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Systemic Anatomy Exam I Prepared especially for the trimester one class, Summer 2001 Please place the single best answer in the space provided (unless designated by the letters MACA, which in this case mark all correct answers that apply) on your scantron sheet. The faculty will not answer any of your questions (unless you find a typo) once the exam begins, as interpretation of the question is a part of the examination. Good luck. FORM A 1) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) gastro – stomach b) cysto – bladder c) glosso – lips d) onco – tumor e) oto – ear 2) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) –algia – pain b) –dyne – pain c) –cle – small d) –cise – to remove e) –lith – stone 3) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) –megaly – small b) –oid – to resemble c) –ostomy – create an opening d) –phasia – speech e) –rrhea – flow 4) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) –stenosis – stricture b) –pnea – breathing c) –spasm – twitch d) –trophy – nourishment e) –penia – increased number 5) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) ad- toward b) ab- away from c) ante – opposite to d) circum – around e) dys – painful or abnormal 6) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) brady – slow b) epi – below c) hemi – half d) hyper – above e) poly – many page 1, SA Exam I, Q.# 1-6 7) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) inter – within b) peri – around c) retro – behind d) syn – together or joined e) tachy – fast 8) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) –plasia – growth b) meta – after c) –stasis – stop d) –genic – origin e) –osis – a projection 9) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) dysplasia – abnormal development b) etiology – the cause of disease c) cyanosis – increased oxygen to the tissues d) idiopathic – of unknown cause e) iatrogenic – caused by a physician 10) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) prognosis – predicted outcome b) xeroderma – dry skin c) pediculosis – infection of the feet d) lumbodynia – low back pain e) lumen – the inside of a hollow tubular organ 11) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) cicatrix – scar b) alopecia – baldness c) jaundice – abnormal bluish discoloration to skin d) anodyne – a pain killer e) hypercapnia – increased CO2 levels in the blood 12) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) apnea – cessation of breathing b) rhinoplasty – a “nose job” c) epistaxis – above the midline d) pneumoconiosis – dust particles in the lungs e) aphonia – loss of ability to speak 13) A _____ plane divides the body into unequal right and left parts. a) coronal b) midsagittal c) horizontal d) longitudinal e) none of the above page 2, SA Exam I, Q.# 7-13 14) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) superior – toward the head or top b) distal – away from the trunk c) parietal – lining a body cavity d) prone – lying horizontal on the anterior surface of the body e) plantar – dorsal surface of the foot 15) The forearm is ___ to the arm. (MACA) a) proximal b) distal c) superior d) inferior e) afferent 16) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) turn the plantar surface of the foot medially – inversion b) rotate the forearm so that the palm is rotated in a medial and posterior direction – pronation c) circular movement of a body part – circumduction d) depression to close the mouth e) protraction – to move a body part anteriorally 17) A patient comes to your office and tells you their low back hurts. This is a ___ of a disease. a) sign b) symptom 18) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) 1cc = 1 ml b) 1 tsp. = 5 ml c) 1 ounce = 30 cc d) 1 lb. = 2.2 kg e) 1 deciliter = 100 ml 19) There are ____ bones in the vertebral column in the adult. a) 19 b) 23 c) 26 d) 34 e) 38 20) Choose the INCORRECT statement. a) there is a condyle on the occiput b) there is a facet on a vertebra c) there is a tubercle on the humerus d) there is a spine on the scapula e) there is a trochanter on the tibia 21) Hematopoiesis typically occurs in the _____ . a) epiphyseal plate b) red marrow c) endosteum d) articular cartilage e) none of the above page 3, SA Exam I, Q.# 14-21 22) ______ connect the lacunae to the central canal in the Haversian system. a) perforating canals b) lamellae c) osteocytes d) canaliculi e) Sharpey’s fibers 23) As you breath faster and deeper you ____ the levels of CO2 and you will ____ the pH of the blood. a) decrease, increase b) decrease, decrease c) increase, decrease d) increase, increase 24) The roof of the cranial vault is called the _________. a) fontanel b) cranial fossa c) wormian bone d) calvaria e) none of the above 25) The ____ suture connects the bregma to the pterion. a) coronal b) sagittal c) lambdoidal d) metopic e) squamous 26) Which of the following holes in the skull does cranial nerve seven pass through? (MACA) a) stylomastoid foramen b) infraorbital foramen c) foramen ovale d) foramen rotundum e) internal acoustic meatus 27) Which of the following bones touch the temporal bone? (MACA) a) occipital bone b) parietal bone c) sphenoid bone d) frontal bone e) maxillary bone 28) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) foramen ovale – V2 division of the trigeminal nerve b) jugular foramen – CN IX, X and XI c) superior orbital fissure – CN III, IV and VI d) cribriform plate – afferent fibers of CN I e) foramen rotundum – maxillary division of CN V 29) The temporal bone and the sphenoid bone form the jugular foramen. a) true b) false page 4, SA Exam I, Q.# 22-29 30) The bones of the middle ear are housed within the ___ portion of the temporal bone. a) mastoid b) squamous c) tympanic d) petrous e) occipital 31) The frontal bone and the sphenoid bone form the clivus. a) true b) false 32) Which of the following bones does not touch the sphenoid bone? a) frontal bone b) maxillary bone c) vomer bone d) zygomatic bone e) lacrimal bone 33) The carotid canal is ______ to the foramen lacerum. a) medial b) lateral 34) The kyphotic curve present in the normal adult cervical spine would be classified as a ____ curve. a) primary b) secondary 35) The neural arch is ___ to the vertebral body. a) anterior b) posterior 36) Flexion of the lumbar spine will ___ the diameter of the intervertebral foramen. a) increase b) decrease 37) The first intervertebral foramen is located between the ___ and the ____. a) occiput, atlas b) atlas, axis c) axis, third cervical vertebra d) third cervical vertebra, fourth cervical vertebra e) none of the above 38) The neural canal is smallest and circular in shape in the ___ region of the vertebral canal. a) cervical b) thoracic c) lumbar d) sacral page 5, SA Exam I, Q.# 30-38 39) What structure is present on all cervical vertebrae? a) bifid spines process b) transverse foramen c) body d) uncrate process e) vertebral prominent 40) The superior articular facets of the atlas have a ____ surface. a) concave b) convex 41) The groove for the vertebral artery is located on the ____ surface of the ___________. a) inferior, anterior arch of the atlas b) superior, anterior arch of the atlas c) superior, posterior arch of the atlas d) inferior, posterior arch of the atlas 42) The odontoid process projects in a ___ direction off of the ___ of the axis. a) superior, body b) inferior, body c) superior, lateral mass d) inferior, lateral mass 43) What structure is typically palpable 2 inches inferior to the external occipital protuberance on the posterior aspect of the neck? a) the occipital crest b) the vertebral prominens c) the posterior tubercle of the atlas d) the bifid spinous process of the epistropheus e) the first IVD 44) The uncinate process is located on the ________ aspect of the _____ of vertebrae _______. a) superior lateral, bodies, C3-T1 b) inferior medial, bodies, C1-C7 c) superior medial, bodies, C3-T1 d) inferior lateral, bodies, C1-C7 e) superior lateral, transverse processes, C3-T1 45) Which of the following is considered a typical vertebra? a) C1 b) C7 c) T1 d) T8 e) L5 46) Thoracic vertebrae are also called ________ vertebrae. a) back b) dorsal c) ventral d) costal e) none of the above page 6, SA Exam I, Q.# 39-46 47) The superior articular facets of a thoracic vertebra face in a _____ direction. a) anterior b) posterior c) lateral d) medial 48) How many articular surfaces are present on T10? a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12 e) 14 49) How many articular surfaces are present on T2? a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12 e) 14 50) How many ribs articulate with T4? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 6 51) How many articular surfaces are present on L5? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 e) 10 52) The inferior articular facets of T12 face in a ___ direction. a) anterior lateral b) posterior lateral c) anterior medial d) posterior medial 53) The surfaces of the articular facets of lumbar vertebra are aligned _____ . a) on a coronal plane b) on a sagittal plane c) oblique to a sagittal plane d) frontal e) two of the above 54) The ligamentum flavum attaches adjacent vertebral spinous process to each other. a) true b) false page 7, SA Exam I, Q.# 47-54 55) The fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebra form a structure called the __________. a) sacroiliac joint b) sacral canal c) medial sacral crest d) transverse lines e) sacral tuberosity 56) The anterior aspect of L5 and the sacral promontory form a structure known as _____. a) sacroiliac joint b) lumbosacral angle c) angle of Louis d) birthing angle e) none of the above 57) Which of the following ligaments is found within the confines of the neural canal? a) anterior longitudinal ligament b) posterior longitudinal ligament c) interspinous ligament d) supraspinous ligament e) ligamentum nuchae 58) Which of the following ligament attaches from the inion to the posterior tubercle of the atlas and the spinous process of the cervical vertebra to C7. a) anterior longitudinal ligament b) posterior longitudinal ligament c) interspinous ligament d) supraspinous ligament e) ligamentum nuchae 59) What articulates with the transverse costal facet of a thoracic vertebra? a) the head of a rib b) the angle of a rib c) the tubercle of a rib d) the costal groove of a rib e) the costochondral junction of a rib 60) Ribs ______ are considered vertebrosternal ribs. a) 1-7 b) 8-10 c) 11-12 d) 1- 12 61) The acromial end of the clavicle is the ____ end. a) medial b) lateral 62) The greater tubercle of the humerus is ___ to the lesser tubercle. a) medial b) lateral page 8, SA Exam I, Q.# 55-62 63) What lies in the musculospiral groove of the humerus? a) the ulnar nerve b) the radial nerve c) the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii m. d) the tendon of the long head of the triceps brachii m. e) none of the above 64) The _____ condyle of the humerus is typically larger than the ____ condyle. a) medial; lateral b) lateral; medial 65) The ulna articulates with the _____ of the humerus. a) capitulum b) trochlea c) head 66) The coronoid fossa is on the ___ aspect of the humerus. a) proximal anterior b) proximal posterior c) distal anterior d) distal posterior 67) The trochlear notch of the ulna is also called the ______. a) olecranon fossa b) radial notch c) semilunar notch d) interosseous margin e) ulnar notch 68) The radial notch is located on what aspect of the radius? a) proximal anterior b) proximal medial c) distal lateral d) distal medial e) it is not located on the radius 69) Which two carpal bones articulate with the radius? (MACA) a) lunate b) pisiform c) triquetral d) capitate e) scaphoid 70) Which of the following contribute to the formation of the acetabulum? (MACA) a) pubis b) femur c) ileum d) ischium e) tibia page 9, SA Exam I, Q.# 63-70 71) “Nature will give you what you act like you already have. To become act ______.” a) like you are going to die tomorrow b) as if c) as if there is no tomorrow d) like you mean it e) as if you were the only one who mattered 72) The pubic tubercle is on the ___ aspect of the pubic bone. a) superior lateral b) superior medial c) inferior lateral d) inferior medial 73) The linea aspera is on the ___ aspect of the femur. a) anterior b) posterior 74) The popliteal fossa is on the ___ aspect of the femur? a) proximal posterior b) proximal anterior c) distal posterior d) distal anterior 75) The apex of the patella is on the ___ aspect of the patella. a) superior b) inferior 76) Gerdy’s tubercle is located on what aspect of the femur? a) proximal posterior b) proximal anterior c) distal posterior d) distal anterior e) it is not located on the femur 77) The malleolus of the tibia is on what aspect of the tibia? a) proximal medial b) proximal lateral c) distal medial d) distal lateral 78) The fossa of the malleolus of the fibula is located on what aspect of the fibula? a) distal posterior and medial b) distal anterior and medial c) distal anterior and lateral d) distal posterior and lateral e) proximal posterior and medial 79) The sustentaculum tali projects in a ______ direction off of the calcaneus bone. a) medial b) lateral c) it is not on the calcaneus bone page 10, SA Exam I, Q.# 71-79 80) A place where two or more bones come together is called a __________. (MACA) a) boney union b) articulation c) kinesiology d) joint e) biomechanical association 81) The prefix syn- means _______. a) joined by a ligament b) joined together c) separated by a boney process d) overlapping edges e) a joint 82) The bones of the skull are joined by _______. a) cartilage b) fibrous connective tissue c) elastic connective tissue d) Sharpey’s fibers e) none of the above 83) Which of the following classifications describe the zypapophyseal joints? (MACA) a) syndesmosis b) synovial c) gliding d) plane e) diarthrodial 84) Which of the following classifications describe the intervertebral joint? (MACA) a) secondary cartilaginous joint b) primary cartilaginous joint c) multiaxial d) amphiarthrosis e) symphysis 85) What type of cartilage directly covers the articular surfaces of the bodies of adjacent vertebra? a) fibrous b) hyaline c) elastic d) they are not covered with cartilage 86) Which of the following characteristics DO apply to synovial joints? (MACA) a) joint capsule b) synovial fluid c) joint cavity d) synovial membrane e) articular cartilage page 11, SA Exam I, Q.# 80-86 87) Which of the following matches is INCORRECT? a) condyloid – metacarpophalangeal joint b) ginglymus – interphalangeal joint c) trochoid joint – proximal radioulnar joint d) spheroid joint – coxofemoral joint e) saddle joint – radiocarpal joint 88) What was Dr. Parker’s whole name? a) Daniel David Parker b) Brian Justin Parker c) James Winchester Parker d) James William Parker e) James Wilfred Parker 89) The tectoral membrane is a direct continuation of the _____. a) anterior longitudinal ligament b) posterior longitudinal ligament c) supraspinous ligament d) posterior Atlanta-occipital membrane e) anterior atlanto-occipital membrane 90) What attaches the tip of the odontoid process to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum? a) transverse ligament of the atlas b) alar ligament c) apical ligament d) tectorial membrane e) anterior-lateral ligament 91) Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding the intervertebral discs. a) the first one is located between the atlas and the axis b) there are 23 of them in the adult c) they account for approximately 25% of the height of the vertebral column d) they form the anterior wall of the IVF e) in areas of lordotic curves the anterior aspect is thicker than the posterior aspect 92) The ligamentum nuchae is an example of a _________. a) symphysis b) syndesmosis c) synchondrosis d) diarthrosis e) none of the above 93) Which of the following classifications apply to the temporomandibular joint? (MACA) a) synovial b) symphysis c) hinge d) synchondrosis e) gliding page 12, SA Exam I, Q.# 87-93 94) Which of the following classifications apply to the sternoclavicular joint? (MACA) a) symphysis b) primary cartilaginous c) secondary cartilaginous d) synovial e) plane 95) Which of the following classifications apply to the acromioclavicular joint? (MACA) a) synovial b) diarthrodial c) plane d) synchondrotic e) hinge 96) Which of the following classifications apply to the knee joint? (MACA) a) synovial b) biaxial c) syndesmosis d) synchondrosis e) symphysis 97) Excessive anterior motion of the proximal tibia as it relates to the distal femur could indicate a torn ___. a) anterior cruciate ligament b) posterior cruciate ligament 98) Choose the INCORRECT match. a) anterior cruciate ligament of the knee – attaches to the lateral condyle of the femur b) suprapatellar ligament – housemaid’s knees c) iliofemoral ligament – Y ligament of Bigelow d) patellar ligament – attaches the apex of the patella to the tibial tuberosity e) transverse humeral retinaculum – holds biciptal tendon in intertubercular groove 99) During extension of the knee joint, which of the two cruciate ligaments is pulled taut? a) anterior cruciate ligament b) posterior cruciate ligament 100) A labrum is _______. a) found in the elbow joint b) composed of fibrocartilage c) decreases the surface area of a joint surface d) typically found outside of the joint capsule e) only associated with the hip joint page 13, SA Exam I, Q.# 94-100 The end of the first exam in Systemic Anatomy. Grades will be posted in your classroom by the close of the school day today. If you have questions concerning the exam please bring these with you on Wednesday during our noon open review time. Thanks, Dr. G.