Download 2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015

2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. As a cell becomes larger, its
a. volume increases faster than its surface area.
b. surface area increases faster than its volume.
c. volume increases, but its surface area stays the same.
d. surface area stays the same, but its volume increases.
2. The rate at which wastes are produced by a cell partially depends on the cell’s
a. ratio of surface area to volume.
c. volume.
b. type of membrane.
d. surface area.
3. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called
a. cell division.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. mitosis.
4. An advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction
a. takes less time
c. provides genetic diversity
b. requires more time
d. produces identical offspring
Figure 1
5. The structure labeled A in Figure 1 is called the
a. centromere.
b. centriole.
c. sister chromatid.
d. spindle.
6. The structures labeled B in Figure 1 are called
a. centromeres.
b. centrioles.
c. sister chromatids. d. spindles.
7. During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?
a. prophase
b. telophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
8. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?
a. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
b. telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase
c. interphase, telophase, metaphase, prophase
d. prophase, anaphase, telophase, metaphase
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
9. What is the role of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
a. They help separate the chromosomes.
c. They duplicate the DNA.
b. They break down the nuclear membrane. d. They make the chromosomes visible.
10. During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell that has four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each
containing
a. two chromosomes.
c. eight chromosomes.
b. four chromosomes.
d. sixteen chromosomes.
11. One difference between cell division in plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have
a. centrioles.
b. centromeres.
c. a cell plate.
d. chromatin.
12. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their
a. size.
b. spindle fibers.
c. growth rate.
d. surface area.
13. Cancer cells form masses of cells called
a. tumors.
b. cyclins.
c. growth factors.
d. p53.
14. Why are stem cells important?
a. They have specialized DNA.
b. They are incapable of becoming cancer cells.
c. They have the potential to undergo cell division.
d. They have the potential to develop into other cell types.
15. When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited
a. one allele from each parent.
c. three alleles from each parent.
b. two alleles from each parent.
d. four alleles from each parent.
16. If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents?
a. Both parents were tall.
b. Both parents were short.
c. Both parents contributed a recessive allele.
d. Both parents contributed a dominant allele.
17. When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails?
a. 1
b. 1/2
c. 1/4
d. 1/8
18. The principles of probability can be used to
a. predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses.
b. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.
c. determine which species should be used in genetic crosses.
d. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.
19. A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is
a. 25%.
b. 50%.
c. 75%.
d. 100%.
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
20. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be
a. hybrid.
b. homozygous.
c. heterozygous.
d. dominant.
21. What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each
other’s inheritance?
a. principle of dominance
c. principle of probabilities
b. principle of independent assortment
d. principle of segregation
22. How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype
was RrYY?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
23. Variation in human skin color is an example of
a. incomplete dominance.
c. polygenic traits.
b. codominance.
d. multiple alleles.
24. The arctic fox is blue-gray in the summer and white in the winter. What most likely influence(s) this change?
a. genes and the environment
c. the environment alone
b. dominant alleles
d. codominant alleles
25. If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is
a. 12.
b. 6.
c. 24.
26. Gametes have
a. homologous chromosomes.
b. twice the number of chromosomes found
in body cells.
d. 3.
c. two sets of chromosomes.
d. one allele for each gene.
27. Gametes are produced by the process of
a. mitosis.
b. meiosis.
c. crossing-over.
28. What is formed at the end of meiosis?
a. two genetically identical cells
b. four genetically different cells
c. four genetically identical cells
d. two genetically different cells
29. What stores information in a cell?
a. proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids
d. replication.
d. DNA
30. What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?
a. Genetic information is stored.
c. Genetic information is lost.
b. Genetic information is copied.
d. Genetic information is transmitted.
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
31. In what way is DNA like a book?
a. DNA has information organized with an kind of index.
b. DNA has stored information, that can be copied and passed on.
c. DNA has information wrapped in an identifying cover.
d. DNA has information that is periodically updated.
32. In which cells is the accurate transmission of information most important?
a. nerve cells
b. skin cells
c. sex cells
d. bone cells
33. Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?
a. adenine + phosphate group + thymine
b. cytosine + phosphate group + guanine
c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine
34. Which two bases pair together in DNA?
a. adenine and guanine
b. guanine and thymine
c. thymine and cytosine
d. cytosine and guanine
35. During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases
a. TCGAAC.
b. GATCCA.
c. AGCTTG.
d. GAUCCA.
Figure 2
36. In Figure 2, what nucleotide is going to be added at point 1, opposite from thymine?
a. adenine
b. thymine
c. cytosine
d. guanine
37. In Figure 2, what is adding base pairs to the strand?
a. histones
b. nucleosomes
c. DNA polymerase d. chromatin
38. In eukaryotes, DNA
a. is located in the nucleus.
b. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
c. is located in the ribosomes.
d. is circular.
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
39. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, how many copies of the chromosome are left after replication?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
40. RNA contains the sugar
a. ribose.
b. deoxyribose.
c. glucose.
d. lactose.
Figure 3
41. Which nucleotide in Figure 3 indicates the nucleic acid above is RNA?
a. uracil
b. guanine
c. cytosine
d. adenine
42. Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?
a. rRNA
b. tRNA
c. mRNA
d. RNA polymerase
43. From which molecules are mRNA molecules transcribed?
a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. DNA
d. proteins
Figure 4
44. In Figure 4, which amino acid is specified by the mRNA code CCC?
a. Gly
b. Lys
c. Ala
d. Pro
45. According to Figure 4, which code specifies the same amino acid as UAU?
a. UAC
b. UAA
c. UGC
d. UGU
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
46. What happens during translation?
a. Messenger RNA is made from a DNA code.
b. The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code.
d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
47. Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?
a. spindle fiber
b. tRNA
c. polypeptide
d. anticodon
48. Genes contain instructions for assembling
a. operons.
b. nucleosomes.
d. mutagens.
c. proteins.
49. Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms?
a. protein to DNA to RNA
c. DNA to RNA to protein
b. RNA to DNA to protein
d. RNA to protein to DNA
50. A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called
a. a mutagen.
b. an inversion.
c. a point mutation.
d. a translocation.
51. Most mutations
a. have no effect on an organism.
b. are fatal to an organism.
c. are helpful to an organism.
d. are harmful to an organism.
52. Human females produce egg cells that have
a. one X chromosome.
b. two X chromosomes.
c. one X or one Y chromosome.
d. one X and one Y chromosome.
53. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on different Galápagos Islands varied in certain structural
adaptations. One of the most significant adaptations that Darwin noted was the
a. similarities of the birds’ embryos.
b. birds’ different-shaped beaks.
c. length of the birds’ necks.
d. number of eggs in each bird’s nest.
54. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is
a. natural selection.
c. artificial variation.
b. artificial selection.
d. survival of the fittest.
55. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their
environment. Their survival is due to the
a. possession of adaptations developed through use.
b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness.
c. lack of competition within the species.
d. choices made by plant and animal breeders.
56. Natural selection acts directly on
a. alleles.
b. genes.
c. phenotypes.
d. mutations.
57. The branch of biology dealing with interactions among organisms and between organisms and their environment is
called
a. economy.
b. modeling.
c. recycling.
d. ecology.
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
58. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an ecosystem is correct?
a. Communities make up species, which make up populations.
b. Populations make up species, which make up communities.
c. Species make up communities, which make up populations.
d. Species make up populations, which make up communities.
59. Plants are
a. producers.
b. primary consumers.
c. herbivores.
d. omnivores.
60. All the interconnected feeding relationships in an ecosystem make up a food
a. interaction.
b. chain.
c. network.
d. web.
61. What animals eat both producers and consumers?
a. herbivores
b. omnivores
c. chemotrophs
d. autotrophs
62. What is the term for each step in the transfer of energy and matter within a food web?
a. energy path
b. food chain
c. trophic level
d. food pyramid
63. A bird stalks, kills, and then eats an insect. Based on its behavior, which pair of ecological terms describes
the bird?
a. herbivore, decomposer
c. carnivore, consumer
b. producer, heterotroph
d. autotroph, herbivore
64. What are the three kinds of ecological pyramids?
a. producer, consumer, and decomposer
c. energy, biomass, and numbers
b. energy, nutrient, and trophic
d. biotic, abiotic, and nutrient
65. Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining
energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a. used in reproduction.
c. stored as fat.
b. stored as body tissue.
d. eliminated as heat.
66. A word that means the same thing as consumer is
a. producer.
b. autotroph.
c. heterotroph.
d. carbohydrate.
67. Matter can recycle through the biosphere because
a. matter does not change into new compounds.
b. matter is assembled into chemical compounds.
c. biological systems do not use up matter, they transform it.
d. biological systems use only carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen.
68. Nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by
a. humans.
b. plants.
c. bacteria.
d. consumers.
69. What can happen after a lake receives a large input of a limiting nutrient?
a. An algal bloom occurs.
b. Algae begin to die and decomposers take over.
c. Nitrogen compounds are recycled.
d. The concentration of oxygen drops below the necessary level.
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
70. Animals that get energy by eating the carcasses of other animals that have been killed by predators or have died of
natural causes are called
a. scavengers.
b. omnivores.
c. heterotrophs.
d. detritivores.
71. Each of the following is an abiotic factor in the environment EXCEPT
a. plant life.
b. soil type.
c. rainfall.
d. temperature.
72. Which is a biotic factor that affects the size of a population in a specific ecosystem?
a. average temperature of the ecosystem
b. type of soil in the ecosystem
c. number and kinds of predators in the ecosystem
d. concentration of oxygen in the ecosystem
73. What is at the base of all ecological pyramids?
a. consumers
c. producers
b. decomposers
d. scavengers
Figure 5
74. Which of the following is a food chain in the food web shown in Figure 5?
a. tree, rabbit, hawk, snake
c. grass, caterpillar, robin, hawk
b. grass, grasshopper, snake, hawk
d. tree, deer, mountain lion, fox
75. Carbon cycles through the biosphere in all of the following processes EXCEPT
a. photosynthesis.
c. burning of fossil fuels.
b. nitrogen fixation.
d. decomposition of plants and animals.
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2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
2nd Semester Practice Exam 2015
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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