Download Animals: - This is just a sample and may not include all topics or may

Animals - This is just a sample and may not include all topics or may include some we have not covered.
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1. What is the name given to an organism with an endoskeleton and a backbone?
a. invertebrate
c. mammal
b. vertebrate
d. echinoderm
2. Why must external fertilization in animals always occur in water?
a. it is used only by fish
c. the sperm must swim to the egg
b. zygotes can only form in water
d. water is needed by all living things
3. What stage of embryonic development is formed by cells moving to the interior of the embryo?
a. zygote
c. blastula
b. 2-cell stage
d. gastrula
4. If pollution in a pond were causing the ectoderm of frog embryos to grow improperly, what part of the
tadpoles will not develop properly?
a. digestive organs
c. muscle tissue
b. nervous tissue
d. circulatory system
5. What is the order of cell layers in the gastrula starting from the inner layer?
a. mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm
c. endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm
b. endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm
d. mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm
6. If you are asked to lay an organism on its dorsal side, what kind of symmetry does the organism have?
a. no symmetry
c. radial symmetry
b. bilateral symmetry
d. asymmetry
7. What is an organism called that develops a body cavity between its mesoderm and endoderm?
a. coelomate
c. pseudocoelomate
b. deuterostome
d. protostome
8. Which of the following is an advantage of segmentation?
a. a reduction in the number of moving parts
b. able to have separate functions for different segments
c. the protection that an exoskeleton provides
d. it allows for greater cephalization
Figure 32-1
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9. Which type of muscle is labeled I in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 32-4?
a. cardiac
c. skeletal
b. filament
d. smooth
____ 10. Which type of muscle is labeled II in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 32-4?
____ 11.
____ 12.
____ 13.
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
a. cardiac
c. skeletal
b. filament
d. smooth
Which type of muscle is labeled III in the Venn diagram shown in Figure 32-4?
a. cardiac
c. skeletal
b. filament
d. smooth
Which describes a difference between the dermis and epidermis?
a. The epidermis is typically as thick as a piece of paper and the dermis is as much as 40
times thicker.
b. The dermis contains keratin, while the epidermis is mostly made up of fat cells.
c. The epidermis is primarily composed of connective tissue and the dermis is mostly made
up of hair follicles.
d. The epidermis is completely made up of nerve cells, which are lacking in the dermis.
A tissue is observed to contain nerve cells, muscle fibers, and oil glands. Where is this tissue found?
a. dermis
c. hair
b. epidermis
d. nails
Which lists the layers of skin from outer to inner?
a. dermis, melanin
c. melanin, epidermis
b. epidermis, dermis
d. keratin, epidermis
Which of the following describes the role of keratin in the epidermis?
a. Keratin allows the skin to fall off.
b. Keratin allows new skin to grow.
c. Keratin makes the skin waterproof.
d. Keratin protects the skin from UV light.
Where is the type of tissue that provides insulation in mammals found?
a. epithelial cells of the dermis
c. sebaceous glands
b. subcutaneous layer
d. outer layer of the dermis
Which would not be possible if the triceps muscle were severed?
a. extending the arm straight out
b. bending the forearm toward the shoulder
c. opening and closing the hand
d. rotating the thumb
What would result if the heart were made of skeletal muscle?
a. It would beat according to its own pacemaker.
b. It would not contain any striations when dissected.
c. You would have to think about controlling its beating.
d. It would not be strong enough to pump blood throughout the body.
Epithelial cells are similar to the shingles of a roof in that they are both flat and overlap. How does this
structure aid in their function?
a. It allows the individual cells to shed more easily.
b. It allows the whole structure of the skin to be lightweight.
c. It allows them to form a barrier to the outside.
d. It allows them to use small amounts of space.
What might occur if a scab does not form over a cut that has damaged blood vessels?
a. Bacteria may enter the body.
c. The cut may not bleed.
b. Skin cells may not divide.
d. White blood cells will attack the skin.
Leukemia results when an excess of defective blood cells are produced. These defective cells interfere with
the production of normal blood cells. Which of the following treatments would most likely help someone with
leukemia?
a. blood transfusion
c. muscle relaxers
b. bone marrow transplant
d. skin graft
____ 22. A student states that the contraction of a skeletal muscle begins when a nerve impulse causes calcium to be
released. The calcium causes the actin and myosin filaments to attach, then myosin begins to move,
contracting the muscle.
Which evaluation of this answer is most appropriate?
a. The answer is correct.
b. Actin filaments move, not myosin.
c. Calcium is not involved in muscle contraction.
d. The sequence of events is incorrect.
____ 23. A person running for a long period of time feels tired. She keeps running and feels her breathing quicken.
Which explains what is most likely happening in the cells of her leg muscles?
a. The fast-twitch muscles are taking over in the leg.
b. The excess ATP produced is used for breathing.
c. Oxygen is taken from the muscles to be used in the lungs.
d. The cells have switched from aerobic to anaerobic respiration.
____ 24. A person describes a burn as being painless. Upon evaluation, you determine that he has suffered a bad burn.
Which of the following best explains why he feels no pain associated with the burn?
a. Damage to the dermis destroyed the nerve cells.
b. Damage only occurred in the epidermal layer.
c. The damaged cells were shed from the body.
d. Damage to pain receptors was prevented by keratin.
Figure 33-1
____ 25. What is the possible explanation for the location of the nerves in Figure 33-1?
a. so they can feel the outside air
c. so they are protected
b. so they can be near the stimulus
d. so they will be closer to the brain
____ 26. Which of the following pairs lists the fiber-like extensions that are components of neurons?
a. axons and myelin
c. dendrites and axons
b. synapses and myelin
d. dendrites and synapses
____ 27. Which of the following gives rise to the electrical voltage gradient in resting nerve cells?
a. The presence of negatively charged proteins outside the nerve cell causes a difference in
charge.
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____ 29.
____ 30.
____ 31.
____ 32.
____ 33.
b. The greater number of sodium ions inside the nerve cell creates a difference in charge
across the plasma membrane.
c. The inside of nerve cells is more negatively charged than the outside.
d. The inside of nerve cells is more positively charged than the outside.
Which of the following does not contribute to the resting potential of a neuron?
a. a higher concentration of positive ions outside the cell than inside
b. sodium-potassium pumps
c. a higher ratio of sodium ions outside the cell to potassium inside the cell
d. channels allowing the free flow of positive ions out of the cell
Multiple sclerosis is a disease that causes demyelination (destruction of the myelin sheath). How would
demyelination affect the nervous system?
a. slower transmission of nerve signals, causing problems with sensory perception and motor
coordination
b. faster transmission of nerve signals, causing increased alertness and physical activity
c. reversed direction of nerve signals conduction, causing signals to reach the cell body
through both axons and dendrites
d. dendrites can no longer transmit signals to the cell bodies
What is the relationship between the action potential and the synapse?
a. The action potential is an electric current that passes from dendrites to axons at the
synapse.
b. The synapse is a gap in the myelin sheath that allows the propagation of the action
potential down the axon.
c. The action potential transmits information from the cell body to the axon through the
synapse.
d. The action potential is an electric current that passes through the axon and causes the
release of neurotransmitters into the synapse.
What happens to a neuron when a stimulus reaches the threshold level?
a. Channels in plasma membranes open, allowing potassium to move into the cytoplasm to
cause a temporary reversal in electrical charges.
b. Channels in plasma membranes open, allowing sodium to move into the cytoplasm to
cause a temporary reversal in electrical charges.
c. The sodium-potassium pump is activated, transporting sodium into the cytoplasm and
potassium out of the cytoplasm.
d. Channels in plasma membranes open, allowing negatively charged proteins to move out of
the cytoplasm temporarily.
What is the main difference between the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system
(PNS)?
a. The PNS integrates information received from the external environment, and the CNS
processes this information.
b. The PNS regulates body temperature, blood pressure, and thirst, while the CNS integrates
this information.
c. The CNS processes information, while the PNS carries information to and from the CNS
and sensory, muscle, and gland cells.
d. The CNS communicates involuntary communication, while the PNS communicates
voluntary information.
Both the gag reflex that occurs when the tongue is depressed and the release of adrenaline during a stressful
situation are involuntary reactions. What is the source of these reactions?
a. Both are autonomic responses.
b. Both occur in the central nervous system.
____ 34.
____ 35.
____ 36.
____ 37.
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____ 39.
____ 40.
____ 41.
c. The gag reflex is a parasympathetic reaction, but the release of adrenaline is a sympathetic
reaction.
d. The gag reflex is a reaction of the central nervous system, but the release of adrenaline is a
reaction of the autonomic nervous system.
When we feel thirsty after eating ice cream, which part of the nervous system is responding?
a. hypothalamus
c. medulla oblongata
b. pons
d. parasympathetic nervous system
How would your nervous system respond if you encountered a bear on a hiking trail?
a. The sympathetic nervous system would send signals to increase the heart rate, decrease
salivation, and increase respiration.
b. The autonomic nervous system would send signals to the somatic nervous system to
increase respiration and heart rate.
c. The parasympathetic nervous system would send signals to increase the heart rate,
decrease salivation, and increase respiration.
d. The somatic nervous system send signals to the central nervous system to increase heart
rate and respiration.
How do sound waves striking the ear cause the generation of action potentials?
a. Sound waves cause vibration of the hairs on the auditory nerve, which transmits signals to
the brain.
b. Sound waves cause structures in the ear to vibrate and cause hair cells in the cochlea to
generate nerve impulses to be sent through the auditory nerve and to the brain.
c. Sound waves cause vibration of the fluid in the semicircular canals, which transmit nerve
signals through the auditory nerve.
d. Sound waves cause hairs on receptor cells in the semicircular canals to bend, and they
send nerve impulses through the auditory nerve.
Which of the following could explain the physiological cause of colorblindness?
a. decreased sensitivity of rods
c. malformation of the optic nerve
b. deformation of the lens
d. fewer or absent cones
How does your brain detect the position of your head?
a. Head movement makes structures in the ear vibrate and causes hair cells in the cochlea to
generate nerve impulses to be sent through the auditory nerve to the brain.
b. Head movement causes bones of the inner ear to vibrate and transmit signals through the
auditory nerve to the brain.
c. Head movement causes hair cells in the semicircular canals to bend in response to gravity
and to transmit a constant train of action potentials to the brain.
d. Head movement causes the oval window to move back and forth, which transmits signals
through the auditory nerve to the brain.
Which of the following sets of stimuli and receptors is not paired correctly?
a. head motion / cochlear hair cells
b. chemical (taste) / taste buds
c. light / rods/cones
d. chemical (smell) / olfactory sense neurons
A chemoreceptor responds to a chemical stimulus. Which of the following pairs of receptors detects
chemicals?
a. cochlear hair cells, olfactory sensory neurons
b. cochlear hair cells, rods
c. rods, taste buds
d. taste buds, olfactory sensory neurons
How are the flavors of food detected?
a. The taste buds send signals to the olfactory sensory neurons.
b. The olfactory sensory neurons detect the airborne molecules of food.
c. The sensory neurons of the tongue send signals to the olfactory bulb.
d. The olfactory bulb is integrated with the taste buds.
____ 42. What accounts for the fact that the perception of taste is sharply reduced when one has a head cold?
a. Much of what we consider taste is really smell; blocked air passages reduce detection of
information.
b. The taste buds can no longer communicate with the olfactory nerve.
c. The air passages are blocked, which prevents communication of the taste buds with the
brain.
d. Taste buds have a weakened sensitivity when one has a head cold.
____ 43. How does caffeine affect coffee drinkers?
a. It prevents the reuptake of dopamine receptors which causes prolonged excitation.
b. It causes dopamine to bind to receptors until the caffeine is broken down.
c. It binds adenosine receptors in the brain to cause epinephrine release.
d. It acts on the hypothalamus to increase heart rate and vasoconstriction.
____ 44. Which of the following describes functions of the peripheral nervous system?
a. integrates perception, movement, and intellect
b. transmits external stimuli and motor responses
c. regulates body temperature, thirst, and appetite
d. regulates respiration, blood pressure, and heart rate
Figure 34-1
____ 45. How would the diaphragm change in Figure 34-1 to inhale?
a. flatten and lower
c. flatten and go higher
b. expand and go higher
d. expand and lower
Figure 34-3
____ 46. Examine Figure 34-3, which shows a nephron. Which of the following processes occurs in Structure B?
a. filtration
c. reabsorption
b. dialysis
d. urination
____ 47. In which structure of Figure 34-3 does filtrate become urine?
a. Structure A
c. Structure C
b. Structure B
d. Structure D
____ 48. Which of the following structures in Figure 34-3 contains blood?
a. Structure A
c. Structure C
b. Structure B
d. Structure D
____ 49. Which of the following organ systems is primarily responsible for maintaining the pH level of the blood?
a. cardiovascular system
c. respiratory system
b. lymphatic system
d. excretory system
____ 50. Which type of respiration takes place only in the lungs?
a. cellular respiration
c. internal respiration
b. intercellular respiration
d. external respiration
____ 51. An allergic reaction has caused a patient’s larynx to swell up. As the larynx swells, the patient’s airway is cut
off. A paramedic team is preparing to treat the problem. Paramedic A suggests making an incision into the
patient’s pharynx in order to insert a tube that would carry oxygen to the lungs. Paramedic B suggests making
an incision in the trachea to insert the tube. Which paramedic’s procedure should be followed?
a. paramedic A, because the pharynx is closer to the mouth than the trachea
b. paramedic A, because the pharynx leads directly to the lungs
c. paramedic B, because the trachea is positioned below the larynx
d. paramedic B, because the trachea is connected to the lungs by the pharynx
____ 52. Which of the following is always an effect of external respiration?
a. an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood
b. a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood
c. an increase in the heart rate
d. a decrease in the heart rate
____ 53. Which of the following is a function of the circulatory system?
a. remove wastes from the bloodstream
b. transport materials to fight infections
c. transport gases out of the body
____ 54.
____ 55.
____ 56.
____ 57.
____ 58.
____ 59.
____ 60.
____ 61.
____ 62.
____ 63.
____ 64.
d. produce digestive enzymes
A patient has a large amount of glucose in her urine. What does this most likely indicate?
a. The patient is in good health.
b. The patient’s kidney’s are damaged.
c. The patient’s circulatory system is failing.
d. The patient is eating too many carbohydrates.
Which of the following blood components do the kidney’s filter?
a. plasma
c. red blood cells
b. platelets
d. white blood cells
Which of the following would most likely occur first if the circulatory system suddenly stopped functioning?
a. Blood clots would form in the arteries.
b. Cells would die from a lack of oxygen.
c. Skin cells would become infected with bacteria.
d. Body temperature would fall, causing hypothermia.
What is the main function of cilia in the respiratory system?
a. prevent food from passing the epiglottis
b. prevent the alveoli from drying out
c. prevent dust from entering the lungs
d. prevent the trachea from being burned
As altitude increases, the amount of oxygen in the air decreases. If an athlete moves from Miami, which is at
sealevel, to Denver, which is at an altitude of about 1,500 m, what will happen to her breathing rate when she
exercises?
a. The athlete’s lungs will have to work the same amount regardless of altitude.
b. The athlete will need to breathe at a faster rate to get enough oxygen into her blood.
c. The athlete’s lung capacity will decrease when she gets to Denver because of the lack of
oxygen there.
d. The athlete’s cells will require less oxygen to produce ATP in Denver.
During which of the following processes inside the nephron do water and nitrogenous wastes exit the
bloodstream?
a. absorption
c. filtration
b. reabsorption
d. urea formation
During filtration and reabsorption, which of the following particles never leave the bloodstream?
a. salt
c. glucose
b. water
d. red blood cells
Which body systems do the lungs belong to?
a. respiratory system only
c. respiratory and immune systems
b. respiratory and circulatory systems
d. respiratory and excretory systems
A scientist dissecting a mammal removes a large vessel from the mammal’s hind leg and finds a valve inside
the vessel. What type of vessel did the scientist most likely find?
a. artery
c. vein
b. capillary
d. ureter
A doctor finds that her patient’s white blood cell count is higher than normal. What does this most likely
indicate?
a. The patient is healthy.
b. The patient has an infection.
c. The patient’s kidneys are functioning poorly.
d. The patient’s blood pressure is too low.
Which of the following organ systems is primarily responsible for the process of internal respiration?
a. circulatory system
c. lymphatic system
b. integumentary system
d. excretory system
____ 65. A person’s blood vessels become partially clogged with fat deposits. What is the most likely effect of this?
a. increased blood pressure
b. decreased red blood cell concentration
c. Rh factor complications
d. increased white blood cell count
____ 66. How is salt excreted from the body?
a. through urine alone
c. through sweat and breath
b. through urine and breath
d. through urine and sweat
Figure 35-1
____ 67. What type of system is shown in Figure 35-1?
a. reverse feedback
c. negative feedback
b. positive feedback
d. anti feedback
____ 68. What is likely to have triggered hormone production shown in Figure 35-1?
a. the presence of the body chemical
c. a total lack of the body chemical
b. a decrease in the body chemical
d. an increase in the body chemical
____ 69. Which best describes the difference between chemical and mechanical digestion?
a. chemical digestion requires the use of enzymes, mechanical digestion does not involve
enzymes
b. chemical digestion occurs only in the small intestine, mechanical digestion occurs in all
digestive organs
c. chemical digestion involves physically breaking down food, mechanical digestion breaks
the bonds in foods
d. chemical digestion occurs only when the body’s pH is acidic, mechanical digestion
requires alkaline surroundings
____ 70. Which digestive processes occur first?
a. chemical digestion occurs in the stomach
b. mechanical digestion in the esophagus
c. chemical and mechanical digestion in the mouth
d. no digestion occurs at first, food is only moistened
____ 71. Which correctly describes the path food takes through the organs of the digestive system?
a. mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus
b. mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine, anus
c. mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, anus
d. mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine, anus
____ 72. A person is choking and coughing. Which of the following most likely occurred?
a. Food has entered the person’s lungs.
b. Food has entered the person’s trachea.
c. Food has entered the person’s esophagus.
d. Food has entered the person’s epiglottis.
____ 73. Which best describes the importance of mechanical digestion?
a. It allows proteins and other organic compounds to be broken down into their component
molecules.
b. It makes food particles more acidic so that chemical digestion can occur in the digestive
organs
c. It speeds the work of enzymes by allowing food to be transported to the stomach more
quickly
d. It increases the surface area of food, allowing chemical digestion to occur more efficiently
____ 74. Which of the following might result if food moves very quickly through the large intestine?
a. The food would not be fully digested.
b. The feces would be eliminated as diarrhea.
c. The body could not eliminate any wastes.
d. The appendix might become inflamed.
____ 75. Why is it important for food manufacturers to include nutritional information on their products?
a. so one can determine how much the item costs
b. so one knows how long it will take to digest the food
c. so one can recreate the recipe and cook it in their home
d. so one knows how much fat they consume when eating the product
____ 76. Which of the following organs are involved with chemical digestion?
a. esophagus, liver, small intestine, large intestine
b. mouth, pancreas, stomach, small intestine
c. small intestine, gall bladder, kidneys, mouth
d. stomach, pancreas, pituitary, large intestine
____ 77. Which is most likely a result of damage to the liver?
a. decrease in nutrient absorption
c. increase in heartburn sensations
b. decrease in bile production
d. increase in pepsin levels
____ 78. Where does most digestion occur?
a. mouth
c. small intestine
b. large intestine
d. stomach
____ 79. A person experiences digestive discomfort within 2 hours of eating meat, beans, or eggs. Which of the
following organs is most likely the source of this difficulty?
a. large intestine
c. small intestine
b. mouth
d. stomach
____ 80. Which is the most likely result of damage to the anterior pituitary gland?
a. bones do not grow properly
b. blood calcium levels are high
c. the bloodstream contains excess water
d. daily injections of insulin are needed
____ 81. Which best describes what happens to a cracker inside the mouth?
a. Amylase completes mechanical digestion on the cracker.
b. Saliva digests the carbohydrates in the cracker.
c. Teeth chemically break down the sugars in the cracker.
d. The tongue chemically digests the protein in the cracker.
____ 82. How might digestion be affected if the body’s pH remained at a constant level of 7?
a. food would be digested at a faster rate
b. some enzymes would not work well
c. mechanical digestion would be slowed
d. blood glucose levels would rise
____ 83. Which of the following statements regarding the digestive system is correct?
a. All organs contain glands that release enzymes for chemical digestion.
b. Wherever mechanical digestion occurs, chemical digestion also occurs.
c. Peristalsis occurs in each organ, enabling nutrients to be more easily absorbed.
d. The pH of each organ is the same so the food can easily move through the system.
____ 84. The body regulates availability of sugar to its cells partly through two hormones secreted by the pancreas.
Which is the correct description of the production of these two hormones during the time immediately
following one meal to before the next meal 12 hours later?
a. insulin production decreases and then increases followed by increasing glucagon
production
b. glucagon production increases then decreases, followed by insulin increases in production
c. insulin production increases then decreases followed by increases in glucagon production
d. glucagon production decreases and then increases followed by increasing insulin
production
____ 85. What is responsible for breaking food molecules into smaller molecules?
a. acid
c. bile
b. mechanical action
d. enzymes
Animals
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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D
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B
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