Download Revision exam - Dynamic Science

Space Science
EXAMINATION
Reading time: 10 minutes
Writing time: 90 minutes
Your name: ___________________
Teacher’s initials: ____
Instructions:
1. All answers are to be written on the examination paper.
2. If you run out of room, or need to start your answer again, you may use the back of a
page. Clearly indicate where this occurs.
3. Write your answers clearly.
4. There are 119 marks available in the examination. You should allocate approximately 1
minute per mark for each question.
5. You will not be permitted to leave the examination room until the scheduled completion
of the exam.
ANSWER SHEET PART A:
NAME___________________________________________
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Circle the correct response to each question on the answer sheet.
1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Sun is fuelled by :
nuclear fusion reactions between hydrogen atoms,
nuclear fission reactions between hydrogen atoms,
very fast chemical reactions between hydrogen atoms,
very slow long lasting chemical reactions between hydrogen and helium atoms..
2) The Sun’s life expectancy is about 5 billion years. At the point of the Sun’s death
what event starts to occur?
a) The formation of neon.
b) The synthesis of iron from the fusion of lighter atoms .
c) The synthesis of iron form the fission of heavier atoms.
d) None of the above.
3) Why will the Sun expand to form a red giant after its collapse when all the
hydrogen is exhausted?
a) As the Sun collapses, huge pressure and temperature is created in the core that
fuse helium atoms together.
b) The Sun will expand as a result of a lesser gravitational force due to the loss of
hydrogen.
c) As the hydrogen burns with oxygen it creates carbon dioxide that builds up and
causes the Sun to expand.
d) A build-up of gases, such as helium, will cause the Sun to expand after all the
hydrogen is used up.
4)
a)
b)
c)
d)
The Sun was formed from:
a collision between two giant gas planets;
the gravitational attraction of asteroid to a central point;
the remains of a supernova;
the collapse of a nearby neutron star
5) A supernova is the violent death of a huge star many times larger than our own
Sun. Which one statement is true?
a) A supernova takes place when a large star has too much hydrogen fuel and
explodes releasing huge clouds of hydrogen into space.
b) Elements such as hydrogen and helium are then only elements created during
supernova.
c) A supernova is considered a cold explosion because not a great deal of energy is
given out during this event.
d) Elements such as gold and copper, found on Earth, originated from a nearby
supernova.
6) The Big Bang is often wrongly referred to as a big explosion. We must rightly
consider the Big Bang as:
a) the explosion that created all life and elements found on Earth today;
b) a sudden collapse of the Universe into an infinitely dense sphere, from which all
elements were formed in one huge explosion;
c) a chemical explosion of infinite strength that spewed thick matter deep into
space;
d) the sudden expansion of space and the Universe.
7) Our body is made up of many different elements such as hydrogen, carbon, iron
and zinc. Which comment is true?
a) Hydrogen was formed during the Big Bang while carbon was formed in small
ageing stars about the same size as our own Sun.
b) Zinc, iron, hydrogen and carbon were all formed during the Big Bang and are now
recycled throughout the Universe.
c) Hydrogen and carbon are common elements that are formed during a supernova.
d) Our body uses hydrogen to form elements such as iron and zinc which are then
recycled by organisms that decompose organic matter.
8)
h
Currently
the most accepted scientific theory about the
origin of the chemical elements states that the elements
h
hydrogen
and helium were created shortly after the Big
Bang, about 15 billion years ago. All other elements were
created and are still being created in the high pressure and
high temperature conditions found within stars.
A particular compound found in our body contains iodine as
well as hydrogen, carbon and nitrogen.
8) The elements in this compound were created:
a) in the body;
b) in the cores of stars only;
c) deep in the Earth’s core;
d) from the Big Bang and in the cores of stars and during
supernovae.
9) Which three elementary particles were thought to exist before the discovery of the
HH
quark and gluon?
a) Electron, neutron and positron.
b) Electron, positron, quarkenon
c) Proton, neutron, positron
d) Electron, proton, neutron.
10) Which of the following can best identify
the elements present in a cloud “A” ?
a) an emission spectrum;
b) an absorption spectrum;
c) a light telescope only;
d) none of the above.
A
B
11) We can tell a great deal about a star from its light that travels to Earth. What can
we not conclude by studying the light from a distant star?
a) The presence of water on the surface of its orbiting planets.
b) The elements that form the star.
c) The percentage that each element contributes to the star’s mass.
d) If it is moving towards or away from the Earth..
12) Below is the absorption spectrum of our Sun and a distant star. From this
spectrum we can tell that:
a)
b)
c)
d)
the distant star is moving towards Earth,
the Sun is moving towards Earth
the distant star is moving away from Earth,;
the Sun is moving away from Earth.
13) Consider the picture of a distant galaxy
shown on the right. What information
about the galaxy can we derive from
the picture?
a) The galaxy is spinning anticlockwise with a speed that can be calculated from the
intensity of the blue and red colour.
b) The galaxy is spinning anticlockwise with a speed that cannot be determined.
c) The galaxy is spinning clockwise with a speed that can be calculated from the
intensity of the blue and red colour
d) The galaxy is spinning clockwise with a speed that cannot be determined.
14) Methane was detected on the surface of Mars at a concentration of 10 ppb.
Which of the following would cause scientists to suspect microbial activity is
causing the atmospheric methane.
1) Methane is produced when water and carbon dioxide react at high
temperatures as occurs during volcanic activity.
2) Methane is quickly destroyed when exposed to the atmosphere.
3) Methanogens are microbes that produce methane.
4) No active volcanoes have existed on Mars for 300 million years
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15) A supernova is a catastrophic explosion of a giant star. Some scientists believe
that the Ordovician extinction was caused by a supernova some 10,000 light
years from Earth. Which comment best describes why?
a) The explosive force of a supernova would cause massive earthquakes.
b) The explosive force of the supernova would remove the Earth’s atmosphere.
c) Such catastrophic phenomena involve the release of immense amount of harmful
radiation.
d) All of the above.
16) Water is critical for the success of a moon colony. Which elements can be
derived from water with the use of an electric current.
a) Hydrogen and oxygen
b) Chlorine and oxygen
c) Chlorine and hydrogen
d) Chlorine, hydrogen and oxygen..
17) A moon colony will have to be self-sustaining
with closed ecosystems. The Sun’s energy is
vital for life on Earth and indeed on the Moon.
Which reaction uses solar energy in the
formation of usable chemical energy that can
be passed through a food chain?
a) H2O(l) + CO2(g) => H2CO3(aq)
b) 2H2O(l) => O2(g) + 2H2(g)
c) 6H2O(l) + 6CO2(g) => C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g)
d) C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) => 6H2O(l) + 6CO2(g)
18) Carbon dioxide is a deadly gas when allowed to accumulate. Which one of the
following best explains the reason why?
a) Carbon dioxide is heavier than air.
b) Carbon dioxide is lighter than air.
c) Carbon dioxide does not support combustion.
d) Carbon dioxide is not used by green plants and therefore accumulates in closed
environments.
19) The chemical reaction CO2(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) => CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) can be
used in space stations to:
a) produce water;
b) remove calcium hydroxide build up in the water pipes;
c) generate electricity;
d) remove carbon dioxide from the air.
20) Energy cannot be created or destroyed it can only change form. Since matter is
a form of energy, it must also be conserved during chemical reactions? Which
option below shows the conservation of mass.
a) 2H2O(l) => O2(g) + 2H2(g).
b) H2O(l) => O2(g) + H2(g).
c) 2H2O(l) => 2O2(g) + H2(g).
d) H2O(l) => O2(g) + 2H2(g).
21) Rocket fuels often react with oxygen to produce a highly exothermic reaction that
produces a great deal of gas as one of its products. Thrust is created when the:
a) gas particles produced are forced to accelerate by the heat given out by the
reaction;
b) heat escapes from the nozzle of the rocket;
c) nozzle of the rocket engine becomes extremely hot;
d) fuel burns with a great deal of flame.
22) Solid rocket fuels are often prepared as fine powders mixed with a chemical
known as an oxidant. Which one comment below is true regarding the fine
powder of the fuel?
a) A fine powder makes it easier for the fuel to escape from the nozzle.
b) A fine powder makes it easier for the solid fuel to be pumped through the
combustion chamber of the rocket.
c) Fine powder increases the surface area of the fuel and oxidant thus
increasing the rate at which the fuel burns.
d) A fine fuel powder ensures a slow, even rate of burning.
23) A rocket blasts-off the launch pad. How does Newton’s Third
Law of Motion apply to this event.
a) As the rocket travels faster through the atmosphere
the effect of gravity increases.
b) The force of the exhaust gases acting down pushes the
rocket up with an equal force.
c) The thicker the air the more buoyancy that the rocket
experiences.
d) The faster a rocket travels the more motion it has and so it
can carry more cargo.
24) Drag is the force that :
a) resists motion through the air and increases with speed;
b) lifts the rocket off the launch-pad and increases with increase in thrust;
c) opposes the pull of gravity and its strength increases with speed;
d) works against the rocket moving through the air and decreases as the speed of
the rocket increases.
25) When a force acts on an object it will most likely:
a) change direction;
b) accelerate or decelerate;
c) change shape;
d) all of the above.
26) A space craft free-falls through the atmosphere of a
planet. Its speed vs time graph is shown on the right.
The blue line (bottom) is its speed as it descends on the
unknown planet while the black line (top) is its speed as it
descends onto Earth’s surface.
What can we conclude from this information?
a) The planet has no atmosphere and is the same size as
the Earth.
b) The planet has an atmosphere and its most likely smaller
than the Earth.
c) The planet has an atmosphere whose density is most
likely one third the density of Earth’s atmosphere.
d) The space craft accelerates harder on the unknown planet
than it does on Earth.
27) A skydiver jumps from a plane and soon reaches terminal velocity. At terminal
velocity :
a) the skydiver is travelling at the slowest possible speed
during the jump;
b) the force of gravity far exceeds the force of drag;
c) the force exerted by air resistance is equal to the force
exerted by gravity;
d) the force exerted by air resistance exceeds the force
exerted by gravity.
28) NASA conducted tests to see the effects of zero gravity on bone density. The
following are in no particular order. Which comment below is true?
1) Bone samples of animals that flew in space and animals that stayed on Earth
were compared.
2) Bone density should not be influenced by zero gravity.
3) Bone density is determined by Devine intervention.
a) 3) and 1) are possible hypotheses for this investigation.
b) 1) indicates that the test was not a fair test.
c) 2) is a not a hypothesis because it cannot be tested.
d) 3) is not a hypothesis because it cannot be tested.
29) An astronaut is stranded in space and has no use of her jet-pack. How is it
possible for the astronaut to make her way back to the space-craft?
a) By pushing her arms and legs out and make motions similar to those made when
swimming.
b) By shouting and creating sound waves which will propel her in the opposite
direction.
c) By spinning in the opposite direction to where she needs to go .
d) None of the above.
30) A new planet was found to colonise. We find this planet has no axial tilt. What is
the impact of this?
a) No seasonal variation in climate.
b) Half the planet is in total darkness while the other half is in light all the time.
c) The days are longer than 24 hours.
d) It has no tides.
31) If Earth was to suddenly cool so that the surface was not floating on liquid rock.
This would cause:
a) huge tides;
b) more volcanic action,
c) fewer earthquakes,
d) a reduction in Earth’s gravity.
32) An object is brought close to a convex
lens as shown on the right. The image of
the object is:
a) real and inverted,
b) inverted,
c) magnified,
d) not formed.
Object
33) An observer uses a convex lens to look at an object as shown on the right. The
image will be:
a) magnified,
b) inverted,
c) inverted and real,
d) upright, virtual and diminished.
34) A telescope is made from two lenses A and B
shown on the right. Given that the focal
length of A is 6 cm and the focal length of B is 30 cm
what is the maximum magnifying of a telescope
made from these two lenses.
a) X 0.2
b) X 30
c) X 180
d) X 5
A
B
35) What part of the telescope allows for a greater detail in the image that is formed?
a) The focal length of the eyepiece.
b) The length of the telescope.
c) The diameter of the eyepiece.
d) The diameter of the objective lens.
36) A telescope uses a concave mirror to create an image of a distant object as
shown below. The image created by the mirror is best shown by:
a) A
b) B
c) C
D
d) D
object
37) Rockets need to create thrust in order to oppose the force of
gravity. Thrust is produced by reactions that produce a great deal
of heat. The reactions are most likely:
a) chemical reactions because they produce totally new types of
atoms,
b) chemical reactions that involve the transfer of protons between
atoms,
c) nuclear reactions that involve electron transfer,
d) chemical reactions that involve the transfer of electrons from
atom to atom and the rearrangement of atoms.
38) The apparatus on the right creates negative pressure
for the lower body. In a zero-gravity environment blood does
not pool in the legs and the brain registers a higher blood
pressure than normal. The body responds by:
a) strengthening muscle tissue and preventing
calcium depletion in bones,
b) increasing the amount of muscle tissue and reducing bone mass.
c) growing taller,
d) urinating more fluid than normal reducing the blood volume.
39) The picture below was produced by an astronomer who was observing a distant
star. What can the scientist conclude from this picture?
a) The number of planets orbiting the distant star.
b) The Sun and the distant star are made of different elements and the orbital speed
of the distant star is higher than the orbital speed of our Sun.
c) The Sun is brighter than the distant star.
d) The distant star is moving away from our Sun and it is made of the same
elements as our Sun.
40) When astronauts return to Earth, after a long stay in space, they are generally
very weak due to :
a) weak muscles and fragile bones,
b) increased blood volume that the heart has difficulty coping with;
c) high air pressure on the Earth’s surface as opposed to the vacuum of space;
d) the consumption of liquid foods only when in space.
41) The picture of the layered rock formation, shown
on the right, was taken by the Curiosity lander.
as it entered the Gale Crater on the
surface of Mars. This type of rock is known as:
a) sedimentary rock and forms in the presence of water,
b) metamorphic rock and is indicative of volcanic
activity,
c) igneous rock and is indicative of volcanic
activity,
d) sedimentary rock and is indicative of volcanic activity.
42) A rock formation composed of layers of basalt rock
was found on a distant planet. This would indicate:
a) the presence of water
b) little or no volcanic action,
c) one volcanic eruption that cooled very slowly,
d) active volcanic periods in the history of the planet.
43) A planet with no water or atmosphere would most likely show little:
a) volcanic action and therefore no igneous rocks,
b) metamorphic rock on the surface,
c) signs of plate tectonics,
d) erosion and therefore no sedimentary rocks.
44) To find a planet like Earth that has tides, the planet would have water and:
a) an atmosphere,
b) a molten core of iron,
c) a magnetic field, an solid iron core and a moon,
d) one or more moons.
45) The surface of the Moon and that of Earth look very
different. The reason for this is that
a) the Moon has no atmosphere,
b) the Moon is smaller than Earth,
c) Earth has a greater gravitational pull,.
d) The Moon is closer to the Sun.
46) Which one of the following is evidence of continental drift?
a) Paleomagnetism
b) Fossil evidence
c) Similar geological features in distant continents
d) All of the above.
The information below relates to questions 47 and 48 . The image below on the right shows
polished gravel fragments found on Mars. On another area on Mars, called Gale Crater,
similar rock formations were found but with much larger polished fragments embedded in the
rock.
47) This rock formation is formed in the:
a) presence of volcanic activity,
b) presence of a very dense atmosphere,
c) presence of flowing water,
d) presence of high winds.
48) From this information we can deduce that, out of the two sites, Gale Crater had:
a) volcanic rock which was hard to breakdown,
b) only big rocks,
c) higher wind speeds,
d) the faster flowing water.
49) What observation suggests the existence of dark matter?
a) The small number of black holes found in the universe,
b) The amount of light that originates from distant stars,,
c) The mass of distant planets that cannot be explained by comparing their
mass to their neighbours,
d) The rotating speed of spiral galaxies.
50) Dark energy was put forward to explain:
a) the existence of dark matter,
b) gravitational pull from unseen mass in the Universe,
c) the repulsive influence of black holes,
d) the expanding universe.
End of section A.
Section B
All answers must be written in the space provided.
1) If humans are to venture away from the Earth, sustainable ecosystems must be
established on other planets or space colonies.
a) What is an ecosystem? Give an example.
2 marks
b) Place the following in an appropriate food chain.
grass, fox, bacteria, rabbit
1 mark
c) From the food chain above identify the
i)
Producer __________ ________________________
ii)
Primary consumer ___________________________
iii)
Secondary consumer ___________________________
iv)
Decomposer _______________________________
4 marks
d) What is transferred from one organism to another in a food chain? Circle the
appropriate choice.
Chemical energy, heat energy, kinetic energy, plant material only
1 mark
e)
i) Where does the energy to sustain an ecosystem usually come from here on Earth?
1 mark
ii) What is the process that captures this energy called?
1 mark
iii) What must an organism have before it can capture the energy from the source
stated if i) above?
1 mark
iv) Write a word equation to represent the process in ii) above.
f)
1 mark
Cellular respiration is the process which releases energy to be used by an organism.
Write a word equation to represent respiration.
1 Mark
13
2) Methane was observed to be present in the Martian atmosphere at a concentration of
10 ppb. A sample of Martian soil was tested as follows.
i)
Three identical samples of Martian soil were placed in three sterile sealed
containers, labelled A, B and C.
ii)
Container A was placed in a temperature cupboard and the volume of
methane produced measured, for 10 minutes, at different temperatures.
iii)
Container B was irradiated so that all forms of life were destroyed and the soil
was sterile than placed in the temperature cupboard and the volume of
methane produced was measured, for 10 minutes, at different temperatures
iv)
Container C was placed in an identical temperature cupboard as A and B
above. The volume of methane gas was recorded, for 10 minutes, at different
temperatures, however, the soil was irradiated half way through the
experiment.
The results of are shown below.
Temperature oC
Container A (mL) Container B (mL) Container C (mL)
-200
0.20
0.19
0.20
-150
0.20
0.20
0.19
-120
0.21
0.20
0.21
-100
0.21
0.21
0.19
10
0.85
0.82
0.88
12
1.13
1.15
1.17
14
3.54
1.13
3.60
16
12.40
1.24
12.40
18
22.43
1.26
0.80 irradiated
20
19.52
1.26
1.29
24
18.00
1.29
1.27
30
11.39
1.55
1.48
90
1.40
1.48
1.40
100
1.47
1.60
1.62
a) Plot the results on an appropriate set of axis on the graph paper provided.
4 marks
b) What is the optimum temperature for methane production of the Martian soil?
1 mark
c) What evidence is there that methane may be produced by microbial action?
2 marks
d) Is there any evidence that methane may be produced by sources other than
microbes.? Discuss the evidence.
2 marks
9
e) Is there a correlation between temperature and non-biological production of
methane?
1 mark
f)
Explain your answer to e) above using the terms kinetic energy, molecular
collisions, rate of reaction, temperature.
3 marks
g) What is the dependent variable?
1 mark
h) What is the independent variable?
1 mark
i)
What is the difference between a chemical reaction and a nuclear?
2 marks
j)
Why are the reactions occurring in our soil samples chemical and not nuclear?
1 mark
9
3) a) The Universe is observed to be accelerating in its expansion. Scientists
hypothesise the existence of ___________________________________
b) Clouds of hydrogen, in deep space, are observed to be hotter than expected due
to compression by gravitational forces of nearby, invisible, objects. Scientists
hypothesise the existence of ________________________________
2 marks
4) a) In the nuclear furnace of the Sun mass is converted to energy. What is the
equation that relates mass to energy?
1 mark
c) The Higgs Boson was discovered in 2012. What is the significance of the Higg’s
Boson and how does it interact with elementary particles such an electron?
2 marks
5) Earth is a very safe planet to be on when considering that we are very close to one of
the biggest nuclear reactors, our own Sun.
a) Explain how the absence of the following would hamper the evolution of life on Mars.
i)
A magnetic field.
ii)
An ozone layer.
2 + 2 marks
b) Explain, with reasons, the effect an absence of Earth’s atmosphere would have on
the following.
i)
Surface temperature in the shade.
iii)
The existence of liquid water.
2 + 2 marks
13
6) Lenses are used to refract distant light. Telescopes use a combination of lenses to
magnify and manipulate the light coming from distant objects in the sky.
a) Draw ray diagrams to show the image formed by the following lenses.
i)
Indicate, by circling one of the options in each set, if the image is
- virtual or real
- upright or inverted
- magnified or diminished
4 marks
ii)
Indicate, by circling one of the options in each set, if the image is
- virtual or real
- upright or inverted
- magnified or diminished
4 marks
8
b) Select, from the lenses shown below, two lenses to form a telescope with the
most magnifying power possible.
i)
Draw a diagram of how you would place the lenses to achieve maximum
magnification in the box below. Indicate the focal length of each lens and label
the objective lens and eyepiece in your diagram.
18 cm
20 cm
12 cm
6cm
Direction of
incoming light
2 marks
ii)
Draw a ray diagram of the light from a distant object passing through both
lenses to create the image viewed though the telescope.
Direction of
incoming light
2
marks
4
7) A long distance space-craft is to be
built. NASA has plans for a space
colony to be established on deep space,
near a distant star. However, a selfsustained ecosystem needs to be
developed where the growth of plants in
the ecosystem is vital to the success of
the mission. A number of algae are
trialled to see how each one would grow
under conditions of zero gravity.
a) Design an experiment to evaluate which algae, out of three chosen here on Earth,
are capable of growing the best in low light and zero gravity. Give a step by step
procedure so that another scientist can reproduce the experiment exactly as you
have conducted it. Use the form below to guide you. Use as many or as few steps as
necessary and use the space on the other side of this sheet if you feel more steps
are necessary.
Step 1
Step 2
Step 3
Step 4
Step 5
Step 6
4 marks
b) What are the dependent and independent variables in your experiment?
2 marks
6
c) Algae are required for both their food and oxygen producing capacity. One
experiment was conducted by NASA on algae that can survive in low light and zero
gravity. The table below shows some of the results after 5 weeks of growth in the
experimental conditions. All algae started with exactly the same mass, chloroplast
density in the cell and concentration of starch.
Alga
1
2
3
4
5
Percentage
increase in algal
mass. (%)
200
80
40
10
50
Number of
chloroplasts per
cell.
80
10
110
110
210
Concentration of
starch mg/cell
20
10
300
30
150
From the results above:
i)
Which one of the five algae is least suited to the conditions? ________________
ii)
1 mark
Which alga is slow growing but capable of producing the greatest amount of
starch?_________________
iii)
1 mark
Which alga can best be used as a food source for animals and as a source of
oxygen?_________________
iv)
Which alga appeared to be under stress? _________________
1 mark
v)
1 mark
Cellulose forms part of a plant cell. This material can be sourced from plants such
as algae and is used to manufacture clothing and building material. Which alga
looks like it is best used for structural material? _____________________
1 mark
vi)
Suggest a reason why the mass of alga 1 does not need to grow as fast as the
mass of alga 2
2 marks
7