
35) Which of the following statements about cytoplasmic viral sensors is/are correct?
A. 5’ppp dsRNA that is 1 kb long will activate both RIG-I and Mda5
B. Lgp2 possesses a CARD domain
C. MAVS does not have a CARD domain
D. IFI16 can detect both ssDNA and dsDNA, in both the cytoplasm and nucleus
36) Which of the following statements about interferons are correct?
A. Type I interferon genes do not contain introns
B. Type II interferon genes do not contain introns
C. Type I interferon is pH resistant
D. Type II interferon is pH resistant
37) Transcription factors which bind the Type I IFNB gene promoter include:
A. NF-kB
B. AP-1
C. IRF3
D. IRF7
38) Which of the following statements about Type III Interferons is/are correct?
A. Mediates antibiotic-induced prevention of persistent norovirus infection in mice
B. Polymorphism in IFNy3 gene is associated with spontaneous and treatment-induced HBV resolution
C. IL-29, IL-28 alpha and IL-28 beta are all Type III IFNs
D. Type I and III IFNs are better characterized in function than Type II IFNs
39) MyD88 signaling:
A. Involves TLR3
B. Involves TLR7
C. Activates the transcription factor IRF3
D. Activates the transcription factor NF-kB
40) Type I Interferons:
A. Cause flu-like symptoms
B. Can be used to treat hairy cell leukemia and chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Increase MHC II antigen presentation by professional antigen presenting cells
D. Decrease epithelial cell turnover
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41) Select the correct statement(s) about Jak-STAT signaling:
A. IFNAR1 binds Jak1 kinase
B. IFNAR2 binds Tyk2 kinase
C. Gamma activated factor (GAF) is composed of homodimeric STAT2
D. Interferon stimulated gamma factor (ISGF) is composed of STAT1, STAT2, and IRF7
42) Type I IFN signaling can:
A. Activate NK cells
B. Induce expression of cytoplasmic sensors (RIG-I, Mda5, etc.)
C. Promote greater antigen presentation by MHC class I
D. Prevent apoptosis by inhibiting Caspases
43) Select the correct statement(s) about Oligoadenylate Synthetases:
A. May act in association with Mda5
B. Contains three catalytically active forms (OAS1, 2, and 3) and one catalytically inactive form (OASL)
C. Are activated by dsRNA
D. Create oligoadenylates of GTP to activate RNAse L
44) Select the correct statement(s) about Mx proteins:
A. MxA and MxB are GTPases of the dynamin superfamily
B. MxA, discovered by Dr. Chen Liang, inhibits HIV-1 replication
C. MxB acts through a variety of mechanisms, such as degrading the viral core, inhibiting nuclear import and preventing genomic integration
D. MxB -/- mice have greater susceptibility to H5N1 influenza
45.) Select the correct statement(s) about ISG15:
A. Causes proteosomal degradation of any protein it’s attached to
B. Has 90% amino acid homology with ubiquitin
C. Like ubiquitin, attaches to proteins in multimeric chains of over 50 subunits
D. Mutation in its gene lead to deadly inflammatory diseases like brain calcification
46) Which of the following are indeed ways viruses antagonize surface and cytoplasmic sensor signaling?
A. Promoting greater stability of dsRNA
B. Inhibiting TLR signaling
C. Activating NF-kB
D. Sequestering dsRNA
47) Select the correct statement(s) about Influenza virus infection:
A. Is detected by TLR3, 4 and 7
B. Uses NS1 to block RIG-I, PKR and 2’-5’ OAS
C. Infecting mice with NS1 -/- strains causes higher type I IFN production
D. Causes 250-500k deaths per year
48) Select the correct statement(s) about HCV infection:
A. PKR successfully blocks translation of its viral proteins
B. Has a 90% success rate of treatment with IFNa and ribavirin
C. Cleaves PKR
D. Cleaves MAVS
49) Select the correct statement(s) about HSV infection:
A. Uses ICP0 to inhibit both IRF3 and IRF7
B. Infection of mice with ICP27 -/- strains lead to greater IRF3 activation and STAT1 phosphorylation and nuclear accumulation
C. ICP34.5 can reverse PKR’s effect of phosphorylating eIF2 alpha
D. Vhs degrades viral mRNAs exclusively and not host mRNAs
50) Select the correct statement(s) about HIV infection:
A. Uses TREX1, a mitochondria-based cellular DNAse to degrade HIV genomic DNA
B. Tat induces PKR expression
C. Type I IFN signaling can promote greater HIV replication
D. TAT acts a decoy substrate for PKR instead of eIF2 alpha
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51) The exogenous pathway of RNA interference:
A. Generates siRNAs
B. Generates miRNAs
C. Can be activated by viral RNA
D. Can be activated by repeat-associated RNA (centromeres, transposons)
52) Which of the following statements is/are true about miRNAs?
A. Generated by the endogenous pathway of RNA interference
B. Invariably target mRNAs in their 3’ UTR
C. Perfect complementarity in the seed region leads to RNA degradation
D. Can be generated from introns
53) Select the correct statement(s) regarding miRNAs and HCV infection:
A. miRNAs can inhibit HCV replication
B. miRNAs can promote HCV replication
C. miR122 can govern cell tropism
D. miR122 binds at a 3’ UTR site
54) Select the correct statement(s) regarding miRNAs and HIV-1 infection:
A. several miRNAs are overexpressed in resting CD4+ T cells and can potentially promote latent infection
B. miRNAs can target Env
C. phytohaemagluttinin serves as a negative control in the HIV-1 experiments discussed in class by preventing T cell activation
D. miRNAs can target Nef
55) miRNAs regulate the host immune response by:
A. regulating the expression of IL-10 mRNA
B. regulating the expression of TNF mRNA
C. regulating B cell development
D. triggering overexpression of TLR-induced genes
56) Select the correct statements regarding Nodamuravirus infection:
A. The reason why wild-type nodamuravirus is lethal in sucklings but not adult mice is because sucklings have an exaggerated IFN response
B. RNA interference is antiviral in mouse embryonic stem cells but not differentiated cells
C. Nodamuravirus’s B2 protein antagonizes the processing of long dsRNAs into siRNAs
D. Nodamuravirus can infect insects
57) Select the correct statements regarding ebola infection and RNA interference:
A. VP35 antagonizes RISC activity
B. VP30 requires siRNA for interaction
C. VP35 requires siRNA for interaction
D. VP30 and 35 interact with not only TRBP, but Dicer, and PACT as well
58) Select the correct statements regarding herpes infection and RNA interference:
A. Herpesviruses can steal host miRNAs
B. HCMV and KSHV both encode EBV miR155 mimics which promote oncogenicity
C. miR155 expression correlates with time of EBV infection
D. KSHV’s miRK12-11 can target cell cycle regulation, B lymphocyte function, and transcription factors
59) The following viruses encode more than 1 miRNA genes:
A. Kaposi Sarcoma Associated Herpesvirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Epstein-Barr Virus
D. Herpes Simplex Virus 2
60) Viruses can antagonize which of the following steps of the RNA interference pathway?
A. Nuclear export via Exportin5
B. Loading the guide strand on the RISC complex
C. Processing the Pri-miRNA to Pre-miRNA
D. Processing the Pre-miRNA to miRNAs or siRNAs
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61) Select the correct statement(s) regarding drugs that regulate cytoskeletal organization.
A. Taxol disassembles tubulin microtubules
B. Latruculin B disassembles tubulin microtubules
C. Jasplakinolide polymerizes and stables the actin network
D. Wortmannin acts on myosin kinase
62) Which of the following are mechanisms of intercellular transmission used by HIV-1?
A. Entrapped cell-to-cell transmission through virological synapses
B. Infected cell fusion
C. Free virus receptor-mediated entry
D. Veritable cell-to-cell transmission through chemokine receptors like CXCR4
63) Virus surfing on filopodia:
A. Involves the avoidance of actin-rich regions
B. Enhances infection efficiency
C. Is myosin-II-actin dependent
D. Is used by HCV, but not HIV-1
64) Nanotube infectious transmission:
A. Can be used by HIV-1
B. Can be used by prions
C. Depends on cell-cell collision to be induced
D. Involves the infectious particle physically entering the nanotube
65) Advantages of transmission via virological synapses explicitly mentioned in class include:
A. Immunological escape
B. Enhanced efficiency of transmission
C. Increased rate of decapsidation upon entry into the new host cell
D. Enhanced rate of transmission
66) Which of the following colocalize in the late endosome during HIV-1 infection?
A. Dynamitin
B. HIV-1 RNA
C. LAMP-1
D. HIV-1 GAG
67) The protein hRIP:
A. Is required for HIV RNA to exit the nucleus
B. Is required for HIV RNA to detach from the nuclear pore complex
C. Is host-encoded
D. When deleted, causes HIV RNA to fail to peripheralize
68) Select the correct statements regarding experimental manipulation of the dynein motor complex:
A. p50 dynamitin overexpression disrupts dynactin function
B. Dynein depletion blocks (–) end transport
C. Dynein depletion blocks (+) end transport
D. p50 dynamitin overexpression peripheralizes HIV RNA
69) The protein RILP:
A. Is required for HIV RNA to travel towards the MTOC
B. Involves late endosomes for HIV RNA transport
C. Binds Rab7
D. Is host encoded
70) Which of the following general statements regarding HIV transport are correct?
A. Retroviral Gag has a central role in most translocation events, in both early and late replication
B. Motor protein dynein is involved in the translocation of outgoing RNP complexes
C. Motor protein dynein is involved in the translocation of ingoing RNP complexes
D. Microtubules exclusively allow RNP traffic only towards the MTOC
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71) Select the correct statement(s) about APOBEC3G:
A. Can deaminate DNA
B. Can deaminate RNA
C. Countered by Vif
D. Countered by VPU
72) Select the correct statement(s) about TRIMs:
A. Can promote viral infection in a given cell line
B. Can inhibit viral infection in a given cell line
C. Act before reverse transcription
D. Acts after reverse transcription
73) The delta 32 CCR5 allele:
A. Can promote HIV infection resistance
B. Can be found in plague survivors
C. Was encoded in the stem cells transplanted into the Berlin patient
D. Was encoded in the stem cells transplanted into the Boston patients
74) The restriction factor Tetherin:
A. Also is known as BST-9
B. Functions as a monomer
C. Is countered by Vif
D. Is countered by VPU
75) Which of the following are genes which can affect AIDS outcomes?
A. CCR5
B. HLA
C. APOBEC3G
D. IL-10
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76) Which of the following viruses were used in early clinical trials for oncolysis before the year 1975?
A. Mumps
B. HAV
C. HBV
D. HCV
77) A good oncolytic virus should:
A. Integrate into the host genome
B. Generate high titers of neutralizing antibody
C. Lack specificity between infecting transformed vs. non-transformed cells
D. Be insensitive to a host antiviral response
78) Select the correct statement(s) about oncolytic VSV:
A. GFP-tagged VSV has been proven not to replicate in a metastatic mouse tumor models
B. Can target breast, ovarian, and prostate cancers
C. The wild type is highly susceptible to IFN, given its M protein
D. The VSV-AV1 variant is much safer than the wild type
79) Select the correct statement(s) about oncolytic HSV:
A. Provides the benefit of low multiplicity of infection required
B. Involves genomic integration
C. Safety against neurovirulence can be ensured by deleting ICP34.5
D. Unfortunately, circulating anti-HSV-1 antibody greatly neutralizes cell-to-cell spread
80) Select the correct statement(s) about oncolytic Vaccinia:
A. Requires the nucleus for replication
B. The vvDD strain involves deletion of Thymadine Kinase (TK) and Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF)
C. Is highly specific and has never been seen to replicate in sites other than the tumor
D. The vvDD strain involves deletion of Thymadine Kinase (TK)
81) Which of the following can prevent the oncolytic virus from reaching the tumor?
A. Neutralizing antibodies in plasma
B. Complement
C. Absorption by the liver
D. Blood cell adsorption
82) HDAC inhibitors:
A. Decrease IFN-mediated inhibition of VSV replication
B. Increase IFN-mediated inhibition of VSV replication
C. Can affect non-histone targets too
D. MS-275 has been seen to be more effective than SAHA in sensitizing cancer cells to VSV
83) Vaccinia strain JX-594:
A. Is a vvDD strain engineered to express GM-CSF
B. Has been shown to be effective in rabbit hepatocellular carcinoma
C. Has been shown to be effective in human neck metastatic tumour
D. Was developed by Jennerex Biotherapeutics
84) VSV-CD::UPRT:
A. Involves cloning cytosine deaminase and uracil phosphoribosyltransferase between VSV’s M and G genes
B. Uses 5-FC as a prodrug
C. Involves 5-FU as a final active nucleoside inhibitor
D. Involves 5-FUMP as a final active nucleoside inhibitor
85) Which of the following are obstacles of generating effective oncoviral therapy?
A. Safety in the immunosuppressed
B. Incomplete infusion
C. Genomic Instability/Resistance
D. Rising costs of cloning technology
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86) Antisense oligonucleotides:
A. Can be modified by adding phosphorothioate groups
B. Can be RNA
C. Can be modified by adding LNA groups
D. Can be DNA
87) The SOFA ribozyme:
A. Involves catalytic activity in its P1 stem
B. Has activity on Influenza A
C. Has activity on HIV
D. Involves catalytic activity in its biosensor region
88) Naturally existing ribozymes include:
A. Group I Introns
B. Group II Introns
C. RNA component of RNAse P
D. Ribosomes
89) Advantages of siRNA viral therapy include:
A. No possibility of IFN pathway induction
B. Cheap
C. No possibility of viral escape
D. Easy to design
90) Other in vivo delivery strategies for therapeutic siRNA include:
A. Cholesterol conjugates
B. Aptamer conjugates
C. Antibody conjugates
D. Sepharose bead conjugates
91) Which of the following are required to generate a replication deficient viral vector?
A. A transfer vector containing an origin of replication
B. A transfer vector containing a packaging signal
C. A packaging vector encoding structural proteins
D. A packaging vector encoding proteases for viral processing
92) Which of the following are limitations of retroviral gene therapy?
A. Homologous recombination to regenerate replication-competent viruses
B. Non-homologous recombination to regenerate replication-competent viruses
C. Mutagenesis and Carcinogenesis
D. Most cannot infect non-dividing cells
93) Adenoviral vectors:
A. Are not immunogenic
B. Generate low viral titers
C. Infect dividing cells exclusively
D. Infect non-dividing cells non-exclusively
94) AAV vectors:
A. Do not involve integration
B. Infect dividing cells exclusively
C. Have a massive genome
D. Are safe
95) Retroviral vectors require a transfer vector containing:
A. Long terminal repeats
B. Primer binding site
C. Polypurine tract
D. Structural proteins like GAG
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96 ) Which of the following statements regarding host transcriptional shut down by viruses is/are correct?
A) Poliovirus infection leads to TBP cleavage using its 3C protease
B) Herpesvirus infection inhibits recruitment of TFIIH through ICP4, ICP8 and ICP22
C) Bunyavirus NSs protein blocks TFHH formation and recruitment
D) VSV can degrade TBP
97) Which of the following statements regarding host mRNA processing/export shut down by viruses is/are correct?
A) Parvovirus and HCV both sequester CRM-1 in the cytoplasm
B) Influenza NS-1 cleaves Poly-A Polymerase
C) Picornaviridae can only cleave one nuclear pore protein
D) Herpesvirus redistributes splicesomal snRNPs using ICP27
98) Which of the following viruses inhibit cap-dependent translation yet surmount this inhibition through initiation by IRES?
A) HCV
B) Influenza A
C) Poliovirus
D) VSV
99) Which of the following statements regarding host translation shut down by viruses is/are correct?
A) Rotavirus inhibits eIF4E phosphorylation
B) Adenovirus NSP3 competes for PABP binding to eIF4G and the polyA tail
C) Picornaviruses cleave eIF4E
D) Herpesviruses use L4 to replace the Mnk1 kinase for eIF4E
100) Herpesviruses:
A) Can inhibit host splicing
B) Can inhibit cap-dependent translation
C) Can degrade cellular mRNA
D) Can initiate translation using an IRES
101) Match the correct cellular oncogenes with the functions:
A) ras à G protein
B) myc à transcription factor
C) src à tyrosine kinase
D) raf à serine/threonine kinase
102) Which of the following viruses are among the group of five viruses which are responsible for 20% of all cancers?
A) HBV
B) HHV8
C) HCV
D) HIV
103) Match the correct viral proteins with the mechanisms of inactivating p53:
A) HPV E7 ubiquitinates p53
B) SV40 small T antigen sequesters p53 in inactive complexes
C) Adenovirus E1A relocalizes p53 to perinuclear, cytoplasmic bodies
D) HPV E6 ubiquitinates p53
104) Match the correct retrovirus classes with the mechanisms of cellular transformation:
A) Transducing retroviruses à trans-acting protein
B) Transducing retroviruses à oncogene transduction
C) Non-transducing retroviruses à cis-acting protein
D) Non-transducing retroviruses à cis-acting provirus
105) What are common properties of oncogenic viruses?
A) Cytopathy/cell lysis
B) Potential DNA integration
C) Constant production of infectious viral particles
D) Continuous expression of specific viral sequences