Download Cell Cycle, Cell Reproduction, Chromosomal Mutation Practice

Cell Cycle, Cell Reproduction, Chromosomal Mutation Practice Questions
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?
A) 30
B) 80
C) 40
D) 10
E) 20
1)
2) In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of DNA
A) only.
B) and phospholipids.
C) and RNA.
D) and proteins.
2)
3) What is produced if a cell divides by mitosis but does not undergo cytokinesis?
A) one cell with two nuclei, each identical to the nucleus of the parent cell
B) two cells, each cell with half of the genetic material of the parent cell
C) one cell with one nucleus containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell
D) two cells, one cell containing two nuclei and a second cell without a nucleus
3)
4) Humans produce skin cells by mitosis and gametes by meiosis. The nuclei of skin cells produced by
mitosis will have
A) four times as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis.
B) half as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis.
C) the same amount of DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis.
D) twice as much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis.
4)
5) If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each
daughter cell following cytokinesis?
A) 40
B) 20
C) 30
D) 10
E) 80
5)
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6) What is a cleavage furrow?
A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate
B) the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase
C) the separation of divided prokaryotes
D) the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle
E) a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei
6)
7) During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?
A) anaphase
B) cytokinesis
C) metaphase
D) telophase
E) prophase
7)
8) Motor proteins require which of the following to function in the movement of chromosomes
toward the poles of the mitotic spindle?
A) ATP as an energy source
B) synthesis of cohesin
C) intact centromeres
D) a kinetochore attached to the metaphase plate
E) a microtubule-organizing center
8)
9) A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation
of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2 ?
9)
A) The chromosomes would segregate but in a disorderly pattern.
B) Each resultant daughter cell would also be unable to form a spindle.
C) The cells would immediately die.
D) The cells would be unable to begin M and stay in G2 .
E) The chromosomes would coil and shorten but have no spindle to which to attach.
10) Cells from advanced malignant tumors often have very abnormal chromosomes as well as an
abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain the association between malignant tumors
and chromosomal abnormalities?
A) Cancer cells are no longer density dependent.
B) Chromosomally abnormal cells still have normal metabolism.
C) Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
D) Cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities.
E) Cancer cells are no longer anchorage dependent.
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10)
11) Which is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle where a cell will be caused to exit the cycle if this
point is not passed?
A) G1
11)
B) G0
C) S
D) previous M
E) G2
12) Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in
concentration during the cell cycle, are called
A) kinases.
B) ATPases.
C) cyclins.
D) kinetochores.
E) estrogen receptors.
12)
13) Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?
A) As cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with
each other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by
its neighbor.
B) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their
size and ability to produce control factors.
C) As cells become more numerous, more and more of them enter the S phase of the cell cycle.
D) As cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, eventually slowing
down metabolism.
E) As cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining
cells and they stop dividing.
13)
14) Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?
A) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle.
B) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle; they are not subject to
cell cycle controls; and they do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in
culture.
C) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture.
D) When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle, and they are not
subject to cell cycle controls.
E) They are not subject to cell cycle controls.
14)
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15) Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a
tumor?
A) lack of appropriate cell death
B) inability to form spindles
C) inability of chromosomes to meet at the metaphase plate
D) enhanced anchorage dependence
E) changes in the order of cell cycle stages
15)
16) Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?
A) They have been shunted into G0 .
16)
17) All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?
A) They utilize the same Cdks.
B) They each have only one cyclin/Cdk complex.
C) They respond to the same cyclins.
D) They give the go-ahead signal to progress to the next checkpoint.
E) They activate or inactivate other proteins.
17)
18) You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out
which ones are malignant. What could you do?
A) See which ones are not overproliferating.
B) Find out which ones have a higher rate of apoptosis.
C) Time their cell cycles.
D) Measure metastasis.
E) Karyotype samples to look for unusual size and number of chromosomes.
18)
19) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a
karyotype?
A) telophase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) interphase
E) metaphase
19)
B) They show a drop in MPF concentration.
C) They no longer have active nuclei.
D) They can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin.
E) They no longer carry receptors for signal molecules.
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20) Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
B) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.
C) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
D) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
E) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
20)
21) Which of these is a karyotype?
A) a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus
B) a display of a cell’s mitotic stages
C) the appearance of an organism
D) organized images of a cell’s chromosomes
E) a display of all the cell types in an organism
21)
22) The human X and Y chromosomes
A) are about the same size and have approximately the same number of genes.
B) are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike.
C) are called autosomes.
D) include genes that determine an individual's sex.
E) are almost entirely homologous, despite their different names.
22)
23) Which of these is a way that the sexual life cycle increases genetic variation in a species?
A) by allowing an increase in cell number
B) by allowing crossing over
C) by conserving chromosomal gene order
D) by decreasing mutation frequency
E) by increasing gene stability
23)
24) A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. We can therefore conclude which of the
following?
A) Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.
B) It must be human.
C) It must be sexually reproducing.
D) It must be an animal.
E) It must be a primate.
24)
25) A triploid cell contains three sets of chromosomes. If a cell of a usually diploid species with 42
chromosomes per cell is triploid, this cell would be expected to have which of the following?
A) 63 chromosomes in 31 1/2 pairs
B) 63 chromosomes in 21 sets of 3
C) 21 chromosome pairs and 21 unique chromosomes
D) 63 chromosomes, each with three chromatids
25)
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26) In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such
as pair 14, which of the following do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?
A) length and position of the centromere only
B) length, centromere position, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes
C) length, centromere position, staining pattern, and DNA sequences
D) They have nothing in common except they are X-shaped.
E) length, centromere position, and staining pattern only
26)
27) If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the
following is an appropriate description of its contents?
A) It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell.
B) It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis.
C) It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another
cell from the same meiosis.
D) It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
E) It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell.
27)
28) To view and analyze human chromosomes in a dividing cell, which of the following is (are)
required?
A) fluorescent staining and a transmission electron microscope
B) radioactive staining
C) a stain particular to human cells
D) a scanning electron microscope
E) DNA staining and a light microscope
28)
29) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is
A) tetraploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
B) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
C) diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
D) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
E) haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
29)
30) How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their DNA and
are just about to begin meiosis?
A) They have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA.
B) They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
C) They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
D) They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
E) They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
30)
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31) Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
A) Four daughter cells are formed.
B) The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
C) Sister chromatids are separated.
D) Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.
E) Cohesins are cleaved at the centromeres.
31)
32) Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?
A) condensation of chromatin
B) chromosome replication
C) synapsis of chromosomes
D) alignment of chromosomes at the equator
E) production of daughter cells
32)
33) When we see chiasmata under a microscope, that lets us know which of the following has
occurred?
A) anaphase II
B) asexual reproduction
C) prophase I
D) separation of homologs
E) meiosis II
33)
For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Prophase I
Metaphase I
Anaphase I
Telophase I
V.
VI.
VII.
VIII.
Prophase II
Metaphase II
Anaphase II
Telophase II
34) Homologous chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle.
A) I
B) II
C) VI
D) VIII
E) IV
34)
35) Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.
A) II
B) III
C) V
D) VII
E) IV
35)
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36) What is the source of the extra chromosome 21 in an individual with Down syndrome?
A) nondisjunction in the father only
B) nondisjunction in the mother only
C) duplication of the chromosome
D) nondisjunction or translocation in either parent
E) It is impossible to detect with current technology.
36)
37) An inversion in a human chromosome often results in no demonstrable phenotypic effect in the
individual. What else may occur?
A) Some abnormal gametes may be formed.
B) There may be deletions later in life.
C) The individual is more likely to get cancer.
D) There is an increased frequency of mutation.
E) All inverted chromosomes are deleted.
37)
38) Abnormal chromosomes are frequently found in malignant tumors. Errors such as translocations
may place a gene in close proximity to different control regions. Which of the following might then
occur to make the cancer worse?
A) sensitivity of the immune system
B) a decrease in mitotic frequency
C) death of the cancer cells in the tumor
D) an increase in nondisjunction
E) expression of inappropriate gene products
38)
39) A nonreciprocal crossover causes which of the following products?
A) duplication and nondisjunction
B) nondisjunction
C) deletion only
D) deletion and duplication
E) duplication only
39)
40) One possible result of chromosomal breakage is for a fragment to join a nonhomologous
chromosome. What is this alteration called?
A) translocation
B) duplication
C) transversion
D) inversion
E) deletion
40)
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41) When homologous chromosomes cross over, what occurs?
A) Specific proteins break the two strands of nonsister chromatids and re-join them.
B) Maternal alleles are "corrected" to be like paternal alleles, and vice versa.
C) Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA.
D) Each of the four DNA strands of a homologous pair is broken, and the pieces are mixed.
E) Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA.
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41)
Answer Key
Testname: CELL CYCLE CELL REPRODUCTIN PRACTICE
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