Download Summer 01

Systemic Anatomy Exam I
Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Summer 2001
Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this
case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your
questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the
examination. Good luck.
FORM A
1) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) gastro – stomach
b) cysto – bladder
c) glosso – lips
d) onco – tumor
e) oto – ear
2) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) –algia – pain
b) –dyne – pain
c) –cle – small
d) –cise – to remove
e) –lith – stone
3) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) –megaly – small
b) –oid – to resemble
c) –ostomy – create an opening
d) –phasia – speech
e) –rrhea – flow
4) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) –stenosis – stricture
b) –pnea – breathing
c) –spasm – twitch
d) –trophy – nourishment
e) –penia – increased number
5) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) ad- toward
b) ab- away from
c) ante – opposite to
d) circum – around
e) dys – painful or abnormal
6) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) brady – slow
b) epi – below
c) hemi – half
d) hyper – above
e) poly – many
page 1, SA Exam I, Q.# 1-6
7) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) inter – within
b) peri – around
c) retro – behind
d) syn – together or joined
e) tachy – fast
8) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) –plasia – growth
b) meta – after
c) –stasis – stop
d) –genic – origin
e) –osis – a projection
9) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) dysplasia – abnormal development
b) etiology – the cause of disease
c) cyanosis – increased oxygen to the tissues
d) idiopathic – of unknown cause
e) iatrogenic – caused by a physician
10) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) prognosis – predicted outcome
b) xeroderma – dry skin
c) pediculosis – infection of the feet
d) lumbodynia – low back pain
e) lumen – the inside of a hollow tubular organ
11) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) cicatrix – scar
b) alopecia – baldness
c) jaundice – abnormal bluish discoloration to skin
d) anodyne – a pain killer
e) hypercapnia – increased CO2 levels in the blood
12) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) apnea – cessation of breathing
b) rhinoplasty – a “nose job”
c) epistaxis – above the midline
d) pneumoconiosis – dust particles in the lungs
e) aphonia – loss of ability to speak
13) A _____ plane divides the body into unequal right and left parts.
a) coronal
b) midsagittal
c) horizontal
d) longitudinal
e) none of the above
page 2, SA Exam I, Q.# 7-13
14) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) superior – toward the head or top
b) distal – away from the trunk
c) parietal – lining a body cavity
d) prone – lying horizontal on the anterior surface of the body
e) plantar – dorsal surface of the foot
15) The forearm is ___ to the arm. (MACA)
a) proximal
b) distal
c) superior
d) inferior
e) afferent
16) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) turn the plantar surface of the foot medially – inversion
b) rotate the forearm so that the palm is rotated in a medial and posterior direction – pronation
c) circular movement of a body part – circumduction
d) depression to close the mouth
e) protraction – to move a body part anteriorally
17) A patient comes to your office and tells you their low back hurts. This is a ___ of a disease.
a) sign
b) symptom
18) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) 1cc = 1 ml
b) 1 tsp. = 5 ml
c) 1 ounce = 30 cc
d) 1 lb. = 2.2 kg
e) 1 deciliter = 100 ml
19) There are ____ bones in the vertebral column in the adult.
a) 19
b) 23
c) 26
d) 34
e) 38
20) Choose the INCORRECT statement.
a) there is a condyle on the occiput
b) there is a facet on a vertebra
c) there is a tubercle on the humerus
d) there is a spine on the scapula
e) there is a trochanter on the tibia
21) Hematopoiesis typically occurs in the _____ .
a) epiphyseal plate
b) red marrow
c) endosteum
d) articular cartilage
e) none of the above
page 3, SA Exam I, Q.# 14-21
22) ______ connect the lacunae to the central canal in the Haversian system.
a) perforating canals
b) lamellae
c) osteocytes
d) canaliculi
e) Sharpey’s fibers
23) As you breath faster and deeper you ____ the levels of CO2 and you will ____ the pH of the blood.
a) decrease, increase
b) decrease, decrease
c) increase, decrease
d) increase, increase
24) The roof of the cranial vault is called the _________.
a) fontanel
b) cranial fossa
c) wormian bone
d) calvaria
e) none of the above
25) The ____ suture connects the bregma to the pterion.
a) coronal
b) sagittal
c) lambdoidal
d) metopic
e) squamous
26) Which of the following holes in the skull does cranial nerve seven pass through? (MACA)
a) stylomastoid foramen
b) infraorbital foramen
c) foramen ovale
d) foramen rotundum
e) internal acoustic meatus
27) Which of the following bones touch the temporal bone? (MACA)
a) occipital bone
b) parietal bone
c) sphenoid bone
d) frontal bone
e) maxillary bone
28) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) foramen ovale – V2 division of the trigeminal nerve
b) jugular foramen – CN IX, X and XI
c) superior orbital fissure – CN III, IV and VI
d) cribriform plate – afferent fibers of CN I
e) foramen rotundum – maxillary division of CN V
29) The temporal bone and the sphenoid bone form the jugular foramen.
a) true
b) false
page 4, SA Exam I, Q.# 22-29
30) The bones of the middle ear are housed within the ___ portion of the temporal bone.
a) mastoid
b) squamous
c) tympanic
d) petrous
e) occipital
31) The frontal bone and the sphenoid bone form the clivus.
a) true
b) false
32) Which of the following bones does not touch the sphenoid bone?
a) frontal bone
b) maxillary bone
c) vomer bone
d) zygomatic bone
e) lacrimal bone
33) The carotid canal is ______ to the foramen lacerum.
a) medial
b) lateral
34) The kyphotic curve present in the normal adult cervical spine would be classified as a ____ curve.
a) primary
b) secondary
35) The neural arch is ___ to the vertebral body.
a) anterior
b) posterior
36) Flexion of the lumbar spine will ___ the diameter of the intervertebral foramen.
a) increase
b) decrease
37) The first intervertebral foramen is located between the ___ and the ____.
a) occiput, atlas
b) atlas, axis
c) axis, third cervical vertebra
d) third cervical vertebra, fourth cervical vertebra
e) none of the above
38) The neural canal is smallest and circular in shape in the ___ region of the vertebral canal.
a) cervical
b) thoracic
c) lumbar
d) sacral
page 5, SA Exam I, Q.# 30-38
39) What structure is present on all cervical vertebrae?
a) bifid spines process
b) transverse foramen
c) body
d) uncrate process
e) vertebral prominent
40) The superior articular facets of the atlas have a ____ surface.
a) concave
b) convex
41) The groove for the vertebral artery is located on the ____ surface of the ___________.
a) inferior, anterior arch of the atlas
b) superior, anterior arch of the atlas
c) superior, posterior arch of the atlas
d) inferior, posterior arch of the atlas
42) The odontoid process projects in a ___ direction off of the ___ of the axis.
a) superior, body
b) inferior, body
c) superior, lateral mass
d) inferior, lateral mass
43) What structure is typically palpable 2 inches inferior to the external occipital protuberance on the posterior
aspect of the neck?
a) the occipital crest
b) the vertebral prominens
c) the posterior tubercle of the atlas
d) the bifid spinous process of the epistropheus
e) the first IVD
44) The uncinate process is located on the ________ aspect of the _____ of vertebrae _______.
a) superior lateral, bodies, C3-T1
b) inferior medial, bodies, C1-C7
c) superior medial, bodies, C3-T1
d) inferior lateral, bodies, C1-C7
e) superior lateral, transverse processes, C3-T1
45) Which of the following is considered a typical vertebra?
a) C1
b) C7
c) T1
d) T8
e) L5
46) Thoracic vertebrae are also called ________ vertebrae.
a) back
b) dorsal
c) ventral
d) costal
e) none of the above
page 6, SA Exam I, Q.# 39-46
47) The superior articular facets of a thoracic vertebra face in a _____ direction.
a) anterior
b) posterior
c) lateral
d) medial
48) How many articular surfaces are present on T10?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
e) 14
49) How many articular surfaces are present on T2?
a) 6
b) 8
c) 10
d) 12
e) 14
50) How many ribs articulate with T4?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 6
51) How many articular surfaces are present on L5?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
e) 10
52) The inferior articular facets of T12 face in a ___ direction.
a) anterior lateral
b) posterior lateral
c) anterior medial
d) posterior medial
53) The surfaces of the articular facets of lumbar vertebra are aligned _____ .
a) on a coronal plane
b) on a sagittal plane
c) oblique to a sagittal plane
d) frontal
e) two of the above
54) The ligamentum flavum attaches adjacent vertebral spinous process to each other.
a) true
b) false
page 7, SA Exam I, Q.# 47-54
55) The fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebra form a structure called the __________.
a) sacroiliac joint
b) sacral canal
c) medial sacral crest
d) transverse lines
e) sacral tuberosity
56) The anterior aspect of L5 and the sacral promontory form a structure known as _____.
a) sacroiliac joint
b) lumbosacral angle
c) angle of Louis
d) birthing angle
e) none of the above
57) Which of the following ligaments is found within the confines of the neural canal?
a) anterior longitudinal ligament
b) posterior longitudinal ligament
c) interspinous ligament
d) supraspinous ligament
e) ligamentum nuchae
58) Which of the following ligament attaches from the inion to the posterior tubercle of the atlas and the
spinous process of the cervical vertebra to C7.
a) anterior longitudinal ligament
b) posterior longitudinal ligament
c) interspinous ligament
d) supraspinous ligament
e) ligamentum nuchae
59) What articulates with the transverse costal facet of a thoracic vertebra?
a) the head of a rib
b) the angle of a rib
c) the tubercle of a rib
d) the costal groove of a rib
e) the costochondral junction of a rib
60) Ribs ______ are considered vertebrosternal ribs.
a) 1-7
b) 8-10
c) 11-12
d) 1- 12
61) The acromial end of the clavicle is the ____ end.
a) medial
b) lateral
62) The greater tubercle of the humerus is ___ to the lesser tubercle.
a) medial
b) lateral
page 8, SA Exam I, Q.# 55-62
63) What lies in the musculospiral groove of the humerus?
a) the ulnar nerve
b) the radial nerve
c) the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii m.
d) the tendon of the long head of the triceps brachii m.
e) none of the above
64) The _____ condyle of the humerus is typically larger than the ____ condyle.
a) medial; lateral
b) lateral; medial
65) The ulna articulates with the _____ of the humerus.
a) capitulum
b) trochlea
c) head
66) The coronoid fossa is on the ___ aspect of the humerus.
a) proximal anterior
b) proximal posterior
c) distal anterior
d) distal posterior
67) The trochlear notch of the ulna is also called the ______.
a) olecranon fossa
b) radial notch
c) semilunar notch
d) interosseous margin
e) ulnar notch
68) The radial notch is located on what aspect of the radius?
a) proximal anterior
b) proximal medial
c) distal lateral
d) distal medial
e) it is not located on the radius
69) Which two carpal bones articulate with the radius? (MACA)
a) lunate
b) pisiform
c) triquetral
d) capitate
e) scaphoid
70) Which of the following contribute to the formation of the acetabulum? (MACA)
a) pubis
b) femur
c) ileum
d) ischium
e) tibia
page 9, SA Exam I, Q.# 63-70
71) “Nature will give you what you act like you already have. To become act ______.”
a) like you are going to die tomorrow
b) as if
c) as if there is no tomorrow
d) like you mean it
e) as if you were the only one who mattered
72) The pubic tubercle is on the ___ aspect of the pubic bone.
a) superior lateral
b) superior medial
c) inferior lateral
d) inferior medial
73) The linea aspera is on the ___ aspect of the femur.
a) anterior
b) posterior
74) The popliteal fossa is on the ___ aspect of the femur?
a) proximal posterior
b) proximal anterior
c) distal posterior
d) distal anterior
75) The apex of the patella is on the ___ aspect of the patella.
a) superior
b) inferior
76) Gerdy’s tubercle is located on what aspect of the femur?
a) proximal posterior
b) proximal anterior
c) distal posterior
d) distal anterior
e) it is not located on the femur
77) The malleolus of the tibia is on what aspect of the tibia?
a) proximal medial
b) proximal lateral
c) distal medial
d) distal lateral
78) The fossa of the malleolus of the fibula is located on what aspect of the fibula?
a) distal posterior and medial
b) distal anterior and medial
c) distal anterior and lateral
d) distal posterior and lateral
e) proximal posterior and medial
79) The sustentaculum tali projects in a ______ direction off of the calcaneus bone.
a) medial
b) lateral
c) it is not on the calcaneus bone
page 10, SA Exam I, Q.# 71-79
80) A place where two or more bones come together is called a __________. (MACA)
a) boney union
b) articulation
c) kinesiology
d) joint
e) biomechanical association
81) The prefix syn- means _______.
a) joined by a ligament
b) joined together
c) separated by a boney process
d) overlapping edges
e) a joint
82) The bones of the skull are joined by _______.
a) cartilage
b) fibrous connective tissue
c) elastic connective tissue
d) Sharpey’s fibers
e) none of the above
83) Which of the following classifications describe the zypapophyseal joints? (MACA)
a) syndesmosis
b) synovial
c) gliding
d) plane
e) diarthrodial
84) Which of the following classifications describe the intervertebral joint? (MACA)
a) secondary cartilaginous joint
b) primary cartilaginous joint
c) multiaxial
d) amphiarthrosis
e) symphysis
85) What type of cartilage directly covers the articular surfaces of the bodies of adjacent vertebra?
a) fibrous
b) hyaline
c) elastic
d) they are not covered with cartilage
86) Which of the following characteristics DO apply to synovial joints? (MACA)
a) joint capsule
b) synovial fluid
c) joint cavity
d) synovial membrane
e) articular cartilage
page 11, SA Exam I, Q.# 80-86
87) Which of the following matches is INCORRECT?
a) condyloid – metacarpophalangeal joint
b) ginglymus – interphalangeal joint
c) trochoid joint – proximal radioulnar joint
d) spheroid joint – coxofemoral joint
e) saddle joint – radiocarpal joint
88) What was Dr. Parker’s whole name?
a) Daniel David Parker
b) Brian Justin Parker
c) James Winchester Parker
d) James William Parker
e) James Wilfred Parker
89) The tectoral membrane is a direct continuation of the _____.
a) anterior longitudinal ligament
b) posterior longitudinal ligament
c) supraspinous ligament
d) posterior Atlanta-occipital membrane
e) anterior atlanto-occipital membrane
90) What attaches the tip of the odontoid process to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum?
a) transverse ligament of the atlas
b) alar ligament
c) apical ligament
d) tectorial membrane
e) anterior-lateral ligament
91) Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding the intervertebral discs.
a) the first one is located between the atlas and the axis
b) there are 23 of them in the adult
c) they account for approximately 25% of the height of the vertebral column
d) they form the anterior wall of the IVF
e) in areas of lordotic curves the anterior aspect is thicker than the posterior aspect
92) The ligamentum nuchae is an example of a _________.
a) symphysis
b) syndesmosis
c) synchondrosis
d) diarthrosis
e) none of the above
93) Which of the following classifications apply to the temporomandibular joint? (MACA)
a) synovial
b) symphysis
c) hinge
d) synchondrosis
e) gliding
page 12, SA Exam I, Q.# 87-93
94) Which of the following classifications apply to the sternoclavicular joint? (MACA)
a) symphysis
b) primary cartilaginous
c) secondary cartilaginous
d) synovial
e) plane
95) Which of the following classifications apply to the acromioclavicular joint? (MACA)
a) synovial
b) diarthrodial
c) plane
d) synchondrotic
e) hinge
96) Which of the following classifications apply to the knee joint? (MACA)
a) synovial
b) biaxial
c) syndesmosis
d) synchondrosis
e) symphysis
97) Excessive anterior motion of the proximal tibia as it relates to the distal femur could indicate a torn ___.
a) anterior cruciate ligament
b) posterior cruciate ligament
98) Choose the INCORRECT match.
a) anterior cruciate ligament of the knee – attaches to the lateral condyle of the femur
b) suprapatellar ligament – housemaid’s knees
c) iliofemoral ligament – Y ligament of Bigelow
d) patellar ligament – attaches the apex of the patella to the tibial tuberosity
e) transverse humeral retinaculum – holds biciptal tendon in intertubercular groove
99) During extension of the knee joint, which of the two cruciate ligaments is pulled taut?
a) anterior cruciate ligament
b) posterior cruciate ligament
100) A labrum is _______.
a) found in the elbow joint
b) composed of fibrocartilage
c) decreases the surface area of a joint surface
d) typically found outside of the joint capsule
e) only associated with the hip joint
page 13, SA Exam I, Q.# 94-100
The end of the first exam in Systemic Anatomy. Grades will be posted in your classroom by the close of the
school day today. If you have questions concerning the exam please bring these with you on Wednesday during
our noon open review time. Thanks,
Dr. G.