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* Your assessment is very important for improving the workof artificial intelligence, which forms the content of this project
Name: ________________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ 2014 Fall Midterm Practice Test Matching Match each item with the correct statement below. a. mixture d. reactant b. product e. heterogeneous mixture c. phase f. vapor ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. gaseous state of substance that is a liquid or solid at room temperature a physical blend of two or more components not uniform in composition a substance formed in a chemical reaction starting substance in a chemical reaction Match each item with the correct statement below. a. distillation d. compound b. mass e. element c. chemical reaction f. homogeneous ____ 6. ____ 7. ____ 8. ____ 9. ____ 10. amount of matter an object contains describes mixture with a uniform composition substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical means composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed proportion process in which substances are changed into different substances Match each item with the correct statement below. a. absolute zero e. b. Kelvin temperature scale f. c. Celsius temperature scale g. d. weight h. ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. mass significant figure precision accuracy closeness to true value narrowness of range of measurements known or estimated in a measurement the quantity of matter an object contains the lowest point on the Kelvin scale the SI scale for temperature the force of gravity on an object the non-SI scale for temperature Match each item with the correct statement below. a. proton d. electron b. nucleus e. neutron c. atom ____ 19. the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element ____ 20. a positively charged subatomic particle ____ 21. a negatively charged subatomic particle 1 ID: A Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 22. a subatomic particle with no charge ____ 23. the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons Match each item with the correct statement below. a. mass number d. atomic mass b. atomic mass unit e. isotope c. atomic number ____ ____ ____ ____ ____ 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. atoms with the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom the number of protons in the nucleus of an element the weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of an element one-twelfth the mass of a carbon atom having six protons and six neutrons Match each item with the correct statement below. a. positron d. transuranium element b. alpha particle e. gamma radiation c. beta particle f. transmutation ____ 29. emitted helium nucleus ____ 30. high-energy photons emitted by a radioisotope ____ 31. particle of charge +1 and mass equal to that of an electron Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 32. A theory is a ____. a. proposed explanation for an observation b. well-tested explanation for a broad set of observations c. summary of the results of many observations d. procedure used to test a proposed explanation ____ 33. The variable that is observed during an experiment is called what type of variable? a. independent c. controlling b. manipulated d. responding ____ 34. Which of the following is NOT an example of matter? a. air c. smoke b. heat d. water vapor ____ 35. An example of an extensive property of matter is ____. a. temperature c. mass b. pressure d. hardness ____ 36. All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____. a. mass c. melting point b. color d. ability to rust ____ 37. A vapor is which state of matter? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. all of the above 2 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 38. Which of the following is a physical change? a. corrosion c. evaporation b. explosion d. rotting of food ____ 39. Which of the following CANNOT be classified as a substance? a. table salt c. nitrogen b. air d. gold ____ 40. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture? a. salt water c. sand and water b. beef stew d. soil ____ 41. Separating a solid from a liquid by evaporating the liquid is called ____. a. filtration c. solution b. condensation d. distillation ____ 42. What distinguishes a substance from a mixture? a. Substances are compounds, and mixtures are not. b. Mixtures are groupings of elements, and compounds are not. c. Samples of the same substance can have different intensive properties. d. Mixtures can be separated physically, while compounds cannot. ____ 43. The first figure in a properly written chemical symbol always is ____. a. boldfaced c. italicized b. capitalized d. underlined ____ 44. The chemical symbol for iron is ____. a. fe c. Fe b. FE d. Ir ____ 45. Which of the following represents a compound? a. H c. H2O b. H-3 d. O-16 ____ 46. What must occur for a change to be a chemical reaction? a. There must be a change in chemical properties. b. There must be a change in physical properties. c. The change must involve a change in mass. d. The change must involve a change in volume. ____ 47. Which of the following is NOT a physical change? a. grating cheese c. fermenting of cheese b. melting cheese d. mixing two cheeses in a bowl ____ 48. All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT ____. a. bending c. rusting b. melting d. polishing ____ 49. Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change? a. mixing c. grinding b. melting d. decomposing ____ 50. Which of the following processes does NOT involve a change in chemical properties? a. rusting c. boiling b. fermenting d. burning ____ 51. A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____. a. is split c. decays b. is painted d. is cut 3 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 52. Which of the following is a chemical property of water at 4 C? a. its color b. its state c. its temperature d. its ability to decompose into hydrogen and oxygen ____ 53. What must be done to be certain that a chemical change has taken place? a. Check for the production of bubbles before and after the change. b. Demonstrate that a release of energy occurred after the change. c. Check the composition of the sample before and after the change. d. Demonstrate that energy was absorbed by the reactants after the change. ____ 54. Which of the following indicates that a chemical change has happened during cooking? a. The food darkens. b. Bubbles form in boiling water. c. Butter melts. d. Energy is transferred from the stove to a pan. ____ 55. Which of the following does NOT indicate that a chemical change may have taken place? a. fracture formation c. precipitate formation b. gas production d. energy transfer ____ 56. The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation? a. 1.54 10 12 m c. 1.54 10 10 m d. 1.54 10 10 m b. 1.54 10 12 m ____ 57. The expression of 5008 km in scientific notation is ____. a. 5.008 10 3 km c. 5.008 10 3 km b. 50.08 10 4 km d. 5.008 10 4 km ____ 58. What is the result of multiplying 2.5 10 10 by 3.5 10 7 ? a. 8.75 10 3 c. 8.75 10 3 b. 8.75 10 17 d. 8.75 10 17 ____ 59. What is the result of adding 2.5 10 3 and 3.5 10 2 ? a. ____ 60. ____ 61. ____ 62. ____ 63. 2.9 10 3 c. 2.9 10 2 b. 6.0 10 3 d. 6.0 10 5 The closeness of a measurement to its true value is a measure of its ____. a. precision c. reproducibility b. accuracy d. usefulness Which of the following measurements contains two significant figures? a. 0.004 00 L c. 0.000 44 L b. 0.004 04 L d. 0.004 40 L When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve? a. precision c. reliability b. accuracy d. all of the above Which of the following measurements (of different masses) is the most accurate? a. 3.1000 g c. 3.122 22 g b. 3.100 00 g d. 3.000 000 g 4 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 64. Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is for a different object.) a. 2 g, 3 g, 4 g c. 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g b. 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g d. 1 g, 3 g, 5 g ____ 65. Three different people weigh a standard mass of 2.00 g on the same balance. Each person obtains a reading of 7.32 g for the mass of the standard. These results imply that the balance that was used is ____. a. accurate c. accurate and precise b. precise d. neither accurate nor precise ____ 66. Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant figures? ____ 67. ____ 68. ____ 69. ____ 70. ____ 71. ____ 72. ____ 73. a. 0.007 m c. 7.30 10 7 km b. 7077 mg d. 0.070 mm In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit? a. 5 b. the 0 immediately to the left of the 3 c. 3 d. the 0 to the left of the decimal point How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg? a. two c. five b. four d. This cannot be determined. How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg? a. two c. four b. three d. five How many significant figures are in the measurement 811.40 grams? a. two c. four b. three d. five Express the sum of 1111 km and 222 km using the correct number of significant digits. a. 1300 km c. 1333 km b. 1330 km d. 1333.0 km Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits. a. 12.68 m c. 13 m b. 12.7 m d. 10 m Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of significant digits. a. 10 mm 2 c. 11.0 mm 2 b. 11 mm 2 d. 11.00 mm 2 ____ 74. What is the measurement 111.009 mm rounded off to four significant digits? a. 111 mm c. 111.01 mm b. 111.0 mm d. 110 mm ____ 75. What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits? a. 1.0 10 3 L c. 1050 L b. 1040 L d. 1.1 10 3 L ____ 76. Express the product of 4.0 10 2 m and 8.1 10 2 m using the correct number of significant digits. a. 3 10 1 c. 3.2 10 1 b. 3.0 10 1 d. 3.24 10 1 5 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 77. When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be equal to the number of significant figures in ____. a. all of the measurements b. the least and most precise measurements c. the most precise measurement d. the least precise measurement ____ 78. What is the volume of a salt crystal measuring 2.44 10 2 m by 1.4 10 3 m by 8.4 10 3 m? a. ____ 79. ____ 80. ____ 81. ____ 82. ____ 83. ____ 84. ____ 85. ____ 86. ____ 87. ____ 88. ____ 89. ____ 90. 2.9 10 7 m 3 c. 2.9 10 5 m 3 b. 2.9 10 6 m 3 d. 2.9 10 4 m 3 What quantity is represented by the metric system prefix deci-? a. 1000 c. 0.1 b. 100 d. 0.01 What is the metric system prefix for the quantity 0.000 001? a. centic. kilob. decid. microThe chief advantage of the metric system over other systems of measurement is that it ____. a. has more units c. is in French b. is in multiples of 10 d. is derived from nature itself Which of the following units is NOT an official SI unit? a. kilogram c. mole b. ampere d. liter Which of the following volumes is the smallest? a. one microliter c. one milliliter b. one liter d. one deciliter What is the SI unit of mass? a. liter c. candela b. joule d. kilogram What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C? a. –373C c. –173C d. –73C b. –273C Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures? a. Celsius c. Joule b. Fahrenheit d. Kelvin What is the boiling point of water in kelvins? a. 0 K c. 273 K b. 100 K d. 373 K Which of the following mass units is the largest? a. 1 cg c. 1 mg b. 1 dg d. 1 ng The weight of an object ____. a. is the same as its mass c. is not affected by gravity b. depends on its location d. is always the same What is the temperature –34C expressed in kelvins? a. 139 K c. 239 K b. 207 K d. 339 K 6 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 91. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C? c. 100C a. 0C d. 273C b. 37C ____ 92. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius? a. 93C c. –61C d. –34C b. 34C Prefix mega (M) kilo (k) deci (d) centi (c) milli (m) micro () nano (n) pico (p) Commonly Used Metric Prefixes Meaning 1 million times larger than the unit it precedes 1000 times larger than the unit it precedes 10 times smaller than the unit it precedes 100 times smaller than the unit it precedes 1000 times smaller than the unit it precedes 1 million times smaller than the unit it precedes 1000 million times smaller than the unit it precedes 1 trillion times smaller than the unit it precedes Factor 10 6 10 3 10 1 10 2 10 3 10 6 10 9 10 12 ____ 93. The density of mercury is 5,427 kg/(m 3). If the density of water is 1.0 g/mL, will mercury float or sink in water? a. Mercury will float because the density of mercury is 0.005427 g/mL, which is less than the 1.0 g/mL density of water. b. Mercury will float because the density of mercury is 0.05427 g/mL, which is less than the 1.0 g/mL density of water. c. Mercury will sink because the density of mercury is 5.427 g/mL, which is greater than the 1.0 g/mL density of water. d. Mercury will sink because the density of mercury is 5,427 g/mL, which is greater than the 1.0 g/mL density of water. ____ 94. A cubic meter is about the same as the volume occupied by a ____. a. kilogram of water c. washing machine b. cup of milk d. basketball arena ____ 95. The quantity 44 liters expressed in cubic meters is ____. 0.000 044 m 3 c. 0.44 m 3 b. 440 000 m 3 ____ 96. Density is found by dividing ____. a. mass by volume b. volume by mass d. 0.044 m 3 c. d. mass by area area by mass a. ____ 97. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm 3 ? a. 0.32 g/cm 3 c. 3.1 g/cm 3 b. 2.0 g/cm 3 d. 200 g/cm 3 ____ 98. What is the volume of 80.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL? a. 5.6 10 1 c. 8.8 10 3 b. 1.1 10 2 d. 8.0 10 1 7 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 99. What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL? a. 0.23 mL c. 479 mL b. 4.34 mL d. none of the above ____ 100. If a liter of water is heated from 20C to 50C, what happens to its volume? a. The volume decreases. b. The volume increases. c. The volume first increases, then decreases. d. The volume first decreases, then increases. ____ 101. If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its density? a. The density decreases. b. The density increases. c. The density does not change. d. The density first increases, then decreases. ____ 102. As the density of a substance increases, the volume of a given mass of that substance ____. a. increases c. decreases b. is not affected d. fluctuates ____ 103. Who was the man who lived from 460B.C.–370B.C. and was among the first to suggest the idea of atoms? a. Atomos c. Democritus b. Dalton d. Thomson ____ 104. The smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element is a(n) ____. a. atom c. proton b. electron d. neutron ____ 105. Dalton's atomic theory included which idea? a. All atoms of all elements are the same size. b. Atoms of different elements always combine in one-to-one ratios. c. Atoms of the same element are always identical. d. Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope. ____ 106. Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory? a. All elements are composed of atoms. b. Atoms are always in motion. c. Atoms of the same element are identical. d. Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios. ____ 107. Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements? a. Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles. b. Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets. c. An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom. d. Charge-to-mass ratio of electrons was the same, regardless of the gas used. ____ 108. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles? a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle. b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle. c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle. d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton. ____ 109. All atoms are ____. a. positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons b. negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons c. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons d. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the number of neutrons 8 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 110. The particles that are found in the nucleus of an atom are ____. a. neutrons and electrons c. protons and neutrons b. electrons only d. protons and electrons ____ 111. As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atom is thought to be true? a. Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom. b. The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons. c. Electrons are distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the atom. d. The nucleus is made of electrons and protons. ____ 112. The nucleus of an atom is ____. a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons c. negatively charged and has a high density d. negatively charged and has a low density ____ 113. An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are ____. a. 152 protons and 76 electrons c. 38 protons and 38 electrons b. 76 protons and 0 electrons d. 76 protons and 76 electrons ____ 114. The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____. a. atomic number c. atomic mass b. nucleus number d. mass number ____ 115. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent? a. the atomic number c. the sum of the protons and electrons b. the mass number d. twice the number of protons ____ 116. All atoms of the same element have the same ____. a. number of neutrons c. mass numbers b. number of protons d. mass ____ 117. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. numbers of neutrons c. numbers of electrons b. numbers of protons d. atomic numbers ____ 118. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. positions on the periodic table c. atomic numbers b. chemical behavior d. mass numbers ____ 119. In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of electrons given correctly? a. In, 49 protons, 49 electrons c. Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons b. Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons d. F, 19 protons, 19 electrons ____ 120. Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in 16 O. a. 4 c. 16 b. 8 d. 24 ____ 121. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Atoms of the same element can have different masses. b. Atoms of isotopes of an element have different numbers of protons. c. The nucleus of an atom has a positive charge. d. Atoms are mostly empty space. 9 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 122. Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit? a. the mass of one electron b. the mass of one helium-4 atom c. the mass of one carbon-12 atom d. one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12 atom ____ 123. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Protons have a positive charge. b. Electrons are negatively charged and have a mass of 1 amu. c. The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. d. Neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom. ____ 124. The atomic mass of an element depends upon the ____. a. mass of each electron in that element b. mass of each isotope of that element c. relative abundance of protons in that element d. mass and relative abundance of each isotope of that element ____ 125. When Group 2A elements form ions, they ____. a. lose two protons c. lose two electrons b. gain two protons d. gain two electrons ____ 126. What is the correct name for the N 3 ion? a. nitrate ion c. nitride ion b. nitrogen ion d. nitrite ion ____ 127. What determines that an element is a metal? a. the magnitude of its charge c. when it is a Group A element b. the molecules that it forms d. its position in the periodic table ____ 128. Which of the following correctly provides the names and formulas of polyatomic ions? a. carbonate: HCO 3 ; bicarbonate: CO 3 2 b. nitrite: NO ; nitrate: NO 2 c. sulfite: S 2 ; sulfate: SO 3 d. chromate: CrO 4 2 ; dichromate: Cr 2 O 7 2 ____ 129. Which of the following compounds contains the Mn 3 ion? a. MnS c. Mn 2 O 3 b. MnBr 2 d. MnO ____ 130. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound? a. CS 2 c. N 2 O 4 b. BaI 2 d. PCl 3 ____ 131. Which of the following correctly represents an ion pair and the ionic compound the ions form? a. Ca 2 , F ; CaF 2 c. Ba 2 , O 2 ; Ba 2 O 2 b. Na , Cl ; NaCl 2 d. Pb 4 , O 2 ; Pb 2 O 4 ____ 132. Which of the following compounds contains the lead(II) ion? a. PbO c. Pb2O d. Pb2S b. PbCl4 10 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 133. Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct? a. iron(II) oxide, Fe 2 O 3 c. tin(IV) bromide, SnBr 4 b. aluminum fluorate, AlF 3 d. ____ 134. What is the correct formula for potassium sulfite? a. KHSO 3 c. b. KHSO 4 d. potassium chloride, K 2 Cl 2 K 2 SO 3 K 2 SO 4 ____ 135. Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct? c. lithium carbonate, LiCO 3 a. ammonium sulfite, (NH 4 ) 2 S b. iron(III) phosphate, FePO 4 d. magnesium dichromate, MgCrO 4 ____ 136. What type of compound is CuSO 4 ? ____ 137. ____ 138. ____ 139. ____ 140. ____ 141. a. monotomic ionic c. polyatomic ionic b. polyatomic covalent d. binary molecular Molecular compounds are usually ____. a. composed of two or more transition elements b. composed of positive and negative ions c. composed of two or more nonmetallic elements d. exceptions to the law of definite proportions Binary molecular compounds are made of two ____. a. metallic elements c. polyatomic ions b. nonmetallic elements d. cations In naming a binary molecular compound, the number of atoms of each element present in the molecule is indicated by ____. a. Roman numerals c. prefixes b. superscripts d. suffixes Which of the following correctly shows a prefix used in naming binary molecular compounds with its corresponding number? a. deca-, 7 c. hexa-, 8 b. nona-, 9 d. octa-, 4 Consider a mystery compound having the formula M x T y . If the compound is not an acid, if it contains only two elements, and if M is not a metal, which of the following is true about the compound? a. It contains a polyatomic ion. c. Its name ends in -ic. b. Its name ends in -ite or -ate. d. It is a binary molecular compound. ____ 142. Which of the following shows both the correct formula and correct name of an acid? a. HClO 2 , chloric acid c. H 3 PO 4 , phosphoric acid b. HNO 2 , hydronitrous acid d. HI, iodic acid c. d. sulfuric acid sulfurous acid c. HPO 2 d. HPO 4 ____ 143. What is the name of H 2 SO 3 ? a. hyposulfuric acid b. hydrosulfuric acid ____ 144. What is the formula for phosphoric acid? a. H 2 PO 3 b. H 3 PO 4 11 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 145. What is the correct name for the compound CoCl 2 ? a. cobalt(I) chlorate c. cobalt(II) chlorate b. cobalt(I) chloride d. cobalt(II) chloride ____ 146. What is the correct formula for calcium dihydrogen phosphate? a. CaH 2 PO 4 c. Ca(H 2 PO 4 ) 2 b. Ca 2 H 2 PO 4 d. Ca(H 2 HPO 4 ) 2 ____ 147. Which of the following is the correct name for N 2 O 5 ? ____ 148. ____ 149. ____ 150. ____ 151. a. nitrous oxide b. dinitrogen pentoxide What particle is emitted in alpha radiation? a. electron b. photon A beta particle is a(n) ____. a. photon b. electron The least penetrating form of radiation is ____. a. beta radiation b. gamma radiation Which symbol is used for an alpha particle? a. 21 He b. 2 2 He c. d. nitrogen dioxide nitrate oxide c. d. helium nucleus hydrogen nucleus c. d. helium nucleus hydrogen nucleus c. d. alpha radiation X rays c. 4 1 4 2 d. He He ____ 152. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop an alpha particle? a. three feet of concrete c. single sheet of aluminum foil b. three inches of lead d. single sheet of paper ____ 153. What particle decomposes to produce the electron of beta radiation? a. proton c. electron b. neutron d. positron ____ 154. What symbol is used for beta radiation? a. 00 e c. 10 e b. 0 1 e d. 1 1 e ____ 155. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop a beta particle? a. three feet of concrete c. thin pieces of wood b. three inches of lead d. single sheet of paper ____ 156. When radium-226 (atomic number 88) decays by emitting an alpha particle, it becomes ____. a. polonium-222 c. radium-222 b. polonium-224 d. radon-222 ____ 157. What particle is needed to complete the following nuclear equation? 56 Mn ____ + 10 e 25 a. b. 56 27 27 25 Co c. Mn d. 56 26 58 24 Fe Cr ____ 158. A reaction in which small nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is called ____. a. fission c. background radiation b. a chemical reaction d. fusion 12 Name: ________________________ ID: A ____ 159. Nuclear fusion ____. a. takes place in the sun c. can be controlled in the laboratory b. occurs at low temperatures d. is used in medicine ____ 160. A reaction that results in the combining of smaller atomic nuclei is ____. a. chemical c. fusion b. fission d. ionization 13 ID: A 2014 Fall Midterm Practice Test Answer Section MATCHING 1. ANS: OBJ: 2. ANS: OBJ: 3. ANS: OBJ: 4. ANS: OBJ: 5. ANS: OBJ: F 2.1.3 A 2.2.1 E 2.2.2 B 2.4.1 D 2.4.1 6. ANS: OBJ: 7. ANS: OBJ: 8. ANS: OBJ: 9. ANS: OBJ: 10. ANS: OBJ: B 2.1.1 F 2.2.2 E 2.3.1 D 2.3.1 C 2.4.1 11. ANS: OBJ: 12. ANS: OBJ: 13. ANS: OBJ: 14. ANS: OBJ: 15. ANS: OBJ: 16. ANS: OBJ: 17. ANS: OBJ: 18. ANS: OBJ: H 3.1.2 G 3.1.2 F 3.1.3 E 3.2.1 A 3.2.1 B 3.2.1 D 3.2.2 C 3.2.2 19. ANS: OBJ: 20. ANS: OBJ: C 4.1.1 | 4.1.2 A 4.2.1 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 42 PTS: 1 STA: Ch.6 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 44 DIF: L1 REF: p. 45 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: DIF: L1 REF: p. 53 DIF: L1 REF: p. 53 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 39 PTS: 1 STA: Ch.6 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 45 DIF: L1 REF: p. 48 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 48 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 53 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: 1 Ch.4.f 1 Ch.4.d 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 PTS: 1 STA: Ch.4.d DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: 1 Ch.8 1 Ch.8 1 DIF: L1 Ch.1 1 DIF: L1 Ch.1 | Ch.11 1 REF: p. 101 | p. 102 REF: p. 106 ID: A 21. ANS: OBJ: 22. ANS: OBJ: 23. ANS: OBJ: D 4.2.1 E 4.2.1 B 4.2.1 | 4.2.2 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: 1 DIF: L1 Ch.1 | Ch.11 1 DIF: L1 Ch.1 | Ch.11 1 DIF: L1 Ch.1 | Ch.11 24. ANS: OBJ: 25. ANS: OBJ: 26. ANS: OBJ: 27. ANS: OBJ: 28. ANS: OBJ: E 4.3.1 A 4.3.1 C 4.3.1 D 4.3.3 B 4.3.3 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: 1 Ch.11.c 1 Ch.1.e 1 Ch.1.a 1 Ch.1.a 1 29. ANS: OBJ: 30. ANS: OBJ: 31. ANS: OBJ: B 25.1.2 E 25.1.2 A 25.1.2 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.d REF: p. 104 REF: p. 106 REF: p. 106 | p. 107 DIF: L1 REF: p. 112 DIF: L1 REF: p. 111 DIF: L1 REF: p. 110 DIF: L1 REF: p. 114 DIF: L1 REF: p. 114 DIF: L1 REF: p. 800 DIF: L1 REF: p. 802 DIF: L1 REF: p. 804 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 23 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 22 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 39 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 39 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 40 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 42 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 42 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: DIF: L2 REF: p. 40 DIF: L2 REF: p. 45 DIF: L2 REF: p. 46 MULTIPLE CHOICE 32. ANS: OBJ: 33. ANS: OBJ: 34. ANS: OBJ: 35. ANS: OBJ: 36. ANS: OBJ: 37. ANS: OBJ: 38. ANS: OBJ: 39. ANS: OBJ: 40. ANS: OBJ: 41. ANS: OBJ: B 1.3.2 D 1.3.2 B 2.1.1 C 2.1.1 D 2.1.2 C 2.1.3 C 2.1.4 B 2.2.1 A 2.2.2 D 2.2.3 1 Ch.6 1 Ch.6 1 2 ID: A 42. ANS: OBJ: 43. ANS: OBJ: 44. ANS: OBJ: 45. ANS: OBJ: 46. ANS: OBJ: 47. ANS: OBJ: 48. ANS: OBJ: 49. ANS: OBJ: 50. ANS: OBJ: 51. ANS: OBJ: 52. ANS: OBJ: 53. ANS: OBJ: 54. ANS: OBJ: 55. ANS: OBJ: 56. ANS: OBJ: 57. ANS: OBJ: 58. ANS: OBJ: 59. ANS: OBJ: 60. ANS: OBJ: 61. ANS: OBJ: 62. ANS: OBJ: 63. ANS: OBJ: 64. ANS: OBJ: 65. ANS: OBJ: D PTS: 2.3.2 B PTS: 2.3.3 C PTS: 2.3.3 C PTS: 2.3.3 A PTS: 2.4.1 C PTS: 2.4.1 C PTS: 2.4.1 D PTS: 2.4.1 C PTS: 2.4.1 C PTS: 2.4.1 D PTS: 2.4.1 C PTS: 2.4.1 A PTS: 2.1.4 | 2.4.1 | 2.4.2 A PTS: 2.1.4 | 2.4.2 D PTS: 3.1.1 A PTS: 3.1.1 C PTS: 3.1.1 A PTS: 3.1.1 B PTS: 3.1.2 C PTS: 3.1.2 B PTS: 3.1.2 D PTS: 3.1.2 C PTS: 3.1.2 B PTS: 3.1.2 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 50 | p. 51 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 51 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 51 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 51 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 53 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 54 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 54 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 54 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 63 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 63 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 63 | p. 71 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 63 | p. 71 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 64 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 64 3 ID: A 66. ANS: OBJ: 67. ANS: OBJ: 68. ANS: OBJ: 69. ANS: OBJ: 70. ANS: OBJ: 71. ANS: OBJ: 72. ANS: OBJ: 73. ANS: OBJ: 74. ANS: OBJ: 75. ANS: OBJ: 76. ANS: OBJ: 77. ANS: OBJ: 78. ANS: OBJ: 79. ANS: OBJ: 80. ANS: OBJ: 81. ANS: OBJ: 82. ANS: OBJ: 83. ANS: OBJ: 84. ANS: OBJ: 85. ANS: OBJ: 86. ANS: OBJ: 87. ANS: OBJ: 88. ANS: OBJ: 89. ANS: OBJ: C 3.1.2 C 3.1.3 A 3.1.3 B 3.1.3 D 3.1.3 C 3.1.3 B 3.1.3 B 3.1.3 B 3.1.3 A 3.1.3 C 3.1.3 D 3.1.3 A 3.1.3 C 3.2.1 D 3.2.1 B 3.2.1 D 3.2.1 A 3.2.1 D 3.2.1 B 3.2.1 D 3.2.1 D 3.2.1 B 3.2.1 B 3.2.2 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 66 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 66 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 68 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 68 | p. 70 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 68 | p. 71 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 66 | p. 68 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 66 | p. 68 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 68 | p. 71 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 68 | p. 71 PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 68 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 73 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 73 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 74 | p. 75 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 76 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 DIF: L2 REF: p. 74 | p. 76 DIF: L2 REF: p. 76 1 Ch.4.e 1 Ch.4.f 1 Ch.4.e 1 PTS: 1 4 ID: A 90. ANS: OBJ: 91. ANS: OBJ: 92. ANS: OBJ: 93. ANS: OBJ: 94. ANS: OBJ: 95. ANS: OBJ: 96. ANS: OBJ: 97. ANS: OBJ: 98. ANS: OBJ: 99. ANS: OBJ: 100. ANS: OBJ: 101. ANS: OBJ: 102. ANS: OBJ: 103. ANS: OBJ: 104. ANS: OBJ: 105. ANS: OBJ: 106. ANS: OBJ: 107. ANS: OBJ: 108. ANS: OBJ: 109. ANS: OBJ: 110. ANS: OBJ: 111. ANS: OBJ: 112. ANS: OBJ: 113. ANS: OBJ: C 3.2.3 C 3.2.3 D 3.2.3 C 3.3.2 | 3.3.4 C 3.3.3 D 3.3.3 A 3.4.1 A 3.4.1 B 3.4.1 B 3.4.1 B 3.4.2 B 3.4.2 C 3.4.2 C 4.1.1 A 4.1.1 | 4.1.2 C 4.1.2 B 4.1.2 D 4.2.1 D 4.2.1 C 4.2.1 C 4.2.1 | 4.2.2 C 4.2.2 A 4.2.2 D 4.3.1 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: 1 Ch.4.e 1 Ch.4.e 1 Ch.4.e 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 | p. 78 DIF: L1 REF: p. 77 | p. 78 DIF: L2 REF: p. 77 | p. 78 DIF: L3 REF: p. 86 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 84 PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 84 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 90 | p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 90 | p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 91 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 101 PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 101 | p. 102 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 102 PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 102 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: DIF: L2 REF: p. 105 DIF: L2 REF: p. 104 | p. 105 | p. 106 DIF: L3 REF: p. 106 DIF: L2 REF: p. 106 | p. 107 DIF: L2 REF: p. 108 DIF: L2 REF: p. 107 | p. 108 DIF: L1 REF: p. 110 1 Ch.1.h 1 Ch.1.a 1 Ch.1 1 Ch.11.a 1 Ch.1.h 1 Ch.1.e 1 Ch.1.a 5 ID: A 114. ANS: OBJ: 115. ANS: OBJ: 116. ANS: OBJ: 117. ANS: OBJ: 118. ANS: OBJ: 119. ANS: OBJ: 120. ANS: OBJ: 121. ANS: OBJ: 122. ANS: OBJ: 123. ANS: OBJ: 124. ANS: OBJ: 125. ANS: OBJ: 126. ANS: OBJ: 127. ANS: OBJ: 128. ANS: OBJ: 129. ANS: OBJ: 130. ANS: OBJ: 131. ANS: OBJ: 132. ANS: OBJ: 133. ANS: OBJ: 134. ANS: OBJ: 135. ANS: OBJ: 136. ANS: OBJ: 137. ANS: OBJ: D 4.3.1 B 4.3.1 B 4.3.1 A 4.3.1 D 4.3.1 A 4.2.1 | 4.3.1 B 4.3.1 | 4.3.4 B 4.3.1 D 4.3.3 B 4.3.3 D 4.3.3 C 9.1.1 C 9.1.1 D 9.1.1 D 9.1.2 C 9.2.1 B 9.2.1 A 9.2.1 A 9.2.1 C 9.2.1 C 9.2.2 B 9.1.3 | 9.2.2 C 9.2.2 C 9.3.1 | 9.3.2 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: 1 DIF: Ch.1.a 1 DIF: Ch.1.a | Ch.11.c 1 DIF: Ch.1.a 1 DIF: Ch.11.c 1 DIF: Ch.11.c 1 DIF: Ch.1.a 1 DIF: Ch.1.a 1 DIF: Ch.11.c 1 DIF: PTS: 1 STA: Ch.1.a PTS: 1 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: L1 REF: p. 111 L1 REF: p. 111 L1 REF: p. 110 L1 REF: p. 112 | p. 113 L1 REF: p. 112 | p. 113 L2 REF: p. 110 L2 REF: p. 111 L2 REF: p. 110 | p. 112 | p. 113 L1 REF: p. 114 DIF: L2 REF: p. 114 DIF: L2 REF: p. 115 1 DIF: Ch.1.c | Ch.1.d 1 DIF: Ch.3 1 DIF: Ch.1.c 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2 1 DIF: Ch.2.a 1 DIF: Ch.2.a 6 L1 REF: p. 254 L1 REF: p. 254 L2 REF: p. 253 | p. 254 L2 REF: p. 257 L1 REF: p. 262 | p. 263 L2 REF: p. 262 L2 REF: p. 262 L2 REF: p. 262 | p. 263 L2 REF: p. 261 | p. 262 L2 REF: p. 257 | p. 261 | p. 262 L2 REF: p. 264 | p. 265 | p. 266 L2 REF: p. 264 | p. 277 L1 REF: p. 268 ID: A 138. ANS: OBJ: 139. ANS: OBJ: 140. ANS: OBJ: 141. ANS: OBJ: 142. ANS: OBJ: 143. ANS: OBJ: 144. ANS: OBJ: 145. ANS: OBJ: 146. ANS: OBJ: 147. ANS: OBJ: 148. ANS: OBJ: 149. ANS: OBJ: 150. ANS: OBJ: 151. ANS: OBJ: 152. ANS: OBJ: 153. ANS: OBJ: 154. ANS: OBJ: 155. ANS: OBJ: 156. ANS: OBJ: 157. ANS: OBJ: 158. ANS: OBJ: 159. ANS: OBJ: 160. ANS: OBJ: B 9.3.2 C 9.3.2 B 9.3.2 D 9.3.2 C 9.4.1 D 9.4.1 B 9.4.2 D 9.2.1 | 9.5.2 C 9.2.2 | 9.5.2 B 9.3.2 | 9.5.3 C 25.1.2 B 25.1.2 C 25.1.2 D 25.1.2 D 25.1.2 B 25.1.2 B 25.1.2 C 25.1.2 D 25.1.2 | 25.2.1 C 25.2.1 D 25.3.3 A 25.3.3 C 25.3.3 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: 1 Ch.2.a 1 Ch.2 1 Ch.2 1 Ch.2 1 Ch.5 1 Ch.5 1 Ch.5 1 Ch.5 1 Ch.5 1 Ch.2.b | Ch.5 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.e 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.e 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.e 1 PTS: STA: PTS: STA: PTS: 1 Ch.11.d 1 Ch.11.b 1 PTS: 1 STA: Ch.11.b DIF: L1 REF: p. 268 DIF: L1 REF: p. 269 DIF: L2 REF: p. 269 DIF: L3 REF: p. 268 | p. 269 DIF: L2 REF: p. 272 DIF: L2 REF: p. 272 DIF: L2 REF: p. 272 DIF: L2 REF: p. 261 | p. 262 | p. 277 DIF: L3 REF: p. 257 | p. 264 DIF: L2 REF: p. 269 | p. 277 DIF: L1 REF: p. 800 DIF: L1 REF: p. 801 DIF: L1 REF: p. 802 DIF: L2 REF: p. 800 DIF: L2 REF: p. 800 DIF: L2 REF: p. 801 DIF: L2 REF: p. 801 DIF: L2 REF: p. 802 DIF: L2 STA: Ch.11.d DIF: L3 REF: p. 800 | p. 804 DIF: L1 REF: p. 813 DIF: L1 REF: p. 813 DIF: L1 REF: p. 810 7 REF: p. 803 | p. 804