Download Autonomic 1-All of the following statements are true about α receptor

Autonomic
1-All of the following statements are true about α receptor blockers except:
a-Tamulosin is the preferable agent in treatment of urinary retention.
b-Selective α 1 blockers produce more reflex tachycardia than the non selective agents
c-They should be given before B blockersin the management of pheochromocytoma.
d-Ergotamine is effective in treatment of acute attack of migraine
e-They cause nasal congestion
2-All of the following statements are true regarding sympathmimetics except:
a-Clonidine increases noradrenaline release by activating pre-synaptic α2 adrenoceptors
b-Dopamine at low dosesis useful in treatement of cardiogenic shock.
c-Amphetamine is indirectly acting sympathomimetic.
d-Ritordine is used to suppress premature labor.
3-The pressor effect of adrenaline is converted to depressor action by administration of:
a-Prazocin
b-Clonidne
c-Isoprenaline
d-Dopamine
4-The following are factors affecting bioavailability except:
a-Surface of absorbing area.
b-First pass metabolism.
c-Rate of drug elimination.
d-pH of the media
5-Which one of the following agents binds covalently to α adrenergic receptors producing an
irreversible blockade:
a-Prazocin.
b-Phentolamine
c-Phenoxybenzamine
d-Tolazoline
6-Which one of the following drugs inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine by adrenergic neurons
a-Tyramine.
b-Aminophylline
c-Guanthedine
d-Yohimbine
7-All of the following are clinical uses of B blockers except:
a-Hypertension.
b-Migraine
c-Hyperthyrodism
d-Varient angina
8-Which one of the following drugs is used in treatment of acute attack of migraine
a-Clonidine
b-Sumatriptan
c-Ergometrine
d-propranolol
9-Which one of the following statements is false
a-Oral administration of the drug requires the patient to be alert.
b-Intramuscular administration requires sterile technique.
c-Inhalation provides slow access to general circulation.
d-Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation
10-Which one of the following statements is false about plasma protein binding
a-Irreversible
b-Basic drugs bind mainly to plasma albumen
c-A sit e of some drug interactions
d-All of above
11-Physiological antagonism occurs between drugs which:
a-Interact with the same receptor site.
b-Can displace each other from plasma protein binding sites.
c-Have opposite effects to each other.
d-Cause enzyme induction
12-Selective B2 stimulants frequently cause:
a-Skeletal muscle tremors.
b-Tachycardia proportionate to bronchodilatation.
c-Vasodilatation in the skin
d-All of above
13-Atopine is:
a-Teriary amine antimuscarinic drug
b-Quaterary amine antimuscarinic
c-Tereiary amine anticholinesteras
d-Quaterary amine anticholinesterase
14-Adrenaline is contraindicated in all of the following except:
a-Angina
b-Hypertension
c-Heart failure
d-Bronchial asthma
15-Long acting B2 agonist is
a-Albutelol
c-Salmitrol
16-Vasodilator B blocker is
a-carvidalol
c-Nadolol
b-Atenolol
d-Salbutamol
b-Atenolol
d-Pindolol
17-Tachycardia is produced by all of the following except:
a-Adreanline
b-Noradrenaline
c-Isoprealine
d-Doputamine
18-all of the following is non specific catecholamine sympathomimetic except:
a-Dopamine
b-Doputamine
c-Adrenaline
d-Noradreanine
19-Noradrenaline stimulates all of the following receptors except:
a-α1 reeptors
b-α2 receptors
c-B1 receptors
d-B2 rceptors
20-Ephidrine acts by:
a-Increase release of norepinephrine
c-All of above
b-Stimulation of adrenergic receptors
8-Non of above
21-Long acting anticholiesterase is :
a-Betanechol
c-Neostigmine
b-Edrophonium
d-Parathione
22-Guanthidine decreases:
a-Noradrenaline synthesis
c-Noradrenaline storage
b-Noadrenaline release
d-Non of above
23-First dose effect is a side effect of :
a-Adrenaline
c-Reserpine
b-Prazocine
d-Propranolol
24-All of the following drugs decreases blood pressure except:
a-Propranolol
b-Yohimbine
c-Propranolol
d-Terazocine
25-All of the following drugs produces mydriasis except
a-Adrenaline
b-Phenylephrine
c-Atropine
d-Pilocarpine
26-All of the following drugs are produced from natural sources except:
a-Pilocarpine
b-Physostigmine
c-Neostigmine
d-Ephidrine
27-Phentolamine causes
a-Vasodilation and hypotenion
c-Vasoconstriction and bradycardia
b-Vasodilation with no hypertension
d-Vasoconstriction and tachycardia
28-All of the following drugs are teriary amines except
a-Hyosine
b-Physostigmine
c-Hyosine butylbromide
d-Atropine
29-All of the following are therapeutic uses of atropine except:
a-Diarrhea
b-Heart block
c-Renal colic
d-Bronchial asthma
30-A drug that produces vasoconstriction and hypotenion is :
a-Prazocine
c-Noradrenaline
b-Propranolol
d-Yohimbine
31-Bronchodilator drug not used in treatment of bronchial asthma:
a-Salbutamol
b-Atropine
c-Isopreanline
d-Adrenaline
32-Postural hypotenion is a common side effect of which of the following:
a-Isoprealine
b-Phentlamine
c-Nadolol
d-Non of above
33-Postural hypotension is a common side effects of all of the following except:
a-Prazocine
b-Reserpine
c-Phenxybenzamine
d-All of above
34-The carcinogenic effect of cigarette is due to:
a-Nitrosamines
b-Thermal effect
c-carbon monoxide
d-All of above
35-Non selective B blocker that do not affect the brain is
a-Propranolol
b-Nadolol
c-Timolol
d-Timolol
36-Atenolol is
a-B1 selective blocker
c-Vasodilator blocker
b-Non selective B blocker
d-Blocks B receptors in brain.
37-Sedation is a side effect of all of the following except:
a-Reserpine
b-Popranolol
c-Pindolol
d-Hyosine
38-All of the following are pharmacological action of B blockers except:
a-Cardiac depression
b-Vasodilatation
c-Bronchospasm
d-Hypotension
39-All of the following are pharmacological actions of selective α1 blockers except
a-Vasodilation
b-Tachycardia
c-Hypotension
d-Smooth muscle relaxation
40-Which of the following is ganglionic blocker
a-Guanthedine
b-Oxyphenonium
c-Trimetaphan
d-Terazocine
41-Which of the following is quaternary amine drug with atropine like action
a-Physostigmine
b-Benzatropine
c-Probanthine
d-Homatropine
42-All of the following are therapeutic uses of atropine except:
a-Peptic ulcer
c-Glaucoma
b-Chronic bronchitis
d-Heart block
43-All of the following are symptoms of atropine toxicity except:
a-Blurring of vision
b-Constipation
c-Cold extremeties
d-Urinary retention
44-Cold extremities is a side effect of which of the following drugs:
a-Propranolol
b-Pindolol
c-Timolol
d-Carvidlol
45-B blockers are used in treatment of angina pectoris due to all of the following
except
a-Atherosclerosis
b-Coronary vasospasm
c-Coronary thrombosis
d-Non of above
46-Antimuscarinic drug used in treatment of bronchial asthmas :
a-Adrenaline
b-Salbutamole
c-Ipratropium bromide
d-Atropine
47-Sympatholytic drug used in treatment of glaucoma
a-Pilocarpine
b-Physostigmine
c-Timolol
d-Adrenaline
48-Anticholineesterase used as war poison
a-Neostigmine
b-Physostigmine
c-Parathione
d-Soman
49-Skeletal muscle relaxant used in intratreacheal intubation:
a-Pancuronium
b-Sucenylchoine
c-entiazac
d-D-tubocurarine
50-Succenylcholine apnea is due to congenital deficiency of :
a-True cholinesterase
b-Pseudocholine esterase
c-Mono amine oxidase (MAO)
d-Catechol ortho methyl trasferase(COMT)
51-Teriary amine antimuscarinic drug mainly used as eye drops
a-Oxyphenonium
b-Pirenzpine
c-Eucatropine
d-Physostigmine
52-All of the following is true about psudocholineesterase except:
a-It is slowly synthetized and rapidly acting b-It is not essential for life
c-It is syntbetized in the liver
d-It metabolizes succenylcholine
53- A sympathomimetic, vasodilator drug used in treatment of bronchial asthma
and premature labor is:
a-Clonidine
b-Turbutaline.
c-Adrenaline
d-Yohimbine
54-Which of the following adverse effects (side-effects) is NOT commonly seen with
cholinergic antagonists?
a) Blurred vision
b) Confusion
c) Miosis
d) Constipation
e) Urinary retention
55- Which of the following is broken down by specific MAO-B (monoamine oxidase) inhibitors
more than
the others?
a) Serotonin (5-HT)
b) Norepinepherine (NE)
c) Dopamine (DA)
56- Which of the following is NOT a result of excessive cholinergic stimulation, as
would be seen with a nerve agent or organophosphate poisoning?
a) Diarrhea
b) Diaphoresis
c) Mydriasis
d) Nausea
e) Urinary urgency
57- What two clinical results of topical administration of atropine?
a) Mydriasis (iris dilation) and increased lacrimation
b) Cycloplegia (ciliary paralysis) and miosis (iris constriction)
c) Miosis and increased lacrimation
d) Xerophthalmia (dry eyes) and mydriasis .
58- Which of the following is an adverse affect of atropine?
a) Increased salivation
b) Blurred vision
c) Bradycardia
d) Diaphoresis
e) Decreased intraocular pressure
59- Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for atropine
intoxication?
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Endrophonium
d) Pyridostigmine
60-Which of the following reversible cholinesterase inhibitors is used for Alzheimer
disease?
a) Neostigmine
b) Endrophonium
c) Donepezil
d) Pyridostigmine
61- Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
62-A drug used in prophylaxis of bronchial asthma and acts by inhibition of intracellular calcium
influx is:
a-Zulitin
b-Zaferikast
c-Disodium cromogycate
d-Ipratropium bromide
63- Which of the following is NOT an effect of autonomic ganglion blocking?
a) Anhidrosis and xerostomia
b) Mydriasis
c) Tachycardia
d) Hypertension
e) Cycloplegia
64-Which of the following drugs inhibits dopamine receptors
a)Selegiline
b)Carbidopa
c)Chlorpromazine
d)Carbamazipine.
65-Of the following drugs which one is used intravenously to treat acute narrow angle
glaucoma
a-Timolol.
b-Pilocarpine
c-Physostigmine
d-Mannitol
66-Which one of the following drugs causes mydriasis with loss of corneal reflex and
preservation of accommodation reflex
a-Atropine
b-Cocaine
c-Adrenaline
d-phenylephrine
67-Which of the following is the most severe adverse effect that has been associated with
sudden termination of 1-blockers?
a) Heart block
b) Reflex bradycardia
c) Syncope (fainting)
d) Angina
68-Which of the following drugs causes rebound hypertension after sudden withdrawal
a-Prazocine
b-Clonidine
c-Turbutaline.
d-Isoprenaline
69-Which of the following is the most likely to occur with parenteral administration of a1agonist drug?
a) Hypotension
b) Hypertension
c) Tissue necrosis
d) Vasodilation
e) Lipolysis
70-Which of the following adrenergic receptor activation mechanisms is involved with
ephedrine and amphetamine,?
a) Direct binding to the receptor
b) Promoting release of norepinephrine
c) Inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d) Inhibiting inactivation of norepinephrine
71-Which drug act by activation of phospholipase C (PLC)?
a) 1agonists
b) 2 agonists
c)  agonists
d) 1 selective blockers
72-Which one of the following catecholamine is only inactivated by Catechol ortho methyl
transferase
a-Adrenaline
b-Noradreanline
c-Dopamine
d-isoprenaline
73-Intragranular uptake of norepinephrine is blocked by
a-Guanthedine
b-Reserpine
c-Phenoxybenzamine
d-Corticosteroids
74-At the adrenergic synapse, what does clonidine do?
a) Stimulates NE release
b) Inhibits NE release
c) Stimulates ACh release
d) Inhibits ACh release
75-Which of the following β1 selective blocker blockers with membrane stabilizing action and
no intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
a-Propranolol
b-Acebutalol
c-Metoprolol
d-Esmolol
76- Which of the following agonists would be used for asthma patients or to delay
premature labor?
a) 2-agonist
b) 1-agonist
c) 3-agonist
d) 2-agonist
e) 1-agonist
Renal pharmacology
1-The diuretic that used in acute pulmonary edema is :A- Furosemide.
B-Thiazide.
C- Spironolactone .
D-Acetazolamide .
2-Renal papillary necrosis is a common side effect of:
a- Captopril
b- B-Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c- C-Calciferol
d- Amionglycosides
3-All of the following drugs are used in treatment of urinary retention except:
a-Distigmine
b-Bethanechol
c-Oxybutinin
d-Carbachol
4-The most common side effects of aminoglycosides on renal function is:
a-Pappillary necrosis
b-Tubular necrosis
c-Increase incidence of oxalate stones
d-Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
5-The diuretic that used in acute pulmonary edema is :A- Furosemide.
B-Thiazide.
C- Spironolactone .
D-Acetazolamide .
Blood
1-Iron absorption is enhanced by all of the following drugs except:
a-Sodium phosphate
b-Sodium succinate
c- Sodium ascorbate
d-Glutathione
2-The therapeutic effect of dicomarol is enhanced by co-administration of the following drugs
except :
a-Clofibrate
b-Chloramphicol
c-Cholestyramine
d-Mestranol
3-The antiplatelet effect of ticopedine is due to:
a-Inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme
b-Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
c-Inhibition of fibrinogen binding
d-Inhibition of thromboxane
4-The hypolipidemic effect of nicotinic acid is due to:
a-Inhibition of HMG-CO reductase.
b-Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
c-Increase biliary excretion of cholesterol
d-Non of above
5-Bleeding is a side effect of all the following drugs except:
a-Tranexamic acid
b-Warfarine sodium.
c-Urokinase
d-Ancroid
6-Regarding thrombolytic therapy , the following are true except:
a) they can be used if the patient has active bleeding.
b) They are only effective if given early after thrombus formation.
c) Tissue plasminogen activator is produced by endothelium in response to ischemia
7- Aactivation of plasminogen to plasmin is brought about by:
A) Heparine.
b) Warfarine
c) Anistreplase.
d) Non of above
8- The hemostatic effect ofEthanolamine maleate :a-Inhibition of plasmin
b-Activation of vitamin K
c-Inhibition of fibinolysis
d-Scelerosing of bleeding vessels
9- Streptokinase induced bleeding could be treated by:
a-Protamine sulfate
b-Vitamin k
c-Aminocaproic acid
d- esythmsalate
10-The following statements are true about lovatatin except:
1-It inhibits HMG coA reductase enzyme
b-It decreases plasma triglycerides more than cheleserol.
c-It is hepatotoxic.
d-It is equpotent to pravastatin
11-Hypolipidemic and microsomal enzyme inducer is:
a-Clofibrate
b-Atrorvastatin
c-Colestibole
d-Eazitermide
12-Hypertriglycedemia is side effect of which of the following drugs:
a-Atrovastatin
b-Gemfibosil
c-Niacine
d-Cholestryamine
13- All of the following combinations of hypolipidemic agents are valid except:
a-Gemfibosil + cholestyramine
b-Lovastatin + nicotinic acid
c-Atorvastin + fenofibrate
d-Lovastatin + colestibole
14- Hypolipidemic , thrombolytic and vasodilator drug is:
a-Simvastatin
b-Prostacylcine
c-Pentoxyphilline.
d-Nicotinic acid
15-Hyperurethemia is a side effect of which of the following:
a- Hydroxycomobamine
b- Nicotinic acid
c- Warfarine sodium
d- Heparine sulfate
16-The effect of warfarine is decreased by coadminstration of the following drugs except:
a-Cholestyramine
b-Estrogen containing contraceptive pills
c-Parafin oil
d-Refampicin
17-Directly acting orally active antithrombin
a-Dicomarol
b-Low molecular weight heparine
c=Ximelagatran
d-Sodium citrate
18-The drug of choice in treatment of anemia in patient with chronic renal failure is:
a- Erythropiotin
b- B-Folic acid
c- C-Vitamin B12
d- Megacaryocyte Co;ony stimulating factor.
19-All of the following are common side effects of erythropiotin except:
a- Bone ahe
b- -Hemochromatosis
c- Hypotesion
d- Headache
20-All of the following drugs may decrease vitamin B12 absorption except:
a- Neomycin
b- Choestyramine
c- Ethanol
d- Colchicine
1-Iron absorption is enhanced by all of the following drugs except:
a-Sodium phosphate
b-Sodium succinate
c- Sodium ascorbate
d-Glutathione
2-The therapeutic effect of dicomarol is enhanced by co-administration of the following drugs
except :
a-Clofibrate
b-Chloramphicol
c-Cholestyramine
d-Mestranol
3-The antiplatelet effect of ticopedine is due to:
a-Inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme
b-Inhibition of adenyl cyclase
c-Inhibition of fibrinogen binding
d-Inhibition of thromboxane
4-The hypolipidemic effect of nicotinic acid is due to:
a-Inhibition of HMG-CO reductase.
b-Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
c-Increase biliary excretion of cholesterol
d-Non of above
5-Bleeding is a side effect of all the following drugs except:
a-Tranexamic acid
b-Warfarine sodium.
c-Urokinase
d-Ancroid
6-Regarding thrombolytic therapy , the following are true except:
a) they can be used if the patient has active bleeding.
b) They are only effective if given early after thrombus formation.
c) Tissue plasminogen activator is produced by endothelium in response to ischemia
7- Aactivation of plasminogen to plasmin is brought about by:
A) Heparine.
b) Warfarine
c) Anistreplase.
d) Non of above
8- The hemostatic effect ofEthanolamine maleate :a-Inhibition of plasmin
b-Activation of vitamin K
c-Inhibition of fibinolysis
d-Scelerosing of bleeding vessels
9- Streptokinase induced bleeding could be treated by:
a-Protamine sulfate
b-Vitamin k
c-Aminocaproic acid
d- esythmsalate
10-The following statements are true about lovatatin except:
1-It inhibits HMG coA reductase enzyme
b-It decreases plasma triglycerides more than cheleserol.
c-It is hepatotoxic.
d-It is equpotent to pravastatin
11-Hypolipidemic and microsomal enzyme inducer is:
a-Clofibrate
b-Atrorvastatin
c-Colestibole
d-Eazitermide
12-Hypertriglycedemia is side effect of which of the following drugs:
a-Atrovastatin
b-Gemfibosil
c-Niacine
d-Cholestryamine
13- All of the following combinations of hypolipidemic agents are valid except:
a-Gemfibosil + cholestyramine
b-Lovastatin + nicotinic acid
c-Atorvastin + fenofibrate
d-Lovastatin + colestibole
14- Hypolipidemic , thrombolytic and vasodilator drug is:
a-Simvastatin
b-Prostacylcine
c-Pentoxyphilline.
d-Nicotinic acid
15-Hyperurethemia is a side effect of which of the following:
e- Hydroxycomobamine
f- Nicotinic acid
g- Warfarine sodium
h- Heparine sulfate
16-The effect of warfarine is decreased by coadminstration of the following drugs except:
a-Cholestyramine
b-Estrogen containing contraceptive pills
c-Parafin oil
d-Refampicin
17-Directly acting orally active antithrombin
a-Dicomarol
b-Low molecular weight heparine
c=Ximelagatran
d-Sodium citrate
18-The drug of choice in treatment of anemia in patient with chronic renal failure is:
e- Erythropiotin
f- B-Folic acid
g- C-Vitamin B12
h- Megacaryocyte Co;ony stimulating factor.
19-All of the following are common side effects of erythropiotin except:
e- Bone ahe
f- -Hemochromatosis
g- Hypotesion
h- Headache
20-All of the following drugs may decrease vitamin B12 absorption except:
e- Neomycin
f- Choestyramine
g- Ethanol
h- Colchicine
General pharmacology
1-A drug undergoing glomerular filtration:
a- Highly bound to plasma proteins.
b free and not bound to plasma protein.
c-Has positively charged quaternary ammonium ion.
d-Has low volume of distribution.
2-An advantage of enteric coated tablet is:
aIt is meant for chewing or sucking.
b-Can be used topically.
c-It is resistant to gastric acid.
d-It allows for slow and sustained release of the drug.
3- Which of the following drug absorption mechanisms involves polar substances too large to
enter cells by other means, such as vitamin B12?
a) Aqueous diffusion
b) Lipid diffusion
c) Carrier molecules
d) Endocytosis and exocytosis
4-Using the Fick Law of Diffusion, how will flux change if membrane thickness is
doubled?
a) It will double
b) It will quadruple
c) It will halve
d) It will quarter
e) It will not change
5-To treat overdose toxicity of acidic drug ,you may perform gastric lavage with:
a-Sodium bicarbonate.
b-Ascorbic acid
c-Saline
d-Non of above.
6-Drug disposition is :
a-Absorption and distribution
b-Distribution and metabolism
c-Metabolsim and excretion
d-Distribution + metabolism + excretion
7- A decrease in renal and liver function, as seen in the elderly, would prolong drug
half-life, ____ plasma protein binding, and ____ volume of distribution.
a) Increase; Increase
b) Decrease; Decrease
c) Increase; Decrease
d) Decrease; Increase
8-All of the following drugs are highly excreted in milk except:
a-Acidic drugs
b-Basic drugs
c-Lipid soluble drugs
d-Unionized drugs.
9-The lipid-soluble form of a base is ____ and the lipid-soluble form of an acid is
____.
a) Protonated; Protonated
b) Protonated; Unprotonated
c) Unprotonated; Unprotonated
d) Unprotonated; Protonated
10- What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?
a) Partition constant
b) Degree of ionization
c) pH
d) Size
e) All of the above
11-The non ionized lipid soluble drug with low molecular weight is usually absorbed by:
a-Pinocytosis.
b-Passive diffusion .
c-Acitive transport
d-Filtration
12- Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process?
a) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymes
b) Drug metabolites are removed in the urine
c) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulation
d) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
e) The drug is readily deposited in fat tissue
33-Which of the following drugs have low dissociation rate from receptor sites:
a-Agonist.
b-Antaagonist
c-Partial agonist
d-Irreversible antagonist.
13-Succenylcholine apnea is due to
a-Drug hypersensitivity.
b-Drug idiosyncrasy.
c-Overdose toxicity
d-Non of above
14-Which one of the following drugs induces cytochrome p450IA1
a-Aromatic hydrocarbons.
b-Barbiturates
c-Corticosteroids
d-Phenytoin
15-For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the bioavailability assumed to be?
a) 0%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 100%
16-Effective concentration 50 is:
a-The concentration of the drug that produce half maximal efficacy.
b-The concentration of the drug that produce half maximal receptor occupancy.
c-The concentration of the drug that produce half of steady state concentration
d-The concentration of the drug that produce the required effect in half number of patients.
17-Tubular reabsorption of drugs is mediated by:
a-Filtration
b-Diffusion.
c-Active transport
d-Non of above
18-Salicylates are mainly conjugated in the liver with:
a-Acetic acid
b-Glucuronic acid.
c-Glycine
d-Methyl group
19-Which of the following locations would most trap a lipid soluble drug?
a) Blood
b) Intestines
c) Brain
d) Stomach
20-Which of the following administration routes has the largest first-pass effect?
a) sublingual
b) Subcutaneous
c) Rectal
d) Oral
21- Which of the following describes an agonist?
a) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its
chemical action
b) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
d) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular activity
e) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient
22-Half life of distribution is:
a-The time required for the drug to increase its concentration to 50% of
steady state concentrartion.
b-Time required for the drug to decrease its concentration to 50% of steady
state conenctration.
c-Time required for the drug to decrease its biological effect by 50%.
d-Non of above
23-Subacute toxicity study is performed over:
a-1-4 weeks.
b-1-6 months.
c-6-12 months
d-1-2 years
24-All of the following enzymes are inducible except:
a-Cytohrome p4501A1oxidase
b- Cytohrome p4501IIc19oxidase
c- Cytohrome p4501D6oxidase.
d- Cytohrome p4501A2oxidase
25-Which of the following brain areas is outside blood brain
barrier
a-Choroid plexus.
b-Vomiting center.
c-Limbic system.
c-Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus.
26-What percentage of the steady-state drug concentration is achieved at
3.3 * t(1/2)?
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 75%
e) 90%
27-Damage at which of the following locations would most affect the
goals of phase II
biotransformation?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver
e) GI Tract
28-Acidic drugs, such bind primarily to which of the following plasma
proteins?
a) 1-fetoprotein .
b) gamma Globulin
c) Albumin
d) 1-acid glycoprotein .
29-What organ is responsible for metabolism in the “first pass effect”?
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Kidney
d) Liver
30-Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine and weak bases are
excreted faster in____ urine.
a) Acidic; Alkaline
b) Alkaline; Acidic
c) Acidic; Neutral
d) Neutral; Alkaline
e) Alkaline; Neutral
31-All of the following processes are related to phase I drug metabolism except:
a-Oxidation.
b-Reduction
c-Conjugation
d-hydrolysis
32-Refampicin induce which of the following subtypes of cytochrome oxidase
a-Cytohrome p4501A1oxidase
b- Cytohrome p4501IIc19oxidase
c- Cytohrome p4501D6oxidase.
d- Cytohrome p4501A2oxidase
33-Low molecular weight hydrophilic drugs are absorbed by:
a-Filtration
b-Diffusion
c-Active transport
d-Pinocytosis
34-To maintain a drug concentration at steady state, the dosing rate should equal the
elimination rate. Which of the following is true? (CL = Drug Clearance)
a) Dosing rate = CL + target concentration
b) Dosing rate = CL - target concentration
c) Dosing rate = CL * target concentration
d) Dosing rate = CL / target concentration
35-Which of the following metabolically active tissues is the principle
organ for drug metabolism?
a) Skin
b) Kidneys
c) Lungs
d) Liver
e) GI Tract
36-What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?
a) Large and lipid-soluble
b) Large and lipid-insoluble
c) Small and lipid-soluble
d) Small and lipid-insoluble
37-Bioavailability is the fraction or percentage of administered drug that
reaches the systemic circulation via a given route as compared to what
route?
a) Oral
b) IV (intravenous)
c) IO (intraosseous)
d) CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)
38-Drugs interact with their receptor sites by forming :
a-Coordinate covalent bond.
b-Covalent bonds.
c-Ionic bonds.
d-Vander walls bonds.
39-Which of the following can produce a therapeutic response? A drug
that is:
a) Bound to plasma albumin
b) Concentrated in the bile
c) Concentrated in the urine
d) Not absorbed from the GI tract
e) Unbound to plasma proteins
40-Which one of the following drugs is highly bound to plasma proteins
a-Sulfonamide
b-Heparine
c-Salicylates
d-Warfarine
41-Of the following drugs which one is passive mydriatic with longest duration
a-_Atropine
b-Homatropine.
c-Cocaine
d-Eucatropine
42-Liquid containing drug + propeller gas under pressure inside a container is:
a-Spin inhaler.
b-Aerosol
c-Pessary
d-Lintus
43-Which one of the following drugs is microsomal enzyme inhibitor
a-Pheytoin.
b-Refamicin
c-Allopurinol.
d-Carbamazipine.
44-Competitive antagonist has the following properties except:
a-Has affinity
b-Binds reversibly with the receptor.
c-Does not have intrinsic activity.
d-Can inhibit the effect of an agonist which binds with the same receptor
e-Its effect cannot be overcome by increasing concentration of the agonist.
45-Which one is a measure of the safety of the drug
a-Effective dose 50.
b-Lethal dose 50.
c-Potency
d-Efficacy
e-Therapeutic index.
Deneral
Autachoids
1-Misoprstol is analogue to:
a-PGE1
b-PGE2.
c-PGF2α
d-PGI2
2-Which of the following has the most potent inhibitory effect on platelet
aggregation:
a-Epiprostenol.
b-Misoprostole
c-Latanoprost
d-Montellokast
3-Icatibant is an inhibitor of:
a-lipoogenase enzyme
b-Bradykinin receptors
c-Nitric oxide synthetase enzyme
d-5HT7 receptors.
4-Which of the following diseases is treated by latanoprost
a-Peptic ulcer.
b-glaucoma.
c-Peripheral vascular diseases
d-Bronchial asthma.
5-All of the following substances increase pain sensation except:
a-PGD
b-Platelet activating factors
c-Neurotensin.
d-Calcitonin gene related peptide.
6-Palosuran is a blocker to:
a-Bradykinin receptors
b-Neuropeptide y receptors.
c-Neurotensin receptors.
d-Urotensin receptors
All of the following are
7-The vasopressor effect of endothelein is selectively inhibited by:
a-Bosentan.
b-Sitasentan.
c-Palosuran
d-Irbsartan
8-Which of the following substances decrease cAMP except:
a-Bradykinin
b-Atrial naturitic hormone
c—Neuropeptide y
d-Noradenaline
9-Alkiren inhibits
a-Renin synthesis
b-Renin activation
c-Angiotensin (AT1) receptors
d-Angiotensin (AT2) receptors.
10-All of the following is true about PGE2 except
a-It produces vasodilatation
b-It decreases renin secretion
c-It has cytoprotective effect on gastric mucosa
d-It produces bronchodilatation
11-Serotonin increases gastric motility through
a-Stimulation of 5HT2c receptors.
b-Stimulation of 5HT4 receptors
c-Decreasing acetylcholine release from parasympathetic nerves
c-Increase synthesis of cAMP
12-Serotonin may decrease heart rate through stimulation of
a-5HT1A receptors.
b-5HT2c receptors
c-5HT 3 receptors
d-5HT 4 receptors
13-A drug that inhibit serotonin , muscarinic and histamine receptor is:
a-Loratidine
b-Diphenhydramine
c-Cpyroheptidine
d-Methergide
14-Retropretoneal fibrosis is a frequent side effect of long term use of:
a-Practolol
b-Methergide
c-Cytridine
d-ondansetrone
15-A drug that inhibit alpha adrenergic , H1 histamine and muscarinic receptor is:
a-Promethazine
b-Phenoxybenzamine
c-Clemastine
d- Phentolamine
16-All of the following is true about nizatidine except
a-It acts by blocking H2 receptors
b-It may be used in treatment of Zolinger illison syndrmone
c-It may produce drowsness and confusion.
d-It is a potent microsomal enzyme inhibitor
17-All of the following statements are true about clemastin except
a-It is more sedative than diphenhyramine
b-It is used in treatment of urticaria
c-It has atropine like action
d-It has long duration of action
18-A drug that inhibit both alpha receptor and 5HT2 receptors is:
a-Sumatriptane
b-Ketanserine
c-Fluxitine
d-Buspirone
19-All of the following drugs inhibit renin angiotensin system except:
a- furosimide
b-Losrtan
c-Alpha methyl dopa
d-Atenolol
20- All of the following is true about angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
except:
a-They decreases both pre and after load of the heart.
b-Theydecease renin release,
c-They are used in treatment of heart failure
d-They increase the effect of bradykinin