Download Sample Final Exam Fall 2000

Multiple Choice
1. The value of 1111 represents
A. the binary equivalent of the decimal number 7.
B. the binary equivalent of the decimal number 15.
C. the binary equivalent of the character A.
D. an EBCDIC or ASCII byte.
E. none of the above.
2. The numbering system that represents 10 possible states is called the ______ number system.
A. hexadecimal B. octal C. decimal D. binary E. tens
3. Most computers process data in which numbering system?
A. decimal
B. hexadecimal
C. octal
D. binary E. analog
4. The hexadecimal numbering system represents base
A. 16. B. 4.
C. 8.
D. 18. E. 800.
5. The decimal number 50 is equivalent to the binary number
A. 111011.
B. 1001100.
C. 110100. D. 100100.
E. 110010.
6. The binary number 11011001 is equivalent to the decimal number
A. 217. B. 169. C. 5,000. D. 189. E. 254.
7. The binary number 111101000010 is equivalent to the hexadecimal number
A. F42. B. F33. C. 4F5. D. BC4. E. A43.
8. The hexadecimal number F5 is equivalent to the binary number
A. 11110111.
B. 11110101.
C. 00110111.
D. 01011111.
E. 11110011.
9. The hexadecimal number 6A is equivalent to the decimal number
A. 16. B. 160. C. 106. D. 61. E. 610.
10. Adding the binary numbers 11011001 and 1011101 yields the binary number
A. 100001001.
B. 110010111.
C. 100110110.
D. 110010101.
E. 111001000.
11. Full justification means
A. text is printed ragged against the left margin while flush against the right.
B. text is printed ragged against the right margin while flush against the left.
C. text is printed ragged against both margins.
D. text is printed flush against both margins.
E. none of the above.
12. Pressing the Enter key in word processing results in _____ return.
A. no
B. a soft
C. a hard
D. a null
E. a proportionally spaced
13. The feature that allocates more horizontal space on a line to some characters is called
A. a spelling checker.
B. microminiaturization.
C. proportional spacing.
D. Redlining.
E. microspacing.
14. An author and the editor who regularly reviews the author's work would most likely benefit by having the same _____ feature on
their word processors.
A. math
B. sorting
C. presentation graphics
D. redlining
E. mail merge
15. The screen character that determines where text typed by a user will appear in a word-processed document is the
A. mouse pointer. B. ruler line. C. pointing finger.
D. drop cap.
E. insertion point.
16. A typeface in a particular point size is referred to as a(n)
A. typeface size. B. typeface. C. font. D. point size. E. Macro.
17. The acronym that refers to getting a document in print the same way it appears on the screen is
A. PDL. B. GIGO. C. EDP.
D. WYSIWYG.
E. MS-DOS
18. If a list contains only the words "believe," "even," "maven," and "Everest," asking a word processor to find all occurrences of "ve"
would produce
A. only occurrences of "believe" and "even."
B. only occurrences of "maven" and "Everest."
C. only occurrences of "believe," "even," and "Everest."
D. occurrences of all of these words.
E. no occurrences of any of these words
19. The word "CONFIDENTIAL" written lightly in large letters and appearing beneath the text of every page of a sensitive document is
an example of
A. clip art.
B. a watermark.
C. using drop caps.
D. outputting a word-processed document on special paper.
E. redlining.
20. Which of the following programs is primarily designed for desktop publishing?
A. WordPerfect
B. PageMaker C. Lotus 1-2-3 D. Word E. Access
21. With electronic spreadsheets, the display screen is like a window looking onto a big grid, called a
A. workbook. B. worksheet. C. schedule. D. template. E. grid sheet.
22. The most important feature of a spreadsheet is its ability to
A. word process.
B. summon COBOL when necessary.
C. sort dates.
D. integrate presentation graphics with worksheet data.
E. recalculate quickly.
23. The range S5:U8 covers a total of __________ cells.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
E. 40
24. There are two types of entries for worksheet cells:
A. constant values and formulas.
B. formulas and functions.
C. constants and variables.
D. filters and pivot tables.
E. control breaks and filters.
25. Given the following cell values
A1: 500
A2: =.3*A1
A3: =A1-A2
the contents in cell A3 would be
A. 50.
B. **********.
C. 150.
D. 350.
E. 0.
26. A worksheet with all rows and columns prelabeled, and with formulas prespecified, is called a
A. grid.
B. template.
C. cell.
D. worksheet.
E. pivot table.
27. Combining or rearranging data in a worksheet to reflect new information is done through
A. a pivot table.
B. the use of functions.
C. a dedicated presentation graphics package.
D. the navigation bar.
E. the formula bar.
28. The primary reason for keeping the number of bars in a bar chart or the number of slices in a pie chart to a minimum is
A. most graphics routines have a limit of about six bars or slices.
B. the more detail, the harder the visual is for humans to understand.
C. most graphics routines are limited in the number of colors that they can handle.
D. to minimize the computation time involved.
E. to leave space for clip art.
29. The highlighted symbol in the worksheet area of the screen that marks the cell that is active is called the
A. mode indicator. B. cell pointer. C. current cell.
D. cell cursor.
E. command set.
30. In a build, audience attention is focused on
A. the latest item in a bulleted list.
B. the presenter.
C. computer animation within the presentation.
D. the last slide in a series of slides.
E. audio output.
31. A database management system enables users to create and store _____ file(s).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 64
E. an unlimited number of
32. By putting data into a single occurrence of a template, a user creates a(n)
A. data warehouse. B. field. C. record. D. program. E. database.
33. The type of database management system most suited to PCs is the _____ DBMS.
A. tree
B. network
C. precompiled D. relational E. hierarchical
34. A database is
A. a software package. B. a hardware system. C. an operating system.
D. usually smaller than a file.
E. a collection of related data.
35. Relational database management systems are so called because they
A. are related to word processors.
B. are related to mainframe database management systems.
C. relate data in various files through common fields.
D. relate security to specific data fields.
E. require relational disks for storing data.
36. The process of setting up the database prior to entering data into it is called data
A. development. B. definition. C. manipulation. D. creation. E. application.
37. A comprehensive collection of data, optimized for query, that describes the operations of a company is called a(n)
A. hierarchical database. B. network database. C. relational database.
D. object-oriented database. E. data warehouse.
38. The ability to extract information from a database without the need to write a program is called
A. file management. B. query. C. reporting. D. hashing.
E. data warehousing.
39. A database management system is basically a
A. collection of software
B. collection of hardware.
C. replicated database.
D. client-server program. E. flat file.
40. SQL is a tool for
A. improving the integrity of database data. B. turning fields into files.
C. making QBE easier to use. D. composing database queries. E. data mining.
41. Determining if there is a need for a new system is done during which phase of the systems development life cycle?
A. systems analysts
B. system implementation C. system acquisition
D. system design
E. none of the above
42. A customer bill or invoice typically is generated by a company's _____ system.
A. accounts payable
B. inventory control
C. general ledger
D. accounts receivable
E. expert
43. Decision support systems are defined as systems that allow users to
A. build their own information systems.
B. request written reports at regular intervals.
C. enter questions and receive printed responses later.
D. telecommunicate to their jobs.
E. use their computer systems as fax machines.
44. The process of contracting systems development activities to an outside firm is known as
A. bottom-up systems development.
B. top-down systems development.
C. outsourcing.
D. re-engineering.
E. prototyping.
45. Designers can dramatically reduce the time they spend at the drafting board by using
A. DSS tools.
B. CAD.
C. information reporting systems.
D. CAM.
E. transaction processing systems.
46. Large transaction processing systems are generally built using
A. a prototyping approach to systems development.
B. end-user systems development.
C. top-down systems development.
D. the traditional approach to systems development.
E. the information center.
47. An example of an intangible benefit is
A. better service to customers.
B. a savings of $5,000 per month in labor.
C. a savings of $3,000 annually in communications charges.
D. a 50 percent increase in sales.
E. a 15 percent reduction in paper costs.
48. The use of technology to integrate many of the key operations of an organization into a single, networked system is referred to by
the acronym
A. CAD.
B. CAM.
C. ERP
D. DSS.
E. PIM.
49. DSS, GDSS, and EIS all refer to use of computers in the area(s) of
A. decision support.
B. office automation.
C. design and manufacturing. D. virtual reality. E. telecommuting.
50. A vendor rating system is a tool that can be employed usefully during the __________ phase of the systems development life cycle.
A. system design
B. systems analysts
C. system implementation D. system maintenance E. system acquisition
51. The people who work with users to assess their needs and design the necessary systems and software to meet those needs are
called
A. maintenance programmers.
B. backup programmers.
C. systems analysts.
D. interactive personnel.
E. beta testers.
52. Natural languages are most frequently used
A. as a tool for converting FORTAN programs into COBOL.
B. as a front end to database management packages or user help.
C. to create objects for object-oriented programming languages.
D. as a technique for preparing structure charts.
E. to create better flowcharts.
53. Specifying a formula incorrectly in a program is an example of
A. RAD behavior.
B. not having coding standards in place.
C. what usually happens when rapid development takes place.
D. a syntax error.
E. a logic error.
54. One huge advantage of most applications packages is that
A. the waiting time for delivery is only about six months.
B. they contain documentation.
C. testing is unnecessary.
D. their cost is low relative to that of developing the same type of software in-house.
E. procedural programming is possible.
55. Structured programming
A. makes traditional flowcharting a necessity.
B. makes program design more systematic.
C. complicates program documentation.
D. decreases programmer productivity.
E. discourages top-down design.
56. The quality assurance function would normally involve all of the following except
A. accuracy checking.
B. comparing program output against the needs specified by the user.
C. seeing that development standards have been met.
D. making sure that program output is understandable.
E. ensuring that development costs are minimized.
57. The three fundamental control structures do not include the _____ structure.
A. DOWHILE B. case C. sequence D. DOUNTIL
E. looping
58. The control structure used to represent a single condition having two possible outcomes is
A. looping. B. selection. C. case. D. sequence. E. iteration.
59. FORTRAN and COBOL are examples of
A. authoring software.
B. high-level languages.
C. fourth-generation languages.
D. assembly languages.
E. machine languages.
60. Which of the following languages is most suitable for developing Microsoft Windows applications?
A. FORTRAN
B. Prolog
C. COBOL
D. APL
E. Visual BASIC
61. Which of the following companies makes the products named Office and Windows?
A. Microsoft B. Corel C. WordPerfect
D. IBM E. Computer Associates
62. Which of the following companies produces WordPerfect?
A. Microsoft
B. Software Publishing
C. Packard Bell
D. Corel
E. Computer Associates
63. Saving a file in WordPerfect 5.1 format while using WordPerfect version 9 illustrates the latter's
A. incremental backup feature.
B. troubleshooting feature.
C. cross compatibility. D. upward compatibility. E. downward compatibility.
64. Which of the following is generally not an advantage of retail computer stores?
A. service and repair support
B. low prices
C. resolving problems with equipment
D. trained salespeople available to answer questions
E. trying out hardware and software before a purchase
65. _____ backup refers to backing up files that have been created or have changed since the last full backup.
A. Typical
B. Custom C. Incremental D. Differential E. Run-time
66. Which of the following enables a computer system to keep running when the main power fails?
A. screen saver B. UPS C. warranty D. backup E. surge suppressor
67. Videotape-rental stores most often buy their computer systems directly from
A. third-tier PC manufacturers.
B. companies such as Compaq and Dell.
C. computer stores like Computerland.
D. made-to-order manufacturers like Gateway.
E. value-added resellers.
68. Which of the following is likely to void a product warranty?
A. buying from a mail-order firm
B. buying a product at a discount
C. paying for a product with a credit card
D. doing repairs yourself
E. shipping the product back to the seller via the post office
69. A major vendor upgrade of a software product is called a
A. version. B. production. C. release. D. beta test.
E. module.
70. A product is said to be _____ obsolete when it no longer meets the needs of an individual or business.
A. technologically B. functionally
C. theoretically
D. practically
E. far from
71. The dangers posed by display devices is largely a matter of
A. ethics. B. computer crime. C. ergonomics. D. privacy.
E. biometric security.
72. The practice of legitimately disguising data and programs by garbling them is referred to as
A. spoofing. B. passwording. C. encryption. D. biometric security. E. spamming.
73. Shaving off small dollar amounts in numerous, randomly selected accounts and posting them to another account is a computer
crime known as
A. data diddling. B. cryptography. C. spamming. D. the salami technique.
E. spoofing.
74. Which of the following does not refer to a computer crime technique?
A. Trojan horse technique B. spoofing C. logic bomb
D. passwording E. data diddling
75. A pizza parlor concerned that too many people phoning in orders are giving false names and addresses could probably benefit by
A. cryptography. B. passwording. C. spoofing.
D. micromarketing.
E. caller identification.
76. Much privacy legislation regarding computers relates to the conduct of
A. IBM.
B. government. C. a handful of Toronto-based companies.
D. industry.
E. movie stars.
77. Which of the following types of computer crime works by stealing identification numbers and programming them into a hardware
device that uses them?
A. implanting a computer virus
B. cellular phone fraud
C. data diddling
D. hacking E. cyberporn
78. Biometric security devices would likely be used to
A. educate employees. B. assist with audits. C. limit access to programs and data.
D. call back alleged users. E. encrypt programs and data.
79. A collection of hardware and software intended to prevent computer networks from attack is called a(n)
A. disaster-recovery groupware. B. biometic-security device.
C. firewall.
D. authentication system.
E. Trojan horse.
80. Which of the following is not a reason that so much federal privacy legislation regarding computers is out of date?
A. Graphical user interfaces have changed the way people use computers.
B. A lot of the legislation is at least 20 years old.
C. Personal computers have created many new possibilities for privacy invasion.
D. Most information today never makes it into hard-copy form.
E. Legislators failed to gauge the impact that networks would have.
ANSWER KEY FOR TEST final fall 2000
1. B
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:HAQ
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Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:HAQ
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:P1Q
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 9
2. C
3. D
4. A
5. E
6. A
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. D
15. E
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. E
23. D
24. A
25. D
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. B
30. A
Chapter:P2Q
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:P3Q
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:F1Q
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:F2Q
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 2
31. E
32. C
33. D
34. E
35. C
36. B
37. E
38. B
39. A
40. D
41. A
42. D
43. A
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. A
48. C
49. A
50. E
51. C
52. B
53. E
54. D
55. B
56. E
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. E
61. A
62. D
63. E
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 4
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 5
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:L1Q
QUESTION: 10
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 1
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 2
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 3
Chapter:L2Q
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Chapter:L2Q
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Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 6
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 7
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 8
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 9
Chapter:L2Q
QUESTION: 10
64. B
65. D
66. B
67. E
68. D
69. A
70. B
71. C
72. C
73. D
74. D
75. E
76. B
77. B
78. C
79. C
80. A