Download 2008_EAS 105 A1_Midterm Study Exam

EAS 105A1_Midterm study exam_2008
1.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The atomic number of an element indicates the number of _____.
electrons in the outer shell
protons in the nucleus
neutrons in the nucleus
excess charges
2.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The density of most rocks is about
2-3 g/ccm
6 g/ccm
11.3 g/ccm
19.3 g/ccm
3.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Evaporation of seawater will eventually produce a _____ sediment.
clastic
marine
chemical
glacial
4.
A)
B)
C)
D)
In the second orbital shell, atoms strive to have ___ electrons.
two
four
six
eight
5.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The sodium ion has a charge of _____.
1–
2–
1+
2+
6.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Bonds formed by electron transfer between charged atoms are termed _____.
covalent
metallic
ionic
van der Waals
Page 1
7.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The facing stone of the HMTory building (the one you are in right now) is
an Ordovician dolostone from Manitoba
an Ordovician sandstone from Manitoba
a Devonian limestone from the Rocky Mountains
a Devonian dolostone from the Rocky Mountains
8.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Geologist use the so-called acid test to aid in identification of
dolomite
apatite
gypsum
calcite
9.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Siliceous oozes in the deep seas are often deposited by the accumulation of _____.
feldspars
diatoms
clays
fish
10.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Diamond is a polymorph of
graphite
carbon
soot
coal
11.
A)
B)
C)
D)
A hornfels is a(n) _____.
brown sedimentary rock
well-foliated, mica-rich rock
product of an ash flow
even-textured contact metamorphic rock
12.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Sinkholes can 'swallow'
dogs
cars
houses
all of the above
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13.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Diapirs are important for
xenocryst occurrences
groundwater supply
placer gold deposits
nuclear waste disposal
14.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The initial depositional stage in the formation of coal is _____.
graphite
lignite
peat
anthracite
15.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Most of Alberta's oil is found in _________ .
Devonian sandstones
Cretaceous sands
Jurassic sandstones
Devonian reefs
16.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Graded bedding results from a special type of transport by
water
ice
mud
wind
17. Where partial melting has taken place and the resultant melt is crystallized in with the
original source metamorphic rocks, we term this _____.
A) low-grade metamorphism
B) a migmatite
C) contact metamorphism
D) metasomatism
18.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Foliation within high-grade metamorphic rocks is known as _____.
cleavage
bedding
jointing
schistosity
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19. Low-grade metamorphism refers to metamorphic changes that arise at _____ °C
temperatures.
A) 50–100
B) 100–200
C) 200–300
D) 300–500
20.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The sedimentary precursor of a phyllite is _____.
limestone
arkose
shale
dolostone
21.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The sedimentary precursor of a slate is _____.
sandstone
limestone
dolostone
shale
22.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Gneiss is a rock with _____.
weak foliation
excellent sorting of crystals
distinct layers of light and dark minerals
abundant olivine
23. The first zone we encounter below the zone of burial metamorphism at a convergent
plate boundary is the zone of _____.
A) greenschist metamorphism
B) cataclasis
C) partial melting
D) blueschist metamorphism
24.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Changes that affect sediments after deposition and during lithification are termed _____.
erosion
diagenesis
metamorphism
sorting
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25.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The intermediate-grade metamorphism of a greenschist will produce _____.
granite
marble
amphibolite
muscovite schist
26.
A)
B)
C)
D)
High-grade metamorphism of a shale will produce the assemblage _____.
quartz + chlorite + muscovite + plagioclase
chlorite + epidote + plagioclase + calcite
quartz + biotite + garnet + sillimanite + plagioclase
pyroxene + plagioclase + garnet
27.
A)
B)
C)
D)
A rock containing ____ is probably metamorphic.
kyanite
halite
K-feldspar
olivine
28. Foliation developed during low-grade metamorphism of clay-rich sedimentary rocks is
called _____.
A) gneissosity
B) schistosity
C) slaty cleavage
D) exfoliation
29.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Metamorphism at temperatures above ~550° is termed _____.
thermal
low grade
high grade
dynamic
30. Changes that take place upon the cooling off after a metamorphic event would be
classed as _____.
A) prograde
B) progressive
C) retrograde
D) retrogressive
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31.
A)
B)
C)
D)
One of the most common cements in sedimentary rocks is _____.
silicon dioxide
calcium carbonate
iron sulfide
calcium phosphate
32.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The formation of thick peat deposits requires limited supply of _____.
carbon dioxide
nitrogen
oxygen
hydrogen sulfide
33.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Lake waters can evaporate and thus precipitate _____.
feldspar
borax
hematite
pyrite
34.
A)
B)
C)
D)
A sandstone with a high feldspar content is a(n) _____.
arkose
breccia
felsite
calcrete
35.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Petroleum is generally derived from organic matter deposited in _____.
inland swamps
rivers
the crystalline basement
marine sediments
36.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The dominant type of bonding within a gold nugget would be _____.
van der Waals
ionic
covalent
metallic
Page 6
37.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Mechanical weathering in the Sahara can be caused by _____.
microseismic activity
tree roots
forest fires
the crystallization of salts
38.
A)
B)
C)
D)
A sediment with average grain size of 1 mm would be a _______.
silt
clay
sand
pebble gravel
39.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Diamonds demonstrate what type of bonding?
van der Waals
ionic
covalent
metallic
40. During weathering of granites in the Sierra Nevada of California, thin shells of rock
spall off the outcrops. This phenomenon is called _______.
A) sloughing
B) rock bursting
C) conchoidal fracturing
D) exfoliation
41. Strong chemical weathering takes place in regions with annual rainfalls exceeding ____
cm/yr.
A) ~50
B) ~100
C) ~150
D) ~400
42.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Lithification of a river gravel produces _____.
sandstone
conglomerate
mudstone
siltstone
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43. Multiple cycles of erosion and deposition can result in a sediment composed almost
entirely of _____.
A) calcite
B) quartz
C) mica
D) olivine
44.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Chemical weathering would be most extreme in _____.
Nevada
New York
Arkansas
Cuba
45.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Water-deposited sandstones often exhibit _____.
graded bedding
slumped bedding
cross bedding
varves
46.
A)
B)
C)
D)
A rock dominated by 300-mm-diameter round clasts would be a _____.
boulder conglomerate
cobble conglomerate
sandstone
pebble conglomerate
47.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Frost wedging is highly effective at temperatures in the range of ____ °C.
0 to 5
–5 to –10
–10 to –20
–20 to –30
48. When rocks that have been buried are exposed by erosion, structures develop that are
known as _____.
A) foliation
B) cleavage
C) joints
D) faults
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49.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Chemical weathering is prevalent where there _____.
are at least 30 days of frost
is minimal plant growth
is high precipitation and a hot climate
is an arid, hot climate
50.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The principal acidifying agent in groundwater is ___ acid.
sulfuric
nitric
carbonic
hydrochloric
51.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Deposition of detritus produces a _____.
chemical sediment
talus
dolostone
clastic sediment
52.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The basic building block for all silicate minerals is the _____.
silicate tetrahedron
metallic bond
ionic bond
chloride ion
53.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Micas and clay minerals are ____ silicates.
3-D network
double-chain
sheet
single-chain
54.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Calcite may be attacked by carbonic acid to release _____.
hydrogen ions and carbon dioxide
calcium ions and bicarbonate ions
oxygen ions and hydrogen ions
carbon dioxide and calcium metal
Page 9
55.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The Mohs hardness of apatite is _____.
2
3
4
5
56.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Garnets are commonly used as _____.
electronic components
abrasives
electrical insulators
ores of silicon
57.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Amethyst is a purple variety of _____.
pyroxene
hornblende
quartz
amphibole
58.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The constituent of magmas that is usually predominant is _____.
H2O
MgO
SiO2
K2O
59.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Gabbro contains about ____ percent SiO2.
40
50
60
70
60. A change in the chemical composition of a rock induced during metamorphism is
termed _____.
A) hydrothermal activity
B) metasomatism
C) cataclasis
D) exsolution
Page 10
61.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The viscosity of erupting lavas is a function of ___ content.
SiO2
K2O
Al2O3
MgO
62.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Natural gas may not form ____________ .
from dead animals
from dead plants
during the liquid oil window
in a well-oxygenated environment.
63.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Zeolites are _____.
a group of sulfides with high specific gravities
similar in composition to feldspars, but contain water
very similar to amphiboles with less Ca
a group of sheet silicates related to micas
64.
A)
B)
C)
D)
High-grade metamorphism of basaltic lava will produce the assemblage _______.
chlorite + epidote + plagioclase + calcite
quartz + chlorite + muscovite + plagioclase
quartz + biotite + garnet + sillimanite + plagioclase
pyroxene + plagioclase + garnet
65. A fine-grained, quartz-bearing igneous rock in which K-feldspar is a dominant phase is
a(n) _____.
A) granite
B) rhyolite
C) diorite
D) andesite
66.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Diagenesis involves
two of the below
differentiation
compaction
recrystallization
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67.
A)
B)
C)
D)
The coal mines in the Edmonton area are of
Cretacous age
Devonian age
Tertiary age
Jurassic age
68. A dark-colored, coarse-grained igneous rock that contains 55% pyroxene and olivine
intergrown with plagioclase is a _____.
A) granite
B) diorite
C) peridotite
D) gabbro
69. This soil horizon is brown or reddish, enriched in clay and/or iron and aluminum
hydroxides. It is the ____ horizon.
A) E
B) O
C) A
D) B
70.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Volcanoes on the mid-Atlantic spreading center erupt _____.
basalt
andesite
rhyolite
dacite
71.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Very rapidly cooled magmas produce _____.
obsidian
andesite
scoria
basalt
72.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Rhyolites probably form by partial melting of _____.
wet andesite
dry dacite
dry basalt
wet granite
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73.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Lavas flow extremely slowly if their SiO2 contents exceed ____ percent.
40
50
60
70
74. A fine-grained pyroclastic rock with abundant fragments greater than 64 mm in
diameter is termed a(n) _____.
A) bomb
B) agglomerate
C) tephra
D) lapilli tuff
75.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Ignimbrites are deposited by _____.
lahars
pyroclastic flows
fissure eruptions
tephra cones
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