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AH National Qualications EXEMPLAR PAPER ONLY EP02/AH/02 Biology Section 1 — Questions Date — Not applicable Duration — 2 hours 30 minutes Instructions for the completion of Section 1 are given on Page 02 of your question and answer booklet EP02/AH/01. Record your answers on the answer grid on Page 03 of your question and answer booklet. Before leaving the examination room you must give your question and answer booklet to the Invigilator; if you do not, you may lose all the marks for this paper. © *EP02AH02* SECTION 1 — 25 marks Attempt ALL questions 1. The diagram below shows a haemocytometer counting chamber containing animal cells. The depth of the chamber is 0·01 cm. 0·1 cm 0·1cm central square animal cell The concentration of animal cells, based on the cell count from the central square, is A 2·0 × 104 cells per cm3 B 2·0 × 105 cells per cm3 C 2·0 × 106 cells per cm3 D 2·0 × 107 cells per cm3. Page 02 2. The following diagram shows a small polypeptide integrated into a membrane. membrane er et Tyr Asn Thr S Gly P r o Il e P h e M Which row in the table below classifies amino acids in this polypeptide? polar non-polar A Thr Pro B Ile Tyr C Asn Ser D Phe Gly 3. In the post-translational modification of a protein, which of the following enzymes would remove a phosphate? A proteinase B ATPase C phosphatase D kinase Page 03 The graph below shows the changes in the activity of enzymes that synthesise tryptophan and utilise lactose in a cell after the addition of tryptophan and lactose. Activity of enzymes 4. lactose utilisation enzymes tryptophan synthesising enzymes 0 5 10 tryptophan and lactose added 15 20 Time (minutes) What valid conclusion may be made from the graph? 5. A Addition of lactose acts as a negative enzyme modulator. B Addition of tryptophan acts as a positive enzyme modulator. C Enzyme induction is occurring in lactose utilisation enzymes. D Enzyme induction is occurring in tryptophan synthesising enzymes. Which row in the table below describes the charges on the two components of nucleosomes? DNA histone proteins A negative negative B positive negative C positive positive D negative positive Page 04 6. Colorimetry was used to produce the standard curve below. 0·7 Absorbance 0·6 0·5 0·4 0·3 0·2 0·1 0 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Protein concentration (µg/cm3) In an experiment to extract soluble protein from potato tubers, 25 g tissue was ground with 50 cm3 of buffer and centrifuged. The volume of extract produced was 65 cm3. When 1 cm3 of extract was tested, the absorbance was found to be 0·5. What is the protein content of the potato tissue in μg/g fresh tissue? A 3·9 B 9·0 C 11·7 D 13·5 Page 05 7. The following diagram shows cotransport (symport) of sodium ions (Na+) and glucose into a cell lining the gut. outside cell Na-binding site Na+ glucose glucose-binding site Na+ glucose inside cell Which row in the table below represents the relative concentrations of glucose and Na+ on the two sides of the plasma membrane when cotransport occurs? sodium glucose outside cell inside cell outside cell inside cell A high low low high B high low high low C low high low high D low high high low 8. Which row in the table below describes features of rod cells in humans? function in low light intensity contain different forms of opsin A no yes B yes yes C no no D yes no Page 06 9. 10. Which of the following statements describes how genes that increase metabolic rate are activated by a hydrophobic signalling molecule? A Thyroxine binds to a receptor protein on DNA and stops it inhibiting transcription. B Testosterone binds to a receptor protein on DNA and stops it inhibiting transcription. C Thyroxine binds to a receptor protein in the cytosol and the complex regulates transcription. D Testosterone binds to a receptor protein in the cytosol and the complex regulates transcription. Which of the following diagrams best represents the sequence of phases involved in the cell cycle? A C 11. G2 M G1 B G1 S S M G2 S M D G2 G2 G1 M Which of the following would not be a substrate for caspases? A DNA B actin C histone D tubulin Page 07 S G1 12. Some characteristics and properties of four proteins are shown below. protein symbol molecular mass type fibrinogen Fb 330 000 fibrous haemoglobin Hb 68 000 globular albumin Alb 65 000 globular myoglobin My 17 000 globular The solubility of proteins in salt solutions Fb Hb My Increasing solubility Alb 0 2 4 6 8 10 Salt concentration (units) Which conclusion about the solubility of proteins is valid from this information? A Protein solubility increases as salt concentration decreases. B Globular proteins are more soluble than fibrous proteins. C Fibrous proteins are more soluble than globular proteins at low salt concentrations. D Solubility of proteins is not related to molecular mass. Page 08 13. Dicrocoelium dendriticum is a flatworm parasite of grazing vertebrates such as sheep and cattle. Which row in the table below shows the phyla to which these species belong? Dicrocoelium cattle/sheep A Nematoda Chordata B Platyhelminthes Arthropoda C Nematoda Arthropoda D Platyhelminthes Chordata 14. Northern elephant seals, intensely hunted in the 19th century, have significantly less genetic variation than southern elephant seals that were hunted less in the same period. This reduced genetic diversity is most likely a result of A sexual selection B genetic drift Cmutation D natural selection. Page 09 15. Eggs from leopard geckos kept in breeding cages were collected and incubated at two temperatures over five breeding seasons. When each new gecko hatched, its gender was noted. The graph below shows how temperature affected gender in the population. Percentage of males in the population 100 30°C 32.5°C 80 60 40 20 0 1 2 3 4 Breeding season 5 How many females would be present in a population of 500 leopard geckos after four seasons at 32·5°C? A150 B200 C300 D350 Page 10 16. Red-green colour deficiency is X-linked. The diagram below shows a family tree in which this condition occurs. unaffected male affected male unaffected female affected female P R S Q T U V W Which of the following individuals passed on the allele responsible for red-green colour deficiency in individual W? A T only B U only C T and U D T and P Page 11 Number of eggs laid per year 17. The graph below shows the fecundity (reproductive output) of three different strains of white Leghorn domestic hens in relation to age. 260 240 220 200 strain 1 strain 2 strain 3 180 160 140 120 100 80 60 40 20 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 Age of hen (years) Which of the following conclusions can be supported from the information shown? A Young hens lay more eggs during their lifetime than older hens. B Fecundity decreases faster with age in birds that lay more eggs early in life. C The lifelong reproductive output of all three strains is approximately equal. D Fecundity in later life is independent of fecundity in earlier years. 18. An organism’s parental investment strategy can be classified as k-selected or r-selected. Which row in the table below describes the characteristics of k-selected organisms compared to r-selected organisms? number of offspring produced size of offspring produced A larger larger B larger smaller C smaller larger D smaller smaller Page 12 19. The black belly stripe of great tit males (Parus major) is an important stimulus in territorial and courtship displays. Males with broader stripes make better parents and are more attractive to prospective mates. The width of the stripe is therefore correlated with male quality. This stripe functions as A an honest signal B a sign stimulus C a fixed action pattern D an imprinting stimulus. 20. Which row in the table below describes the ecological niche of a parasite? niche host specificity A wide high B wide low C narrow high D narrow low 21. The virulence of an infectious organism is defined as the case fatality risk (CFR). CFR can be represented as the percentage of infections that result in death. The table below shows the numbers of people infected by the “bird flu” virus (H5N1) and the numbers who died from it over a five year period. year 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 total infections of H5N1 46 98 115 88 44 number dying from H5N1 infection 32 43 79 59 33 In which year was H5N1 most virulent? A2004 B2006 C2007 D2008 Page 13 22. The diagram below shows the life cycle of a parasitic worm that causes a disease in humans. adult worms (about 1 cm) cercaria (about 300 µm) free-swimming stage egg (about 140 µm) miracidia (about 180 µm) free-swimming stage Which row in the table below describes the roles of the other species in this parasite’s life cycle? definitive host intermediate host snail is a vector A snail human no B human snail no C snail human yes D human snail yes 23. Which of the following is a non-specific immune response to a parasite? A Apoptosis induced by T lymphocytes B Presentation of antigens by phagocytes C Apoptosis induced by natural killer cells D Production of antibody by B lymphocyte clone Page 14 24. For a species of butterfly, the duration of its flight periods and the week of its first sighting were recorded from 1976 to 1998. Graph 1: Duration of flight period Duration (weeks) 20 15 10 5 1980 Year 1990 2000 Graph 2: Week of first sighting Week in year 20 15 10 5 1980 Year 1990 2000 Which row in the table below identifies the behaviour trends shown in the graphs? flight period first sighting A shorter earlier B longer earlier C longer later D shorter later Page 15 Percentage of time one individual is vigilant 25. The Arctic fox is a predator of barnacle geese. To avoid predation, geese periodically look up from grazing to scan for foxes. In a study of this vigilance behaviour, different flock sizes of geese were monitored for ten minutes when a cardboard model of an Arctic fox was placed 100 m away. The percentage of the time per individual spent on vigilance behaviour was recorded for different flock sizes, as shown in the graph below. 50 40 30 20 10 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 Number of geese in flock Which of the following would also have to be done to test the hypothesis that vigilance behaviour in response to the Arctic fox decreases as flock size increases? Repeat the work A and calculate the average results B using a recording time of 20 minutes C to get data for the missing flock sizes D with no model fox present. [END OF SECTION 1. NOW ATTEMPT THE QUESTIONS IN SECTION 2 OF YOUR QUESTION AND ANSWER BOOKLET] Page 16 AH FOR OFFICIAL USE National Qualications EXEMPLAR PAPER ONLY EP02/AH/01 Mark Biology Section 1 — Answer Grid and Section 2 Date — Not applicable *EP02AH01* Duration — 2 hours 30 minutes Fill in these boxes and read what is printed below. Full name of centre Town Forename(s) Date of birth Day Month Surname Year Number of seat Scottish candidate number Total marks — 90 SECTION 1 — 25 marks Attempt ALL questions. Instructions for completion of Section 1 are given on Page 02. SECTION 2 — 65 marks Attempt ALL questions. Write your answers clearly in the spaces provided in this booklet. Additional space for answers and rough work is provided at the end of this booklet. If you use this space you must clearly identify the question number you are attempting. Any rough work must be written in this booklet. You should score through your rough work when you have written your final copy. Use blue or black ink. Before leaving the examination room you must give this booklet to the Invigilator; if you do not you may lose all the marks for this paper. © *EP02AH0101* SECTION 1 — 25 marks The questions for Section 1 are contained in the question paper EP02/AH/02. Read these and record your answers on the answer grid on Page 03 opposite. Use blue or black ink. Do NOT use gel pens or pencil. 1. The answer to each question is either A, B, C or D. Decide what your answer is, then fill in the appropriate bubble (see sample question below). 2. There is only one correct answer to each question. 3. Any rough working should be done on the additional space for answers and rough work at the end of this booklet. Sample Question The thigh bone is called the Ahumerus Bfemur Ctibia Dfibula. The correct answer is B — femur. The answer B bubble has been clearly filled in (see below). A B C D Changing an answer If you decide to change your answer, cancel your first answer by putting a cross through it (see below) and fill in the answer you want. The answer below has been changed to D. A B C D If you then decide to change back to an answer you have already scored out, put a tick (3) to the right of the answer you want, as shown below: A B C A D B C or *EP02AH0102* Page 02 D SECTION 1 — Answer Grid *OBJ25AD1* A B C D 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 *EP02AH0103* Page 03 SECTION 2 — 65 marks Attempt ALL questions It should be noted that question 11 contains a choice. 1. Some species of Daphnia (water fleas) are able to develop their head spines and tail spines as structural defences against predators such as fish. These structures can increase in length in response to kairomones, chemicals in water where the fish occur. One species, Daphnia lumholtzi, occurs naturally in freshwater habitats in Africa, Asia and Australia. It has now spread throughout North America, first appearing in lakes in the south in 1990 and reaching more northern and western lakes within four years. It is thought to have been introduced when lakes were stocked with African fish species. Figure 1: Illustration of Daphnia lumholtzi before and after exposure to kairomones head spine body length tail spine before exposure after exposure The successful spread of D. lumholtzi has been attributed to its ability to develop defensive spines. To investigate the relevance of this feature to Daphnia survival, laboratory experiments were carried out to compare the population dynamics of D. lumholtzi with Daphnia pulicaria, the most widely distributed American species. All the experiments were conducted under standard conditions of temperature (20°C) and light in identical plastic tanks. The culture medium was based on minerals and phosphate buffer made up in water of a very high purity. Daphnia were fed with green algae in quantities that maintained constant food availability. The density of each species was the same at the start and populations were left for several days before sampling began. Figure 2 shows the population changes observed from the first day of sampling in experiments set up as below: Experiment A: Single species alone without predators Experiment B: Two species together without predators Experiment C: Two species together with fish predators. *EP02AH0104* Page 04 1. (continued) Figure 3 shows the results of measuring the lengths of head spines and tail spines for the two species in culture medium either containing or lacking kairomones. Figure 2: Population changes in Experiments A, B and C Density of adults (individuals 1−1 ) 60 50 40 Experiment A: D. pulicaria 30 Experiment A: D. lumholtzi Experiment B: D. pulicaria 20 10 Experiment B: D. lumholtzi 0 Density of adults (individuals 1−1 ) 1 5 9 13 17 21 25 29 33 37 41 45 Time (days) 20 Experiment C: D. lumholtzi 10 0 Experiment C: D. pulicaria 1 5 9 13 17 21 25 Time (days) Figure 3: Relative lengths of spines before and after exposure to kairomones Relative spine length (% of body length) 100 head spine 80 tail spine 60 40 20 0 Control Kairomone Control Kairomone D. lumholtzi D. pulicaria *EP02AH0105* Page 05 1. (continued) MARKS (a) Refer to Figure 2. (i) Use the data at Day 41 to demonstrate that competition is a negative interaction for both species. 2 (ii) Suggest how long it takes for spine formation to affect predator behaviour. Justify your answer. 2 Number of days Justification (b) Refer to Figure 3. (i) Suggest the defence used by D. pulicaria against fish predation. 1 (ii) For D. lumholtzi with a mean body length of 1·6 mm, calculate the difference in length between the head spines in the control and kairomone cultures. 1 Space for calculation and working mm *EP02AH0106* Page 06 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN 1. (continued) MARKS (c) Explain why the researchers believed the formation of head spines to be critical in the survival of D. lumholtzi in competition with D. pulicaria. *EP02AH0107* Page 07 2 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 2. The table below shows data comparing some stages in the purification of an enzyme from a tissue sample. Total protein and enzyme activity are measured at the end of each stage. stage 1 liquidised tissue 2 precipitation by salt 3 iso-electric separation 4 affinity chromatography total protein (mg) enzyme activity (units) 10 000 2 000 000 3000 1 500 000 500 500 000 30 42 000 (a) (i) Calculate the percentage of the original protein that had been removed by the end of the process. 1 Space for calculation and working % (ii) Enzyme purity can be calculated from these values as the activity per mg of protein. Calculate by how many times the enzyme purity increased by the end of stage 4. 2 Space for calculation and working (b) Explain the principle of iso-electric separation. *EP02AH0108* Page 08 2 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN 2. (continued) MARKS (c) In affinity chromatography, a ligand specific to the enzyme was bonded to beads in a burette. Explain how this method can improve purity. *EP02AH0109* Page 09 2 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 3. Describe the transport of sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane. *EP02AH0110* Page 10 5 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 4. Myoglobin and haemoglobin are oxygen-carrying proteins. Myoglobin has one polypeptide chain and is found in muscle. Haemoglobin has four polypeptide chains and is found in red blood cells. The tertiary structures of the myoglobin and the haemoglobin chains are very similar. Each chain has one binding site for oxygen. The proportion of binding sites occupied by oxygen is known as saturation. saturation = number of oxygen binding sites occupied total number of oxygen binding sites The graph below shows the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin and myoglobin as the available oxygen is increased. 1∙00 myoglobin haemoglobin Saturation 0∙75 0∙50 0∙25 0 0 10 20 30 40 50 O2 pressure (units) (a)(i)Use the data to compare the saturation of myoglobin and haemoglobin between 0 and 30 units. 1 (ii)Explain how the information shows that quaternary structure affects the binding of oxygen to haemoglobin. 2 *EP02AH0111* Page 11 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 4. (continued) (b) Use the formula to calculate the change in the number of oxygen molecules bound to haemoglobin as the oxygen pressure is reduced from 30 to 20 units. 1 Space for calculation and working (c) Haem groups are an example of non-polypeptide components present in proteins. State the term that describes such components. *EP02AH0112* Page 12 1 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN 5. Starch consists of glucose molecules in long coiled chains, periodically joined at branching points. In the iodine test for starch, the iodine lies within the coils and the solution has a blue/black colour. coiled chain of glucose iodine The enzyme alpha amylase (α-amylase) hydrolyses starch into maltose and dextrins (short chains of glucose molecules). Samples taken from an α-amylase/starch mixture, when reacted with iodine solution, will show changes in colour as hydrolysis proceeds. Different reaction products contribute different colours, as shown below. starch (blue/black) dextrins (red/purple) maltose (colourless) Within an investigation to test the effect of an inhibitor on the rate of amylase activity, researchers needed to develop a quick way to measure starch concentrations. They produced a colorimetric method based on the starch-iodine colour change. Part of the experiment to find the best wavelength is outlined below. Amylase buffered at pH7 was incubated with different reaction mixtures at optimum temperature. After 30 minutes, hydrochloric acid was used to stop any enzyme action and then the iodine solution was added to produce the colour. Absorbance was measured across a range of wavelengths for different reaction mixtures, as shown in the graph below. Absorbance 2.5 starch 2g/l 2.0 2g/l starch with maltose starch 1g/l 1.5 reference blank 1.0 0.5 0 400 450 500 550 600 Wavelength (nm) 650 700 *EP02AH0113* Page 13 5. (continued) MARKS (a) State the term that describes an experiment, like the one outlined, that is developing a technique within a larger investigation. 1 (b) State what would be left out of the reference blank so it functions as a control. 1 (c) The researchers concluded that 580 nm would be the best wavelength for quantifying amylase activity by this method. (i) Explain how they arrived at this conclusion. 1 (ii) The results show that the presence of the reaction product maltose is not a confounding variable. State what is meant by the term confounding variable. 1 (iii) Explain how the results show that the method will be valid in investigating the effect of amylase inhibitor on the rate of starch breakdown. 1 *EP02AH0114* Page 14 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 6. The hormone insulin is involved in the control of blood glucose concentration. (a) Describe how insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose into cells. 2 (b) Research has shown that fatty (adipose) tissue secretes a number of signalling molecules that regulate a variety of metabolic processes. One of these molecules, adiponectin, is thought to increase the sensitivity of cells to the hormone insulin. Table 1 below shows the results of a study that compared the concentration of adiponectin in subjects having type 2 diabetes with non-diabetic subjects. Table 1 subjects average plasma adiponectin concentration (μg cm−3 ± SE) type 2 diabetes 6·6 ± 0·4 non-diabetics 7·9 ± 0·5 Use the information to explain the relationship between type 2 diabetes and the average plasma concentration of adiponectin. *EP02AH0115* Page 15 2 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN 6. (continued) MARKS (c) Table 2 below shows the results of a second study that measured changes in adiponectin following treatment of individuals at risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Table 2 treatment average increase in adiponectin concentration (μg cm−3 ± SE) drug treatment 0·83 ± 0·05 lifestyle changes 0·23 ± 0·05 none 0·10 ± 0·05 Explain how the data in Table 2 confirm that both treatments were effective in increasing adiponectin concentration. 1 (d) Both studies used human subjects. For this type of research: (i) give one important ethical consideration; 1 (ii) explain why a large sample size is required to produce valid conclusions. 1 *EP02AH0116* Page 16 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 7. The protein p53 plays an important role in controlling cell division. The diagram below represents how the activation of p53 can result in arrest of the cell cycle. Mdm2 Mdm2 p53 kinase p53 inactive p53 p53 active production of protein p21 activated p21 Cdk p21 Cdk Cdk inhibited (a) Explain why binding of p21 protein to cyclin dependent kinase (Cdk) prevents the cell cycle from progressing. 2 (b)State one trigger that would stimulate the activation of p53. 1 (c) State one other fate, apart from arrest of the cell cycle, of a cell that has had p53 activated. 1 (d) Explain why it is important that the cell cycle is controlled in a multicellular organism. 2 *EP02AH0117* Page 17 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN 8. Courtship behaviour in the dung beetle Onthophagus sagittarius was investigated in the laboratory. MARKS Beetles were paired by randomly selecting males and females, and the pairs were placed in breeding chambers. Mating success in relation to the frequency of courtship behaviour was recorded for large and small males. Probability of mating small males large males Frequency of courtship behaviour (a) From the results, describe how female choice changes in relation to male size. 1 (b) State the term used to indicate the time from introduction until first courtship during the experiment. 1 (c) Male and female dung beetles can be distinguished by their horns. State the term used to describe this difference in appearance. (d) Females in many species are relatively inconspicuous. Suggest why this is of importance to them. *EP02AH0118* Page 18 1 1 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 9. (a) The spread of a buttercup plant, Ranunculus repens, from an established flowerbed into a nearby disturbed area, is shown in the illustration below. flowers runner flowerbed disturbed area (i) Explain what is meant by the term hermaphroditic as it applies to plants such as the buttercup. 1 (ii) Explain how asexual reproduction is of advantage to the buttercup in the colonisation of this disturbed area. 1 (b) State the term that describes the mode of asexual reproduction in arthropods where offspring arise from unfertilised eggs. 1 *EP02AH0119* Page 19 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN 10. The parasite–stress hypothesis states that children who contract parasites have reduced cognitive abilities (on average). Some research has shown that parasites alone account for 67% of the worldwide variation in intelligence (IQ) and that there is a significant negative correlation between the prevalence of parasitic infection in a country and the mean IQ of its population. MARKS To test this hypothesis, researchers examined data from each of the states in the USA. Results from their study are shown in the scatterplot below. Correlation between mean US state IQ and relative values for infectious disease stress 106 104 Mean IQ 102 100 98 96 94 −1.5 −1 −0.5 0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 Parasite stress (relative scale) 3 (a) Explain why parasitic infections might result in lower intelligence in a developing individual. 2 (b) Give one reason why the results in the scatterplot are thought to have low reliability. 1 (c) As a criticism of the parasite–stress hypothesis, it has been argued that “correlation does not necessarily indicate causation”. With reference to the scatterplot, explain the phrase “correlation does not necessarily indicate causation”. *EP02AH0120* Page 20 2 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS 11. Answer either A or B. A Discuss meiosis under the following headings: (i) the sequence of events; 7 (ii) the origin of genetically variable gametes. 3 OR B Discuss the process of evolution under the following headings: (i) importance of mutation in enabling evolution; 6 (ii) factors increasing the rate of evolution. 4 Labelled diagrams may be used where appropriate. [END OF EXEMPLAR QUESTION PAPER] *EP02AH0121* Page 21 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS ADDITIONAL SPACE FOR ANSWERS AND ROUGH WORK *EP02AH0122* Page 22 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN MARKS ADDITIONAL SPACE FOR ANSWERS AND ROUGH WORK *EP02AH0123* Page 23 DO NOT WRITE IN THIS MARGIN AH National Qualications EXEMPLAR PAPER ONLY EP02/AH/01 Biology Marking Instructions These Marking Instructions have been provided to show how SQA would mark this Exemplar Question Paper. The information in this publication may be reproduced to support SQA qualifications only on a non-commercial basis. If it is to be used for any other purpose, written permission must be obtained from SQA’s Marketing team on [email protected]. Where the publication includes materials from sources other than SQA (ie secondary copyright), this material should only be reproduced for the purposes of examination or assessment. If it needs to be reproduced for any other purpose it is the user’s responsibility to obtain the necessary copyright clearance. © General Marking Principles for Advanced Higher Biology This information is provided to help you understand the general principles you must apply when marking candidate responses to questions in this paper. These principles must be read in conjunction with the detailed Marking Instructions, which identify the key features required in candidate responses. (a) Marks for each candidate response must always be assigned in line with these general marking principles and the detailed Marking Instructions for this assessment. (b) Marking should always be positive. This means that, for each candidate response, marks are accumulated for the demonstration of relevant skills, knowledge and understanding: they are not deducted from a maximum on the basis of errors or omissions. (c) Half marks may not be awarded. (d) Where a candidate makes an error at an early stage in a multi-stage calculation, credit should normally be given for correct follow-on working in subsequent stages, unless the error significantly reduces the complexity of the remaining stages. The same principle should be applied in questions which require several stages of non-mathematical reasoning. (e) Unless a numerical question specifically requires evidence of working to be shown, full marks should be awarded for a correct final answer (including units if required) on its own. (f) Larger mark allocations may be fully accessed whether responses are provided in continuous prose, linked statements or a series of discrete developed points. (g) In the detailed Marking Instructions, if a word is underlined then it is essential; if a word is (bracketed) then it is not essential. (h) In the detailed Marking Instructions, words separated by / are alternatives. (i) If two answers are given where one is correct and the other is incorrect, no marks are awarded. (j) Where the candidate is instructed to choose one question to answer but instead answers both questions, both responses should be marked and the better mark awarded. (k) The assessment is of skills, knowledge and understanding in Biology, so marks should be awarded for a valid response, even if the response is not presented in the format expected. For example, if the response is correct but is not presented in the table as requested, or if it is circled rather than underlined as requested, give the mark. (l) Unless otherwise required by the question, use of abbreviations (eg DNA, ATP) or chemical formulae (eg CO2, H20) are acceptable alternatives to naming. (m) Content that is outwith the Course assessment specification should be given credit if used appropriately, eg metaphase of meiosis. (n) If a numerical answer is required and units are not given in the stem of the question or in the answer space, candidates must supply the units to gain the mark. If units are required on more than one occasion, candidates should not be penalised repeatedly. (o) Incorrect spelling is given. Sound out the word(s): • • • if the correct term is recognisable then give the mark if the word can easily be confused with another biological term then do not give the mark, eg ureter and urethra if the word is a mixture of other biological terms then do not give the mark, eg mellum, melebrum, amniosynthesis. Page 02 (p) When presenting data: • • • • (q) if a candidate provides two graphs or charts in response to one question (eg one in the question and another at the end of the booklet), mark both and give the higher mark for marking purposes no distinction is made between bar charts (used to show discontinuous features, have descriptions on the x-axis and have separate columns) and histograms (used to show continuous features, have ranges of numbers on the x-axis and have contiguous columns) other than in the case of bar charts/histograms, if the question asks for a particular type of graph or chart and the wrong type is given, then do not give the mark(s) for this where provided, marks may still be awarded for correctly labelling the axes, plotting the points, joining the points either with straight lines or curves (best fit rarely used), etc. The relevant mark should not be awarded if the graph uses less than 50% of the axes; if the x and y data are transposed; if 0 is plotted when no data for this is given (ie candidates should only plot the data given). Marks are awarded only for a valid response to the question asked. For example, in response to questions that ask candidates to: • • • • • • • • calculate, they must determine a number from given facts, figures or information; compare, they must demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the similarities and/or differences between things; describe, they must provide a statement or structure of characteristics and/or features; evaluate, they must make a judgement based on criteria; explain, they must relate cause and effect and/or make relationships between things clear; identify, name, give, or state, they need only name or present in brief form; predict, they must suggest what may happen based on available information; suggest, they must apply their knowledge and understanding of Biology to a new situation. A number of responses are acceptable: marks will be awarded for any suggestions that are supported by knowledge and understanding of Biology. Page 03 Detailed Marking Instructions for each question SECTION 1 Question Response Mark 1 B 1 2 A 1 3 C 1 4 C 1 5 D 1 6 C 1 7 A 1 8 D 1 9 A 1 10 B 1 11 A 1 12 A 1 13 D 1 14 B 1 15 A 1 16 D 1 17 B 1 18 C 1 19 A 1 20 C 1 21 D 1 22 B 1 23 C 1 24 B 1 25 D 1 Page 04 SECTION 2 Question 1 a Max mark Expected response i Population of both species higher when separate/in Experiment A OR equivalent for Experiment B (1) Additional guidance 2 Comparison of Experiment A with B Any day in range 9-13 Comparison of the population change in both species D. lumholtzi 25 vs 11 OR D. pulicaria 37 vs 22 (1) 1 a ii 9-13 days (1) (density of) D. lumholtzi > D. pulicaria OR D. lumholtzi increasing D. pulicaria decreasing (1) 2 1 b i Increase in length of tail spine 1 1 b ii 0·40 mm 1 1 c 2 (When both are competing) in presence of fish / predators / kairomones / Experiment C (1) D. lumholtzi increases head spine as well as tail spine Increase = grow, produce, make Both species increase tail spines and D. lumholtzi also increases head spine / D. pulicaria does not increase head spine (1) 2 a i 99·7% 1 2 a ii 7 times 2 Specific activities Stage 1: 200 Stage 4: 1400 2 Amino acid OK instead of protein 1 mark for one correct specific activity difference is 1200 units 2 b Isoelectric point is pH where a protein has no net/overall charge (1) Electrophoresis = electric field In a buffer, proteins at their isoelectric point will + not move in an electric field OR (become insoluble and) settle out / precipitate (1) 2 c The ligand binds the enzyme (1) The enzyme is held in the burette while the other proteins pass through / wash out (1) Page 05 2 Question 3 1. 2. 3 4. 5. 6. 7. 4 a Max mark Expected response Protein that spans the membrane Works against concentration gradient/by active transport ATP provides phosphate Phosphate attaches to pump/protein/protein phosphorylated Phosphorylation/ dephosphorylation alters conformation/shape of protein OR description Different conformations have different affinity for sodium/potassium (3) Sodium ions (pumped) out of cell and (2) potassium in i (For the increase in O2 pressure 0-30 units) Myoglobin increases to 0·975 and 5 Additional guidance Any five Not channel or carrier Diagrams might be useful here but must be annotated correctly 1 Haemoglobin increases to 0·50 4 a ii Curves differ/binding differs AND Tertiary (structure) the same/similar (1) 2 Or illustrate with correct values Not changed proportions Only Hb has quaternary (1) 4 b 1 (less) 1 4 c Prosthetic groups 1 5 a Pilot study 1 5 b Starch 1 5 c i This gives maximum absorbance for the starch reaction and lowest for blank OR Maximum difference between reaction and blank/control 1 5 c ii (Other than the independent variable) a factor that may affect dependent variable/results 1 5 c iii (Aim is to monitor rates of reaction and) method can distinguish between starch concentrations 1 Page 06 Question 6 a Max mark Expected response Insulin binding triggers recruitment of glucose transporters/GLUT 4 (1) Additional guidance 2 to (plasma) membrane of fat/muscle/target cells (1) 6 b Adiponectin levels are lower in type 2 diabetics / higher in non-diabetics (1) 2 Type 2 diabetes is associated with decreased sensitivity to insulin / loss of receptor function (1) Increases are (statistically) significant OR use error data to show the ranges do not overlap 1 6 c 6 d i Informed consent / right to withdraw data / confidentiality 1 6 d ii It captures / represents the variation in the population OR large number of confounding variables OR other factors (such as body weight) may have an effect 1 7 a (p21 binding to Cdk) prevents Cdks phosphorylating proteins (1) 2 (Proteins) that then stimulate the cell cycle (1) OR unphosphorylated protein inhibits cycle/stops cycle at the checkpoint 7 b DNA damage OR death signals from lymphocytes 1 7 c Apoptosis/programmed cell death / DNA damage repaired / cell continues through cell cycle 1 7 d Uncontrolled decrease in the rate of the cell cycle may lead to degenerative disease (1) 2 Uncontrolled increase in the rate of the cell cycle may lead to tumour formation (1) Page 07 Need idea that unphosphorylated protein inhibits the cell cycle Rb = protein Question Max mark Expected response 8 a At low courtship frequencies large males are chosen more often / have a higher probability of mating but this reverses at higher frequencies OR It changes from large males to small males as courtship rates increase 1 8 b Latency 1 8 c Sexual dimorphism 1 8 d Less easy for predators to see them OR May be nesting/laying eggs (1) OR survival chances of the young increase (1) 1 9 a i Has both male and female parts/sex organs 1 9 a ii Clones/offspring are genetically identical to parent/already adapted to habitat OR new plants sustained by runner/parent until established OR rapid spread/colonisation/rapid population increase 1 9 b Parthenogenesis/parthenogenic 1 10 a Combating parasite/infection uses energy/resources (1) 2 Additional guidance Not less predation Less brain/cognitive development / damaged brain (1) 10 b eg some samples long way from best-fit line 1 eg small/no samples for some infection levels eg some obvious discrepancies/inconsistencies such as at stress 0 10 c IQ increases as parasitic infection decreases (1) The relationship does not mean that level of parasite stress causes IQ Page 08 2 not “small sample size” Question Max mark Expected response Additional guidance OR another variable could account for differences in IQ OR eg temperature (parasite abundance higher in tropics) /nutrition/literacy/education/GDP or other economic indicator (1) 11 A i 1. Occurs in gamete mother cells + in sex organs 2. Two cycles of nuclear division OR State meiosis I following by II Meiosis I 3. Nuclear membrane breaks down and spindle forms 4. Homologous chromosomes associate in pairs 5. Homologous pairs line up along equator 6. Homologous chromosomes segregate/pulled apart 7. New nuclear membrane forms and cytoplasm divides 8. Two cells with half the number of chromosomes/one set of chromosomes/one copy of genome Meiosis II 9. Two new spindles form, one in each cell 10. Chromosomes line up singly on equator 11. Chromatids separate/are pulled apart 12. New nuclear membranes form and cytoplasm divides 13. To give 4 haploid cells/gametes 7 Any seven 11 A ii 14. Crossing over occurs at chiasmata 15. Chromatids break and rejoin 16. This process shuffles sections of DNA between the homologous pairs and recombining alleles 17. Crossing over separate linked genes 18. Chromosomes move apart irrespective of their maternal or paternal origin OR Chromosomes show Independent Assortment 3 Any three Page 09 Question 11 B i 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 11 B Max mark Expected response ii Evolution is the change in genetic composition of population over time Mutation gives rise to new sequences of DNA/novel alleles Results in new variants/variation in traits/new phenotypes Mutation can be harmful, neutral or beneficial Beneficial mutations increases “fitness” Individuals compete for limited resources . . . . . . individuals with favourable alleles more likely to survive and breed These (favoured) alleles become more frequent in subsequent generations Definition of fitness in relation to fecundity 10. 11. 12. 13. High selection pressure Shorter generation time Warmer environments Sharing of beneficial DNA sequences between lineages 14./ 15. eg of how . . . • through sexual reproduction OR • horizontal gene transfer (as in X-bacteria) Additional guidance 6 Any six 4 Any four [END OF EXEMPLAR MARKING INSTRUCTIONS] Page 10