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Module 1. 1. A. B. C. D. E. 2. A. B. C. D. E. 3. A. B. C. D. E. 4. A. B. C. D. E. 5. A. B. C. D. E. 6. A. B. C. D. E. 7. A. B. C. D. E. 8. A. B. C. D. E. Which of the following nerves lies on spermatic cord within inguinal canal? intercostalis ilioinguinalis anterior scrotal pudendal lumbalis Why a surgeon can not cut compressed ring before incision of hernial sac? possibility of damage of parietal peritoneum possibility of damage of visceral peritoneum because of necessity to check viability of compressed organs possibility of damage of contents of hernial sac inability to perform grafting Which of the following anatomical structures belongs to the round ligament of liver? obliterated umbilical artery urachus ductus choledochus obliterated umbilical vein obliterated umbilical artery and vein During surgery injury of small intestine wall was founded. Which of the surgery should be performed? intestinal suture intestinal resection enterotomy enterostomy enteropexy A patient with perforated stomach ulcer has complication – subdiaphragmal abscess. Which of the following abdominal spaces should be drainaged first? omental bursa pancreatic left lateral abdominal canal mesenteric sinuses hepatic bursa During cholecystectomy bleeding from hepatic bed was found. The bleeding was arrested by pressing of hepato-duodenal ligament in region of omental opening. Which of the following arteries was pressed in this case? right hepatic artery left hepatic artery common hepatic artery proper hepatic artery gastroepiploic artery What is the name of part of small intestine wall that is not covered with peritoneum? margo mesenterica pars nuda margo epiploica pars mesenterica pars epiploica Which of the following approaches to pancreas is most comfortable? through gastro-epiploic ligament Through mesentery of transverse colon extraperitoneal approach in according to site of surgery through omental bursa 9. A. B. C. D. E. 10. A. B. C. D. E. 11. A. B. C. D. E. 12. A. B. C. D. E. 13. A. B. A. C. D. 14. A. B. C. D. E. 15. A. B. C. D. E. 16. A. B. C. D. E. 17. A. B. C. Porto-caval anastomoses are good developed in which of the following regions? stomach, caecum large intestine, stomach duodenum,large intestine caecum, large intestine esophagus, rectum, ventral abdominal wall Inferior caval vein lies within which of the following hepatic ligaments? lig. coronarium lig. triangulare dexter lig. triangulare sinister lig.hepatorenalis lig. falciforme What is congenital inguinal hernia? direct direct and indirect reducible incarcerating indirect Branches of superior mesenteric artery are: ilio-colic, right colic, middle colic ilio-colic, right colic right colic, middle colic ileum, colic, middle colic right and middle colic Branches of inferior mesenteric artery are: right colic, middle colic, superior rectal left colic, middle colic C.colic, middle colic, sygmoid right colic, middle colic left colic, sygmoid, superior rectal What is Gartmann’s pocket? dilatation of gallbladder neck dilatation of choledoch duct bend in place of gallbladder body dilatation of gallbladder fundus dilatation of gallbladder A surgeon completes the appendectomy. The stump of appendix should be immersed by which of the following sutures? Albert’s suture sero-serous suture marginal suture Schmiden's suture purse-string suture During cholecystectomy surgeon found Kallo’s triangle. This triangle is landmark for which of the folowing structures? choledoch duct left hepatic artery right hepatic artery cystic artery cystic duct Which of the following arteries should be left in case of subtotal stomach resection? right gastro-epiploic artery common hepatic artery right gastric artery D. gastro-duodenal artery E. left gastric artery 18. A surgeon performed removing of right part of large intestine. Which of the following arteries should be ligated? A. а. colica sinistra B. а. gastroduodenalis C. а. mesenterica superior D. а. mesenterica inferior E. а. colica dextra 19. There was bleeding from gallbladder bed during antegrade cholecystectomy. The surgeon press lig. hepatoduodenale for temporary arrest bleeding. Which of the following vessels are within this ligament? A. а. hepatica communis B. а. hepatica communis, v. роrta C. а. hepatica propria, v. роrta D. а. суstica and v. роrta E. а. суstica, v. роrta 20. A surgeon cut gastro-colic ligament during operative access to contents of omental bursa. Which of the following arteries was ligated and cutted in this case? A. left and right gastric B. proper hepatic and gastro-duodenal C. left and right gastro-epiploic D. proper gastric E. short gastric 21. Which of the following anatomical structures passes through inguinal canal in male? A. obturator artery B. internal pudendal artery C. pudendal nerve D. ilio-hypogastric nerve E. testicular artery 22. V. jugularis externa formes at which of the following levels? A. level of cricoid cartilage B. level of thyroid cartilage C. level of 7-8 tracheal rings D. level of thymus E. level of angle of mandible 23. V. facialis passes along which of the following surfaces of submandibular gland? A. external surface B. internal surface C. lateral surface D. medial surface E. superior surface 24. At which of the following levels the pleural cavities are most closely adjacent to each other in interpleural space? A. I rib B. V rib C. VI rib D. VII rib E. III rib 25. Veins from thoracic part of esophagus flow into which of the following veins? A. inferior caval vein B. intercostal veins C. internal thoracic vein D. superior caval vein E. 26. A. B. C. D. E. 27. A. B. C. D. E. 28. A. B. C. D. E. 29. A. B. C. D. E. 30. A. B. C. D. E. 31. A. B. C. D. E. 32. A. B. C. D. E. 33. A. B. C. azygos vein How we should cut pericardium during operative approach to heart? transverse incision combined incision oblique incision V-shaped incision longitudinal incision Universal approach to heart is: paravertebral sternotomy posterior-lateral lateral middle-lateral The biggest sinus of pericardium is: transverse longitudinal vertical anterio-lower obligue On a hot summer evening, two not-overly-virtuous young ladies got into a scuffle over which one would go home with a medical student. They came too near a powerful exhaust fan which caught the hair of one of them and scalped her. The bloody, hairy mass whirling in the fan had separated between the: Skin and subcutaneous tissue Subcutaneous tissue and the aponeurosis Aponeurosis and the periosteum Periosteum and the bone Outer table of the skull and the diploic space The superior cervical cardiac nerve originates from: Cervical nerves 3 and 4 Cervical nerve 5 The superior cervical sympathetic ganglion The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion The inferior cervical sympathetic ganglion An infiltrating tumor which involves the stellate ganglion (fused inferior cervical and first thoracic sympathetic ganglion) would lead to which of the following symptoms on the involved side of the face? Constriction of the pupil Excessive sweating and flushing of the skin Excessive dryness of the mouth and sweating Constriction of the pupil and flushing of the skin Constriction of the pupil and excessive sweating Which of the following anatomical structures should be stitched in third layer in case of small penetrating wound of chest wall? pleura, intrathoracic fascia skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia intercostal muscles superficial muscles, superficial fascia skin, intrathoracic fascia Puncture in case of presence of fluid in pleural cavity should be done at which of the following lines? midclavicular line between midclavicular and anterior axillary lines middle axillary line D. paravertebral E. between middle axillary and scapular lines 34. Skin incision in case of anterior lateral thoracotomy should be began at which of the following levels? A. cartilage of III rib at middle axillary line B. cartilage of III rib at parasternal line C. cartilage of IV rib at midclavicular line D. cartilage of IV rib at anterior axillary line E. V intercostal space at anterior axillary line 35. Lower border of lungs at midclavicular line is: A. upper edge of VI rib B. lower edge of VI rib C. lower edge of VII rib D. VIII rib E. upper edge of VII rib 36. Projection of pleural cupula from behind is: A. spinal process of V cervical vertebra B. spinal process of VI cervical vertebra C. 1 сm above clavicle D. 2-3 сm above clavicle E. spinal process of VII cervical vertebra 37. Main way of lymph draining from mammary gland is: A. parasternal lymph nodes B. intercostal, mediastinal lymph nodes C. axillary lymph nodes D. prevertebral lymph nodes E. visceral abdominal lymph nodes 38. Sources of blood supply of mammary gland are: A. thyro-cervical trunk, subscapular artery B. internal thoracic, subscapular arteries C. thoraco-acromial, subclavian arteries D. axillary, subscapular arteries E. lateral thoracic artery, intercostal arteries, internal thoracic artery 39. Pericardio-diaphragmatic artery arises from internal thoracic artery at which of the following levels? A. II rib B. III rib C. V rib D. VI rib E. I rib 40. Internal thoracic artery locates at which of the following distance from lateral sternal edge in retrosternal space at level of I intercostal space? A. 2-3 mm B. 10-13 mm C. 5-10 mm D. 15-18 mm E. tо 20 mm 41. Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles goes within subcutaneous tissue at level of middle axillary line? A. internal thoracic artery, subclavian nerve B. lateral thoracic artery, long thoracic nerve C. costo-cervical artery, dorsal nerve D. superior thoracic artery, subclavian nerve E. dorsal nerve, internal thoracic artery 42. A. B. C. D. E. 43. A. B. C. D. E. 44. A. B. C. D. E. 45. A. B. C. D. E. 46. A. B. C. D. E. 47. A. B. C. D. E. 48. A. B. C. D. E. 49. A. B. C. D. E. 50. A. Which of the following arteries goes in antescalenus space in transverse direction? subscapular artery suprascapular artery transverse cervical artery superficial cervical artery dorsal scapular artery Which f the following branches arises from subclavian artery before its entrance to interscalenus space of neck? thyro-cervical trunk internal thoracic artery costo-cervical trunk deep cervical artery vertebral artery Which of the following nerves forms thyroid nervous plexus? recurrent laryngeal nerve superior laryngeal nerve accessory nerve hypoglossal nerve phrenic nerve Branches of which of these thyroid arteries is crossed by recurrent laryngeal nerve on posterior surface of lateral lobe of thyroid gland? superior thyroid artery proper thyroid artery unpair thyroid artery middle thyroid artery inferior thyroid artery Which of the following vessels passes on anterior surface of trachea at level of sterno-clavicular junction? arch of aorta isthmus of aorta brachio-cephalic trunk subclavian artery comon carotid artery Superior thyroid artery is branch of which of the following arteries? internal carotid artery external carotid artery superior laryngeal artery inferior laryngeal artery subclavian artery Specify the characteristic of facial vein: undulating course thick wall situated near the corner of the mouth situated at midpoint of anterior edge of masseter muscle straight course Which of the following structures lies most closely to esophagus within carotid triangle? internal jugular vein vagus nerve external jugular vein hypoglossal nerve common carotid artery Which of these structures could not be damaged by a deep laceration superior to the superior nuchal line? Occipital artery B. C. D. E. 51. A. B. C. D. E. 52. A. B. C. D. E. 53. A. B. C. D. E. 54. A. B. C. D. E. 55. A. B. C. D. E. Greater occipital nerve Nuchal ligament Lesser occipital nerve Occipitofrontalis muscle. The foramen ovale in the skull Allows entrance of the spinal part of the accessory nerve into the cranial cavity Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone Allows entrance of the middle meningeal artery into the cranial cavity Allows exit of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve Allows exit of the glossopharyngeal nerve. The internal acoustic meatus in the skull Is located in the body of the sphenoid bone Is located in the mastoid bone Allows passage of the glossopharyngeal nerve Allows passage of the facial nerve only Allows passage of the vestibulocochlear nerve and the facial nerve. The sphenoid sinus drains into the Middle meatus of the nose Superior meatus of the nose Sphenoethmoidal recess Inferior meatus of the nose Nasolacrimal duct. Which of these statements are not true? The stylohyoid muscle is supplied by the facial nerve The styloglossus muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve The posterior belly of digastric muscle is supplied by the trigeminal nerve The stylopharyngeal muscle is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve All of these statements are true. The maxillary artery is distributed to about the same regions and structures as those supplied by the: A. Ophthalmic nerve B. Maxillary nerve C. Mandibular nerve D. Ophthalmic and mandibular nerves E. Maxillary and mandibular nerves. 56. Following a boil on the upper lip, a rural lowan became comatose. The infection has spread to the cavernous sinus from the facial vein by its communication with the: A. Occipital sinus B. Straight sinus C. Ophthalmic veins. D. Superior saggital sinus E. Maxillary sinus 57. The arterial supply to the larynx includes branches of the: A. Lingual artery B. Superior thyroid artery C. Facial artery D. Inferior thyroid artery E. Superior and inferior thyroid arteries. 58. The following events occur on inhalation except which? The diaphragm descends The external intercostals muscles contract The abdominal muscles contract and push the abdominal viscera cranially The ribs are raised The vertical dimension of the thoracic cavity increases. 59. The following statements concerning the main bronchi are correct except which? A. The right main bronchus is wider than the left main bronchus B. The left main bronchus gives off the superior lobar bronchus before entering the hilum of the lung. C. The right main bronchus is shorter than the left main bronchus D. The right main bronchus is m than the left main bronchus E. The left main bronchus passes to the left in front of the esophagus 60. The jejunum receives sympathetic nerves from the A. Vagus nerve B. Pelvic splanchnic nerves C. Spinal cord segments L1 and 2 D. Greater splanchnic nerve and lesser splanchnic nerve E. Spinal cord segments S2, 3 and 4. 61. The jugular foramen in the skull A. Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone B. Allows exit of the hypoglossal nerve C. Is located in the middle cranial fossa D. Allows exit of the vagus nerve E. Allows entrance of the external jugular vein. 62. The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the regions listed below EXCEPT for the: A. medial angle of the orbit B. lateral nose C. region of the eyebrow D. upper lip E. lower lip 63. The pterygomandibular raphe serves as a point of attachment for two important muscles. They are: A. superior constrictor and buccinator B. masseter and inferior constrictor C. medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid D. lateral pterygoid and superior constrictor E. lateral pterygoid and buccinator 64. An acoustic neuroma is a tumor involving the vestibulocochlear nerve as it exits the cranial cavity. Because this tumor compresses surrounding structures or invades nearby tissues, in addition to hearing loss and equilibrium problems, a patient would most likely also demonstrate ipsilateral (same sided): A. loss of general sensation to the face B. facial paralysis C. paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle D. tongue paralysis E. ptosis 65. The facial nerve carries fibers subserving all but one of the following functions: A. Secretomotor to the lacrimal gland B. Secretomotor to the submandibular gland C. Motor to the stapedius muscle D. Some sensation to the soft palate E. Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue 66. A 75 year old patient is experiencing extreme pain in the anterior portion of the alveolar ridge. This pain is greatest during mastications, when pressure is applied to the area. The gums appear normal. The patient states that he has worn dentures since the age of 25. which of the following seems most likely? A. The pain is due to pressure on the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve B. The pain is due to pressure on the inferior alveolar nerve at the mandibular foramen C. D. E. 67. The pain is due to pressure on the mental nerve at the mental foramen The pain is reffered from the nasopalatine nerve The pain is psychosomatic After an autumn night of poker, a medical student noticed that one side of a fellow student’s face was smooth, his eye would not close, his mouth drooped, and saliva drooled out of the corner of his mouth. Further examination revealed no change in his ability to taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue. You suspect a lesion (unspecified damage) of the: A. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve B. Glossopharyngeal nerve in the jugular foramen C. Facial nerve in the internal auditory meatus D. Facial nerve in the middle ear E. Facial nerve after its exit from the skull 68. Which of these nerves does not supply the skin of the external nose? A. The external nasal nerve B. The infraorbital nerve C. The infratrochlear nerve D. The supratrochlear nerve 69. All of the above supply itA tonsillar abscess may extend posteriorly through the pharyngeal wall into the: A. Pleural cavity B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Retropharyngeal space D. Suprasternal space E. Pharyngeal tonsil 70. Which of the following nerves might be injured when tying the inferior thyroid artery during operations on the thyroid gland? A. The sympathetic trunk B. The internal laryngeal nerve C. The descendens cervicalis D. The recurrent laryngeal nerve E. The superior laryngeal nerve. 71. Recurrent laryngeal nerves A. Arises from tenth cranial nerve in the jugular foramen B. Supply all muscles of the vocal cords C. Remain safe if inferior thyroid arteries are ligated away from the thyroid gland D. Are so named because they curve around larynx E. Sensory to larynx and pharynx 72. A 69-year-old woman complaining of a burning pain over the left shoulder and upper part of the left arm was seen by her physician. The pain had started approximately 2 weeks previously and had progressively worsened. The pain was made worse by moving the neck. At physical examination, the patient showed hyperesthesia of the skin over the lower part of the left deltoid muscle and down the lateral side of the arm. In addition, her left deltoid and biceps brachii muscles were weaker than those on the right side. At radiologic examination, extensive osteoarthritic changes of the vertebrae with spur formation on the bodies of the fourth, fifth, and sixth cervical vertebrae were seen. The weakness of the left deltoid and biceps brachii muscles could have resulted from pressure on which nerve roots? A. The posterior nerve roots of C5 and 6 B. The anterior nerve roots of C5 and 6 C. The anterior nerve roots of C7 and 8 D. The anterior nerve roots of C8 and T1 E. None of these 73. The main method of surgical treatment of nodular goiter is: A. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid lobe with node B. Resection of thyroid gland C. Strumectomy D. All methods can be used E. None of the above 74. Length of tracheal incision is equal to diameter of which of the following instruments? A. Tracheostomy cannula B. Tracheal dilator C. Wound dilator D. Bronchoscope E. Artificial airway 75. Indication for tracheostomy: A. Damage of larynx or trachea if it is found to be impossible to remove of asphyxia B. Tracheoesophageal fistula C. Chondroperichondritis of larynx D. Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma E. Laryngeal cyst 76. Within the superior mediastinum, the anterior surface of the esophagus is in contact with the: A. Anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column B. Thoracic duct C. Thymus D. Arch of the aorta E. Trachea 77. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the descending thoracic aorta except the: A. Posterior intercostal B. Esophageal C. Left subclavian D. Bronchial E. Pericardial 78. Innervation of pleura can be described correctly by all of these statements except: A. Costal pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves B. The central portion of diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve C. Peripheral diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves D. Mediastinal pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve E. The pain of pleurisy is mediated by autonomic nerves 79. All the following structures empty into the right atrium of the heart except the: A. Coronary sinus B. Inferior vena cava C. Superior vena cava D. Anterior cardiac veins E. Pulmonary veins 80. The superior vena cava returns blood from all of these structures except the: A. Head B. Lungs C. Neck D. Upper limb E. Thoracic wall 81. A 55 year old woman dies of septicemia after going to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She lost 15 kg in the past 2 months and complained of severe pain after meals. Postmortem findings including severe aortic atherosclerosis and a segment of necrotic bowel extending from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon. A blockage in which of the following arteries would best support these findings? A. Common iliac arteries B. Common hepatic artery C. Superior mesenteric artery D. Inferior mesenteric artery E. Splenic artery 82. During a splenectomy (removal of the spleen) which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered? A. The left suprarenal B. The pancreas C. The left ureter D. The inferior mesenteric vein E. The superior mesenteric vein 83. Which of the following are true of the bare area of the liver? A. The inferior vena cava is closely related to the bare area of the liver B. The bare area is bounded above by the anterior (superior) coronary ligament C. The bare area is bounded below by the posterior (inferior) coronary ligament D. The bare area is bounded to the left by the groove for the ligamentum venosum E. All are correct 84. A tonsillar abscess may extend posteriorly through the pharyngeal wall into the: A. Pleural cavity B. Anterior triangle of the neck C. Suprasternal space D. Pharyngeal tonsil E. Retropharyngeal space 85. Which of the following nerves might be injured when tying the inferior thyroid artery during operations on the thyroid gland? F. The sympathetic trunk G. The internal laryngeal nerve H. The descendens cervicalis I. The recurrent laryngeal nerve J. The superior laryngeal nerve. 86. Recurrent laryngeal nerves F. Arises from tenth cranial nerve in the jugular foramen G. Supply all muscles of the vocal cords H. Remain safe if inferior thyroid arteries are ligated away from the thyroid gland I. Are so named because they curve around larynx J. Sensory to larynx and pharynx 87. A 69-year-old woman complaining of a burning pain over the left shoulder and upper part of the left arm was seen by her physician. The pain had started approximately 2 weeks previously and had progressively worsened. The pain was made worse by moving the neck. At physical examination, the patient showed hyperesthesia of the skin over the lower part of the left deltoid muscle and down the lateral side of the arm. In addition, her left deltoid and biceps brachii muscles were weaker than those on the right side. At radiologic examination, extensive osteoarthritic changes of the vertebrae with spur formation on the bodies of the fourth, fifth, and sixth cervical vertebrae were seen. The weakness of the left deltoid and biceps brachii muscles could have resulted from pressure on which nerve roots? F. The posterior nerve roots of C5 and 6 G. The anterior nerve roots of C5 and 6 H. The anterior nerve roots of C7 and 8 I. The anterior nerve roots of C8 and T1 J. None of these 88. The main method of surgical treatment of nodular goiter is: F. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid lobe with node G. Resection of thyroid gland H. Strumectomy I. All methods can be used J. None of the above 89. Length of tracheal incision is equal to diameter of which of the following instruments? F. G. H. I. J. F. G. H. I. J. Tracheostomy cannula Tracheal dilator Wound dilator Bronchoscope Artificial airway 90. Indication for tracheostomy: Damage of larynx or trachea if it is found to be impossible to remove of asphyxia Tracheoesophageal fistula Chondroperichondritis of larynx Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma Laryngeal cyst 91. Within the superior mediastinum, the anterior surface of the esophagus is in contact with the: A. Anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column B. Thoracic duct C. Thymus D. Arch of the aorta E. Trachea 92. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the descending thoracic aorta except the: A. Posterior intercostal B. Esophageal C. Bronchial D. Pericardial E. Left subclavian 93. Innervation of pleura can be described correctly by all of these statements except: A. Costal pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves B. The central portion of diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve C. Peripheral diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves D. Mediastinal pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve E. The pain of pleurisy is mediated by autonomic nerves 94. All the following structures empty into the right atrium of the heart except the: A. Coronary sinus B. Inferior vena cava C. Superior vena cava D. Anterior cardiac veins E. Pulmonary veins 95. The superior vena cava returns blood from all of these structures except the: A. Head B. Neck C. Upper limb D. Thoracic wall E. Lungs 96. A 55 year old woman dies of septicemia after going to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She lost 15 kg in the past 2 months and complained of severe pain after meals. Postmortem findings including severe aortic atherosclerosis and a segment of necrotic bowel extending from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon. A blockage in which of the following arteries would best support these findings? A. Common iliac arteries B. Common hepatic artery C. Superior mesenteric artery D. Inferior mesenteric artery E. Splenic artery 97. During a splenectomy (removal of the spleen) which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered? F. The left suprarenal G. The pancreas H. The left ureter I. The inferior mesenteric vein J. The superior mesenteric vein 98. Which of the following are true of the bare area of the liver? F. The inferior vena cava is closely related to the bare area of the liver G. The bare area is bounded above by the anterior (superior) coronary ligament H. The bare area is bounded below by the posterior (inferior) coronary ligament I. The bare area is bounded to the left by the groove for the ligamentum venosum J. All are correct 99. Appendix: A. Is longer in male than in female B. Has 2 bands of longitudinal muscle C. Has mesoappendix D. Cover entirely by peritoneum E. Relates to both ureters 100. A student examining a rather thin female patient was excited when he found a somewhat elongated palpable mass in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. He has probably palpated: A. An ovarian cyst B. A mass in the ileum C. The inferior pole of the left kidney D. A normal sigmoid colon E. An enlarged lymph node 101. Which of the following structures a surgeon can expect to find behind the first part of the duodenum? A. The portal vein B. The gastroduodenal artery C. The common bile duct D. All of the above E. Two of the above 102. Which of the following abdominal viscera can normally be felt in a thin individual? A. The liver B. The spleen C. The pancreas D. The sigmoid colon E. All of these 103. Sigmoid colon: A. Extends from pelvic brim to S2 B. Relates to both ureters C. Is longer in male than in female D. Indirectly drain into splenic vein E. All of the above are true 104. Sigmoid colon: A. Cover entirely by peritoneum B. Extends from pelvic brim to S2 C. Relates to both ureters D. Is longer in male than in female E. All of the above are untrue 105. The superior mesenteric artery supplies the: A. Stomach B. Cecum C. Liver D. Kidney E. Abdominal part of the esophagus 106. The left kidney is related to all of the following except the: A. Liver B. Suprarenal gland C. Pancreas D. Spleen E. Colon 107. An invasive tumor of the right suprarenal gland may invade all but which one of the following? A. Inferior vena cava B. Right kidney C. Diaphragm D. Gall bladder E. Liver Модуль 2 1. Cellular retroperitoneal space is representetad by which of the following layers: A. retroperitoneal, perirenal, periureteral cellular spaces; B. retroperitoneal, perirenal; C. perirenal, periureteral, pericystic; D. perirenal, pericolic, pericystic E. pericolic, perirenal, periureteral, retroperitoneal 2. Which of the following vessels and organs are located in retroperitoneal space? A. aorta, kidney, ureters; B. suprarenal glands, kidney, inferior caval vein; C. kidney, suprarenal gland, ureters; D. kidney, suprarenal gland, ureters, abdominal aorta, inferior caval vein; E. kidney, suprarenal gland, renal arteries 3. Suturing of mucous layer of urinary bladder in case of cystostomy could lead to the: A. inflammation; B. bleeding; C. edema of urinary bladder D. fistula E. formation of stones 4. Which of the followig incisions is used in case of submucous paraproctitis? A. radial incision to anus; B. arcuate incision, 4-5 cm from anus; C. through posterior fornix of vagina; D. z-shaped incision. E. from inside of rectum; 5. A man with trauma of leg amputation was performed in 10 hours after injury. It was: A. secondary late; B. secondary early; C. reamputation; D. necrectomy. E. primary; 6. Which of the following arteries is the biggest branch of femoral artery? A. a. epigastrica superficialis; B. a. epigastrica superficialis; C. a. pudenda externa; D. a. genus descendens; E. a. profunda femoris; 7. Sciatic nerve divides into its branches at which of the following distance from joint line? 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. A. B. C. D. E. 15. A. 10-12 сm; B. 13-14 сm; C. 14-15 сm; D. at level of popliteal fossa; E. 7-9 сm; Which of the following muscles attaches to the head of the fibula? A. m. semitendinosus; B. m. semimembranosus; C. m. quadriceps femoris; D. m. adductor magnus; E. m. biceps femoris; Which of the following anatomical structures forms external wall of femoral canal? A. a. femoralis; B. n. saphenus; C. n. ishiadicus; D. n. femoralis; E. v. femoralis; Anterior wall of femoral canal is formed by: A. m. adductor longus; B. v. femoralis; C. m. gracilis; D. f. pectinea; E. f. lata; A. рoplitea enters the popliteal fossa after which of the following canals? A. canalis cruropopliteus; B. canalis musculoperonaeus superior; C. canalis musculoperonaeus inferior; D. all are false; E. сanalis adductorius; What are the absolute indications for amputations? A. traumatic limb abruption; B. chronic osteomyelitis of limb with danger of development of internal organs amyloidosis; C. severe purulent infection that threatens the health of the patient (gangrene); D. malignant tumor; E. all of these; Which of the following vessels should be ligated in case of injury of gluteal region? A. superior gluteal artery; B. obturator artery; C. common iliac artery; D. external iliac artery; E. internal iliac artery; What is reamputation: Second amputation Amputation after 48 hours Amputation after 7-8 days Final amputation Repeated amputation What is amputation? A. Cutting of the distal part for the extremity length B. Cutting of the distal part through the joint line C. Cutting of the proximal part for the extremity length D. Cutting of the distal extremity part E. None of the above. 16. What is disarticulation? A. Cutting of the distal part for the extremity length B. Cutting of the distal part through the joint line C. Cutting of the proximal part for the extremity length D. Cutting of the distal extremity part E. None of the above. 17. What is the level of amputation? A. Level of skin cutting B. Level of superficial muscles cutting C. Level of bone cutting D. Level of deep muscles cutting E. Level of skin and superficial muscles cutting. 18. Which of the following surfaces is working for III and IV fingers: A. Palmar B. Dorsal C. Ulnar D. Radial E. All of the above. 19. Which of the following surfaces is working for II finger: A. Palmar B. Dorsal C. Palmar and dorsal D. Palmar and ulnar E. Palmar and radial. 20. What is primary amputation? A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part B. Amputation after 7-8 days. C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance E. Amputation in case of false extremity position. 21. What is final amputation? A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part B. Amputation after 7-8 days C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance E. Amputation in case of false extremity position. 22. The first step of amputation is: A. Soft tissue cutting B. Cutting and treatment of the bone C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation D. Stump formation E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles. 23. The third step of amputation is: A. Soft tissue cutting B. Cutting and treatment of the bone C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation D. Stump formation E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles. 24. Nerve is cutted above _____ cm from amputation level. A. 2-3 B. 3-4 C. 4-5 D. 5-6 E. 6-7 25. Blood supplying of superior parts of ureters is realize by branches of which of the following vessels? A. superior rectal artery; B. abdominal aorta; C. uterine arteries; D. obturator artery; E. renal artery 26. Which of the following operative interventions is performed for extraction of nephrolith from the renal pelvis: A. Nephrostomy B. Pyelotomy C. Nephrotomy D. Nephropexy E. Nephrectomy. 27. What is the name of operation for kidney fixation in case of nephroptosis: A. Pyelotomy B. Nephrotomy C. Nephrostomy D. Nephrectomy E. Nephropexy. 28. Syntopy of the left kidney is represent by the following: A. Loops of the small intestine, costal part of the diaphragm, descending colon at the front B. Spleen, lower horizontal part of the duodenum at the front C. Spleen, fundus of stomach, left flexure of colon, tail of pancreas with splenic vessels at the front D. Duodenum, pancreas, descending colon at the front E. Pancreas, spleen, descending colon at the front. 29. What is nephrostomy: A. Kidney excision B. Kidney incision C. Opening of ren pelvis D. Decapsulation of kidney E. Renal fistula. 30. In adults, the spinal cord usually ends inferiorly at the: A. Lower border of S2 B. Upper border of S1 C. Lower border of S4 D. Upper border of coccyx E. Lower border of L1. 31. The _________ passes between the sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae: A. Vertebral artery B. Seventh cervical spinal nerve C. Sixth cervical spinal nerve D. Vertebral vein E. Eight cervical spinal nerve. 32. When performing a lumbar puncture (spinal tap), the following structures are pierced by the needle except which? A. The posterior longitudinal ligament B. The supraspinous ligament C. The arachnoid mater D. The ligamentum flavum E. The dura mater. 33. The following statements concerning the vertebral column are correct except which? A. The posterior ramus of the first cervical spinal nerve and its continuation, the great occipital B. C. D. E. 34. 35. 36. A. B. C. D. E. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. nerve, supplies the skin over the back of the scalp When an individual is in the standing position, the line of gravity passes anterior to the cervical part of the vertebral column and posterior to the thoracic and lumbar regions of the column The tip of the spine of a thoracic vertebra lies directly behind the vertebral body of the vertebra below The intervertebral disc is innervated by a recurrent branch of spinal nerve that enters the vertebral canal through the intervertebral foramen The atlantoaxial joints permit rotation of the atlas with the head on the axis. The right suprarenal vein drains into which of the following veins? A. Right renal B. Inferior mesenteric C. Superior mesenteric D. Portal E. Inferior vena cava. The suprarenal gland receives its blood supply from which of the following arteries? A. Renal B. Gonadal C. Superior mesenteric D. Inferior mesenteric E. Superior phrenic. What is the name of operation of renal calculus extraction from the renal pelvis? Pyelotomy Nephrotomy Nephrectomy Nephropexy Neprostomy. Pelvic splanchnic nerves are: A. Parasympathetics from the second, third, and fourth sacral spinal cord segments B. Sympathetics to the second, third, and fourth sac al nerves C. Direct branches from the sacral sympathetic trunk D. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers ascending to the abdomen andthorax E. Direct branches from the lumbar plexus to the pelvic viscera The pelvic diaphragm is composed of all the following muscles except the: A. Coccygeus B. Iliococcygeus C. Piriformis D. Pubococcygeus E. Puborectalis Which of these structures is not a component of the bladder? A. Vesical trigone B. Detrusor muscle C. Pubovesical muscle D. Ureteric ostia E. Vesical sphincter The male urethra traverses all of the following structures except the: A. Prostate gland B. Ejaculatory duct C. Urogenital diaphragm D. Sphincter urethra E. E. Internal urethral orifice Which of the following arteries is the chief blood supply of the perineum? A. Obturator B. Superior gluteal C. Iliolumbar 42. 43. A. B. C. D. E. 44. 45. A. B. C. D. E. 46. A. B. C. D. E. 47. A. B. C. D. E. 48. A. B. C. D. E. 49. D. External iliac E. Internal pudendal The superior gluteal artery is a branch of the: A. Obturator B. Internal iliac C. Internal pudendal D. Iliolumbar E. Middle rectal The left ovarian artery originates from the: External iliac artery Internal iliac artery Left renal artery Left common iliac artery Abdominal part of the aorta. Femoral hernia descends into the thigh behind which of the following ligaments? A. Iliopectineal B. Lacunar C. Reflected inguinal D. Falx inguinalis E. EInguinal Abduction of the hip joint is limited by the: Pectineus muscle Iliofemoral ligament Ischiofemoral ligament Pubofemoral ligament Ligament of the head of the femur. Which of the following muscles creates floor of femoral triangle? m. sartorius, m. pectineus. m. quadratus femoris, mm. gemelli m. quadratus femoris, m. sartorius m. ilio-psoas, m. pectineus. A patient after the injury diagnosed anterior-lower hip dislocation. Between which of the following ligaments hip dislocation could be present? ilio-femoral and pubo-femoral; pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral; pubo-femoral and inguinal; ischio-femoral and inguinal; pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral; Hritti-Szymanowskyy’s amputation of thigh in lower third belongs to which of the following types of amputations? fascioplastic; conico-circular; myoplastic; circular; osteoplastic; A thirty year old woman developed a mass in the proximal portion of the femoral triangle. The mass was soft but tended to bulge whenever she coughed or strained. The most probable diagnosis is a(n): A. Aneurysm of the femoral artery B. Lipoma C. Lymph node D. Femoral hernia E. Thrombosis of the great saphenous vein 50. The only muscle in the following group which is an effective medial rotator of the hip joint is the: A. Gluteus maximus B. Gluteus minimus C. Quadratus femoris D. Obturator internus E. Piriformis 51. The muscle which is primarily concerned with “unlocking the knee joint” from full extension before flexion can begin is the: A. Popliteus B. Semimembranosus C. Semitendinosus D. Biceps femoris E. Quadriceps femoris 52. The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg are all inserted into the: A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Tubercle of the navicular D. Talus E. Calcaneus 53. The gluteus maximus muscle is involved in: A. Extension of the hip B. Abduction of the hip C. Adduction of the hip D. Lateral rotation of the hip E. All are correct 54. After injury to a nerve at the wrist, the thumb is laterally rotated and adducted. The hand looks flattened and apelike. The nerve that has been damaged is the: A. Anterior interosseus nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Deep branch of the radial nerve D. Median nerve E. Superficial branch of the radial nerve. 55. The following statements concerning the blood vessels of the upper limb are correct except which? A. The pulsation of the radial artery are felt anterior to the distal third of the radius between the tendons of the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis B. The axillary vein is formed by the union of the venae comitantes of the brachial artery and the basilic vein C. The cephalic vein arises on the palm of the hand D. The axillary sheath surrounds the axillary vessels and the brachial plexus E. The cephalic vein drains into the axillary vein. 56. Which of the following arteries arise from the axillary artery within the pectoral triangle? A. A. thoracica lateralis B. A. transversae colli C. A. circumflexa scapulae D. A. thoracodorsalis E. A. circumflexa humeri anterior. 57. A surgeon who wishes to find the ulnar nerve in the forearm may find it as it passes between the two heads of the: A. Pronator teres B. Flexor digitorum superficialis C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Flexor carpi ulnaris 58. 59. 60. A. B. C. D. E. 61. A. B. C. D. E. 62. A. B. C. D. E. 63. A. B. C. D. E. 64. 65. A. B. C. D. E. E. Extensor carpi ulnaris Which of the following structures is most superficial of the structures passing deep to the flexor retinaculum? A. Tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 3 and 4 B. The median nerve C. Tendon of the flexor indicis proprius D. Tendon of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 1 and 5 E. The ulnar nerve Adduction of the thumb requires use of a muscle(s) which is/are innervated by the: A. Median nerve B. Ulnar nerve C. Radial nerve D. Median and ulnar nerves E. Median, radial and ulnar nerves Where is place of injection in case of puncture of the shoulder joint on external surface of shoulder? on 1 сm lateral from greater tubercle of humeral bone; above acromion; beneath posterior edge of acromion; along posterior edge of m. deltoideus; on 2 сm below acromion, above greater tubercle of humeral bone; Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles lies in superficial subpectoral space? anterior branches of thoracic nerves; internal thoracic artery; brachial plexus; subcostal nerve; thoraco-acromial artery; Which of the followig structures of main vasculo-nervous bundle of axillary fossa is located in front of subscapular artery? n. radialis; n. ulnaris; n. axillaris; axillaris; n. medianus; Which of the following nerves is the biggest nerve of axillary fossa? n. medianus; n. ulnaris; n. cutaneus brachii; n. musculo-cutaneus; n. radialis. Which of the following arteries arise from axillary artery near superior edge of tendon of m. latissimus dorsi? A. thoracoacromialis; B. subscapularis; C. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. thoracica superior; D. circumflexa scapulae; E. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior; What is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the humerus? n. medianus; n. ulnaris; n. musculo-cutaneus; n. axillaris; n. radialis; 66. Which of the following nerves is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the surgical neck of humerus? A. n. medianus; B. n. radialis; C. n. ulnaris; D. n. musculo-cutaneus; E. n. axillaris; 67. At which of the following levels division of radial nerve at the deep and superficial branches is present? A. 5-7 сm above processus styloideus of ulnar bone; B. 5-7 сm below processus styloideus of ulnar bone; C. at level of processus styloideus of ulnar bone; D. 2 сm above of joint line; E. at level of joint line; 68. Which of the following surgical approaches is used in case of arthrotomy of shoulder joint after Langenbeck? A. 8-10 cm downwards from acromion; B. on posterior edge of deltoid muscle; C. through deltoid muscle; D. on sulcus deltoideo-pectoralis; E. on anterior edge of deltoid muscle; 69. What is Sharp’s surgery? A. Disarticulation in tarsometatarsal articulations B. Amputation in continuity of metatarsal bones C. Tarsal bones amputation D. Disarticulation in metatarsophalangeal articulations E. None of the above. 70. Following an amputation at midleg the fibular bone would be cutted above the shin bone on: A. 1-2 cm B. 2-3 cm C. 3-4 cm D. 4-5 cm E. 5-6 cm. 71. Following a forearm amputation the radial bone would be cutted above the ulnar bone on: A. 1-2 cm B. 2-3 cm C. 3-4 cm D. 4-5 cm E. 5-6 cm. 72. Extremities amputation in case of frostbite would be performed not earlier than: A. 1-2 days B. 2-3 days C. 3-4 days D. 4-5 days E. 5-6 days. 73. Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic: A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov B. Pyrogov’s leg amputation C. Sharp’s operation D. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation E. Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef. 74. Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic: A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov B. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation C. D. E. 75. A. B. C. D. E. 76. A. B. C. D. E. 77. A. B. C. D. E. 78. A. B. C. D. E. 79. A. B. C. D. E. 80. A. B. C. D. E. 81. A. B. C. D. E. 82. A. B. C. D. E. 83. A. Sharp’s operation Thigh amputation by Gritti-Shymanovsky Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef. Following a Gritti-Shymanovsky’s amputation: The femoral bone stump would be covered by the patella The femoral bone stump would be covered by the shin bone gibbosity The shin bone stump would be covered by the heel bone The femoral bone stump would be covered by the heel bone The shin bone stump would be covered by the patella. What is cinematic amputation: Finger formation by I metacarpal bone Two fingers formation by ulnar and radial bones Finger formation by ulnar bone Finger formation by radial bone None of the above. What is neurolysis? Release nerve from scar tissues Nerve suture Nerve cutting Nerve grafting Neuroma resection. What is neurorrhaphy? Release nerve from scar tissues Nerve suture Nerve cutting Nerve grafting Neuroma resection. Tendon suture is placed by: Catgut Polyester Silk Polydioxanon None of the above. Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after arthrotomy of shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following muscles is damaged? m. triceps brachii m. deltoideus m. biceps brachii m. coracobrachialis m. pectoralis major. How many joints form the elbow joint? 1 2 3 4 5. How many volvuluses has the knee joint? 3 5 7 8 9. Complication after Langenbek’s knee joint arthronomy is damage of: n. peroneus communis B. C. D. E. 84. A. B. C. D. E. 85. A. B. C. D. E. 86. 87. A. B. C. D. E. 88. F. G. H. I. J. 89. 90. 91. A. B. C. D. n. tibialis n. peroneus superficialis n. peroneus profundus n. suralis. Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after arthrotomy of shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following nerves is damaged? n. radialis n. ulnaris n. medianus n. musculocutaneus n. axillaris. Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. tibialis anterior at lower leg third would be developed by: a. peronea rete articulare genu a. malleolaris anterior lateralis a. malleolaris anterior medialis a. dorsalis pedis. Projection line of joint space for proximal phalanx is situated on dorsal surface on ___ mm more distally then corner that formed after flexion this phalanx. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 8. The scar tissue in case of amputation of finger phalanx would be situated on _______ surface: Dorsal Palmar Ulnar Radial Lower. Following a forearm amputation the radial bone would be cutted above the ulnar bone on: 1-2 cm 2-3 cm 3-4 cm 4-5 cm 5-6 cm. Subperiostal method of the bone treatment is: A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level D. None of the above E. All of the above. Periostal method of the bone treatment is: A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level D. None of the above E. All of the above. N. cutaneus brachii lateralis superior arises from which of the following nervous structures? lateral trunk of brachial plexus; medial trunk of brachial plexus; posterior trunk of brachial plexus; n. axillaris; E. 92. F. G. H. I. J. 93. A. B. C. D. E. 94. A. B. C. D. E. 95. F. G. H. I. J. 96. 97. 98. 99. lateral trunk of brachial plexus; What is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the humerus? n. medianus; n. ulnaris; n. musculo-cutaneus; n. axillaris; n. radialis; Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles is located in subdeltoid cellular space? n. radialis, a. circumflexa humeri posterior; n. musculo-cutaneus, a. circumflexa humeri anterior; circumflexa humeri posterior, n. ulnaris; n. subscapularis, a. circumflexa humeri anterior; n. axillaris, a. circumflexa humeri posterior; A. circumflexa scapulae and deep branches of a. transversa colli are located under which of the following muscles? m. serratus inferior; m. teres minor; m. infraspinatus. m. deltoideus; m. trapezius; Where is place of injection in case of puncture of the shoulder joint on external surface of shoulder? on 1 сm lateral from greater tubercle of humeral bone; above acromion; beneath posterior edge of acromion; along posterior edge of m. deltoideus; on 2 сm below acromion, above greater tubercle of humeral bone; Adduction of the thumb requires use of a muscle(s) which is/are innervated by the: F. Median nerve G. Ulnar nerve H. Radial nerve I. Median and ulnar nerves J. Median, radial and ulnar nerves Which of the following muscles does not participate directly in the formation of the extensor expansion (hood) of the middle finger: A. The second lumbrical B. The second dorsal interosseous C. The third dorsal interosseous D. The second palmar interosseous E. The extensor digitorum Simultaneous contraction of the flexor carpi ulnaris and the extensor carpi ulnaris requires activation of the: A. Median and ulnar nerves B. Radial nerve alone C. Radial and median nerves D. Ulnar and radial nerves E. None of these Which of the following structures is most superficial of the structures passing deep to the flexor retinaculum? F. Tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 3 and 4 G. The median nerve H. Tendon of the flexor indicis proprius I. Tendon of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 1 and 5 J. The ulnar nerve 100. Following a slash wound in the forearm the only disability was lack of extension of the terminal phalanx of the thumb. You know that the _____ has been severed. A. Extensor pollicis longus B. Extensor pollicis brevis C. Abductor pollicis longus D. Abductor pollicis brevis E. Deep branch of the radial nerve