Download ID_3227_Infectious diseases test_English_sem_7

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?Virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
RS-virus
Rhinovirus
Adenovirus
Rotavirus
Flu
Virus causing tonsillitis, diarrhea and conjunctivitis:
Adenovirus
Rhinovirus
RS-virus
Rotavirus
Flu
What measures are necessary to patient with flu (fever 40,1 °C, breathing is 40 for a minute)?
Decreasing of patients temperature
Artificial ventilation
Oxygen. inhalation
Infusion therapy
Antibiotic therapy
In patient with ARVI the fever developed to 40,1 °C, frequency of breathing is 40 for a minute. What
measures are necessary?
Decreasing of patients temperature
Artificial ventilation
Oxygen. inhalation
Infusion therapy
Antibiotic therapy
What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of flu?
Complete analysis of blood
X-ray of organs of thoraxes cavity
Analysis of sputum
Determination of viruses by the method of immunofluorescence
Biochemical blood test
What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of flu?
Complete analysis of blood
X-ray of organs of thoraxes cavity
Analysis of sputum
Determination of viruses by PSR
Biochemical blood test
What complication more often may appear in flu?
Bronchitis
Edema of brain
Pneumonia
Edema of lungs
Infectious-toxic shock
What complication more often may appear in flu?
Glomerulonephritis
Edema of brain
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Pneumonia
Edema of lungs
Reyno-syndrom
What is conduct specific passive immunnoprophylaxis of flu?
Living attenuated vaccine
Inactive parenteral vaccine
Human immunoglobulin
Remantadin
Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action|
What is conduct specific passive immunnoprophylaxis of flu?
Living attenuated vaccine
Inactive parenteral vaccine
Any one
Remantadin
Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action|
Duration of isolation of patient with influenza complications?
4 days
7 days
10 days
17 days
Not required
What level is necessary to reduce the temperature of patient’s body with hyperthermia?
39,0 °C
38,0 °C
37,5 °C
37,0 °C
38,5 °C
In a patient with flu fever develops to 40,1 °C, breathing frequency 40/min. What measures are the
most effective in treatment of such complication.
Reduce of body temperature
Keep patient on artificial lung ventilation
Oxygen inhalation
Infusion therapy
Antibiotic therapy|
What measures are the most effective in treatment in a patient with flu fever develops to 40,1 °C,
breathing frequency 40/min.
Reduce of body temperature
Keep patient on artificial lung ventilation
Oxygen inhalation
Infusion therapy
Antibiotic therapy|
At a child with the clinical displays of ARVI a generalized lymphadenopathy, one-sided
conjunctivitis increase of liver and spleen, is marked. Most reliable diagnosis?
Infectious mononucleosis
Leptospirosis
Adenoviral infection
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Flu
Pseudotuberculosis
At a patient with influenza diagnosed lymphadenopathy, increased of the liver and spleen. Most
reliable diagnosis?
Infectious mononucleosis
Leptospirosis
Adenoviral infection
Flu
Pseudotuberculosis
What is conduct specific passive immunnoprophylaxis of flu?
Living attenuated vaccine
Inactive parenteral vaccine
By an immunoprotein
Remantadin
Antibiotics of wide spectrum of action|
Name the agent of influenza.
Viruses
Spirochetes
Bacteria
Rickettsiae
Mushrooms
Influenza virus is:
Ortomixsovirus
Legionella
Pathogenic staphylococci
Fungus
Adenovirus
What is antigenic drave of influenza virus?
The antigenic changes in the virus within a subtype
Recombination of the hemagglutynin and neuraminidase
Antigenic changes in the virus within the serovar
Genetic recombination between different strains of the influenza virus
Variability of the neuraminidase
What is antigenic shift of influenza virus?
The antigenic changes in the virus within a subtype
Recombination of the hemagglutynin and neuraminidase
Antigenic changes in the virus within the serovar
Genetic recombination between different strains of the influenza virus
Complete replacement of the neuraminidase
What the media are used to isolate influenza‘s virus?
The cell cultures
Gall broth
1% peptone water
Medium that contains blood
Water-serum culture medium
Which of these modes of transmission characteristic to the flu?
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Contact
Transmissiv
Alimentary
Airborne
Vertical
Which of these mechanisms for the transfer characteristic to the flu?
Contact
Transmissiv
Alimentary
Airborne
All of the above
Which group of infections is influenza for?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Anthropozoonosis
Not identified
The entrance gate of the flu:
Columnar epithelium of the mucous membranes of the respiratory tract
Peyer's patches and solitary follicles
The mucous membrane of the tonsils
Epithelial cells of the skin
The mucous membrane of the digestive tract
Characteristic syndrome of uncomplicated influenza:
Intoxication syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome
Skin rashes
DIS
Gepatolienalny syndrome
Characteristic syndrome of uncomplicated influenza:
Bowel dysfunction
Catarrhal syndrome
Hypovolemic syndrome
Meningeal syndrome
Gepatolienalny syndrome
Clinical manifestations of intoxication syndrome of influenza:
Acute onset of illness
High fever
Headache in the frontal-orbital region
General aches
All of the above
Clinical manifestations of intoxication syndrome of influenza:
High fever
Conjunctivitis
Headache in the frontal-orbital region
Myalgia
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All of the above
Clinical manifestations of intoxication syndrome of influenza:
Headache
Pain in the eyeballs
General aches
Vomiting
All of the above
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu:
Dry, scratchy, sore nose and throat
Runny nose with 2-3rd day of illness
Dry hacking cough
Labored nasal breathing
All of the above
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu:
Dry, scratchy throat
Redness, swelling and swelling of the mucous membrane of the oropharynx
Dry cough
Labored nasal breathing
All of the above
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu, except:
Dry, scratchy throat
Labored nasal breathing, runny nose with a 2-3rd day of illness
Dry cough
Congestive redness, dryness, swelling and swelling of the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx
The raid on the tonsils
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu, except:
Dry, scratchy, sore throat
Labored nasal breathing
"Barking" cough
Congestive redness, dryness, swelling and swelling of the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx
Runny nose with 2-3rd day of illness
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu, except:
Dry, scratchy, sore throat
Labored nasal breathing
Membranous conjunctivitis
Congestive redness, dryness, swelling and swelling of the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx
Runny nose with 2-3rd day of illness
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu, except:
Dry, scratchy, sore throat
Labored nasal breathing
Poliadenopatiya
Congestive redness, dryness, swelling and swelling of the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx
Runny nose with 2-3rd day of illness
Clinical manifestations of catarrhal symptoms of the flu, except:
Dry, scratchy, sore throat
Labored nasal breathing
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Hepatosplenomegaly
Congestive redness, dryness, swelling and swelling of the mucous membrane of the nasopharynx
Runny nose with 2-3rd day of illness
Clinical manifestations of respiratory tract lesions in patients with uncomplicated influenza during
the first days of illness:
Profuse rhinorrhea
Tracheobronchitis
False croup
Bronchiolitis
Pneumonia
Clinical manifestations of respiratory tract lesions in patients with uncomplicated influenza during
the first days of illness:
Nasal congestion
Tracheobronchitis
Pneumonia
Sore throat
All of the above
Clinical manifestations of respiratory tract lesions in patients with uncomplicated influenza during
the first days of illness during the first days of illness:
Running nose
Tracheobronchitis
Conjunctivitis
Hyperemia of the posterior pharyngeal wall
All of the above
Characteristic syndrome of adenovirus infection:
Catarrhal syndrome
Conjunctivitis
Lymphadenopathy
Gepatolienal syndrome
All of the above
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection:
Pharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Lymphadenopathy
Bowel dysfunction
All of the above
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection:
Pharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Tonsillitis
Generalized lymphadenopathy
All of the above
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection:
Moderate intoxication
Conjunctivitis
Tonsillitis, pharyngitis
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Lymphadenopathy
All of the enumerated
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection, except:
Pharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Tonsillitis
Lymphadenopathy
The predominance of catarrhal intoxication syndrome
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection, except:
Pharyngitis, tonsillitis
Conjunctivitis
Bowel dysfunction
Lymphadenopathy
Hemorrhagic syndrome
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection, except:
Conjunctivitis
Lymphadenopathy
Bowel dysfunction
Hepatosplenomegaly
Hemorrhagic syndrome
Characteristic symptom of adenovirus infection, except:
Conjunctivitis
Lymphadenopathy
Bowel dysfunction
Hepatosplenomegaly
Meningeal syndrome
The most typical clinical manifestations of parainfluenza:
Pharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Tonsillitis
Lymphadenopathy
Laryngitis
The most typical clinical manifestations of parainfluenza:
Tonsillopharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Bowel dysfunction
Lymphadenopathy
Laryngitis
The most typical clinical manifestations of parainfluenza:
Tonsillopharyngitis
Conjunctivitis
Bowel dysfunction
Lymphadenopathy
False croup
The most typical clinical manifestations of parainfluenza:
Tonsillitis
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Conjunctivitis
Severe intoxication
Lymphadenopathy
Hoarseness
The most common complication of parainfluenza:
False croup
Pneumonia
IVDS
Meningoencephalitis
All of the above
Clinical manifestations of parainfluenza:
Dry, "barking" cough
Hoarseness
Moderate intoxication
Low-grade temperature
All of the above
Laboratory diagnosis of influenza:
Cultivation of the virus in chicken embryos
Detection of viral antigens by immunofluorescence in nasopharyngeal swabs
Detection of antibodies to the virus in paired sera
Detection of viral antigens by fluorescent microscopy in smears from the nasal mucosa
All of the above
Laboratory diagnosis of influenza:
Cultivation of the virus in tissue culture
Detection of viral antigens by immunofluorescence in nasopharyngeal swabs
Detection of antibodies to the virus in paired sera
Detection of viral antigens using the polymerase chain reaction
All of the above
Laboratory diagnosis of influenza:
Immunofluorescence method of nasal swabs
Complete blood count
Bacteriological examination of sputum
Bioassay in laboratory animals
All of the above
What drag use for etiotropic treatment of flu:
Paracetamol
Aspirin
Antibiotics
Tamiflu
All of the above
What drag use for etiotropic treatment of flu:
Antibiotics
Aspirin
Sulfonamides
Specific immunoglobulin
All of the above
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What drag use for etiotropic treatment of flu:
Antibiotics
Glucocorticoids
Vitamins
Rimantadine
All of the above
Indications for antibiotic treatment of influenza:
Very severe form
The presence of complications
Selected age groups (children, elderly)
The presence of foci of chronic bacterial infection
All of the above
Indications for antibiotic treatment of influenza:
Very severe form
High body temperature
Sore throat
Pain when moving the eyeballs
All of the above
Indications for antibiotic treatment of influenza:
Poor health
The presence of complications
Heavy cold
Belonging to the decreed population
All of the above
Indications for antibiotic treatment of influenza:
The presence of foci of chronic bacterial infection
High body temperature
Severe headache
General aches
All of the above
What drag use for etiotropic treatment of adenovirus infection:
Paracetamol
Aspirin
Antibiotics
Deoxyribonuclease
All of the above
Indicate signs of possible complications of influenza:
Duration of fever for more than 5 days
Leukocytosis
Neutrophilia
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
All of the above
What are characteristic changes in the peripheral blood in patients with uncomplicated influenza:
Leukopenia
Limfomonocytoz
Neutropenia
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Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
All of the above
What are characteristic changes in the peripheral blood of adenovirus infection:
Leukocytosis
Limfomonocitoz
Neutropenia
Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
All of the above
Influenza, unlike rhinovirus infection, characterized by:
Low-grade body temperature
Watery eyes, frequent sneezing, in the absence of symptoms tracheobronchitis
Mucosa slightly hyperemic
Thick serous nasal discharge
The severity of intoxication syndrome
Influenza, unlike the adenovirus infection, characterized by:
The phenomena of tonsillitis
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Asymmetric conjunctivitis
Severe symptoms of intoxication
Influenza, unlike measles, characterized by:
"barking" cough
The presence of a rash
Koplik's spots
Long duration
Symptom of Morozkin
For adenoviral infection, in contrast to parainfluenza, not typical:
Enlarged tonsils
Acute and long-term course
Hepatosplenomegaly
Laryngitis
Membranous conjunctivitis
For real croup in opposed to the false, is not typical:
Severe, progressive intoxication
Hoarseness
Evolution
Comes on suddenly at night
Typical attacks on the tonsils
In which of these infections is most characteristic of meningeal syndrome?
Flu
Adenovirus infection
Parainfluenza
Rhinovirus infection
For any of the above
A patient has temperature of body 40,0 °C, nonproductive cough, photophobia, puffiness of face, dots
on gums, blushes on the mucus. What is diagnosis?
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79.
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Tuberculosis
Меningococcemia
Measles
Enteroviral infection
Staphylococcal sepsis
How is the urgent prophylaxis of scarlet fever conducted?
By vaccination
Isolation of children, who had contact with a patient
Using immunoglobulin
Disinfection
Non-admission of contact with carrier of B-streptococcus
All are the clinical signs of measles EXEPT:
Acute beginning of high fever
Icterus
Maculo-papula rash
Sequential appearance of rash
Scaling
For how long a patient with complicated of measles should be isolated:
For 4 days from the beginning of rash
For 7 days from the beginning of rash
For 10 days from the beginning of rash
For 17 days from the beginning
For 20 days from the beginning of illness
How long is contagious period in patient with uncomplicated form of measles?
Until clinical recovery
After rash starts disappearing
Before appearance of rash
4 days from the beginning of rash
10 days from the beginning of illness
What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
11 days
21 day
10 days
No need for quarantine
5 days after isolation of the last child
What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis?
21 days
First week of illness
First 10 days from the beginning of disease
Whole period of clinical symptoms
First 9 days of disease
What measures should be taken in regards to persons, who were in contact with a patient with
mumps?
Observation after contact people during a maximal length of incubation period
Quarantine in child's establishment
Isolation of people who were in contact with ill from 11th to the 21t day of illness
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84.
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B.
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85.
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86.
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B.
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87.
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B.
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88.
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89.
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90.
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B.
C.
Isolation of children up to 10 years old, who were not ill with mumps, for 21 day from a moment of
contact
All above enumerated
What is the duration of contagious period for a patient with scarlet fever?
10 days from the beginning of illness
Until patient is discharged from the hospital
Until rash is present
Till the 22d day from the beginning of illness
Not contagious
What is duration period of supervision after ill with scarlet fever?
7 days from time of contact
21 day
Till patient’s rash is present
Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
Not conducted
Methods of specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever:
Isolation of ill
Vaccination
Use of antibiotics
Disinfection
Does not exist
What are the antiepidemic measures in regards to people who were in contact with chicken-pox
patient:
Separation and limit of contacts with others
Vaccination
Use of antibiotics
Disinfection
Does not exist
Measures of urgent prophylaxis for unvaccinated children who have never been ill with measles in
case of exposure to an ill with measles.
Separation from the source
Vaccination
Administration of antibiotics
Disinfection
Does not exist
Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for contacts which have never been ill, but were
vaccinated against measles.
Separation from the source
Vaccination
Use of antibiotics
Use of immunoglobulin
Nothing
Measures of urgent prophylaxis of measles for people who had been ill with measles, but never have
been vaccinated.
Separation from the ill
Vaccination
Use of immunoglobulin
D.
E. *
91.
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B.
C.
D.
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92.
A.
B.
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D.
E.
93.
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D.
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94.
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95.
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96.
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C.
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97.
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C.
Use of antibiotics
Nothing
A child 10 years old has temperature 38,0 °C, renitis, conjunctivitis, moist cough. On the mucous
membrane of cheeks, lips, gums there are greyish-white points, reminding a farina. What is the
diagnosis?
Measles
Adenoviral infection
URTI
Enteroviral infection
Infectious mononucleosis
A patient’s temperature is 40,0 °C. There are also deep and unproductive cough, photophobia, face
puffiness whitish points on the mucous membrane of cheeks opposite molar teeth. What is the most
possible diagnosis?
Tuberculosis
Meningococcemia
Measles
Enteroviral infection
Staphylococcus sepsis
All are the clinical signs of measles except:
Acute beginning of high fever
Icterus
Maculo-papula rash
Sequential appearance of rash
Scaling
For how long a patient with complicated form of measles should be isolated:
For 4 days from the beginning of rash
For 7 days from the beginning of rash
For 10 days from the beginning of rash
For 17 days from the beginning
For 20 days from the beginning of illness
For how long a patient without complicated form of measles should be isolated:
For 4 days from the beginning of rash
For 7 days from the beginning of rash
For 10 days from the beginning of rash
For 17 days from the beginning
For 20 days from the beginning of illness
Term of contagious period of patient diagnosed with uncomplicated form of measles
Until clinical recovery
After rash starts disappearing
Before appearance of rash
4 days from the beginning of rash
10 days from the beginning of illness
What is the duration of quarantine in child's establishment in case of rubella?
11 days
21 day
10 days
D.
E.
98.
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B.
C.
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99.
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B.
C.
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100.
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101.
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102.
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103.
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104.
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No need for quarantine
5 days after isolation of the last child
What is duration of contagious period for a patient with epidemic parotitis?
21 days
First week of illness
First 10 days from the beginning of disease
Whole period of clinical symptoms
First 9 days of disease
What measures should be taken in regards to persons, who were in contact with a patient diagnosed
with epidemic parotitis?
Observation after contact people during a maximal length of incubation period
Quorantine in child's establishment
Isolation of people who were in contact with ill from 11th to the 21th day of illness
Isolation of children up to 10 years old, who were not ill with epidemic parotitis, for 21 day from a
moment of contact
All above enumerated
What is the duration of contagious period for a patient diagnosed with scarlet fever?
10 days from the beginning of illness
Until patient is discharged from the hospital
Until rash is present
Till the 22nd day from the beginning of illness
Not contagious
What group of infectious diseases scarlet fever belong to:
Intestinal
Blood
Respiratory
Transmissive
External covers
What is the mechanism of transmission of scarlet fever?
Fecal-oral
Contact
Transmissive
Air-drop
Vertical
What is seasonal character of scarlet fever?
Summer-autumn
Autumn-winter
Winter-spring
Winter
Summer
What is duration period of supervision after scarlet fever?
7 days from time of contact
21 days
Till patient’s rash is present
Till patient is discharged from permanent establishment
Not conducted
105.
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C.
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106.
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B.
C.
D.
E.
107.
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B.
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D.
E.
108.
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B.
C.
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E.
109.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
110.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
111.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
Methods of specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever:
Isolation of ill
Vaccination
Use of antibiotics
Disinfection
Does not exist
What are the antiepidemic measures in regards to people who were in contact with chicken-pox
patient:
Separation and limit of contacts with others
Vaccination
Use of antibiotics
Disinfection
Does not exist
What group of infectious diseases measles belong to:
Intestinal
Blood
Respiratory
Transmissive
External covers
What is the mechanism of transmission of measles?
Fecal-oral
Contact
Transmissive
Air-drop
Vertical
A child of age 2 years has temperature of body 37,3 °C, cold, hoarse voice “barking cough” appeared
suddenly the anxiety, shortness of breath, appeared with participation of auxiliary muscles. Supposed
diagnosis?
Parainfluenza, false croup
Diphtheria croup
Allergic laryngitis, croup
Flu, laryngitis
Acute exudative pleuritis
A child 10 years old with temperature 38,0 °C, conjunctivitis, moist cough, hyperemia of the mucous
membranes of cheeks and lips. Gums are pallor. What is your diagnosis?
Measles
Adenoviral infection
Acute respiratory viral infection
Enteroviral infection
Infectious mononucleosis
A patient with temperature of body 40,0 °C, nonproductive cough, photophobia, puffiness of face,
dots on gums, blushes on the mucus of cheeks your diagnosis?
Tuberculosis
Меningococcemia
Measles
Enteroviral infection
Staphylococcal sepsis
112.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
113.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
116.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
117.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
118.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
119.
A.
B.
A patient on the background of ARVI the fever developed to 40,1 °C, frequency of breathing is 40
for a minute. What measures are necessary?
Decreasing of patients temperature
Artificial ventillation
Oxygen. inhalation
Infusion therapy
Antibioticotherapy
Typical clinical signs of measles are, except:
Acute onset of high fever
Jaundice
Maculo-papula rash
Stages rash
Peeling
Periods of measles are:
Catarrhal, during eruptions
Catarrhal, period pigmentation
Catarrhal, during eruptions, pigmentation period
Catarrhal, spasmodic cough during
All of the above
Clinical signs of catarrhal period measles are:
Acute onset of high fever
Running nose
Conjunctivitis
Bielski-Koplik-Filatov‘s spots
All of the above
Clinical signs of catarrhal period of measles are, except:
Acute onset of high fever
Running nose
Conjunctivitis
Bielski-Koplik-Filatov‘s spots
Exanthema
Clinical signs of catarrhal period of measles are, except:
Acute onset of high fever
Running nose
Conjunctivitis
Bielski-Koplik-Filatov‘s spots
Spasmodic cough
Clinical signs of catarrhal period of measles are, except:
Acute onset of high fever
Running nose
Conjunctivitis with copious purulent
Bielski-Koplik-Filatov‘s spots
Dry cough
Features rash of measles:
Appears on the 3-4th day of illness
Maculo-papula, confluent
C.
D.
E. *
120.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
121.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
122.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
123.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
124.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
125.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
127.
Stages rash
Leaves pigmentation
All of the above
Features rash of measles:
Stages rash
Maculo-papula, sometimes hemorrhagic, confluent
Leaves pigmentation
Defurfuration
All of the above
Features a measles rash, except:
Stages rash
Maculo-papula, sometimes haemorrhagic, confluent
Leaves pigmentation
Lamellar desquamation
All of the above
Features a measles rash, except:
Appears in the 1-2-day sickness
Maculo-papula, sometimes haemorrhagic, confluent
Leaves pigmentation
Defurfuration
All of the above
Features a measles rash, except:
Appears on the 3-4th day of illness
Hemorrhagic, confluent, with elements of necrosis
Leaves pigmentation
Defurfuration
Stages
Features a measles rash, except:
Appears on the 3-4th day of illness
Vesicular, sometimes hemorrhagic, confluent
Leaves pigmentation
Defurfuration
All of the above
Clinical signs of measles rash period:
High fever
Increased cough, rhinitis
Conjunctivitis, photophobia
Maculo-papula rash
All of the above
Clinical signs of the rash of measles period, except:
High fever
Increased cough, rhinitis
Conjunctivitis, photophobia
Maculo-papula rash
Peeling
Clinical signs of the rash of measles period, except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
130.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
131.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
132.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
133.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
High fever
Increased cough, rhinitis
Conjunctivitis, photophobia
Maculo-papula rash
Jaundice
Clinical signs of the rash of measles period, except:
High fever
Increased cough, rhinitis
Conjunctivitis, photophobia
Maculo-papula rash
Pigmentation
Features exanthema of measles:
Bright maculopapula
Tendency to fuse elements
Phases of the rash
Consecutive change-peeling rash, pigmentation
All of the above
Features exanthema of measles, except:
Bright maculo-papula
Hemorrhagic, with elements of necrosis
Tendency to fuse elements
Phases of the rash
Consecutive change-peeling rash, pigmentation
Features exanthema of measles, except:
Bright maculopapular
Drain
Throughout the body
Appears simultaneously in all areas
Consecutive change-peeling rash, pigmentation
Duration of infectious cases of scarlet fever:
10 days of onset
Prior to discharge from hospital
Prior to the disappearance of the rash
Until 22 days from the onset of the disease
Generally not contagious
Monitoring of contact lines for scarlet fever
7 days from the time of contact
21 days
Prior to the disappearance of a patient rash
To discharge the patient from hospital
Never performed
Methods of specific prevention of scarlet fever:
Dissociation of contact
Vaccination
Use of antibiotics
Disinfection
E. *
135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
137.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
141.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
142.
A.
B.
Absent
Character rash of scarlet fever:
It appears in 1-2-day sickness
Punctuated on hyperemic background skin
Thickening in the natural folds
Education lines graze
All of the above
Features rash of scarlet fever:
It appears in 1-2-day sickness
Punctuated on hyperemic background skin
Thickening in the natural folds
Peeling plate ends
All of the above
Features rash of scarlet fever, except:
It appears in 1-2-day sickness
Punctuated on hyperemic background skin
Mandatory phasing rash
Peeling plate in end
All of the above
Features rash of scarlet fever, except:
It appears in 1-2-day sickness
Punctuate on hyperemic background skin
Thickening in the natural folds
Do not peel off
All of the above
For scarlet fever is characterized by:
Angina
Punctuate hyperemic rash on skin background
"Burning" shed
"Strawberry" tongue
All of the above
For scarlet fever is characterized by:
Angina
Punctuate hyperemic rash on skin background
White nasolabial triangle
"Strawberry" tongue
All of the above
For scarlet fever is characterized by:
Angina
Punctuate hyperemic rash on skin background
Resistant white dermographism
"Strawberry" tongue
All of the above
For scarlet fever is characterized, except:
Angina
Punctuate hyperemic rash on skin background
C.
D.
E. *
143.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
146.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
150.
Line of Pastia
"Strawberry" tongue
Defurfuration
For scarlet fever is characterized by such changes of tongue:
"lacquered"
"Strawberry"
With imprints of teeth
Symptom Govorova-Godelier
All of the above
Laboratory confirmation of scarlet fever:
Sowing the pathogen from blood
Detection of the pathogen in the material from the oropharynx
The increase in specific antibody titers
Neutrophilic leukocytosis
Not required
Complications of scarlet fever:
Myocarditis
Glomerulonephritis
Sepsis
Lymphadenitis
All of the above
Complications of scarlet fever:
Myocarditis
Glomerulonephritis
Otitis
Arthritis
All of the above
Complications of scarlet fever, except:
Myocarditis
Glomerulonephritis
Otitis
Arthritis
Stenosis of the larynx
Complications of scarlet fever, except:
Myocarditis
Glomerulonephritis
Otitis
Arthritis
Enterorrhagia
For the treatment of scarlet fever are necessary:
Antibiotics
Antihistamines
Vitamins
Detoxification facilities
All of the above
For the treatment of scarlet fever are shown, except for:
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
151.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
152.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
153.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
155.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
156.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
157.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
Antibiotics
Antihistamines
Dekamevit
Decaris
All of the above
For the treatment of scarlet fever are shown, except for:
Antibiotics
Antihistamines
Dekamevit
Ganciclovir
All of the above
For the treatment of scarlet fever are shown, except for:
Antibiotics
Antihistamines
Dekamevit
Azidothymidine
All of the above
The duration of quarantine in an institution with rubella:
5 days after the last patient isolation
11 days
21 days
10 days
Do not impose quarantine
For rubella is characterized by:
Spotted rash
Mild fever
Increased occipitals glands
Moderate intoxication
All of the above
For rubella rash are characterized by:
Spotted rash
The location on the face, neck and body
Any phasing
Disappears without peeling
All of the above
For rubella rash are characteristic, except:
Spotted rash
Location on the face, neck and body
Specific stages
Disappears without peeling
All of the above
For rubella rash are characteristic, except:
Spotted rash
Location on face, neck and body
Do not have a tendency to fuse elements
Lamellar desquamation
E.
158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
161.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
163.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
164.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
165.
A.
B.
All of the above
Complications of rubella, except:
Arthritis
Encephalitis
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Congenital malformations of the fetus with the disease of the mother in the first trimester of
pregnancy
Intestinal perforation
Complications of rubella, except:
Arthritis
Encephalitis
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Congenital malformations of the fetus with the disease of the mother in the first trimester of
pregnancy
Toxic shock
Typical clinical manifestations of mumps:
Fever
Growth and tenderness of salivary glands
Serous meningitis
Orchitis, oophoritis
All of the above
Typical clinical manifestations of mumps:
Fever
Positive symptom of Murson
Stiff neck muscles
Pancreatitis
All of the above
What changes is typical for salivary glands in epidparotitis:
Swelling in fossa retromandibularis
Positive symptom of Murson
Shape of face is like to pear
Dry mouth, pain when chewing
All of the above
What changes is not typical for salivary glands in epidparotitis:
Swelling in retromandibular fossa
Positive Murson‘s symptom
Shape of face is like to pea
Dry mouth, pain when chewing
"Burning" orofaring
What changes is not typical for salivary glands in epidparotitis:
Swelling in retromandibular fossa
Dry mouth, pain when chewing
Shape of face is like to pea
Kernig-Brudzinskyy‘s symptoms
Necrotic process in the tonsils
What changes is not typical for salivary glands in epidparotitis:
Swelling in retromandibular fossa
Dry mouth, pain when chewing
C.
D.
E. *
166.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
167.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
168.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
169.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
170.
A.
171.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
172.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
173.
A. *
B.
Abdominal pain, vomiting
Pyogenic orchiepididymitis
For mumps meningitis is characterized by:
Paresthesia
Kernig-Brudzinskyy‘s symptoms
Severe headache, vomiting
Serous changes of CSF
All of the above
For mumps meningitis is typical, except:
Swelling in retromandibular fossa
Kernig-Brudzinskyy‘s symptoms
Severe headache, vomiting
Purulent changes of CSF
Paresthesia
What is actions against persons who were in contact with the patient with mumps:
Monitoring of contact for the maximum incubation period
Quarantine in child care
Prevention of children in the community, to communicate with patients with 11 to 21 days from the
moment of contact
Isolation of children up to 10 years earlier without a history of up to 21 days from the moment of
contact
All of the above
Indicators that not reflect the functional state of the liver in patients with hepatitis:
Markers HBV
Bilirubin
Aminotransferases
Urobilinuria
Protein fractions of blood serum
Non indicators test that reflect the functional state of the liver in patients with hepatitis:
What family of viruses does an exciter of HIV/AIDS belong to?
Orto- and paramyxovirus
Rabdovirus
Retrovirus
Herpesvirus
Reovirus
How many types of HIV are known?
One
Two
Three
Four
Five
At what temperature does a virus perished instantly?
37 °C
56 °C
C.
D.
E.
174.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
175.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
177.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
178.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
179.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
180.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
100 °C
0 °C
- 10 °C
What group of infectious diseases an exciter of HIV infection/AIDS belong to by L. Gromashevskij
classification?
Intestinal infection
Infections of respiratory tract
Blood infection
Infection of external covers
Behave to all indicated groups
Name the source of exciter HIV infection/AIDS?
Man
Warm-blooded animal
Poultries
Amphibious
Fishes
The basic way of transmission of exciter HIV infections/AIDS are such:
Aerogene
Alimentary
Parentalarenteral
Through a kiss
Bite of mosquito|
Receptivity of man to HIV infection at heterosexual infection is:
100 %
50 %
20 %
10 %
0,1 %
What probability of infection to ricipients of contaminated blood of HIV-infection?
All are infected
Majority is infected
Every second is infected
Every third is infected
Infected in single cases
Call the groups of possible risk of HIV infection:
Only homo- and bisexual, prostitutes and other persons who conduct disorderly sexual life:
Only drug addicts who enter drugs parenterally
Only recipeint of blood, its preparations, sperm and organs
Only patients with venereal diseases and parenteral viral hepatitis and from the HIV infected
mothers
All the above
What medical professions carry the most potential threat of infection?
Surgical and laboratory specialities, who contact with blood
Therapeutic specialities
Epidemiologists
Sociologist
Teachers of medical establishments
181.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
182.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
183.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
184.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
185.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
186.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
187.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
188.
A.
B.
C.
What sexual contacts are the most dangerous in relation to an infection with HIV?
Vaginal
Anal
Oral
Lesbian
Artificial impregnation
Name the most dangerous parenteral way of infection of HIV/AIDS?
Infusion of donor blood and its preparations
Transplantation of organs
.Injections of medication
Diagnostic manipulations
Intravenous introduction of drugs
What cell of human body can HIV get into?
Red corpuscles
Neutrophilic leucocytes
Monocyte
T-lymphocte-killer
T-cell helper
What cellular receptors of man can HIV stick to?
CD4
CD8
CD95
CD40
CD3
What level do the clonals of immunological memory go down to?
To 1000 cell
To 500 cell
To 300 cell|
To 100 cell
To 10 cell
Name the main specific methods of diagnosis of HIV infection which is used in Ukraine?
RPGA
PLR
IFA and ELISA
Bioassey
RIA
What clinical features of sarcoma Kaposhi in patients with AIDS?
Will strike the persons of young and middle age
Primary elements appear on a head and trunk
Pouring out with necrosis and ulceration
A sarcoma metastasis | in internal and marked high lethality
All adopted features
For today the effective methods of protection from HIV are:
Vaccination and immunoprotein
Chemoprophylactic
Isolation of patients
D. *
E.
189.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
190.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
191.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
192.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
193.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
195.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
196.
A. *
Safe sex and prevention of drug addiction
Disinfection
In what year HIV/AIDS was discovered?
1981
1982
1983
2002
2003
Who was discovered HIV/AIDS?
I. Miosi
B. Marshall and D. Uorren
R. Gallo
C. Prusiner
L. Montan'e and R. Gallo
?What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Zooanthroponosis
A group is not certain
For corynebacterium diphtheria is typical:
Contain endotoxin only
Exotoxin products
Exotoxin does not product
An enterotoxin products
Myelotoxin products
What medical measures are primary in diphtheria of pharynx, widespread form?
.Introduction of non steroid and ant inflammatory drug
.Introduction of antibiotic
.Introduction of antydiphtheria seru
.Introduction of glucocorticoid
.Disintoxication therap
What group of infectious diseases diphtheria belong to?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Zooanthroponosis
A group is not certain
What is the properties of сorynebacterium diphtheria:
Contain endotoxin only
Exotoxin products
Exotoxin does not product
An enterotoxin products
Myelotoxin products
The source of infection at diphtheria is:
Sick people and carriers
B.
C.
D.
E.
197.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
198.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
199.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
200.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
201.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
202.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
203.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
Sick agricultural animals
Rodents
Mosquitoes
Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients
What is mechanism of transmission of Corynebacterium diphtheria?
Vertical
Transmissive
Air-drop
Contact
Parenteral
Especially high titre of ant diptherial antitoxic antibodies testifies to:
Recovering
Acute period of diphtheria
Bacteriocarriering
Forming of immunity to diphtheria
About nothing does not testify
What group of infectious diseases by L. Gromashevsky classification diphtheria belong to?
External covers
Blood
Intestinal
Respiratory ways
Transmissive
What is transmissive factors in diphtheria?
Blood
Water
Saliva
Urine
Exrements
What is seasonal character of diphtheria?
Spring-summer
Summer-autumn
Autumn-winter
Winter-spring
Spring-autumn
Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, they are recommended:
To explore an immune type
To use antibiotics
To use antihistamines
5 years after last revaccination
10 years after last revaccination
Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
In first days after birth of child
In 3 month age
In 6-month age
In 1 year
In 6 years
204.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
205.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
206.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
207.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
208.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
209.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
210.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
211.
A.
B.
Before revaccination from diphtheria of adult persons, are recommended:
To explore an immune type
To use antibiotics
To use antihistamines
5 years after last revaccination
10 years after last revaccination
Diphtheria planned vaccination begin in:
In first days after birth of child
In 3 month age
In 6-month age
In 1 year
In 6 years
What is material for the bacteriologic examination in time to suspicion on diphtheria?
Excrement
Blood
Urine
Mucus from the area of defeat
Neurolymph
Complication of diphtheria of larynx is:
Myocarditis
Paresis of auditory nerve
Nephrosonephritis
Cereals
Poliomyelitis
Complications which often develop on the first week of diphtheria of otopharynx are:
Poliomyelitis
Asphyxia
Insufficiency of glandulars
hepatospleenomegaly
Paresis of soft palate
Early complications of diphtheria of otopharynx is:
Paresis of soft palate
Pneumonia
Asphyxia
Croup
Poliomyelitis
Complications of 4-5th week of diphtheria are:
Encephalitis
Bulbar disorders, pancreatitis, hepatitis
Poliomyelitis, myocarditis
Nephrosonephritis
Stenotic laryngotracheitis
In preschool is case of disease on diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be conducted above
all things?
Urgent hospitalization
Urgent vaccination
C. *
D.
E.
212.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
213.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
214.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
215.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
216.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
217.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
218.
A.
Quarantines measures
Urgent by chemical prophylactic antibiotics
Introduction of antidiphterial whey
At a child 6 years with a diphtherial widespread croup the first dose of antidiphterial serum makes:
40 AО
15 AО
20 AО
80 AО
60 AО
In an epidemic cell rationally to organize verification of the state of immunity. The Use of RUHA
allows to find out persons unimmune to diphtheria during a few hours. What minimum protective
titre?
1:10
1:20
1:40
1:80
1:160
At a child 4 years on the third day of disease the widespread form of diphtheria of nasopharynx is
diagnosed. Preparation of specific therapy:
Macrolids per os
Penicillin i/m
Cortycosteroid
Antidiphterial serum i/v
Antitoxic therapy
At maintenance of call on a house a district pediatrician put to the sick 5 years old child diagnosis
“Acute lacunar tonsillitis”. Specify, who must carry out the laboratory inspection of patient and in
what terms.
Worker of SES upon receipt report
A district medical sister is at once after determination of diagnosis
Doctor pediatrician in 5 hours
Doctor pediatrician at once after determination of diagnosis
District medical sister on a next day
What material it’s necessary to take for bacteriologic examination in suspicion on diphtheria?
Excrement
Blood
Urine
Mucous
Neurolymph
At a patient the dense darkly-grey raid covers tonsills is considerably megascopic and spreads for
their scopes. Mucus shell bloodshot accented cyanochroic, was considerably swollen. Immediate
medical measure:
Antidiphterial serum
Punction of peritonsillar space
Section of peritonsillar space
Microscopic research of stroke from under tape
Bacteriologic examination of stroke from under pallatum
What is main complication of diphtheria of larynx:
Myocarditis
B.
C.
D. *
E.
219.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
220.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
221.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
222.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
223.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
224.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
Paresis of auditory nerve
Nephrosonephritis
Croup
Poliomyelitis
What complications more often develops during the first week of diphtheria of otopharynx:
Poliomyelitis
Asphyxia
Paratonsillitis
Hepatospleenomegaly
Paresis of soft palate
What is early complications of diphtheria of otopharynx:
Paresis of soft palate
Pneumonia
Asphyxia
Croup
Poliomyelitis
What complications more often develops during 4-5th week of diphtheria:
Encephalitis
Bulbar disorders, pancreatitis, hepatitis
Poliomyelitis, myocarditis
Nephrosonephritis
Stenotic laryngotracheitis
The otolaryngologist during the review of patient marked hyperemia, considerable edema of tonsills
with the grey raid on them. During the microscopy of raid it was found out sticks located under a
corner to each other. What disease does it follow to think about?
Scarlet fever
Streptococcus quinsy
Diphtheria
Vensan tonsillitis
Staphylococcus quinsy
Specify the correct method of serum introduction after the Bezredko method:
1,0 ml of divorced 1:100 hypodermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of undivorced hypodermic – through
30 min. all dose of intramuscle
0,1 ml of divorced 1:1 000 endermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of divorced 1:10 hypodermic –
through 30 min. all dose of intramuscle
0,1 ml of undivorced endermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml hypodermic – through 30 min. all dose of
intramuscle
0,1 ml of divorced 1:100 endermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of undivorced hypodermic – through 30
min. all dose of intramuscle
1,0 ml of divorced 1:10 hypodermic – through 30 min. 0,1 ml of undivorced hypodermic – through
30 min. all dose of intramuscle
What is characteristic signs of raid at diphtheria?
One-sided, grey-white, on-the-spot crateriform ulcers
Grey-white, dense with clear edges and brilliant surface
Yellow-white, fragile, perilacunar is located
One-sided, yellow-white, in lacunas
White, fragile, is easily taken off by a spatula
225.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
226.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
227.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
228.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
229.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
230.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
231.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
What is the exciter of diphtheria:
Virus of Epshtein-Barr
Leffler Bacillus
Corynebacteria ulcerans
Fusiform stick
Corynebacteria xerosis
Patient, 35 years was hospitalized with diagnosis localized diphtheria of pharynx. What is the first
dose of antitoxic antidyphtherial serum?
30 000 AU
50 000 AU
80 000 AU
120 000 AU
150 000 AU
What laboratory examination is compulsory to do for the patient with signs of tonsillit?
Isolation of hemolytic streptococcus from the throat mucosa
Biochemical blood analysis
X-ray examination
Smear from nose and pharynx
Immune-enzyme analysis
In preschool the registered case of diphtheria. What from the measures adopted below does not
conduct to the contact children?
Introduction of antidiphterial serum
Non-permanent is stroke from a pharynx and nose for the bacteriologic examination
Daily is supervision during 7 days
Determination of titres of specific antibodies
At the repeated cases of disease is extraordinary revaccination diphtheria
In preschool is case of diphtheria. What prophylactic measures must be conducted above all things?
Urgent hospitalization
Urgent vaccination
Quarantines measures
Urgent by chemical prophylactic antibiotics
Introduction of antidiphterial whey
What is immediately investigation in suspicious of diphtheria:
Strokes with tonsills, nose or other areas for the exposure of diphtherial stick
IFA
Microscopy (painting by Neiser)
Haemoculture
RDHA with a diphtherial diagnosticum
A boy 6 years was in the close touch with a patient with diphtheria. What treatment-prophylactic
measures need to be conducted, if vaccine anamnesis is unknown?
Introduction of AWDT vaccine
Antibacterial therapy
Introduction of ADT-м to the toxoid
Antibacterial therapy and double introduction of ADT toxoid
Antibacterial therapy and introduction of immunoprotein
232.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
233.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
234.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
235.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
236.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
237.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
238.
A. *
B.
C.
At a girl, 22 years old, severy form of diphtheria of otopharynx have happened. Specific treatment
begun only on a 5th day from the beginning of disease. What complication of diphtheria is potentially
dangerous?
Stenotic laryngotracheitis
Pneumotorax
Meningoencephalitis
Septicopyemia
Infectious-toxic shock
Patient, 24 years old, with diagnosis dyphtheria was admitted to the infectious disease department.
What remedy is most effective for treatment and should be used immediately?
Antibiotics
Oxygenotherapy
Antitoxic antidyphtherial serum
Antipyretic drugs
Sulfanilamides
At sick L, 35 years old, a diagnosis is set is diphtheria of pharynx, noncommunicative form. What
first dose of antitoxic antidiphtheria whey is it necessary to appoint?
120 thousand of AО
80 thousand of AО
30 thousand of AО
50 thousand of AО
150 thousand of AО
A child 2 years carries a diphtherial croup. There was the stop of breathing on 2nd days of serum
therapy. What was the reason of asphyxia?
Mechanical obturation by tapes
Stenosis of larynx
Anaphylaxis shock
Serum illness
Paresis of respiratory musculature
What laboratory examination is compulsory to do for the patient with diagnosis of tonsillits?
Isolation of hemolytic streptococcus from the throat mucosa
Biochemical blood analysis
Smear (for microscopic examination) from nose and pharynx for Corynebacterium diphtheriae
detection
Hemoculture
Immune-enzyme analysis
What laboratory examination is compulsory to do for the patient with diagnosis of tonsillits?
Isolation of hemolytic streptococcus from the throat mucosa
Biochemical blood analysis
Smear (for microscopic examination) from nose and pharynx for Corynebacterium diphtheriae
detection
Hemoculture
Immune-enzyme analysis
Call the exciter of tonsillitis (angina).
Streptococcus of group A
Streptococcus of group B
Streptococcus of group C
D.
E.
239.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
240.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
241.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
242.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
243.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
244.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
246.
Streptococcus of group D
Streptococcus of group E
The source of exciter of tonsillitis (angina) is:
Man, patient with a tonsillitis (angina)
Man, patient with erysipelas
Man, patient with a scarlet fever
Healthy carriers of streptococcus
All is listed above
What is the main mechanism of transmission of a tonsillitis (angina)?
Airborne
Alimentary
Contact
Transmisiv
Vertical
How long is the incubation period of a tonsillitis (quinsy)?
From a few hours to 5 days
From a few hours to 4 days
From a few hours to 3 days
From a few hours to 2 days
From a few hours to 1 days
What does the most characteristic syndrome appear in patients with a tonsillitis (angina) in 1 days of
diseases)?
Nausea
Vomit
Pharyngalgia
Stomach-ache
Takhikardiya
How long is the period of fever in patients with a tonsillitis (angina)?
1-2 days
2-3 days
3-5 days
5-7 days
..More than week
What kind of tonsillitis (angina) do your now
Catarrhal, follicle and lacunars
Catarrhal, follicle, lacunars and necrotizing-ulcerous
Catarrhal, follicle, lacunars, pellicle and necrotizing-ulcerous
Follicle, lacunars and necrotizing-ulcerous
Follicle, lacunars, pellicle and necrotizing-ulcerous
What formations of lymphatic fabric are struck at a tonsillitis (angina)?
Sky tonsils
Tongue tonsil
Lymphatic fabric of back wall of faring
Lymphatic fabric of larynx
All is listed above
What are the signs of defeat cardiovascular note angina?
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
251.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
253.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
Tachycardia
Increased tones of heart
High blood pressure
Constant pain after a breastbone
All is listed above
What are the signs of defeat cardiovascular note angina?
Bradycardia
Increased tones of heart
Hypotonia
Dicrotia of pulse
All is listed above
What changes in kidney can be find at a quinsy?
Kidney insufficiency
Poliuria
Gematuria
Mikrogematuria, proteinuria|
Absent
What are the exciters of Simanovskyy-Plaut-Vensan‘s quinsy?
Bac. fusiformis
Sp. buccalis
Streptococcus of group A
Bac. fusiformis and Sp. buccalis
Streptococci
For what diseases is characteristic hemilesion of tonsils?
Rabbit-fever
Syphilis
Simanovskyy-Plaut-Vensan‘s quinsy
A and C
A, B and C
What complications can be after a tonsillitis (angina)?
Myocarditis
Endocarditis
Inflammation of additional bosoms of nose
Otitis
Festering inflammation of neck lymphonoduss
What complications can be after a tonsillitis (angina)?
Myocarditis
Otitis
Parafaringeal abscesses
Glomerulonephritis
Encephalitis
What complications can be after a tonsillitis (angina)?
Pneumonia
Pseudorheumatism
Illness of Reyno
Rheumatoceils
E.
254.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
258.
A. *
259.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
260.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
261.
A.
B.
C.
Sepsis
What are the changes in the blood in patients with a quinsy?
Changes are absent
Limfomonocitosis, increase of ESR
Neutrophilic leycositosis, increase of ESR
Leycopeniya, increase of ESR
Increase of ESR
Patients with a quinsy, as a rule, is treated at home. In what accident does he hospitalization in
infectious permanent?
Follicle quinsy
Lacunars quinsy
Quinsy of Simanovskyy-Vensan
Age to 5 years
Heavy degree
Patients with a quinsy, as a rule, is treated at home. In what accident does he hospitalization in
infectious permanent?
Follicle quinsy
Lacunars quinsy
Quinsy of Simanovskyy-Vensan
Age to 5 years
Necrotizing-ulcerous quinsy
Patients with a quinsy, as a rule, is treated at home. In what accident does he hospitalization in
infectious permanent?
Presence of complications
Burdened premonstratensian background
Necrotizing-ulcerous quinsy
Residence in a hostel
All is listed above
On what period does appoint the lying regime to the patients with a quinsy?
During all period of fever
From etiotropic (antistreptococcus) facilities the most effective are:
Furazolidonum
Gentamicin
Benzilpenicilin and Oxacillinum
Benzilpenicilin and Furazolidonum
Doksiciklin and Gentamicin
At the end of treatment of patients with a quinsy it is recommended to enter:
500 000 of Bicyllin-3 intramuscular
1 500 000 of Bicyllin-5 intramuscular
1 000 000 of Bicyllin-5 intramuscular
1 500 000 of Bicyllin-3 intramuscular
500 000 of Bicyllin-3 intramuscular
When does admit to work of reconvalescentes?
On condition of clinical convalescence (after the 5th day of normal temperature)
On condition of normalization of indexes of blood
On condition of normalization of indexes of urine
D.
E. *
262.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
263.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
264.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
266.
A.
B.
C.
On condition of normalization of ECG
All things considered it is listed above
Choose, what changes are characteristic for a follicle tonsillitis (angina).
Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses
yellow-white color
In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat
Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing
layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom
One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat –
bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom
One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness,
mucus bleeds under him
Choose, what changes are characteristic for a lacunars tonsillitis (angina).
Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses
yellow-white color
In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat
Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing
layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom
One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat –
bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom
One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness,
mucus bleeds under him
Choose, what changes are characteristic for a ulcers-necrotic tonsillitis (angina).
Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses
yellow-white color
In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat
Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing
layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom
One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat –
bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom
One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness,
mucus bleeds under him
Choose, what changes are characteristic for a Vensan-Plaut‘s tonsillitis.
Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses
yellow-white color
In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat
Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing
layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom
One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat –
bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom
One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness,
mucus bleeds under him
Choose, what changes are characteristic for a diphtheria tonsillitis.
Tonsils enlarged, edematous, on-the-spot of tonsils are some heaved up subephithelial abscesses
yellow-white color
In lacunes of tonsils are a pus as yellow-white coat
Tonsils are hyperemic, hypertrophied, on both are necrotizing areas dark grey color, after removing
layer by layer of which the deep defect of mucus shell appeared with an uneven bottom
D.
E. *
267.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
268.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
269.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
270.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
271.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
272.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
273.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
One tonsils hyperemic and filling out, on its surface there is a grey-white coat, under it coat –
bleeding ulcer with a smooth bottom
One tonsil is enlarged, on him dense grey-white color coat, which becomes separated from hardness,
mucus bleeds under him
What are the main exciters of quinsy.
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Spirochetes
Gonococcus
Stick of Lefler
Did you need serum examination of quinsy?
Yes
No
Only for the decreed persons
Only for children
Only at suspicion on diphtheria
Did you need bacteriological examination of quinsy?
Yes
No
Only for the decreed persons
Only for children
Only at suspicion on diphtheria
Did you need biological examination of quinsy?
Yes
No
Only for the decreed persons
Only for children
Only at suspicion on diphtheria
How many times must a patient after a lacunars quinsy be under a supervision?
It is not needed
5 days
14 days
1 month
3 months
How many times must a patient after a follicle quinsy be under a supervision?
It is not needed
5 days
14 days
1 month
3 months
How many times must a patient after a ulcers-necrotic quinsy be under a supervision?
It is not needed
5 days
14 days
1 month
3 months
274.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
275.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
276.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
277.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
278.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
279.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
280.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
281.
A.
How many times must a patient after a Vensan-Plaut‘s tonsillitis be under a supervision?
It is not needed
5 days
14 days
1 month
3 months
A patient has herpetic meningitis. What preparation of specific therapy for viral neuro infection
should be given?
Acyclovir
Cefataxime
Ceftriaxone
Gentamycin
Furazolidon
At junior nurse, who works in child’s infectious department, herpes simplex was found. What should
manager of department must do?
Create a quarantine in the department
To appoint an immunoprotein to the children
Discharge all children from the department
To appoint immunomodulators with a prophylactic purpose
To inspect a junior nurse on a staphylococcus
What is recommended treatment and relapses prophylaxis of Herpes zoster?
Valcyclovir
Acyclovir
Herpevir
Proteflazid
Cycloferon
How mach types of herpes-viruses do you know?
2
4
6
8
10
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 1th type?
Genital herpes
L herpes
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Sarcoma of Kaposi
Cytomegalovirus infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 2 type?
Genital herpes
L herpes
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Sarcoma of Kaposi
Cytomegalovirus infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 3 type?
Genital herpes
B.
C.
D. *
E.
282.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
283.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
284.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
285.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
286.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
287.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
288.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
L herpes
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Herpes zoster
Cytomegalovirus infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 3 type?
Genital herpes
L herpes
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Chicken pox
Cytomegalovirus infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 4 type?
Genital herpes
L herpes
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Chicken pox
Cytomegalovirus infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 7 type?
Genital herpes
Eczema of new-born
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Sarcoma of Kaposi
Epshtein-Barr‘s infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 6 type?
Genital herpes
Eczema of new-born
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Sarcoma of Kaposi
Epshtein-Barr‘s infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 8 type?
Genital herpes
Eczema of new-born
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Sarcoma of Kaposi
Epshtein-Barr‘s infection
What disease is by the herpes-virus of 5 type?
Genital herpes
Eczema of new-born
Syndrome of chronic fatigue
Sarcoma of Kaposi
Epshtein-Barr‘s infection
How mach are exist subfamilies of herpes-viruses?
2
4
5
6
3
289.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
290.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
291.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
293.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
295.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
296.
What are the possible ways of transmission of herpes-viruses?
Contact, air, sexual, vertical
Contact, sexual, vertical
Contact, air, vertical
Contact, air, sexual
Air, sexual, vertical
What is the mechanism of transmission of herpetic infection?
Fecal-oral
Air
Contact
Vertical
Transmisiv
At how many percents of grown man does present antibodies to the virus of simple herpes?
10-20 %
20-30 %
40-60 %
80-90 %
60-70 %
In what age are infected by primary herpes more frequent?
55-65 years
5-10 years
12-18 years
to 6 months
6 months – 5 years
A patient has herpetic meningitis. What preparation for specific therapy of viral neiroinfection would
you appoint?
Laziks
Cefotaksim
Ceftriakson
Acyclovir
Prednisolon
A junior nurse which works in child's infectious separation has a herpes zoster. What do manager
must doing in separation?
To inspect a nurse on staphylococcus
To appoint immunoprotein to all children
Delete all children from a separation
To appoint interferon to all children
To a quarantine in a separation concerning a chicken pox
A patient 60 years year has 4th relapse of herpes zoster. What are recommendations to the treatmet
and prevention of relapse.
Valacyclovir
Acyclovir
Herpevir
Proteflazid
Cyklopheron
Scheme of vaccination at herpetic illness?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
297.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
298.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
299.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
300.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
301.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
302.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
303.
A.
B.
C.
Enter subcutaneus 0,1-0,2 ml every 3-4 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Enter intramasels 0,1-0,2 ml every 3-4 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Enter intraskin 0,1-0,2 ml every 8-9 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Enter intramasels 0,1-0,2 ml every 8-9 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Enter intraskin 0,1-0,2 ml every 3-4 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Scheme of vaccination at herpetic illness?
Enter subcutaneus 0,1-0,2 ml every 3-4 days, 3 injections on a course, repeat in 30 days
Enter intramasels 0,1-0,2 ml every 3-4 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Enter intraskin 0,1-0,2 ml every 8-9 days, 3 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
Enter intramasels 0,1-0,2 ml every 8-9 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 30 days
Enter intraskin 0,1-0,2 ml every 3-4 days, 5 injections on a course, repeat in 7-10 days
What are the rules of hospitalization of patients with infectious mononucleosis?
Patients are not hospitalized
In a chamber for the infections of respiratory tracts
In a separate chamber
In a chamber for the infections of external covers
In a chamber for intestinal infections
What additional inspections must be conducted to the patient with infectious mononucleosis?
IFA on HIV-infection, bacteriology inspection on diphtheria
IFA on HIV-infection, bacteriology inspection on a rabbit-fever
Bacteriology inspection on diphtheria and typhoid
Reaction of Burne and Rihth-Heddlson
Reaction of Paul-Bunnel and punction of lymphatic knot
What from the following symptoms are not characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
Fever
Defeat of kidneys
Lymphadenopathy
Tonsillitis
Increasing of liver and spleen
For what disease characterize changes in a blood (presence of lymphomonocytes and a typical
mononuclears)?
Flu
Infectious mononucleosis
Measels
AIDS
Diphtheria
What additional test should hold for the patient with infectious mononucleosis?
Burne and Wright-Hadlson‘s reactions
ELISA-test, bacteriological test for tularemia
Bacteriological test for diphtheria and typhoid fever
ELISA-test, bacteriological test for diphtheria
Paul-Burne reaction and lymph node puncture
What the most possible complication occurs during infectious mononucleosis?
Meningitis
Autoimmune alopecia
Encephalitis
D. *
E.
304.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
305.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
306.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
307.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
308.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
309.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
310.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
311.
A.
Splenic rupture
Obstruction of respiratory tract
What group of infectious diseases infectious mononucleosis belong to?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Zooanthroponosis
A group is not certain
The source of infection at infectious mononucleosis is:
Sick people and carriers
Sick agricultural animals
Rodents
Mosquitoes
Aerosol of saliva and epipharyngeal mucous of patients
What is seasonal character of infectious mononucleosis?
Spring-summer
Summer-autumn
Autumn-winter
Winter-spring
Spring-autumn
What is the exciter of kissing disease:
Virus small pox
Virus of simple herpes
Virus of Epshteyn-Barr
Cytomegalovirus
Virus of flu
What family does the exciter of kissing disease belong to?
Family of herpes virus
Family of pox virus
Family of retro virus
Family of reo virus
Family of toga virus
What group of infections does infectious mononucleosis behave to?
Zoonoz
Sapronosis
Antropozoonoz
Antroponoz
Sapronoz+antroponoz
What ways of transmission does characterize for infectious mononucleosis?
Alimentarniy
Transfuziv
Sexual
Air
Contact
6. What is the entrance gate at infectious mononucleosis?
Mucus of colon
B.
C.
D.
E. *
312.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
314.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
315.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
316.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
317.
A. *
B.
318.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
319.
A. *
B.
Mucus of digestive highway
Epithelial mews of skin
Peyer‘s plate and follicles
Mucus of nazo-pharig
The duration of latent period at a kissing disease are?
25-50 days
3-6 days
1-4 weeks
From a few hours to 3 days
From a few days to 1-2 months
What symptoms do not characterize for infectious mononucleosis?
Increased of temperature
Defeat of
Lymphadenopathy
Tonsillitis
Increase of liver and spleen
For what disease are characterize changes in blood (presence of atypical mononucleares)?
Flu
Kissing disease
Measles
AIDS
Diphtheria
Rules hospitalizations of patients with a kissing disease?
In a room for the patients with infections of respiratory tracts
Patients are not hospitalized
In a separate chamber
In a chamber for the patients with infections of external covers
In a chamber for the patients with intestinal infections
What additional inspections must be conducted to the patient with a kissing disease?
Reaction of Burne and Rayt
ELISA test on AID, bacteriological examination on a rabbit-fever.
Bacteriological examination on diphtheria and typhoid
ELISA test on AID, bacteriological examination on diphtheria
Reaction of Paul-Bunnel and punction of lymphatic no
To appoint treatment to the patient with infectious mononucleosis, severe form?
Antibiotics, preparations of interferon, hepatoprotectors
Antihistamines, antiherpetic preparations, hepatoprotectors
What complications do happen at a kissing disease?
Insult
Autoimmune diseases
Contractures
Break of spleens
Cirrhosis
Name the most reliable of kissing disease?
Became healthy
Death
C.
D.
E.
320.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
321.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
322.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
323.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
324.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
325.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
326.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
327.
Chronic form
Hematological violations
Changes in the nervous system
What is the most diagnostic method for infectious mononucleosis?
Common analysis of excrement
Common analysis of urine
Common blood test
Blood is on a drop
Stroke of blood
What symptom is not characterized for a kissing disease?
Pain in a throat
Coated conjunctivitis
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Hepatolienal syndrome
Limphomonocitosis
What symptom is not characterized for a kissing disease?
Generalized lymphadenopathy
Total flatulence
Tonsillitis
Hepatolienal syndrome
Rash
Is a vaccination conducted at a kissing disease?
Ribosom vaccine
Alive vaccine
Dead vaccine
Chemical vaccine
On the stage of
Etiology agent of meningitis is:
Neisseria meningitides
Entamoeba histolytica
Vibro cholerae
Clostridium botulinum
Campylobacter pylori
Witch of these symptoms are often present in patients with meningitis?
Algor, high temperature, headache
Profuse watery diarrhea, vomiting, dehydratation, muscular cramps
Abdominal pain, diarrhea, constipation, flatulence
Headache, dry cough, algor
Prodromal respiratory illness or sore throat, fever, headache, stiff neck, vomiting, confusion,
irritability
What laboratory methods should be taken to discharge meningitis?
Lumbar puncture
Serologic detection
Urine examination
Coprograma
Biopsy of tissues
Source of meningitis is:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
328.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
329.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
330.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
331.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
332.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
333.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
334.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
Animals
Birds
Fish
Pediculus humanus
People
How is it possible to specify the diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.
Meningitis is primary
Presence of a lot of cells in the CSF
Presence of gram-negative diplococcus in CSF
Meningococes from the throat
All the above
What are the rules| at taking of smear material on the discovery of meningococal infection?
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only mucus shell of cheeks and tongue
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth and tongue
The taken away material at drawing out must not touch only teeth, mucus shell of cheeks
The taken away material| at drawing out must not touch|| teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue
The taken away material|| at drawing out can touch|| teeth, mucus shell of cheeks and tongue
What temperature terms is it needed for cultivation of meningococcal on artificial mediums?
23-40 °C
35-43 °C
35-37 °C
23-35 °C
37-39 °C
When does the laboratory give the results of bacteriological examination of smear from throat?
On 2th days
On 3th days
On 4th days
On 5th days
On 6th days
What is taken for serum research for confirmation of meningococcal infection?
Blood
Mucus
Urine
CSF
Saliva
What antibiotics preparations of choice of etiotropic therapy at a meningococcal infection.
Benzylpenicillin and it derivatives
Gentamycin
Cefazolin
Sulfolamide
Ciprofloxacin
In what dose should| benzyl penicillin be administered at meningococcal meningitis?
From a calculation 100-300 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days
From a calculation 200-500 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days
From a calculation 500-700 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days
From a calculation 700-900 thousands unit on 1 kg of mass of body on days
E.
335.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
336.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
337.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
338.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
339.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
340.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
341.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
342.
A.
Regardless of mass of body
In what daily interval should the dose of benzylpenicillin at meningococcal meningitis administered.
2 hrs
4 hrs
6 hrs
5 hrs
8 hrs
Which preparation has a bacteriostatic action, and is more expedient to begin etiotropic therapy in the
case of infectious toxic shock.
From benzylpenicillin and its derivatives
From ciprofloxacin
From gentamycin
From ciprofloxacin
From levomycitin of succinate
For the treatment of acidosis at meningococcal meningitis is better to use.
10-20 % glucose solution
10 % chloride solution
4 % sodium bicarbonate solution
Albumen
Concentrated dry plasma
Meningococemia and DIC-syndrome require above all things.
.Administration of diuretic
Administration of analgesic
Administration of heparin
Administration of vitamins
Administration of antihistaminic preparations
What is used as specific prophylaxis in the period of epidemic spreading of meningococcal infection.
Immun globulin
Serum
Vaccine
Anatoxin
Nothing
What measures are conducted in the place of meningococcal infection?
Supervision during 2 weeks
Phagoprophylaxis
Immunization
Bacteriological inspection of contact
Chemoprophylaxis
?Drug of choice for cholera prophylaxis is:
oxytetracycline
chloramphenicol
erythromycin
penicillin
none of these
The function of glucose in ORS (oral rehydration solution):
increase Na+ absorption by Co-transport
B.
C.
D. *
E.
343.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
344.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
345.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
346.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
347.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
348.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
349.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
gives sweet taste to ORS
increase osmalality of ORS
increase Na+ K- pump activity
increase Ca+ absorption
El-Tor vibrio may be differentiated from classical vibrio by the fact that El-Tor vibrio:
agglutinate chicken and sheep RBC
resistant to classical phage IV
resistant to polymixin B-5 unit disc
all of the above
none of these
Chemo-prophylaxis for cholera is administrating:
doxycycline 300 mg once
metrogyl 400 mg 3 tablets
vancomycin 1 mg stat
kanamycin 500 mg stat
lincomycin 1 g
The average incubation period of cholera is:
24 hours
48 hours
72 hours
96 hours
12 hours
Which is not essential in cholera epidemic:
notification
oral rehydration therapy and tetracycline
chlorination of well every week
isolation
chemo-prophylaxis
Oral rehydration therapy does not contain:
sodium chloride
calcium lactate
bicarbonate
glucose
none of these
Best method to treat diarrhoea in child is:
intra venous fluide
ORS
antibiotics
bowel binders
lavage of stomach
ORS contains how much potassium:
20
30
40
10
50
350.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
351.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
352.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
353.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
354.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
355.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
356.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
357.
A.
B.
C.
Certificate to cholera vaccination is valid after:
5 days
10 days
15 days
20 days
25 days
Drug of choice for treating cholera in a pregnant women is:
tetracycline
doxycycline
furazolidone
cotrimoxozole
none of these
Best emergency sanitary measure to control cholera is:
disinfection of stool
mass vaccination
provision of chlorinated water
chemoprophylaxis
none of these
Drug ofchoice in cholera treatment is:
tetracycline
sulphadiazine
erythromycin
ampicillin
none of these
A contact carrier in cholera has following characteristic:
gall bladder is infected
stolls are not positive for vibrio cholera
does not play any role in spread of infection
duration of carrier state is less than 10 days
none of these
Quantity of NaCl in an ORS packet for making 1 litre of oral rehydration fluid is:3,5 gram
2,5 gram
1,5 gram
2 gram
3 gram
A freshly prepared oral rehydration solution should not be used after:
4 hours
6 hours
12 hours
24 hours
48 hours
Regarding cholera vaccine which one of following is true:
it is given at interval of 6 months
long lasting immunity
not useful in epidemics
D. *
E.
358.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
359.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
360.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
361.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
362.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
363.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
364.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
365.
A. *
not given orally
is high effective
Commonest strain of cholera in India is:
Ogava
Inaba
Hikojima
all of enumerated
none of these
ORS rehydration fluid does not contain:
Nacl
calcium lactate
bicarbonate
glucose
none of these
What is the transport medium for cholera:
tellurinate medium
chacko-nair medium
venkatraman-ramakrishna medium
Mc-Leods medium
none of these
Which of the following about cholera is true:
inavasive
endotoxin is released
vibriocidalantibody titre measure prevalence
all of these
none of these
Vibrio cholera was discovered by:
Koch
Mechnicov
Johnsnow
Virchow
Jenner
The characteristic feature of El-Tor cholera are all except:
more of subclinical cases
mortality is less
secondary attack rate is high in family
El-Tor vibrio is harder and able to survive longer
severity is less
The growth factor required for growth of vibrio paraheamolyticus is:
saline
tryptophan
bile
citrate
sugar
True about vibrio cholera is:
very resistant to alkaline PH
B.
C.
D.
E.
366.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
367.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
368.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
369.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
370.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
371.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
372.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
nutritionally fastidious
best growth at 24 oC
rod shaped bacilli
all of these
The following are true about vibrio cholera except:
produces indole and reduces nitrares
dies rapidly at low temperature
synthesises neuraminidases
vaccine confirms long immunity
none of these
True about epidemiology of cholera is:
chemoprophylaxis is not effective
boiling of water can’t destroy organism
food can transport disease
vaccination give 90 % protection
rehydration is not effective
What percentage of fluid loss will be in IV degree of dehydration?
4-8 % of body weight
6-9 % of body weight
3-6 % of body weight
Over 10 % of body weight
Over 15 % of body weight
At what percent of fluid loss will be I degree of dehydration?
3-6 % of body weight
6-9 % of body weight
1-3 % of body weight
0,5-2 % of body weight
2-7 % of body weight
At I degree of dehydration the loss of liquid is:
0,5-1,5 % of body weight
6-9 % of body weight
3-6 % of body weight
5-8 % of body weight
1-3 % of body weight
At what percent of fluid loss will be II degree of dehydration?
3-6 % of body weight
Over 10 % of body weight
6-9 % of body weight
4-8 % of body weight
10-15 % of body weight
At what degree of dehydration, there will be “metabolic violation”:
Subcompensated
Negative
Irreversible
Moderate metabolic acidosis
Insignificant metabolic alkalosis
373.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
374.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
375.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
376.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
377.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
378.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
379.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
380.
A.
B.
C.
What time is it necessary to complete primary rehydration at dehydration shock?
3-5 hrs
0.5 hrs
2-3 hrs
1-1.5 hrs
4-6 hrs
What from the below mentioned preparations, can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
Rehydron
Acesalt
Khlosalt
Kvartasalt
Lactosalt
What from the below mentioned preparations, can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
Acesalt
Trisalt
Oralit
Cryoplasma
Lactosalt
What from the below mentioned preparations can be used for the treatment of primary rehydration?
Lactosalt
Disalt
Acesalt
Trisalt
Khlosalt
What clinically atypical forms of cholera do you know?
Very rapid of the children and elderly persons
“Choleric typhoid”, acute subclinical, for the children and elderly persons
Dry, very rapid, “choleric typhoid”, subclinical for the children and elderly persons
Very rapid “choleric typhoid”, acute, subclinical, for the children and elderly persons
Very rapid, dry, subclinical, for the children and elderly persons
In a settlement was found out a few cases of cholera. Who must be insulated?
Persons with disfunction of intestine
Patients with cholera
Carriers
Persons contact with the sick patient
Persons with hyperthermia
Who must be admitted in the hospital from the focus of cholera?
Carriers
Patients with cholera
Persons with disfunction of intestine
Contact persons
Persons with high temperature
In the break out of cholera it is necessary to carry out such measures, except:
Hyperchlorination of drinking water
An active discovery of patients by rounds
Obligatory hospitalization, inspection and treatment of patients and vibrio tests
D.
E. *
381.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
382.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
383.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
384.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
385.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
386.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
387.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
388.
Revealing and isolation of contact persons
Vaccine prophylaxis
With the purpose of specific prophylaxis of cholera is used:
Cholerogen-toxoid
Vaccine
Nitrofuranes
Immunoprotein
Antibiotics
In the different places of settlement found out a few cases of disease of cholera. Who from the
contacts of cholera patient is sent in an insulator?
Vibrio positive
Patients with cholera
Contact with the patient persons
Persons with dysfunction of intestine
Persons with high temperature
Which from the below is a complication of cholera?
Collapse
Infectious-toxic shock
Acute renal insufficiency
Dehydration shock
Status typhosis
Which salt solutions do not contain potassium?
Trisalt
Lactosalt
Disalt
Qudrosalt
Khlosalt
The essential therapy for cholera is.
Diet
Antibacterial preparations
Correction of dysbacteriosis
Desintoxication
Primary rehydration
The main principle of therapy for re-hydration in cholera is.
Determining the definitive degree of dehydration from clinical data
Amount of lost liquid which was preceded at time of hospitalization
Application of isotonic polyglucal solution
Simultaneous introduction of liquid in more than one vessel
All are correct
Duration of therapy of primary rehydration in cholera is.
30 minutes
2 hours
6 hours
12 hours
1 days
Amount of solutions necessary for the primary rehydration in cholera is.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
389.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
391.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
392.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
393.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
394.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
395.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
Accordingly to the degree of dehydration at time of hospitalization
In accordance with the loss of liquid
2l
5 l|
10 l
Amount of solutions necessary for the secondary rehydration in cholera is.
Accordingly to the degree of dehydration at the time of hospitalization
In accordance with the loss of liquid
2l
5l
10 l
What from is the given measures during the secondary rehydration?
Determining degree of dehydration from clinical data
Amount of lost liquid, which was preceded at the time of hospitalization
Application of isotonic crystalloid solutions
Simultaneous introduction of liquid in a few vessels
Amount of liquid loss
What solutions must be applied for compensatory rehydration in cholera?
Colloid
Hypertensive epitonic polyionic crystalloid
Isotonic polyionic crystalloid
Reosorbilakt
Isotonic solution of glucose
Method of etiotropic therapy of cholera is.
Glucocorticoids
Antiviral
Antibiotics
Rehydration
Vaccine
In the different places of settlement it is found out a few cases of cholera. Who from such place is
directed to an insulator?
Patients with a cholera
Transmitters
Persons who had contact with the patient
Persons with dysfunction of gastro-intestinal tract
Persons who left the place on infection
For cholera prophylaxis drug is:
erythromycin
ampicillin
tetracycline
biseptol
What mechanism is typical for salmonellosis.
Fecal-oral
Contact
Transmissive
Air-drop
E.
396.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
397.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
398.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
399.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
400.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
401.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
402.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
403.
A.
B.
All possible
In order to prevent salmonellosis should be.
Disinfection
Vaccination
Chemoprophylaxis
Sanitary and epidemiological control over food
All these measures are not undertaken
What group of infectious diseases salmonellosis belong to?
Sapronoz
Zoonosis
Antroponoz
Zooantroponoz
The group is not defined
Salmonella is classified by.
O-antigen and H-antigen
O-antigen and Vi-antigen
H-antigen and Vi-antigen
O-antigen, H-antigen and Vi-antigen
O-antigen, H-antigen, Vi-antigen and HBsAg
What salmonella is adapted to humans.
S. typhi
S. newport
S. cholerae-suis
S. abortus-ovis
S. gallinarum-pullorum
What is the level of morbidity of salmonellosis nowadays in Ukraine.
Not registered
Epidemic
Sporadic
Annual outbreaks
In endemic focus only
The source of agent in salmonellosis is.
Cats
Farm animals
Rodents
Soil
Feces of patients
Greatest epidemiological role in spreding of salmonella belong to.
Cattle
Gray rats
Mice
Fish
Man
67. What is mechanism of transmission of salmonellosis.
Vertical
Parenteral
C.
D.
E. *
404.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
405.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
406.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
407.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
408.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
409.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
410.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
411.
Air-drop
Contact
Fecal-oral
What is most important factor in Salmonellosis transmission.
Boiled meat
Fish
Water
Sex
Eggs
What route of transmission is not inherent to Salmonella typhimurium.
Milk
Contact home
Water
Sex
Food
What typical dietary factor in spreading of salmonellosis.
Juices
Alcohol
Meat products
Salad
Water
What season is typical for salmonellosis.
Spring
Winter and spring
Autumn
Winter
Summer-autumn
What is the kind of immunity after salmonellosis.
Inheredited
Type specific
Short term
Not formed
Passive
What type of outbreaks appear in salmonellosis.
Water
Home
Farm
Food
Milk
What preventive and antepidemic activities in salmonella focused on the first link of epidemic
process.
Veterinarian measures
Revealing, hospitalization and treatment of sick people
Systematic sanitary-hygienic control
Disinfection
Vaccination
The rules of discharging of salmonellosis patients from a hospital .
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
412.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
413.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
414.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
416.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
417.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.
One-time negative bacteriological investigation of stool
Three negative bacteriological investigation of stool
14 days normal body temperature and the double negative bacteriological study stool and urine
Clinical recovery and normalization rectomanoscopy picture
Normalization rectomanoscopy picture and in the absence of antiserum to RNGA
Demands according more than 3 months salmonella carrier who are working in food production.
Dyspanserization
Recently released from work
Rehospitalization
Do not allow to work
Do nothing
All laboratory and instrumental tests are needed to confirming the diagnosis of food poisoning,
except:
General blood analysis
Coprogram
Occupied emptying
Occupied sources
Serum researches with the autoculture of substance
The etiologic diagnosis of acute intestinal infections can be confirmed thus, except for:
Separation of pathogen from patients and from remainder of suspicious product
To obtain identical cultures of bacteria from a few patients from those which consumed that meal
Separation of identical cultures from different materials (washings, vomiting mass, excrement) at
one patient at the bacterial semination them no less than 105/g and diminishing of this index in the
process of convalescence
Presence at the selected culture of Escherichia’s and staphylococcus enterotoxin
Positive agglutination reaction or other immunological reactions with autoshtames of possible
pathogen, which testify to growth of title of antibodies on the blood serum of patient in the dynamics
of disease
What is necessary for bacteriological confirmation ofclostridial gastroenterocolitis diagnosis?
Endo‘s medium, thermostat
Ploskirev‘s medium and blood agar
Blaurock‘s medium, thermostat
Endo‘s medium, anaerostat
Blaurock‘s media, anaerostat
Which from the listed products can become the causal factor of toxic food-borne infection?
Decorative cakes
Galantine
Cheese
Fresh bread
Tea
What inoculums material should be taken to discharge the toxins?
Suspected food
Urine
Stool
Vomiting mass
Medullar
What is the duration of incubation period in food poisoning?
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
419.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
420.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
421.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
422.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
423.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
424.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
425.
A.
B.
C.
D.
2 hours – 24 hours
3 days
1 week
1 month
1 years
What methods can confirm the diagnosis of food poisoning?
Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the urine
Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the stool
Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the liquor
Diagnostic confirmation requires isolating staphyloccocci from the suspected food
All above it
When the specific complication of typhoid fever like intestinal bleeding may appier?
On the 1st week of illness
On the 2nd week of illness
On the 3rd week of illness
On the 4th week of illness
On the any week of illness
Food poisoning due to Staphylococcus aureus has an incubation period of:
.1 - 6 hour
6 – 12 hours
12 – 18 hour
more then 18 hours
less then 1 hour
Material which should be taken for bacteriological examination in case of food poisoning include:
Suspicion food products
Vomiting mass
Stool of patient
Washing mass
All of above
The immediate treatment for toxic food borne infection is:
Gastric lavage
Sorbents
Antibiotics
Both A & B
All of above
Which of the following is not a causative agent of food poisoning:
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillus cereus
Streptococcus haemoliticus
Clostridium perfringens
Yersinia pestis
What is the main clinical symptom of food poisoning:
Headache
High fever
Constipation
Diarrhea
E. *
426.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
427.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
428.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
429.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
430.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
431.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
432.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
433.
A.
B.
Vomiting
Pathogenesis of food borne infections involves the production of:
Enterotoxins
Endotoxins
Necrotoxins
All of above
None of above
The following are characteristic features of Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning except:
Optimum temperature for toxin formation is 37
Intra dietetic toxinns are responsible for intestinal symptoms
Toxins can be destroyed by boiling for 30 min
Incubation period is 1-6 hours
All of above
Differential diagnosis of food poisoning is done with:
Cholera
Shigellosis
Salmonellosis
Rota viral infection
All of above
Which of the following is frequent complication of food poisoning:
Acute heard insufficiency
Acute renal insufficiency
Acute lung insufficiency
Acute brain insufficiency
All of above
Immunity after carried shigellosis:
Tense and species-specific
Untense and type specific
Lifelong and cross
Untense and cross
Not formed
Endotoxin is not contained by shygella:
Boyd
Grigor'ev-Shig
Zonne
Fleksner
All of transferred contain
The source of exciter at shigellosis is:
Sick man
Sick agricultural animals
Sick rodents
Soil
Defecating of patients
A most epidemiology role at shigellosis is played:
Sick with an acute form illnesses
Sick with a chronic form illnesses
C. *
D.
E.
434.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
435.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
436.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
437.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
438.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
439.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
440.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Sick with the effaced form illnesses
Healthy transmitters
Children
Such concomitant diseases are instrumental in more protracted reconvalescent transmitter of
shygella:
HIV-infection/AIDS
Chronic hepatitis
Chronic pancreatitis
Adenoviral infection
Diabetes mellitus
What mechanism of transmission of shygella?
Vertical
Transmissive
Air-drop
Contact
Fecal-oral
What mechanism of transmission of shygella?
Vertical
Transmissive
Air-drop
Contact
Anyone
With the diagnosis of shigellosis antibacterial therapy is appointed a patient by the protracted course.
What most frequent complication can arise up at such treatment?
Infectiously-toxic shock
Allergic reactions
Disbacteriosis
Sprue
Toxic hepatitis
Principles of treatment of patients with shigellosis.
Diet
Antibacterial preparations
Correction of dysbacteriosis
Detoxication therapy
All the above
Etiology agent of dysentery is:
Sh. dysentery
Sh. zonnei
Sh. flexneri
Sh. boydii
All above it
How long the incubation period last:
1-2 hours
2-3 days
10-15 hours
5-7 days
7-10 days
441.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
442.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
443.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
444.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
445.
A. *
446.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
447.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
448.
A.
B.
How long the incubation period last:
1-2 days
2-3 days
10-15 days
5-7 days
7-10 days
Which of antibiotics is used as etiological treatment of dysentery:
Penicillin, bicillin
Furazolidon
Tetracycline
Amynoglycosides (kanamicin)
Cephalosporins (cephazolin)
Which of antibiotics are used as etiological treatment of dysentery:
Penicillin
Rovamicyn
Cyprofloxain
Amynoglycosides (kanamicin)
Cephalosporins (cephazolin)
Which of antibiotics are used as etiological treatment of dysentery:
Penicillin
Nifuroxazid
Rovamicyn
Amynoglycosides (kanamicin)
Cephalosporins (cephazolin)
Patient B. applied to the infectious department with suspecting on Shigellosis. What methods can
confirm the diagnosis?
Stool culture, indirect hemaglutination test with dysenteric diagnostics
?Direct bilirubin is increased, in urine there is significant increase of bilirubin and urobilin,
increasing of stercobilin of excrements. What is the type of icterus?
Haemolitic
Parenhimatous
Transport
Extraliver
Mechanical
On the average 15 to 30 % of all population of the planet suffer from some pathology of liver.
Prevalence of hepatitis and cirrhosis in the European countries is about 1 % of adults. Annually in the
world there are about 2 million people with acute viral hepatitis. What % of all cases will develop
chronic form.
100 %
50 %
25 %
10 %
1%
Diagnosed a patient: chronic hepatitis in the stage of integration. What markers will be in patient in
this stage disease?
HBeAg
Antibodies to HBeAg
C.
D.
E. *
449.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
450.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
451.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
452.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
453.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
454.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
455.
A.
B.
C.
D.
DNA OF HBV
Viral DNA-polimerase
HBsAg, anti-НBе
As etiotropic therapy of sharp and chronic viral hepatitis B utillize:
Corticosteroid
Immunomodulate preparations
Cytostatics
Antibiotics
Antiviral preparations
Give recommendation for a patient in reconvalensent period of viral hepatitis during a clinical
supervision after isolation.
A medical supervision during 6 month
Biochemical inspection
Abstain from hard physical load
Temporal contra-indications for prophylactic inoculations
All the above
Give recommendation for a patient in reconvalensent period of viral hepatitis during a clinical
supervision after isolation.
Medical supervision during 6 months, periodic biochemical inspections.
Control bacteriological examinations
Full labor investigation
To continue prophylactic inoculations
Supervision is not needed
Etiotropic therapy of viral hepatitis is.
Ribavirin
Interferon
Inductors of interferon
Zefix
All the above
Choose the remedies for etiotropic therapy of viral hepatitis.
Ribavirin
Vaccine
Normal human immunoprotein
Hepatoprotector
Glucocorticoid
Choose the remedies for etiotropic therapy for viral hepatitis.
Antibiotics
Interferon
Probiotics
Vaccine
Normal human immunoprotein
The criteria for application of etiotropic therapy in viral hepatitis is.
Protracted motion of HBV, HVD
Any form of HV
Biochemical activity
Presence of virus replication
E. *
456.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
457.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
458.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
459.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
460.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
461.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
462.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
463.
A.
B.
All the above
The criteria for application of etiotropic therapy for the patient with HCV.
Clinical displays are insignificant
Icterus is absent
Moderate biochemical activity
There is anti-HCV in blood
RNA of HCV +
Factors which are indications of successful interferon therapy in HV infections are all, except.
Level of ALaT not more than 2-3 norm
Low titre of HCV after the treatment
Absence of cholestasis
2th and 4th genotypes of HCV
Expressed fibrosis
Indirect action of interferon therapy.
Influenza-like syndrome
Nausea
Itching
Para-hypnosis
All the above||
Indirect action of interferons.
Flatulence
Diarrhea
Nausea
Depression
All the above
Indirect action of interferon therapy are all except.
Influenza-like syndrome
Nausea
Depression
Intensification of autoimmune diseases
Progress of fibrosis
Basic principles of antiviral therapy for viral hepatitis.
Individual selection of dose and rhythm of application of preparations
Duration of introduction of preparations
Control of amount of erytrocytes, leucocytes and thrombocytes, in blood
Control of iron level in blood
All the above
Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
Decompensatory cirrhosis of liver
Thrombocytopenia <50000 in 1 мм3
Psychic disorders
Leucocytopenia <1500 in 1 мм3
All the above
Contra-indications for antiviral therapy of viral hepatitis.
.Decompensatory cirrhosis of live
Autoimmune disease
C.
D.
E. *
464.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
465.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
466.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
467.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
468.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
469.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
470.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Alcoholism and other drug addictions
.Coinfection by HI
All the above
Choose the indexes of efficiency of interferon therapy.
Disappearance| of markers of viral replication
Improvement of the general state
Normalization of the liver size
Disappearance of icterus
All the above
Choose the indexes of efficiency of interferon therapy.
Improvement of the general state
Normalization of activity of ALaT
Normalization of the liver size
Disappearance of icterus
All the above
Types of answer for interferon therapy are.
Stable remission
Unsteady
Partial answer
Absence of answer
All the above
The characteristic of an unsteady answer of interferon therapy are.
Disappearance of markers of viral replication upon completion of course of therapy
Normalization of activity of ALaT during the course of therapy
An origin of relapse in next 6 months
Disappearance of icterus
All the above
That characteristic of a partial answer of interferon therapy are all, except.
Disappearance of markers of viral replication
Normalization of activity of ALaT is upon completion of course of therapy
Disappearance of icterus
Normalization the state of patient
Normalization of the size of liver
When is interferon therapy effective in the the patient.
Normalization of the state of patient
Normalization of activity of ALaT upon completion of course of therapy
Disappearance of icterus
Normalization of the size of liver
The markers of viral replication, are determined upon completion of course of therapy
What laboratory work-up is needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral hepatitis.
Total analysis of blood
Determination of level of bilirubin
Determination of activity of aminotransferase
Determination of markers of HV in IFA
All the above
471.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
472.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
473.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
474.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
475.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
476.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
477.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
478.
A.
B. *
What laboratory and instrumental examinations are needed for confirming the diagnosis of viral
hepatitis.
Complete analysis of blood
Ultrasound of abdominal region
Determination of activity of aminotransferase
Determination of antigen of viruses
Duodenal probing
What is incubation period for hepatitis B:
45 days
180 days
360 days
90 days
25 days
All the hepatitis have parenteral route of transmission except:
A
B
C
D
TTV
Chronic course is common for viral hepatitis except:
A
B
C
D
B+C
All the following medicines are interferons except:
Intron
Roferon
Reaferon
Leukinferon
Cycloferon
All the following medicines are hepatoprotective agents except:
Carsil
Silibor
Legalon
Lomusol
Arginine
On treatment of acute and chronic hepatitis B is used:
Corticosteroids
Immunomodulators
Cytostatics
Antibiotics
Antiviral drugs
Who is the source of the pathogen for hepatitis A?
Healthy virus carrier
A sick person
C.
D.
E.
479.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
480.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
481.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
482.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
483.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
484.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
485.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
486.
Animals
People + animal
Sick man + virus carrier
The source of the causative agent of hepatitis A are:
Sick people
Sick farm animals
Patients rodents
Soil
The stools of patients
The largest epidemiological role in hepatitis A is played:
Patients with icteric form of the disease
Patients with anicteric and inapparent forms of the disease
Transient carriers
Chronic carriers
Children
The greatest role in the epidemiology of hepatitis B are:
Patients icteric form of the disease
Patients anicteric form of the disease
Transient carriers
Chronic healthy carriers
Children
The largest epidemiological role in hepatitis C is played:
Patients with icteric form of the disease
Patients with anicteric form of the disease
Transient carriers
Chronic healthy carriers
Children
Who is the source of the pathogen for hepatitis B?
Virus carrier
A sick person
Animals
People + animal
Sick man + virus carrier
The source of the causative agent of hepatitis B are:
Sick people
Sick farm animals
Patients rodents
Soil
The stools of patients
Who is the source of the pathogen for hepatitis C?
Virus carrier
A sick person
Animals
People + animal
Sick man + virus carrier
The source of the causative agent for hepatitis C is:
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
487.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
488.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
489.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
490.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
491.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
492.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
493.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
Sick people
Sick farm animals
Patients rodents
Soil
The stools of patients
Who is the source of the pathogen for hepatitis E?
Virus carrier
A sick person
Animals
People + animal
Sick man + virus carrier
On which group of infectious disease is hepatitis A belongs?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Zooanthroponoses
The group is not defined
Which group of infectious diseases hepatitis B belongs?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Zooanthroponoses
The group is not defined
On which group of infectious disease is hepatitis C belongs?
Sapronosis
Zoonosis
Anthroponosis
Zooanthroponoses
The group is not defined
HAV is ruind boiling on:
Perishes
Killed immediately
Dies after 10 xs
Dies at 30 xg
Dies in 1 hour
Autoclaving (126 C) dies HBV with:
Perishes
Killed immediately
Dies after 2 minutes
Dies after 45 minutes
Dies in 2 hours
HAV contains:
DNA
DNA and RNA
H-antigen and Vi-antigen
RNA
E.
494.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
495.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
496.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
497.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
498.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
499.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
500.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
501.
A. *
B.
O-antigen, H-antigen and HVsAg
HBV contains:
DNA
HBsAg
HBeAg
HBsAg
All of the above
HCV contains:
DNA
HBeAg and HBsAg
H-antigen and Vi-antigen
RNA
O-antigen, H-antigen and HBsAg
Isolation of HAV begins:
Since the beginning of the incubation period
In the last 2-3 days of incubation
With the onset of clinical symptoms
During the period of convalescence
From 10 to 21 days after infection
The most intensive selection HAV in the period:
Increasing thymol
5 days after the increase in transaminase levels and the peak of their activity
Fall of transaminases
Jaundice period
Before the increase in transaminases and the peak of their activity
After suffering a chronic carrier of hepatitis A:
Not formed
Formed in 0.1-1% of cases
Formed in 8-10% of cases
Formed in 20-30% of cases
Formed in 50-80% of cases
After suffering a chronic hepatitis B carriers:
Not formed
Formed in 0.1-1% of cases
Formed in 8-10% of cases
Formed in 20-30% of cases
Formed in 50-80% of cases
After suffering from chronic hepatitis C carriers:
Not formed
Formed in 0.1-1% of cases
Formed in 8-10% of cases
Formed in 20-30% of cases
Formed in 70-80% of cases
What mechanism of transmission HAV?
The fecal-oral
Drip
C.
D.
E.
502.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
503.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
504.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
505.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
506.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
507.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
508.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
509.
Transmissible
Contact
Any of these
What mechanism of transmission HBV?
The fecal-oral
Transmissible
Airborne
Contact
Any of these
The mechanism of transmission of hepatitis C:
The fecal-oral
Drip
Transmissible
Contact
Any of these
Mechanism of transmission of hepatitis E?
The fecal-oral
Drip
Transmissible
Contact
Any of these
What was the main route of transmission of hepatitis A.
Water
Wound
Sexual
Wound and sexual
Airborne dust
What was the main route of transmission of hepatitis C.
Alimentary
Wound
Sexual
Wound and sexual
Airborne dust
What was the main route of transmission of hepatitis B.
Alimentary
Wound
Sexual
Wound and sexual
Airborne dust
What was the main route of transmission of hepatitis E.
Alimentary
Wound
Sexual
Water
Contact-household
The most common clinical forms of hepatitis A are:
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
510.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
511.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
512.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
513.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
514.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
515.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
516.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
Anicteric
Dyspepsial
Intoxication
Febrile
Icteric
The most common hepatitis B are such clinical forms:
Anicteric
Dyspepsial
Artralgicheskaya
Gepatomegalicheskaya
Icteric
The most common hepatitis C clinical forms are :
Anicteric
Dyspepsial
Artralgicheskaya
Gepatomegalicheskaya
Icteric
What is the most important factor in the transmission HAV?
Blood
Urine
Water and food
Soil
Sexual
What is the most important factor in HBV transmission?
Blood
Urine
Water and food
Soil
Milk
What is the most important factor of HCV transmission?
Blood
Urine
Water and food
Soil
Milk
Which mode of transmission is not inherent to HAV?
Milk
Contact home
Water
Sexual
Alimentary
Which seasons of hepatitis A are character?
Spring
Summer
Autumn
Autumn and winter
E.
517.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
518.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
519.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
520.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
521.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
522.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
523.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
524.
A.
B.
Not typical
What is the typical seasonality of hepatitis B?
Spring and summer
Summer-fall
Not typical
Winter
Autumn
What is the typical seasonality of hepatitis C?
Summer
Summer-fall
None
Winter
Autumn and spring-summer
What seasonality characteristic of hepatitis E?
Summer
Summer-fall
Not typical
Autumn and winter
Autumn and spring-summer
Immunity after suffering a hepatitis A:
Cross
Non-durable
Life
Not formed
Only after vaccination
Immunity after suffering a hepatitis C:
Not formed
Cross
Life
Only after vaccination
Spesifick
The patient becomes infectious in hepatitis B:
Since the beginning of the incubation period
The last 2 months of the incubation period
The last 2-3 day incubation period
With the onset of clinical symptoms
During the period of convalescence
Risk group for hepatitis B are not:
Medical profession
Prostitutes
Addicts
Recipients of blood
Blood donors
Groups of risk for hepatitis B:
Medical profession
Prostitutes
C.
D.
E. *
525.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
526.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
527.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
528.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
529.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
530.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
531.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
532.
Addicts
Recipients of blood
All of the above
Groups of risk for hepatitis A:
Medical profession
Children
Addicts
Recipients of blood
All of the above
Groups of risk for hepatitis B, C:
Recipients of blood
Addicts
Hospital patients
Tattooing, piercing
All of the above
Groups at risk of hepatitis B, C:
Persons undergoing laboratory examination
Addicts
Patients receiving different injection
Visitors Hairdressing (shaving, manicure)
All of the above
Convalescent hepatitis B and C are discharged from the hospital after:
Disposable negative virological testing stool
21 days of normal body temperature
Normalization of bilirubin
Improvement and normalization of transaminases
Clinical cure and no more than three-fold increase in transaminases
Risk group for hepatitis C are not:
Medical profession
Prostitutes
Addicts
Recipients of blood
Blood donors
Type of period before jungdice of viral hepatitis:
Catarrhal
Asthenovegetative
Dyspepsial
Artralgichny
All of the above
Type of period before jungdice, except for the ...:
Enlarged liver
Dyspeptic symptoms
Pathological impurities in feces
Discoloration of feces
The rich color of the urine
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
533.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
534.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
535.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
536.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
537.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
538.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
539.
A.
B.
C. *
Increase of jaundice
Meningeal syndrome
Fever
Reducing the size of the liver
Hemorrhagic syndrome
Criteria for assessing the severity of HBV:
The degree of intoxication
The severity of jaundice
The level of serum bilirubin
Enlarged liver
All of the above
Criteria for assessing the severity of HBV, except for ...:
The degree of intoxication
The severity of jaundice
The level of serum bilirubin
Enlarged liver
High fever
With what diseases should be a differential diagnosis of HBV in period before jaundice?
Influenza
Adenovirus infection
Foodborne diseases
Rheumatism, rheumatoid arthritis
All of the above
With what diseases should be a differential diagnosis of HBV icteric period?
Cholelithiasis
Malignant tumors of the liver in the gate
Leptospirosis
Intestinal yersiniosis
All of the above
With what diseases should be a differential diagnosis of HBV icteric period?
Cholelithiasis
Kissing disease
Leptospirosis
Malaria
All of the above
?A citizen К., goes to country with unfavorable conditions related to plague. Provide necessary
measures of specific prophylaxis.
Human immunoglobulin
Іnterferon
Dry life vaccine
Bacteriophags
Life measles vaccine
The measures of urgent prophylaxis of plague.
Administration of human immunoglobulin
Chlorochin (delagil) 0,25 g 2 times in week
6-day’s prophylaxis with streptomycin or tetracycline
D.
E.
540.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
541.
A. *
542.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
543.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
544.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
545.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
546.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
547.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
In first 5 days intake antibiotics of penicillin or tetracycline origin
Іnterferon
The rules of hospitalization of patients with plague:
To separate ward
To ward for respiratory infections
To ward boxing chamber
Patient’s are not hospitalized
To ward for intestinal infections
Patient T., drives in a country unhappy on a plague. Conduct measures on a specific prophylaxis.
Human immunoglobulin
Preparations for urgent prophylaxis of plague:
Injection of human immunoglobulin
Streptomycin or tetracycline
Human immunoglobulin
Dry living vaccine or tetracycline generations.
Interferon
Y. pestis is transmitted more frequently by:
Flea
Water
Air
Food storage
Tick
Incubation period of plague is:
3 to 8 days;
2 to 12 days;
2 to 10 days;
1 to 8 days.
2 to 6 days;
From what form of plague is highly fatal?
Sylvatic;
Bubonic;
Septicemic;
Pneumonic.
Bubonic and septicemic
What is the main feature of intestinal plague?
Massive bacteriemia
Headache
Pain in the abdominal
Throatache
Bleeding
What drug did use for the treatment of plague?
Amoxicillin
Streptomycin
Penicillin
Biseptol
5-NOK
548.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
549.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
550.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
551.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
552.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
553.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
554.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
555.
A.
B.
C. *
When your mast begins to treat patients with a plague:
Immediately after hospitalization
Immediately after hospitalization, carrying out only material for research
After raising of final diagnosis
After laboratory and instrumental diagnostics
All answers are faithful
Phage symptom in case of yellow fever is:
Pain in right iliac area
Enanthema on a soft palate
Replacement of tachicardia on expressed bradicardia
Hemorrhages in a conjunctiva
Yellow hands
Hemograme in the second period of yellow fever:
Leukocytosis
Normal global analysis of blood
Leukopenia, neutropenia
Leukopenia, neutrophilosis
Leukocytosis, lymphomonocytosis
Whatever complication meets at the yellow fever:
Liver insufficiency
Kidney insufficiency
Infectious-toxic shock
Myocarditis
Edema of lungs
In case of yellow fever is absent:
Hemorrhagic syndrome
Kidney insufficiency
Іntoxication syndrome
Міalglic syndrome
Hepatic insufficiency
For confirmation of yellow fever diagnosis use:
Bacteriological analysis of blood
Bacteriological examination of urine
Virological hemanalysis
Biochemical blood test
Global analysis of blood
In the initial period of hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome a characteristic sign is:
High temperatures
Pains in gastrocnemius muscles and positive Pasternatsky symptom
Pains in joints and positive Pasternatsky symptom
Hemorragic syndrome
Dyspepsia phenomena
An initial period at the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome lasts:
Few hours
Day
To three days
D.
E.
556.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
557.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
558.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
559.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
560.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
561.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
562.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
563.
A.
Week
Two weeks
General view of patient with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome:
Skinning covers
Pallor of nasolabial triangle, hyperemia of neck and overhead half of trunk
Hyperemia of person, scleritis, conjunctivitis
Grayish color of person
Icteric color of skin
In the biochemical blood test at patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidneys syndrome not
characteristically:
High level of urea
Decline of potassium level
Bilirubinemia
Increasing of kreatinine
For confirmation of diagnosis of hemorragic fever with a kidney syndrome use:
Bacteriological method
Virological method
Reaction of immunofluorescence
Reaction of braking of hemagglutination
Research of blood drop under a microscope
For treatment of patients with the hemorrhagic fever with a kidney syndrome does not use:
Glucocorticoids
Anabolic steroid
Disintoxication facilities
Dehydration facilities
Antihistaminics
For the initial period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristically:
Fever
Pains in joints and muscles
Severe pain of head
Oliguria
Dizziness
At an objective review for the Congo hemorrhagic fever characteristically:
Mucosal hyperemia of person
Pallor of person
Puffiness of person
Ochrodermia of person
Exanthema on face
The most characteristic symptom in the climax period of the Congo hemorrhagic fever is:
Hemorrhagic syndrome
Hepatic insufficiency
Dyspepsia phenomena
Sharp kidney insufficiency
Мeningeal syndrome
In the general analysis of blood in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever not characteristically:
Leukocytosis
B. *
C.
D.
E.
564.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
565.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
566.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
567.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
568.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
569.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
570.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
Leukopenia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia
Increasing of ESR
What rashes in case of haemorrhagic fevers with kidneys syndrome?
Roseola
Maculo-papular
Punctuate
Petechial
Rashes is not characteristic
What rashes present in case of Congo hemorrhagic fever?
Roseola
Maculo-papular
Punctulate
Petechial
Rashes not is characteristic
What rashes present in case of Crimea hemorrhagic fever?
Roseola
Maculo-papular
Punctulate
Petechial
Rashes not is characteristic
How long the rash is present in case of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?
During all feverish period
Before the reconvalescense
Before development of clinical features of kidneys insufficiency
During whole disease
Appears yet in a latent period and disappears in the period of early reconvalescense
A kidney syndrome at haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome shows up usually:
Only laboratory changes
Only on BRIDLES
By pain in lumbar area, positive Pasternatsky symptom, development of oliguria
By fever, polyuria, dyspepsia
By paradoxical ischuria
What changes in biochemical blood test inherent for haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome?
Increase level of urea and bilirubin
The level of urea and kreatinine falls
The level of kreatinine grows and urea falls
The level of urea grows and kreatinine falls
The level of urea and kreatinine grows
The period of poliuria at haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome is a sign of:
Recovering
Chronic process
Unfavorable flow of illness
Development of complications
Complete convalescence
571.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
572.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
573.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
574.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
575.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
576.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
577.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
578.
A.
B.
C.
In most patients with Congo hemorrhagic fever temperature curve is:
Wunderlich type
Botkin type
Undulating
Intermittent
Two-humped
With appearance of hemorrhagic syndrome at Congo fever temperature of body always:
Normalize
Grows critically
Goes down
Does not change
Grows gradually
What changes in haemogram inherent Congo hemorrhagic fever?
Normochomic anaemia, leucocytosis mononuclear
Erythrocytosis, lymphocytosis
Hypochromic anemia, erythrofilosis
Hypochromic anemia, neutrofilosis
Hyperchromic anemia, neutrofilosis
What is typical for the Lassa hemorrhagic fever:
Effect of cardiovascular system
Development of acute hepatic insufficiency
Hundred-per-cent lethality
Defeat of breathing organs
Development of paresis and paralysis
Confirm diagnosis of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome by a way of:
Only virological methods
Only bacteriological methods
Bacteriological and serum methods
Proper epidemiological information
Virologic and serum methods
Confirm the diagnosis of Lassa hemorrhagic fever by a way of:
Only virological methods
Only bacteriological methods
Bacteriological and serum methods
Proper epidemiological information
Virologic and serum methods
Confirm the diagnosis of Congo hemorrhagic fever by a way of:
Only virological methods
Only bacteriological methods
Bacteriological and serum methods
Proper epidemiological information
Virologic and serum methods
Confirm the diagnosis of Ebola fever by a way of:
Growth of viruses on chicken embryons
Only bacteriological methods
Bacteriological and serum methods
D.
E. *
579.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
580.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
581.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
582.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
583.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
584.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
585.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
586.
A.
Proper epidemiological information
Selection of virus on the Vero culture
Confirm the diagnosis of Omsk fever by a way of:
Growth of virus on chicken embryons
Only bacteriological methods
Bacteriological and serum methods
Proper epidemiological information
Selection of virus on the Vero culture
Confirm the diagnosis of Marburg fever by a way of:
Growth on chicken embryos
Only bacteriological methods
Bacteriological and serum methods
Proper epidemiologys information
Selection of virus on the Vero culture
What etiothropic means use at treatment of haemorrhagic fever with kidneys syndrome:
Benzylpenicillin
Dopamine
Virolex
Dexamethazone
Etamsylatum
What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Lassa fever:
Benzylpenicillin
Dopamine
Ribavirin
Dexamethazole
Etamsylatum
What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Omsk fever:
Benzylpenicillin
Dopamine
Ribavirin
Dexamethazone
Etamsylatum
What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Marburg fever:
Benzypenicillin
Dopamine
Ribavirin
Dexamethazone
Etamsylatum
What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Congo fever:
Benzylpenicillin
Dopamine
Ribavirin
Dexamethazone
Etamsylatum
What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Ebola fever:
Benzylpenicillin
B.
C. *
D.
E.
587.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
588.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
589.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
590.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
591.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
592.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
593.
A.
B. *
C.
Dopamine
Virolex
Dexamethazone
Etamsylatum
What etiothropic means use at treatment of patients with Crimea fever:
Benzylpenicillin
Dopamine
Ribavirin
Dexamethazone
Etamsylatum
Specific prevention of hemorrhagic fevers:
The live vaccine
Killed vaccine
The specific immunoglobulin
Do not developed
Polivalent vaccine
Who is the source of the causal agent in the Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever?
Rodents, cattle, birds
Iksod and gamazov mites
Rodents, cattle, birds, sick people
The sick man, reconvalenc, bacteriocarries
Rodents, cattle, birds, sick people, bacteriocarries
The source of infection of Omsk‘s hemorrhagic fever are muskrat, water rats and other rodents. Who
are the carriers?
Bee and flea
Pliers and flea
Mosquitoes
Fly
Pliers and mosquitoes
Specific prevention of Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever are:
Vaccine and human immunoglobulin
Serum
Serum and human immunoglobulin
Do not developed
Antibacterial drugs
Those who have been in contact with sick haemorrhagic fevers, as well as those who had bite by the
ticks in endemic areas are introducing:
Specific vaccine
The specific immunoglobulin in doses of 10-15 ml vaccine
The specific immunoglobulin in doses of 10-15 ml
The specific immunoglobulin in doses 5-7,5 ml
Nothing
Specify the measures of urgent prophylaxis of anthrax.
Anti-anthrax immunoglobulin
Penicillinum or tetracyclinum during 5 days
Vaccination
D.
E.
594.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
595.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
596.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
597.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
598.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
599.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
600.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
601.
A.
Medical supervision
Biseptolum 5 days
Who are the infection source of anthrax.
Birds
Wild animals
Fly
Human
Rodents
What specific test is used for anthrax diagnostic?
Compliment fixation test
Indirect hemaglutination test
Coetaneous test with antraxin
Hemaglutination test
RIFA with anthrax antigen
What anthrax prophylactic measures are entertained by farm workers?
Vitamin therapy
Immunization by inactivated vaccine
Formulated vaccine
Immunization by live vaccine
Antibiotic therapy
The etiological factor of anthrax is:
Salmonella thyphi
Erysipelothrix rhysiopothiac
Bacillus anthracis
Rickettsiosis sibirica
Toxocara canis
The source of infection of anthrax is more frequent than all:
People
Birds
Home animals
Rodents
Fly
Mechanism of transmission of anthrax are:
Contact
Alimentary
Air-droplets’
Transmissiv
All above it
What organ demerged more frequent than all in patients with anthrax?
Skin
Lights
Gastrointestinal tract
Lymphatic system
Nervous system
What clinical form of a skin affection by anthrax is:
Hyperemic of skins
B.
C. *
D.
E.
602.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
603.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
604.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
605.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
606.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
607.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
608.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Vesiculs
Ulcer
Phlegmon
Abscess
For anthrax most characteristically:
Change of stool
Icterus of skin
Catarrhal phenomena
Meningeal phenomena
Change of skin
For a skin form of anthrax the most characteristically:
Hyperemia
Painful carbuncle
Not painful carbuncle
Painful noodles
Vesicles and bulls
For anthrax carbuncle the most characteristically:
Ulcer with a festering bottom, roller on periphery and insignificant area of edema
Ulcer with hyperemia on periphery without an edema
Ulcer with a black scab, black color, second vesicles and area of edema around of ulcer
Ulcer with a festering bottom, roller on periphery, second vesicles and area of edema
Ulcer with serosis-hemorrhagic exudates, painful, with the area of edema around of ulcer
Symptom of Stefansky – it is:
Enantema on a soft palate
Enantema on a conjunctiva
Shaking of tongue at an attempt to put out a tongue
Shaking of edema like to jelly at pattering a hammer in the area of edema
Painful of stomach in a right iliac area
For the pulmonary form of anthrax characteristically:
Foamy sputum with blood
Glassy sputum with blood
Foamy sputum without blood
Foamy green sputum
Like to «ferruginous» sputum
With what diseases it is necessary to differentiate anthrax:
Leptospirozis
Typhoid fever
Dermatitis
Carbuncle
Meningococcal infection
What material is necessary take for diagnosis of anthrax:
Spinal liquid
Urine
Saliva
Content of carbuncle
Nose swab
609.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
610.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
611.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
612.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
613.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
614.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
615.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
616.
A. *
B.
C.
The diagnostic reaction of anthrax is:
Rayt‘s reaction
Vidal‘s reaction
Reaction of term precipitation of Askoly
Paul-Bunnel‘s reaction
Reaction of agglutination-lysis
The diagnostic endermic reaction of anthrax take:
Antraksin
Dizenterin
Ornitin
Malein
Brucellin
For treatment of anthrax us:
Sulfanilamids
Nitrofurans
Hormones
Antiviral facilities
Antibiotics
It is necessary to appoint for successful treatment of anthrax:
Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and penicillin
Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and prednizolon
Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and vyrolex
Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and vermox
Antyanthrax immunoglobulin and delagil
The exciter of tetanus is:
Clostridia
Escherichia
Candida
Virus
Simplest
The exciter of tetanus is:
Clostridia
Escherichia
Candida albicans
Neisseria
Gonococcus
For the exciter of tetanus characteristic such properties, except:
Formation of exotoxins
Ability to propagate in anaerobic conditions
Formation of spores
Formation of gametes
Gram positive
The best terms of tetanus exciter cultivation:
Anaerobic conditions
Oxygen supply
Presence of animal albumen in nutritive medium
D.
E.
617.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
618.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
619.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
620.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
621.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
622.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
623.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
624.
A. *
Low temperature
1 % peptone water
Vegetative form of exciter of tetanus is destroyed in such terms, except for:
At a temperature of 100 °C
At room temperature
Under action of carbolic acid
Under the action of oxygen
Under action of antibiotics
Who is the source of tetanus?
Sick person
Rodents
Soil
Insects
Cattle
Who is the source of tetanus?
Sick person
Rodents
Soil
Bacteriocarrier
Sick person and bacteriocarrier
The spores of tetanus are saved:
After boiling during 1 hour
Under act of dry air at the temperature of 115 degrees C
In soil during many years
In 1 % solution of formalin during 6 hours
All answers are correct
Tetanus toxin consists of all units among the listed below, except:
Tetanospasmin
Tetanolysin
Exotoxin
Low-molecular fraction
Enterotoxin
Mechanism of transmission in case of tetanus are:
Intra muscular conduction
Wound
Insect conduction
Faecally-oral
Vertical conduction
What is the main mechanism of transmission of tetanus?
Airborne
Alimentary
Contact
Transmisiv
Vertical
Mechanism of transmission of tetanus are often:
Air
B.
C.
D.
E.
625.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
626.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
627.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
628.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
629.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
630.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
631.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
Contact
Transmissiv
Fecal-oral
Transplacental
What is the receptivity of population to the tetanus?
0%
50 %
Almost 100 %
10 %
70 %
Causing of tetanus are:
C. tetani
E. coli
Candida
Epstein-Barr virus
Hemolytic streptococcus group A
Duration of the latent period in case of tetanus:
1-6 hours
1-4 days
5-14 days
1-6 weeks.
1-6 months
How long does the incubation period of tetanus last?
1-5 days
5-10 days
3-5 days
5-14 days
15-20 days
Tetanus might appear in case of:
Trauma
Mosquito bite
Usage of stranger clothes
Contact with the sick people
Drink the water with poor quality
Tetanus might appear in case of:
Dog bite
Mosquito bite
Usage of stranger clothes
Contact with the sick people
Drink the water with poor quality
What is the medical tactic development of the severe tetanus after criminal abortion?
Anticonvulsant preparations
Revision of the uterus cavity
Analgesic therapy
Antibiotics
All answers are correct
632.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
633.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
634.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
635.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
636.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
637.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
638.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
639.
A.
B.
C. *
Patient A., 25 years old, is being treated concerning tetanus. Choose the specific treatment.
Antibiotics
Immunoglobulins
Anticonvulsant medicine
Cardiac preparations
Respiratory analeptics
Patient G., 25 years old, is being treated concerning tetanus. Choose the specific treatment.
Antibiotics
Serum
Anticonvulsant medicine
Cardiac preparations
Desinthocsication therapy
What measures should be taken in relation to contact persons in case of tetanus?
Vaccination
Isolation of contacts
Chemoprophylaxis
Laboratory inspection
They need no measures
Among the listed below what preparations are not etiological for tetanus?
AC-anatoxin
Medical horse serum
Human immunoprotein
Anticonvulsant preparations
Penicillin
Choose dose of the specific treatment for patients with tetanus.
500 international units of antytetanus Ig
500 international units of antytetanus serum
900 international units of antytetanus Ig
900 international units of antytetanus serum
900 units/kg of antytetanus serum
Choose dose of the specific treatment for patients with tetanus.
500 international units of antytetanus Ig
500 international units of antytetanus serum
500 units/kg of antytetanus Ig
900 international units of antytetanus serum
500 units/kg of antytetanus serum
Choose dose of the specific treatment for patients with tetanus.
600 units/kg of antytetanus serum
900 units/kg of antytetanus Ig
500 units/kg of antytetanus Ig
900 units/kg of antytetanus serum
500 units/kg of antytetanus serum
What is the first aid preparation for the patient with tetanus?
Glucocorticoids
Analgetics
Anticonvulsant medicine
D.
E.
640.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
641.
A.
B. *
C.
D.
E.
642.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
643.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
644.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
645.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
646.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
647.
A.
Surgical treatment of the wound
Oxygen therapy
Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not early:
Tracheobronchitis
Contracture of muscles and joints
Asphyxia
Myocarditis
Pneumonia
Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not early:
Tracheobronchitis
Compressive deformation of the spine
Asphyxia
Myocarditis
Pneumonia
Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not late:
Contracture of muscles and joints
Tetanus-kifozis
Asphyxia
Asthenic syndrome
Chronic heterospecific diseases of lungs
Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not late:
Contracture of muscles and joints
Tetanus-kifozis
Anaphylactic shock
Asthenic syndrome
Chronic heterospecific diseases of lungs
Which early complications occurs in tetanus?
Tracheobronchitis
Asphyxia
Myocarditis
Pneumonia
All the above
Which late complications occurs in tetanus?
Contracture of muscles and joints
Compressive deformation of the spine
Asthenic syndrome
Chronic heterospecific diseases of lungs
All the above
What is the duration of outpatient supervision for patients, recovered of tetanus?
2 years
3 months
1 month
For the decreed groups of population for life time
There is no such supervision at all
Urgent immunoprofilactic of tetanus in the case of trauma should be conducted in such period:
25 days from the moment of trauma
B.
C.
D. *
E.
648.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
649.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
650.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
651.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
652.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
653.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
654.
A.
B.
30 days from the moment of trauma
In the first 10 days from the moment of trauma
At once after the trauma
Not mentioned
Among the listed below people who should receive an immediate prophylactic of the tetanus in form
of AC-anatoxin and AC IP injections after trauma?
Man of 40 years, in anamnesis with 1 inoculation one year ago
Pregnant woman of 30 years, in the second half of pregnancy
Child, 7 months, instilled according to a calendar
Retire man of 57 years, who is not instilled
Child of 6 years, instilled according to a calendar
In case of tetanus the epidemiological measures are directed on:
Elimination of the source of tetanus
Treatment of the source of tetanus
Specific prophylaxis
Medicines prophylactics
Nothing should be performed
At what infectious disease does conduct the spasm almost always commences in the muscles of the
neck and jaw. causing closure of the jaws?
Poisoning mushrooms
Meningoencefalitis
Poliomyelitis
Rabies
Tetanus
For what disease is characterized this symptom (the generalized spasm of soft muscles, flexion of the
arms and extension of the legs)?
Poliomyelitis
Brucellosis
Pseudo tuberculosis
Tetanus
Hydrophobia
For what disease is characterized opistotonus?
Poliomyelitis
Brucellosis
Pseudo tuberculosis
Tetanus
Hydrophobia
For what disease is characterized emprostotonus?
Poliomyelitis
Brucellosis
Pseudo tuberculosis
Tetanus
Hydrophobia
For what disease is characterized rizos sardonicus?
Poliomyelitis
Brucellosis
C.
D. *
E.
655.
A. *
B.
C.
D.
E.
656.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E. *
657.
A.
B.
C. *
D.
E.
658.
A.
B.
C.
D. *
E.
Pseudo tuberculosis
Tetanus
Hydrophobia
Who is the source of the pathogen faces?
Sick man
Rodents
Ground
Insects
Cattle
Who is the source of the erysipelas?
Erysipelas
A patient with angina
Sick with scarlet fever
Pneumonia
All of the above
What is the prevention of erysipelas?
Introduction antistreptokokkovogo immunoglobulin
The use of low doses of hormones
Bitsillinoprofilaktika 1 per month
The vaccine
Prevention of trauma to the skin and sore throats
Diagnosis again erysipelas can be set, if the clinical symptoms appeared:
2 years after the last relapse
First
After 6 months. after primary treatment
2 years after the primary disease
Subsequent calls a year after the primary disease