Download Module 1. Which of the following nerves lies on spermatic cord

Module 1.
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Which of the following nerves lies on spermatic cord within inguinal canal?
intercostalis
ilioinguinalis
anterior scrotal
pudendal
lumbalis
Why a surgeon can not cut compressed ring before incision of hernial sac?
possibility of damage of parietal peritoneum
possibility of damage of visceral peritoneum
because of necessity to check viability of compressed organs
possibility of damage of contents of hernial sac
inability to perform grafting
Which of the following anatomical structures belongs to the round ligament of liver?
obliterated umbilical artery
urachus
ductus choledochus
obliterated umbilical vein
obliterated umbilical artery and vein
During surgery injury of small intestine wall was founded. Which of the surgery should be
performed?
intestinal suture
intestinal resection
enterotomy
enterostomy
enteropexy
A patient with perforated stomach ulcer has complication – subdiaphragmal abscess. Which of
the following abdominal spaces should be drainaged first?
omental bursa
pancreatic
left lateral abdominal canal
mesenteric sinuses
hepatic bursa
During cholecystectomy bleeding from hepatic bed was found. The bleeding was arrested by
pressing of hepato-duodenal ligament in region of omental opening. Which of the following
arteries was pressed in this case?
right hepatic artery
left hepatic artery
common hepatic artery
proper hepatic artery
gastroepiploic artery
What is the name of part of small intestine wall that is not covered with peritoneum?
margo mesenterica
pars nuda
margo epiploica
pars mesenterica
pars epiploica
Which of the following approaches to pancreas is most comfortable?
through gastro-epiploic ligament
Through mesentery of transverse colon
extraperitoneal approach
in according to site of surgery
through omental bursa
9.
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Porto-caval anastomoses are good developed in which of the following regions?
stomach, caecum
large intestine, stomach
duodenum,large intestine
caecum, large intestine
esophagus, rectum, ventral abdominal wall
Inferior caval vein lies within which of the following hepatic ligaments?
lig. coronarium
lig. triangulare dexter
lig. triangulare sinister
lig.hepatorenalis
lig. falciforme
What is congenital inguinal hernia?
direct
direct and indirect
reducible
incarcerating
indirect
Branches of superior mesenteric artery are:
ilio-colic, right colic, middle colic
ilio-colic, right colic
right colic, middle colic
ileum, colic, middle colic
right and middle colic
Branches of inferior mesenteric artery are:
right colic, middle colic, superior rectal
left colic, middle colic
C.colic, middle colic, sygmoid
right colic, middle colic
left colic, sygmoid, superior rectal
What is Gartmann’s pocket?
dilatation of gallbladder neck
dilatation of choledoch duct
bend in place of gallbladder body
dilatation of gallbladder fundus
dilatation of gallbladder
A surgeon completes the appendectomy. The stump of appendix should be immersed by which
of the following sutures?
Albert’s suture
sero-serous suture
marginal suture
Schmiden's suture
purse-string suture
During cholecystectomy surgeon found Kallo’s triangle. This triangle is landmark for which of the
folowing structures?
choledoch duct
left hepatic artery
right hepatic artery
cystic artery
cystic duct
Which of the following arteries should be left in case of subtotal stomach resection?
right gastro-epiploic artery
common hepatic artery
right gastric artery
D. gastro-duodenal artery
E. left gastric artery
18. A surgeon performed removing of right part of large intestine. Which of the following arteries
should be ligated?
A. а. colica sinistra
B. а. gastroduodenalis
C. а. mesenterica superior
D. а. mesenterica inferior
E. а. colica dextra
19. There was bleeding from gallbladder bed during antegrade cholecystectomy. The surgeon press
lig. hepatoduodenale for temporary arrest bleeding. Which of the following vessels are within
this ligament?
A. а. hepatica communis
B. а. hepatica communis, v. роrta
C. а. hepatica propria, v. роrta
D. а. суstica and v. роrta
E. а. суstica, v. роrta
20. A surgeon cut gastro-colic ligament during operative access to contents of omental bursa. Which
of the following arteries was ligated and cutted in this case?
A. left and right gastric
B. proper hepatic and gastro-duodenal
C. left and right gastro-epiploic
D. proper gastric
E. short gastric
21. Which of the following anatomical structures passes through inguinal canal in male?
A. obturator artery
B. internal pudendal artery
C. pudendal nerve
D. ilio-hypogastric nerve
E. testicular artery
22. V. jugularis externa formes at which of the following levels?
A. level of cricoid cartilage
B. level of thyroid cartilage
C. level of 7-8 tracheal rings
D. level of thymus
E. level of angle of mandible
23. V. facialis passes along which of the following surfaces of submandibular gland?
A. external surface
B. internal surface
C. lateral surface
D. medial surface
E. superior surface
24. At which of the following levels the pleural cavities are most closely adjacent to each other in
interpleural space?
A. I rib
B. V rib
C. VI rib
D. VII rib
E. III rib
25. Veins from thoracic part of esophagus flow into which of the following veins?
A. inferior caval vein
B. intercostal veins
C. internal thoracic vein
D. superior caval vein
E.
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azygos vein
How we should cut pericardium during operative approach to heart?
transverse incision
combined incision
oblique incision
V-shaped incision
longitudinal incision
Universal approach to heart is:
paravertebral
sternotomy
posterior-lateral
lateral
middle-lateral
The biggest sinus of pericardium is:
transverse
longitudinal
vertical
anterio-lower
obligue
On a hot summer evening, two not-overly-virtuous young ladies got into a scuffle over which
one would go home with a medical student. They came too near a powerful exhaust fan which
caught the hair of one of them and scalped her. The bloody, hairy mass whirling in the fan had
separated between the:
Skin and subcutaneous tissue
Subcutaneous tissue and the aponeurosis
Aponeurosis and the periosteum
Periosteum and the bone
Outer table of the skull and the diploic space
The superior cervical cardiac nerve originates from:
Cervical nerves 3 and 4
Cervical nerve 5
The superior cervical sympathetic ganglion
The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion
The inferior cervical sympathetic ganglion
An infiltrating tumor which involves the stellate ganglion (fused inferior cervical and first
thoracic sympathetic ganglion) would lead to which of the following symptoms on the involved
side of the face?
Constriction of the pupil
Excessive sweating and flushing of the skin
Excessive dryness of the mouth and sweating
Constriction of the pupil and flushing of the skin
Constriction of the pupil and excessive sweating
Which of the following anatomical structures should be stitched in third layer in case of small
penetrating wound of chest wall?
pleura, intrathoracic fascia
skin, subcutaneous tissue, superficial fascia
intercostal muscles
superficial muscles, superficial fascia
skin, intrathoracic fascia
Puncture in case of presence of fluid in pleural cavity should be done at which of the following
lines?
midclavicular line
between midclavicular and anterior axillary lines
middle axillary line
D. paravertebral
E. between middle axillary and scapular lines
34. Skin incision in case of anterior lateral thoracotomy should be began at which of the following
levels?
A. cartilage of III rib at middle axillary line
B. cartilage of III rib at parasternal line
C. cartilage of IV rib at midclavicular line
D. cartilage of IV rib at anterior axillary line
E. V intercostal space at anterior axillary line
35. Lower border of lungs at midclavicular line is:
A. upper edge of VI rib
B. lower edge of VI rib
C. lower edge of VII rib
D. VIII rib
E. upper edge of VII rib
36. Projection of pleural cupula from behind is:
A. spinal process of V cervical vertebra
B. spinal process of VI cervical vertebra
C. 1 сm above clavicle
D. 2-3 сm above clavicle
E. spinal process of VII cervical vertebra
37. Main way of lymph draining from mammary gland is:
A. parasternal lymph nodes
B. intercostal, mediastinal lymph nodes
C. axillary lymph nodes
D. prevertebral lymph nodes
E. visceral abdominal lymph nodes
38. Sources of blood supply of mammary gland are:
A. thyro-cervical trunk, subscapular artery
B. internal thoracic, subscapular arteries
C. thoraco-acromial, subclavian arteries
D. axillary, subscapular arteries
E. lateral thoracic artery, intercostal arteries, internal thoracic artery
39. Pericardio-diaphragmatic artery arises from internal thoracic artery at which of the following
levels?
A. II rib
B. III rib
C. V rib
D. VI rib
E. I rib
40. Internal thoracic artery locates at which of the following distance from lateral sternal edge in
retrosternal space at level of I intercostal space?
A. 2-3 mm
B. 10-13 mm
C. 5-10 mm
D. 15-18 mm
E. tо 20 mm
41. Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles goes within subcutaneous tissue at level of
middle axillary line?
A. internal thoracic artery, subclavian nerve
B. lateral thoracic artery, long thoracic nerve
C. costo-cervical artery, dorsal nerve
D. superior thoracic artery, subclavian nerve
E. dorsal nerve, internal thoracic artery
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Which of the following arteries goes in antescalenus space in transverse direction?
subscapular artery
suprascapular artery
transverse cervical artery
superficial cervical artery
dorsal scapular artery
Which f the following branches arises from subclavian artery before its entrance to
interscalenus space of neck?
thyro-cervical trunk
internal thoracic artery
costo-cervical trunk
deep cervical artery
vertebral artery
Which of the following nerves forms thyroid nervous plexus?
recurrent laryngeal nerve
superior laryngeal nerve
accessory nerve
hypoglossal nerve
phrenic nerve
Branches of which of these thyroid arteries is crossed by recurrent laryngeal nerve on posterior
surface of lateral lobe of thyroid gland?
superior thyroid artery
proper thyroid artery
unpair thyroid artery
middle thyroid artery
inferior thyroid artery
Which of the following vessels passes on anterior surface of trachea at level of sterno-clavicular
junction?
arch of aorta
isthmus of aorta
brachio-cephalic trunk
subclavian artery
comon carotid artery
Superior thyroid artery is branch of which of the following arteries?
internal carotid artery
external carotid artery
superior laryngeal artery
inferior laryngeal artery
subclavian artery
Specify the characteristic of facial vein:
undulating course
thick wall
situated near the corner of the mouth
situated at midpoint of anterior edge of masseter muscle
straight course
Which of the following structures lies most closely to esophagus within carotid triangle?
internal jugular vein
vagus nerve
external jugular vein
hypoglossal nerve
common carotid artery
Which of these structures could not be damaged by a deep laceration superior to the superior
nuchal line?
Occipital artery
B.
C.
D.
E.
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Greater occipital nerve
Nuchal ligament
Lesser occipital nerve
Occipitofrontalis muscle.
The foramen ovale in the skull
Allows entrance of the spinal part of the accessory nerve into the cranial cavity
Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone
Allows entrance of the middle meningeal artery into the cranial cavity
Allows exit of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
Allows exit of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
The internal acoustic meatus in the skull
Is located in the body of the sphenoid bone
Is located in the mastoid bone
Allows passage of the glossopharyngeal nerve
Allows passage of the facial nerve only
Allows passage of the vestibulocochlear nerve and the facial nerve.
The sphenoid sinus drains into the
Middle meatus of the nose
Superior meatus of the nose
Sphenoethmoidal recess
Inferior meatus of the nose
Nasolacrimal duct.
Which of these statements are not true?
The stylohyoid muscle is supplied by the facial nerve
The styloglossus muscle is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve
The posterior belly of digastric muscle is supplied by the trigeminal nerve
The stylopharyngeal muscle is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve
All of these statements are true.
The maxillary artery is distributed to about the same regions and structures as those supplied by
the:
A. Ophthalmic nerve
B. Maxillary nerve
C. Mandibular nerve
D. Ophthalmic and mandibular nerves
E. Maxillary and mandibular nerves.
56. Following a boil on the upper lip, a rural lowan became comatose. The infection has spread to
the cavernous sinus from the facial vein by its communication with the:
A. Occipital sinus
B. Straight sinus
C. Ophthalmic veins.
D. Superior saggital sinus
E. Maxillary sinus
57. The arterial supply to the larynx includes branches of the:
A. Lingual artery
B. Superior thyroid artery
C. Facial artery
D. Inferior thyroid artery
E. Superior and inferior thyroid arteries.
58. The following events occur on inhalation except which?
The diaphragm descends
The external intercostals muscles contract
The abdominal muscles contract and push the abdominal viscera cranially
The ribs are raised
The vertical dimension of the thoracic cavity increases.
59. The following statements concerning the main bronchi are correct except which?
A. The right main bronchus is wider than the left main bronchus
B. The left main bronchus gives off the superior lobar bronchus before entering the hilum of the
lung.
C. The right main bronchus is shorter than the left main bronchus
D. The right main bronchus is m than the left main bronchus
E. The left main bronchus passes to the left in front of the esophagus
60. The jejunum receives sympathetic nerves from the
A. Vagus nerve
B. Pelvic splanchnic nerves
C. Spinal cord segments L1 and 2
D. Greater splanchnic nerve and lesser splanchnic nerve
E. Spinal cord segments S2, 3 and 4.
61. The jugular foramen in the skull
A. Is located in the petrous part of the temporal bone
B. Allows exit of the hypoglossal nerve
C. Is located in the middle cranial fossa
D. Allows exit of the vagus nerve
E. Allows entrance of the external jugular vein.
62. The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the regions listed below EXCEPT for
the:
A. medial angle of the orbit
B. lateral nose
C. region of the eyebrow
D. upper lip
E. lower lip
63. The pterygomandibular raphe serves as a point of attachment for two important muscles. They
are:
A. superior constrictor and buccinator
B. masseter and inferior constrictor
C. medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid
D. lateral pterygoid and superior constrictor
E. lateral pterygoid and buccinator
64. An acoustic neuroma is a tumor involving the vestibulocochlear nerve as it exits the cranial
cavity. Because this tumor compresses surrounding structures or invades nearby tissues, in
addition to hearing loss and equilibrium problems, a patient would most likely also demonstrate
ipsilateral (same sided):
A. loss of general sensation to the face
B. facial paralysis
C. paralysis of the lateral rectus muscle
D. tongue paralysis
E. ptosis
65. The facial nerve carries fibers subserving all but one of the following functions:
A. Secretomotor to the lacrimal gland
B. Secretomotor to the submandibular gland
C. Motor to the stapedius muscle
D. Some sensation to the soft palate
E. Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
66. A 75 year old patient is experiencing extreme pain in the anterior portion of the alveolar ridge.
This pain is greatest during mastications, when pressure is applied to the area. The gums appear
normal. The patient states that he has worn dentures since the age of 25. which of the following
seems most likely?
A. The pain is due to pressure on the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve
B. The pain is due to pressure on the inferior alveolar nerve at the mandibular foramen
C.
D.
E.
67.
The pain is due to pressure on the mental nerve at the mental foramen
The pain is reffered from the nasopalatine nerve
The pain is psychosomatic
After an autumn night of poker, a medical student noticed that one side of a fellow student’s
face was smooth, his eye would not close, his mouth drooped, and saliva drooled out of the
corner of his mouth. Further examination revealed no change in his ability to taste in the
anterior 2/3 of the tongue. You suspect a lesion (unspecified damage) of the:
A. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve in the jugular foramen
C. Facial nerve in the internal auditory meatus
D. Facial nerve in the middle ear
E. Facial nerve after its exit from the skull
68. Which of these nerves does not supply the skin of the external nose?
A. The external nasal nerve
B. The infraorbital nerve
C. The infratrochlear nerve
D. The supratrochlear nerve
69. All of the above supply itA tonsillar abscess may extend posteriorly through the pharyngeal wall
into the:
A. Pleural cavity
B. Anterior triangle of the neck
C. Retropharyngeal space
D. Suprasternal space
E. Pharyngeal tonsil
70. Which of the following nerves might be injured when tying the inferior thyroid artery during
operations on the thyroid gland?
A. The sympathetic trunk
B. The internal laryngeal nerve
C. The descendens cervicalis
D. The recurrent laryngeal nerve
E. The superior laryngeal nerve.
71. Recurrent laryngeal nerves
A. Arises from tenth cranial nerve in the jugular foramen
B. Supply all muscles of the vocal cords
C. Remain safe if inferior thyroid arteries are ligated away from the thyroid gland
D. Are so named because they curve around larynx
E. Sensory to larynx and pharynx
72. A 69-year-old woman complaining of a burning pain over the left shoulder and upper part of the
left arm was seen by her physician. The pain had started approximately 2 weeks previously and
had progressively worsened. The pain was made worse by moving the neck. At physical
examination, the patient showed hyperesthesia of the skin over the lower part of the left
deltoid muscle and down the lateral side of the arm. In addition, her left deltoid and biceps
brachii muscles were weaker than those on the right side. At radiologic examination, extensive
osteoarthritic changes of the vertebrae with spur formation on the bodies of the fourth, fifth,
and sixth cervical vertebrae were seen. The weakness of the left deltoid and biceps brachii
muscles could have resulted from pressure on which nerve roots?
A. The posterior nerve roots of C5 and 6
B. The anterior nerve roots of C5 and 6
C. The anterior nerve roots of C7 and 8
D. The anterior nerve roots of C8 and T1
E. None of these
73. The main method of surgical treatment of nodular goiter is:
A. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid lobe with node
B. Resection of thyroid gland
C. Strumectomy
D. All methods can be used
E. None of the above
74. Length of tracheal incision is equal to diameter of which of the following instruments?
A. Tracheostomy cannula
B. Tracheal dilator
C. Wound dilator
D. Bronchoscope
E. Artificial airway
75. Indication for tracheostomy:
A. Damage of larynx or trachea if it is found to be impossible to remove of asphyxia
B. Tracheoesophageal fistula
C. Chondroperichondritis of larynx
D. Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma
E. Laryngeal cyst
76. Within the superior mediastinum, the anterior surface of the esophagus is in contact with the:
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column
B. Thoracic duct
C. Thymus
D. Arch of the aorta
E. Trachea
77. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the descending thoracic aorta except the:
A. Posterior intercostal
B. Esophageal
C. Left subclavian
D. Bronchial
E. Pericardial
78. Innervation of pleura can be described correctly by all of these statements except:
A. Costal pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves
B. The central portion of diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve
C. Peripheral diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves
D. Mediastinal pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve
E. The pain of pleurisy is mediated by autonomic nerves
79. All the following structures empty into the right atrium of the heart except the:
A. Coronary sinus
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Superior vena cava
D. Anterior cardiac veins
E. Pulmonary veins
80. The superior vena cava returns blood from all of these structures except the:
A. Head
B. Lungs
C. Neck
D. Upper limb
E. Thoracic wall
81. A 55 year old woman dies of septicemia after going to the emergency department with severe
abdominal pain. She lost 15 kg in the past 2 months and complained of severe pain after meals.
Postmortem findings including severe aortic atherosclerosis and a segment of necrotic bowel
extending from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon. A blockage in which of the following
arteries would best support these findings?
A. Common iliac arteries
B. Common hepatic artery
C. Superior mesenteric artery
D. Inferior mesenteric artery
E. Splenic artery
82. During a splenectomy (removal of the spleen) which of the following structures is most likely to
be encountered?
A. The left suprarenal
B. The pancreas
C. The left ureter
D. The inferior mesenteric vein
E. The superior mesenteric vein
83. Which of the following are true of the bare area of the liver?
A. The inferior vena cava is closely related to the bare area of the liver
B. The bare area is bounded above by the anterior (superior) coronary ligament
C. The bare area is bounded below by the posterior (inferior) coronary ligament
D. The bare area is bounded to the left by the groove for the ligamentum venosum
E. All are correct
84. A tonsillar abscess may extend posteriorly through the pharyngeal wall into the:
A. Pleural cavity
B. Anterior triangle of the neck
C. Suprasternal space
D. Pharyngeal tonsil
E. Retropharyngeal space
85. Which of the following nerves might be injured when tying the inferior thyroid artery during
operations on the thyroid gland?
F. The sympathetic trunk
G. The internal laryngeal nerve
H. The descendens cervicalis
I. The recurrent laryngeal nerve
J. The superior laryngeal nerve.
86. Recurrent laryngeal nerves
F. Arises from tenth cranial nerve in the jugular foramen
G. Supply all muscles of the vocal cords
H. Remain safe if inferior thyroid arteries are ligated away from the thyroid gland
I. Are so named because they curve around larynx
J. Sensory to larynx and pharynx
87. A 69-year-old woman complaining of a burning pain over the left shoulder and upper part of the
left arm was seen by her physician. The pain had started approximately 2 weeks previously and
had progressively worsened. The pain was made worse by moving the neck. At physical
examination, the patient showed hyperesthesia of the skin over the lower part of the left
deltoid muscle and down the lateral side of the arm. In addition, her left deltoid and biceps
brachii muscles were weaker than those on the right side. At radiologic examination, extensive
osteoarthritic changes of the vertebrae with spur formation on the bodies of the fourth, fifth,
and sixth cervical vertebrae were seen. The weakness of the left deltoid and biceps brachii
muscles could have resulted from pressure on which nerve roots?
F. The posterior nerve roots of C5 and 6
G. The anterior nerve roots of C5 and 6
H. The anterior nerve roots of C7 and 8
I. The anterior nerve roots of C8 and T1
J. None of these
88. The main method of surgical treatment of nodular goiter is:
F. Subtotal subfascial resection of thyroid lobe with node
G. Resection of thyroid gland
H. Strumectomy
I. All methods can be used
J. None of the above
89. Length of tracheal incision is equal to diameter of which of the following instruments?
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
Tracheostomy cannula
Tracheal dilator
Wound dilator
Bronchoscope
Artificial airway
90. Indication for tracheostomy:
Damage of larynx or trachea if it is found to be impossible to remove of asphyxia
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Chondroperichondritis of larynx
Compression of recurrent nerve by hematoma
Laryngeal cyst
91. Within the superior mediastinum, the anterior surface of the esophagus is in contact with the:
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament of the vertebral column
B. Thoracic duct
C. Thymus
D. Arch of the aorta
E. Trachea
92. Each of the following arteries is a branch of the descending thoracic aorta except the:
A. Posterior intercostal
B. Esophageal
C. Bronchial
D. Pericardial
E. Left subclavian
93. Innervation of pleura can be described correctly by all of these statements except:
A. Costal pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves
B. The central portion of diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve
C. Peripheral diaphragmatic pleura is supplied by intercostal nerves
D. Mediastinal pleura is supplied by the phrenic nerve
E. The pain of pleurisy is mediated by autonomic nerves
94. All the following structures empty into the right atrium of the heart except the:
A. Coronary sinus
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Superior vena cava
D. Anterior cardiac veins
E. Pulmonary veins
95. The superior vena cava returns blood from all of these structures except the:
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Upper limb
D. Thoracic wall
E. Lungs
96. A 55 year old woman dies of septicemia after going to the emergency department with severe
abdominal pain. She lost 15 kg in the past 2 months and complained of severe pain after meals.
Postmortem findings including severe aortic atherosclerosis and a segment of necrotic bowel
extending from the splenic flexure to the sigmoid colon. A blockage in which of the following
arteries would best support these findings?
A. Common iliac arteries
B. Common hepatic artery
C. Superior mesenteric artery
D. Inferior mesenteric artery
E. Splenic artery
97. During a splenectomy (removal of the spleen) which of the following structures is most likely to
be encountered?
F. The left suprarenal
G. The pancreas
H. The left ureter
I. The inferior mesenteric vein
J. The superior mesenteric vein
98. Which of the following are true of the bare area of the liver?
F. The inferior vena cava is closely related to the bare area of the liver
G. The bare area is bounded above by the anterior (superior) coronary ligament
H. The bare area is bounded below by the posterior (inferior) coronary ligament
I. The bare area is bounded to the left by the groove for the ligamentum venosum
J. All are correct
99. Appendix:
A. Is longer in male than in female
B. Has 2 bands of longitudinal muscle
C. Has mesoappendix
D. Cover entirely by peritoneum
E. Relates to both ureters
100.
A student examining a rather thin female patient was excited when he found a
somewhat elongated palpable mass in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. He has probably
palpated:
A. An ovarian cyst
B. A mass in the ileum
C. The inferior pole of the left kidney
D. A normal sigmoid colon
E. An enlarged lymph node
101.
Which of the following structures a surgeon can expect to find behind the first part of
the duodenum?
A. The portal vein
B. The gastroduodenal artery
C. The common bile duct
D. All of the above
E. Two of the above
102.
Which of the following abdominal viscera can normally be felt in a thin individual?
A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. The pancreas
D. The sigmoid colon
E. All of these
103.
Sigmoid colon:
A. Extends from pelvic brim to S2
B. Relates to both ureters
C. Is longer in male than in female
D. Indirectly drain into splenic vein
E. All of the above are true
104.
Sigmoid colon:
A. Cover entirely by peritoneum
B. Extends from pelvic brim to S2
C. Relates to both ureters
D. Is longer in male than in female
E. All of the above are untrue
105.
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the:
A. Stomach
B. Cecum
C. Liver
D. Kidney
E. Abdominal part of the esophagus
106.
The left kidney is related to all of the following except the:
A. Liver
B. Suprarenal gland
C. Pancreas
D. Spleen
E. Colon
107.
An invasive tumor of the right suprarenal gland may invade all but which one of the
following?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Right kidney
C. Diaphragm
D. Gall bladder
E. Liver
Модуль 2
1. Cellular retroperitoneal space is representetad by which of the following layers:
A. retroperitoneal, perirenal, periureteral cellular spaces;
B. retroperitoneal, perirenal;
C. perirenal, periureteral, pericystic;
D. perirenal, pericolic, pericystic
E. pericolic, perirenal, periureteral, retroperitoneal
2. Which of the following vessels and organs are located in retroperitoneal space?
A. aorta, kidney, ureters;
B. suprarenal glands, kidney, inferior caval vein;
C. kidney, suprarenal gland, ureters;
D. kidney, suprarenal gland, ureters, abdominal aorta, inferior caval vein;
E. kidney, suprarenal gland, renal arteries
3. Suturing of mucous layer of urinary bladder in case of cystostomy could lead to the:
A. inflammation;
B. bleeding;
C. edema of urinary bladder
D. fistula
E. formation of stones
4. Which of the followig incisions is used in case of submucous paraproctitis?
A. radial incision to anus;
B. arcuate incision, 4-5 cm from anus;
C. through posterior fornix of vagina;
D. z-shaped incision.
E. from inside of rectum;
5. A man with trauma of leg amputation was performed in 10 hours after injury. It was:
A. secondary late;
B. secondary early;
C. reamputation;
D. necrectomy.
E. primary;
6. Which of the following arteries is the biggest branch of femoral artery?
A. a. epigastrica superficialis;
B. a. epigastrica superficialis;
C. a. pudenda externa;
D. a. genus descendens;
E. a. profunda femoris;
7. Sciatic nerve divides into its branches at which of the following distance from joint line?
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
15.
A. 10-12 сm;
B. 13-14 сm;
C. 14-15 сm;
D. at level of popliteal fossa;
E. 7-9 сm;
Which of the following muscles attaches to the head of the fibula?
A. m. semitendinosus;
B. m. semimembranosus;
C. m. quadriceps femoris;
D. m. adductor magnus;
E. m. biceps femoris;
Which of the following anatomical structures forms external wall of femoral canal?
A. a. femoralis;
B. n. saphenus;
C. n. ishiadicus;
D. n. femoralis;
E. v. femoralis;
Anterior wall of femoral canal is formed by:
A. m. adductor longus;
B. v. femoralis;
C. m. gracilis;
D. f. pectinea;
E. f. lata;
A. рoplitea enters the popliteal fossa after which of the following canals?
A. canalis cruropopliteus;
B. canalis musculoperonaeus superior;
C. canalis musculoperonaeus inferior;
D. all are false;
E. сanalis adductorius;
What are the absolute indications for amputations?
A. traumatic limb abruption;
B. chronic osteomyelitis of limb with danger of development of internal organs
amyloidosis;
C. severe purulent infection that threatens the health of the patient (gangrene);
D. malignant tumor;
E. all of these;
Which of the following vessels should be ligated in case of injury of gluteal region?
A. superior gluteal artery;
B. obturator artery;
C. common iliac artery;
D. external iliac artery;
E. internal iliac artery;
What is reamputation:
Second amputation
Amputation after 48 hours
Amputation after 7-8 days
Final amputation
Repeated amputation
What is amputation?
A. Cutting of the distal part for the extremity length
B. Cutting of the distal part through the joint line
C. Cutting of the proximal part for the extremity length
D. Cutting of the distal extremity part
E. None of the above.
16. What is disarticulation?
A. Cutting of the distal part for the extremity length
B. Cutting of the distal part through the joint line
C. Cutting of the proximal part for the extremity length
D. Cutting of the distal extremity part
E. None of the above.
17. What is the level of amputation?
A. Level of skin cutting
B. Level of superficial muscles cutting
C. Level of bone cutting
D. Level of deep muscles cutting
E. Level of skin and superficial muscles cutting.
18. Which of the following surfaces is working for III and IV fingers:
A. Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Ulnar
D. Radial
E. All of the above.
19. Which of the following surfaces is working for II finger:
A. Palmar
B. Dorsal
C. Palmar and dorsal
D. Palmar and ulnar
E. Palmar and radial.
20. What is primary amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days.
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
E. Amputation in case of false extremity position.
21. What is final amputation?
A. Primary surgical debridement with removal of unviable extremity part
B. Amputation after 7-8 days
C. Amputation in cases of osteomyelitis or multiple ankylosis
D. Amputation in case of false stump that is impossible to make prosthetic appliance
E. Amputation in case of false extremity position.
22. The first step of amputation is:
A. Soft tissue cutting
B. Cutting and treatment of the bone
C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation
D. Stump formation
E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles.
23. The third step of amputation is:
A. Soft tissue cutting
B. Cutting and treatment of the bone
C. Vessels, nerves treatment and stump formation
D. Stump formation
E. Cutting of the fascia and muscles.
24. Nerve is cutted above _____ cm from amputation level.
A. 2-3
B. 3-4
C. 4-5
D. 5-6
E. 6-7
25. Blood supplying of superior parts of ureters is realize by branches of which of the following
vessels?
A. superior rectal artery;
B. abdominal aorta;
C. uterine arteries;
D. obturator artery;
E. renal artery
26. Which of the following operative interventions is performed for extraction of nephrolith from
the renal pelvis:
A. Nephrostomy
B. Pyelotomy
C. Nephrotomy
D. Nephropexy
E. Nephrectomy.
27. What is the name of operation for kidney fixation in case of nephroptosis:
A. Pyelotomy
B. Nephrotomy
C. Nephrostomy
D. Nephrectomy
E. Nephropexy.
28. Syntopy of the left kidney is represent by the following:
A. Loops of the small intestine, costal part of the diaphragm, descending colon at the front
B. Spleen, lower horizontal part of the duodenum at the front
C. Spleen, fundus of stomach, left flexure of colon, tail of pancreas with splenic vessels at the
front
D. Duodenum, pancreas, descending colon at the front
E. Pancreas, spleen, descending colon at the front.
29. What is nephrostomy:
A. Kidney excision
B. Kidney incision
C. Opening of ren pelvis
D. Decapsulation of kidney
E. Renal fistula.
30. In adults, the spinal cord usually ends inferiorly at the:
A. Lower border of S2
B. Upper border of S1
C. Lower border of S4
D. Upper border of coccyx
E. Lower border of L1.
31. The _________ passes between the sixth and seventh cervical vertebrae:
A. Vertebral artery
B. Seventh cervical spinal nerve
C. Sixth cervical spinal nerve
D. Vertebral vein
E. Eight cervical spinal nerve.
32. When performing a lumbar puncture (spinal tap), the following structures are pierced by the
needle except which?
A. The posterior longitudinal ligament
B. The supraspinous ligament
C. The arachnoid mater
D. The ligamentum flavum
E. The dura mater.
33. The following statements concerning the vertebral column are correct except which?
A. The posterior ramus of the first cervical spinal nerve and its continuation, the great occipital
B.
C.
D.
E.
34.
35.
36.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
nerve, supplies the skin over the back of the scalp
When an individual is in the standing position, the line of gravity passes anterior to the cervical
part of the vertebral column and posterior to the thoracic and lumbar regions of the column
The tip of the spine of a thoracic vertebra lies directly behind the vertebral body of the vertebra
below
The intervertebral disc is innervated by a recurrent branch of spinal nerve that enters the
vertebral canal through the intervertebral foramen
The atlantoaxial joints permit rotation of the atlas with the head on the axis.
The right suprarenal vein drains into which of the following veins?
A. Right renal
B. Inferior mesenteric
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Portal
E. Inferior vena cava.
The suprarenal gland receives its blood supply from which of the following arteries?
A. Renal
B. Gonadal
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Inferior mesenteric
E. Superior phrenic.
What is the name of operation of renal calculus extraction from the renal pelvis?
Pyelotomy
Nephrotomy
Nephrectomy
Nephropexy
Neprostomy.
Pelvic splanchnic nerves are:
A. Parasympathetics from the second, third, and fourth sacral spinal cord segments
B. Sympathetics to the second, third, and fourth sac al nerves
C. Direct branches from the sacral sympathetic trunk
D. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers ascending to the abdomen andthorax
E. Direct branches from the lumbar plexus to the pelvic viscera
The pelvic diaphragm is composed of all the following muscles except the:
A. Coccygeus
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Piriformis
D. Pubococcygeus
E. Puborectalis
Which of these structures is not a component of the bladder?
A. Vesical trigone
B. Detrusor muscle
C. Pubovesical muscle
D. Ureteric ostia
E. Vesical sphincter
The male urethra traverses all of the following structures except the:
A. Prostate gland
B. Ejaculatory duct
C. Urogenital diaphragm
D. Sphincter urethra
E. E.
Internal urethral orifice
Which of the following arteries is the chief blood supply of the perineum?
A. Obturator
B. Superior gluteal
C. Iliolumbar
42.
43.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
44.
45.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
47.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
48.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
49.
D. External iliac
E. Internal pudendal
The superior gluteal artery is a branch of the:
A. Obturator
B. Internal iliac
C. Internal pudendal
D. Iliolumbar
E. Middle rectal
The left ovarian artery originates from the:
External iliac artery
Internal iliac artery
Left renal artery
Left common iliac artery
Abdominal part of the aorta.
Femoral hernia descends into the thigh behind which of the following ligaments?
A. Iliopectineal
B. Lacunar
C. Reflected inguinal
D. Falx inguinalis
E. EInguinal
Abduction of the hip joint is limited by the:
Pectineus muscle
Iliofemoral ligament
Ischiofemoral ligament
Pubofemoral ligament
Ligament of the head of the femur.
Which of the following muscles creates floor of femoral triangle?
m. sartorius, m. pectineus.
m. quadratus femoris,
mm. gemelli
m. quadratus femoris, m. sartorius
m. ilio-psoas, m. pectineus.
A patient after the injury diagnosed anterior-lower hip dislocation. Between which of the
following ligaments hip dislocation could be present?
ilio-femoral and pubo-femoral;
pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral;
pubo-femoral and inguinal;
ischio-femoral and inguinal;
pubo-femoral and ischio-femoral;
Hritti-Szymanowskyy’s amputation of thigh in lower third belongs to which of the following
types of amputations?
fascioplastic;
conico-circular;
myoplastic;
circular;
osteoplastic;
A thirty year old woman developed a mass in the proximal portion of the femoral triangle. The
mass was soft but tended to bulge whenever she coughed or strained. The most probable
diagnosis is a(n):
A. Aneurysm of the femoral artery
B. Lipoma
C. Lymph node
D. Femoral hernia
E. Thrombosis of the great saphenous vein
50. The only muscle in the following group which is an effective medial rotator of the hip joint is
the:
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus minimus
C. Quadratus femoris
D. Obturator internus
E. Piriformis
51. The muscle which is primarily concerned with “unlocking the knee joint” from full extension
before flexion can begin is the:
A. Popliteus
B. Semimembranosus
C. Semitendinosus
D. Biceps femoris
E. Quadriceps femoris
52. The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg are all inserted into the:
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Tubercle of the navicular
D. Talus
E. Calcaneus
53. The gluteus maximus muscle is involved in:
A. Extension of the hip
B. Abduction of the hip
C. Adduction of the hip
D. Lateral rotation of the hip
E. All are correct
54. After injury to a nerve at the wrist, the thumb is laterally rotated and adducted. The hand looks
flattened and apelike. The nerve that has been damaged is the:
A. Anterior interosseus nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Deep branch of the radial nerve
D. Median nerve
E. Superficial branch of the radial nerve.
55. The following statements concerning the blood vessels of the upper limb are correct except
which?
A. The pulsation of the radial artery are felt anterior to the distal third of the radius between the
tendons of the brachioradialis and the flexor carpi radialis
B. The axillary vein is formed by the union of the venae comitantes of the brachial artery and the
basilic vein
C. The cephalic vein arises on the palm of the hand
D. The axillary sheath surrounds the axillary vessels and the brachial plexus
E. The cephalic vein drains into the axillary vein.
56. Which of the following arteries arise from the axillary artery within the pectoral triangle?
A. A. thoracica lateralis
B. A. transversae colli
C. A. circumflexa scapulae
D. A. thoracodorsalis
E. A. circumflexa humeri anterior.
57. A surgeon who wishes to find the ulnar nerve in the forearm may find it as it passes between
the two heads of the:
A. Pronator teres
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Flexor digitorum profundus
D. Flexor carpi ulnaris
58.
59.
60.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
61.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
62.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
64.
65.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
E. Extensor carpi ulnaris
Which of the following structures is most superficial of the structures passing deep to the flexor
retinaculum?
A. Tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 3 and 4
B. The median nerve
C. Tendon of the flexor indicis proprius
D. Tendon of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 1 and 5
E. The ulnar nerve
Adduction of the thumb requires use of a muscle(s) which is/are innervated by the:
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Median and ulnar nerves
E. Median, radial and ulnar nerves
Where is place of injection in case of puncture of the shoulder joint on external surface of
shoulder?
on 1 сm lateral from greater tubercle of humeral bone;
above acromion;
beneath posterior edge of acromion;
along posterior edge of m. deltoideus;
on 2 сm below acromion, above greater tubercle of humeral bone;
Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles lies in superficial subpectoral space?
anterior branches of thoracic nerves;
internal thoracic artery;
brachial plexus;
subcostal nerve;
thoraco-acromial artery;
Which of the followig structures of main vasculo-nervous bundle of axillary fossa is located in
front of subscapular artery?
n. radialis;
n. ulnaris;
n. axillaris;
axillaris;
n. medianus;
Which of the following nerves is the biggest nerve of axillary fossa?
n. medianus;
n. ulnaris;
n. cutaneus brachii;
n. musculo-cutaneus;
n. radialis.
Which of the following arteries arise from axillary artery near superior edge of tendon of m.
latissimus dorsi?
A. thoracoacromialis;
B. subscapularis;
C. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. thoracica superior;
D. circumflexa scapulae;
E. circumflexa humeri posterior and a. circumflexa humeri anterior;
What is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the humerus?
n. medianus;
n. ulnaris;
n. musculo-cutaneus;
n. axillaris;
n. radialis;
66. Which of the following nerves is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the surgical
neck of humerus?
A. n. medianus;
B. n. radialis;
C. n. ulnaris;
D. n. musculo-cutaneus;
E. n. axillaris;
67. At which of the following levels division of radial nerve at the deep and superficial branches is
present?
A. 5-7 сm above processus styloideus of ulnar bone;
B. 5-7 сm below processus styloideus of ulnar bone;
C. at level of processus styloideus of ulnar bone;
D. 2 сm above of joint line;
E. at level of joint line;
68. Which of the following surgical approaches is used in case of arthrotomy of shoulder joint after
Langenbeck?
A. 8-10 cm downwards from acromion;
B. on posterior edge of deltoid muscle;
C. through deltoid muscle;
D. on sulcus deltoideo-pectoralis;
E. on anterior edge of deltoid muscle;
69. What is Sharp’s surgery?
A. Disarticulation in tarsometatarsal articulations
B. Amputation in continuity of metatarsal bones
C. Tarsal bones amputation
D. Disarticulation in metatarsophalangeal articulations
E. None of the above.
70. Following an amputation at midleg the fibular bone would be cutted above the shin bone on:
A. 1-2 cm
B. 2-3 cm
C. 3-4 cm
D. 4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm.
71. Following a forearm amputation the radial bone would be cutted above the ulnar bone on:
A. 1-2 cm
B. 2-3 cm
C. 3-4 cm
D. 4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm.
72. Extremities amputation in case of frostbite would be performed not earlier than:
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 4-5 days
E. 5-6 days.
73. Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic:
A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov
B. Pyrogov’s leg amputation
C. Sharp’s operation
D. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation
E. Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef.
74. Which of the following amputation is osteoplastic:
A. Three-steps thigh amputation by Pyrogov
B. Krukenberg-Albreht’s operation
C.
D.
E.
75.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
76.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
77.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
78.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
79.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
80.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
81.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
82.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
83.
A.
Sharp’s operation
Thigh amputation by Gritti-Shymanovsky
Amputation at upper one third of shoulder by Farabef.
Following a Gritti-Shymanovsky’s amputation:
The femoral bone stump would be covered by the patella
The femoral bone stump would be covered by the shin bone gibbosity
The shin bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
The femoral bone stump would be covered by the heel bone
The shin bone stump would be covered by the patella.
What is cinematic amputation:
Finger formation by I metacarpal bone
Two fingers formation by ulnar and radial bones
Finger formation by ulnar bone
Finger formation by radial bone
None of the above.
What is neurolysis?
Release nerve from scar tissues
Nerve suture
Nerve cutting
Nerve grafting
Neuroma resection.
What is neurorrhaphy?
Release nerve from scar tissues
Nerve suture
Nerve cutting
Nerve grafting
Neuroma resection.
Tendon suture is placed by:
Catgut
Polyester
Silk
Polydioxanon
None of the above.
Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after arthrotomy of
shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following muscles is damaged?
m. triceps brachii
m. deltoideus
m. biceps brachii
m. coracobrachialis
m. pectoralis major.
How many joints form the elbow joint?
1
2
3
4
5.
How many volvuluses has the knee joint?
3
5
7
8
9.
Complication after Langenbek’s knee joint arthronomy is damage of:
n. peroneus communis
B.
C.
D.
E.
84.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
85.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
86.
87.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
88.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
89.
90.
91.
A.
B.
C.
D.
n. tibialis
n. peroneus superficialis
n. peroneus profundus
n. suralis.
Abduction of superior extremity to horizontal condition is impossible after arthrotomy of
shoulder joint by lateral access. Which of the following nerves is damaged?
n. radialis
n. ulnaris
n. medianus
n. musculocutaneus
n. axillaris.
Collateral circulation in case of obstruction of a. tibialis anterior at lower leg third would be
developed by:
a. peronea
rete articulare genu
a. malleolaris anterior lateralis
a. malleolaris anterior medialis
a. dorsalis pedis.
Projection line of joint space for proximal phalanx is situated on dorsal surface on ___ mm more
distally then corner that formed after flexion this phalanx.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 8.
The scar tissue in case of amputation of finger phalanx would be situated on _______ surface:
Dorsal
Palmar
Ulnar
Radial
Lower.
Following a forearm amputation the radial bone would be cutted above the ulnar bone on:
1-2 cm
2-3 cm
3-4 cm
4-5 cm
5-6 cm.
Subperiostal method of the bone treatment is:
A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting
B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum
C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.
Periostal method of the bone treatment is:
A. Cutting and removal of the periosteum on 1-2 cm distally from the bone cutting
B. Covering of the bone stump by the periosteum
C. Cutting of the bone and periosteum on the same level
D. None of the above
E. All of the above.
N. cutaneus brachii lateralis superior arises from which of the following nervous structures?
lateral trunk of brachial plexus;
medial trunk of brachial plexus;
posterior trunk of brachial plexus;
n. axillaris;
E.
92.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
93.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
94.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
95.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
96.
97.
98.
99.
lateral trunk of brachial plexus;
What is the most frequently damaged nerve in fractures of the humerus?
n. medianus;
n. ulnaris;
n. musculo-cutaneus;
n. axillaris;
n. radialis;
Which of the following vasculo-nervous bundles is located in subdeltoid cellular space?
n. radialis, a. circumflexa humeri posterior;
n. musculo-cutaneus, a. circumflexa humeri anterior;
circumflexa humeri posterior, n. ulnaris;
n. subscapularis, a. circumflexa humeri anterior;
n. axillaris, a. circumflexa humeri posterior;
A. circumflexa scapulae and deep branches of a. transversa colli are located under which of the
following muscles?
m. serratus inferior;
m. teres minor;
m. infraspinatus.
m. deltoideus;
m. trapezius;
Where is place of injection in case of puncture of the shoulder joint on external surface of
shoulder?
on 1 сm lateral from greater tubercle of humeral bone;
above acromion;
beneath posterior edge of acromion;
along posterior edge of m. deltoideus;
on 2 сm below acromion, above greater tubercle of humeral bone;
Adduction of the thumb requires use of a muscle(s) which is/are innervated by the:
F. Median nerve
G. Ulnar nerve
H. Radial nerve
I. Median and ulnar nerves
J. Median, radial and ulnar nerves
Which of the following muscles does not participate directly in the formation of the extensor
expansion (hood) of the middle finger:
A. The second lumbrical
B. The second dorsal interosseous
C. The third dorsal interosseous
D. The second palmar interosseous
E. The extensor digitorum
Simultaneous contraction of the flexor carpi ulnaris and the extensor carpi ulnaris requires
activation of the:
A. Median and ulnar nerves
B. Radial nerve alone
C. Radial and median nerves
D. Ulnar and radial nerves
E. None of these
Which of the following structures is most superficial of the structures passing deep to the flexor
retinaculum?
F. Tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 3 and 4
G. The median nerve
H. Tendon of the flexor indicis proprius
I. Tendon of the flexor digitorum superficialis to digits 1 and 5
J. The ulnar nerve
100.
Following a slash wound in the forearm the only disability was lack of extension of the
terminal phalanx of the thumb. You know that the _____ has been severed.
A. Extensor pollicis longus
B. Extensor pollicis brevis
C. Abductor pollicis longus
D. Abductor pollicis brevis
E. Deep branch of the radial nerve