Download Integrated Science 1 Spring Exam Review

Integrated Science 1 Spring Exam Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____
1. What would be the immediate effect on a population of insect-feeding birds if pesticide is sprayed in their
ecosystem?
a. The birds would adapt to their environment.
b. The bird population would decrease.
c. The birds would balance out the ecosystem.
d. The bird population would increase.
____
2. Fossil fuels include
a. wood and charcoal.
b. coal, natural gas, and oil.
c. dinosaur bones.
d. hydrogen, oxygen, and acetylene.
____
3. How is water used in a coal-fired power plant?
a. Hot water turns the generator.
b. Water is heated and reacts with the burning coal.
c. As water heats up, energy is released into the coals.
d. Steam from hot water spins the turbines.
____
4. Which of the following statements is not true about ecosystems?
a. Seasonal patterns can change an ecosystem.
b. If disturbed, ecosystems tend to eventually balance out.
c. All the elements of an ecosystem are interrelated.
d. Wildfires cause permanent loss of an ecosystem.
____
5. _____ is an example of using an alternative energy source.
a. Owning a solar powered home
c. Turning off lights
b. Carpooling
d. Recycling
____
6. _____ is a pollutant that is released during combustion.
a. Methane
c. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
____
7. Plants utilize carbon dioxide that is produced by
a. cellular respiration.
c. fossil fuel burning.
b. decomposition.
d. All of the above
____
8. Solar cells are used to
a. convert sunlight into electricity.
b. convert electricity into solar energy.
c. convert sunlight and carbon dioxide into sugars.
d. photograph sunspots.
AIR POLLUTION
____
9. According to the pie chart, the second-largest contributor to air pollution is
a. nitrogen oxides.
c. volatile organic compounds.
b. particulate matter.
d. carbon monoxide.
____ 10. A forest destroyed by a fire will gradually become a complex ecosystem with a wide variety of plants and
animals in a process called
a. development.
c. regeneration.
b. succession.
d. evolution.
____ 11. Almost all energy on Earth comes from
a. the sun.
b. fossil fuels.
c. Earth’s crust.
d. moving water.
____ 12. Aluminum is used in kitchen foil because it is
a. very heavy.
c. shiny.
b. hard to bend.
d. None of the above
____ 13. What is an atom’s nucleus made of?
a. only neutrons
b. only protons
c. anodes
d. protons and neutrons
____ 14. The chemical formula for water, H2O, means that each water molecule contains
a. two hydrogen atoms and zero oxygen atoms.
b. one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.
c. two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
d. two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
____ 15. Knowing the chemical properties of a substance will tell you how the substance
a. looks.
c. can be broken down into atoms.
b. smells.
d. reacts with other substances.
____ 16. What is the mass number of an element that has 19 protons, 19 electrons, and 20 neutrons?
a. 39
c. 19
b. 58
d. 20
____ 17. Which statement about the atom’s nucleus is correct?
a. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
b. The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
c. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
d. The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
____ 18. An object’s volume can be found by dividing its mass by its
a. pressure.
c. weight.
b. density.
d. temperature.
____ 19. Which of the following is not an example of a physical property?
a. density
c. reactivity
b. freezing point
d. boiling point
____ 20. An element’s atomic number is equal to its number of
a. neutrons.
c. protons and neutrons.
b. valence electrons
d. protons.
____ 21. A chemical property of copper is its
a. density.
b. reactivity.
c. color.
d. melting point.
____ 22. Helium is used in balloons because it is
a. flammable.
b. a colored gas.
c. reactive with rubber.
d. lighter than air.
____ 23. An iron atom has an atomic mass of 56. Its atomic number is 26. How many neutrons does the iron atom
have?
a. 26
c. 56
b. 30
d. 82
____ 24. Two different isotopes of an element have different
a. numbers of electrons.
c. atomic numbers.
b. numbers of protons.
d. numbers of neutrons.
____ 25. Which of the following is not a physical property of iron?
a. color
c. melting point
b. conductivity
d. ability to rust
____ 26. Solid ionic compounds have very high melting points because they
a. contain metallic elements.
b. are made of elements that are solid at room temperature.
c. contain charged ions that are locked tightly together.
d. are positively charged.
____ 27. The attraction between molecules tends to be _____ the attraction between ions.
a. weaker than
c. stronger than
b. equal to
d. None of the above
____ 28. In a metallic bond, the nucleus of one atom is attracted by a nearby atom’s
a. negative ion.
c. energy structure.
b. nucleus.
d. electrons.
____ 29. Most elements on the left side of the periodic table are
a. semiconductors.
c. metals.
b. metalloids.
d. nonmetals.
____ 30. An ionic bond is a bond that forms between
a. atoms with neutral charges.
b. the electrons of two different atoms.
c. one atom’s nucleus and another atom’s electrons.
d. ions with opposite charges.
____ 31. In which substance do the molecules have the strongest attractions to one another?
a. sugar, a solid
c. sulfuric acid, a liquid
b. hydrogen, a gas
d. water, a liquid
____ 32. When two hydrogen atoms bond, the positive nucleus of one atom attracts the
a. positive nucleus of the other atom.
b. negative nucleus of the other atom.
c. positive electron of the other atom.
d. negative electron of the other atom.
____ 33. Which molecules are most strongly attracted to one another?
a. nitrogen molecules
c. oxygen molecules
b. hydrogen molecules
d. water molecules
____ 34. Often atoms join so that each atom will have
a. an equal number of protons and electrons.
b. more electrons than either protons or neutrons.
c. an even number of electrons.
d. an outermost energy level that is full of electrons.
____ 35. There are strong bonds between the atoms in a piece of quartz. These bonds give quartz a
a. high melting point.
c. low molecular mass.
b. high molecular mass.
d. low melting point.
____ 36. Oxygen atoms have six electrons in their outer shells. When two oxygen atoms bond, they will form a(n)
_____ bond by _____ their electrons.
a. ionic, transferring
c. covalent, transferring
b. ionic, sharing
d. covalent, sharing
____ 37. Sodium has one electron in its outer shell and chlorine has seven electrons in its outer shell. The atoms will
form a(n) _____ bond by _____ their electrons.
a. ionic, sharing
c. covalent, sharing
b. ionic, transferring
d. covalent, transferring
____ 38. Average speed can be represented by the mathematical expression
a. time – distance.
c. distance/time.
b. time + distance.
d. distance  time.
____ 39. On a distance vs. time graph of an object’s motion, distance is usually
a. plotted on the x-axis.
c. the dependent variable.
b. greater than time.
d. measured in ft/min.
____ 40. If an equal force is applied to two cars of equal mass, Car A and Car B, Car A will have _____ acceleration as
(than) Car B.
a. the same
c. greater
b. less
d. the opposite
____ 41. How does the total momentum of two objects before a collision compare with the total momentum after the
collision?
a. It is greater.
c. It is equal to zero
b. It is less.
d. It is the same.
____ 42. The distance traveled by an object divided by the time it takes to travel that distance is called
a. average acceleration.
c. negative acceleration.
b. average velocity.
d. average speed.
____ 43. Which of the following will result in the greatest acceleration?
a. 56 N acting on a 2-kg box
c. 56 N acting on a 1-kg box
b. 23 N acting on a 2-kg box
d. 23 N acting on a 5-kg box
____ 44. The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted on by an unbalanced force is
a. Newton’s third law of motion.
b. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. the law of conservation of momentum.
d. Newton’s second law of motion.
____ 45. Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by
a. speed.
c. distance.
b. time.
d. final velocity.
____ 46. The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the object’s mass times its
acceleration is
a. Newton’s second law of motion.
b. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. Newton’s third law of motion.
d. the law of conservation of momentum.
____ 47. If two objects with different masses and traveling with different velocities collide, what law allows you to
predict the motion of the objects after the collision?
a. the law of conservation of momentum
b. the law of universal gravitation
c. Newton’s second law
d. Newton’s third law
____ 48. Earth pulls on the moon and holds the moon in its orbit. The moon pulls on Earth with an equal and opposite
force. This is an example of
a. Newton’s first law.
c. Newton’s third law.
b. Newton’s second law.
d. None of the above
____ 49. The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force is
a. Newton’s second law of motion.
b. Newton’s first law of motion.
c. the law of conservation of momentum.
d. Newton’s third law of motion.
____ 50. At the top of its arc, a thrown ball has _____ potential energy.
a. maximum
c. average
b. minimum
d. zero
____ 51. Light waves are
a. rotating waves.
b. longitudinal waves.
c. transverse waves.
d. circular waves.
____ 52. Sound waves from a radio generally travel in which medium?
a. light
c. earth
b. water
d. air
Figure 15-1
____ 53. The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob in Figure 15-1 increases the most between locations
a. B and D.
c. A and B.
b. C and D.
d. A and C.
____ 54. _____ is the inverse of period.
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
____ 55. A person is standing still and listening to a siren sounding an alarm. The frequency of the sound is 500 Hz.
The person begins running toward the sound at a rate of 20 m/s. The frequency of the sound the person hears
will
a. remain the same.
c. increase.
b. decrease.
d. change by 20 Hz.
____ 56. Mechanical energy can change to nonmechanical energy as a result of
a. radiation.
c. heat.
b. air resistance.
d. None of the above
____ 57. The speed of a sound wave
a. depends on the medium.
b. depends on amplitude.
c. depends on wavelength.
d. None of the above
____ 58. As a dropped penny falls toward the ground, _____ energy is converted to _____ energy.
a. thermal, potential
c. kinetic, heat
b. potential, kinetic
d. kinetic, vibrational
____ 59. The _____ is the distance between two crests of a wave.
a. period
c. frequency
b. amplitude
d. wavelength
____ 60. The _____ is the time it takes for one full vibration of a particle in a medium.
a. frequency
c. amplitude
b. wave speed
d. period
____ 61. The law of conservation of energy states that energy
a. can only be converted into heat.
c. is created from motion.
b. cannot be created or destroyed.
d. is always equal and opposite.
____ 62. A dropped racquetball will not return to its original position because
a. energy is not conserved.
b. some of the mechanical energy is converted to nonmechanical energy.
c. potential energy is inefficient.
d. the mechanical energy is stored up for later bounces.
____ 63. The color of light is determined by the _____ of the light waves.
a. amplitude
c. frequency or wavelength
b. medium
d. speed
____ 64. Sound waves are
a. longitudinal waves.
b. transverse waves.
c. circular waves.
d. polarized waves.
____ 65. Generators convert
a. chemical energy to electrical energy.
b. electrical energy to chemical energy.
c. electrical energy to mechanical energy.
d. mechanical energy to electrical energy.
____ 66. Magnetically soft substances
a. retain their magnetism longer than others.
b. lose their magnetism more easily than others.
c. pick up more iron nails than magnetically hard substances.
d. cannot be magnetized easily.
____ 67. Magnetic force
a. is a field force.
b. is strongest near a magnet’s poles.
c. acts at a distance.
d. All of the above
____ 68. The electric force between two objects _____ when the distance between them decreases.
a. increases
c. decreases
b. remains constant
d. None of the above
____ 69. The north pole of one magnet will be attracted to
a. a south pole.
c. the middle of a magnet.
b. another north pole.
d. All of the above
____ 70. Increasing the number of coils in a solenoid or an electromagnet results in a _____ magnetic field.
a. weaker
c. stronger
b. perpendicular
d. parallel
____ 71. The electric field lines around a negatively charged particle
a. always point outward.
b. cross negatively charged particle field lines.
c. always point inward.
d. cross positively charged particle field lines.
____ 72. The direction of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire can be determined using
a. an electric motor.
c. the left-hand rule.
b. the right-hand rule.
d. a lodestone.
____ 73. An electric motor and a generator are similar in that both
a. produce mechanical energy.
b. use electricity.
c. transform energy into a different form.
d. create energy.
____ 74. A device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is a(n)
a. transformer.
c. commutator.
b. generator.
d. electric motor.
____ 75. In most cases, increasing the temperature of an object will _____ its resistance.
a. have no effect on
c. nullify
b. increase
d. decrease
____ 76. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk and becomes positively charged,
a. protons are removed from the silk.
b. the silk remains neutral.
c. electrons are removed from the rod.
d. protons are added to the silk.
____ 77. Earth’s magnetic field lines run from
a. magnetic south to magnetic north.
b. geographic east to geographic west.
c. geographic south to geographic north.
d. magnetic east to magnetic west.
Open Response: Record your response in the space provided on the back of your answer sheet.
78. In a laboratory, a student is asked to measure the mass of 3 different vials of carbon. Each of the
vials is said to have the same number of carbon atoms, but the student finds they all have
different masses. Using your knowledge of isotopes, explain how these differences are
possible.
79. Sugar and salt are two very common household substances. While they look very similar, their other
properties are very different. Sugar melts at a much lower temperature than salt. When disolved in water, a
sugar solution is only a weak conductor of electricity, but a salt solution is a good conductor of electricity.
Use what you know about the different structures of these two compounds to explain the difference in
properties.
Open Response: Write your answer in the space provided on the back of your answer sheet.
Figure 12-3
80. A. Comparing and Contrasting In Figure 12-3, compare the size and direction of the momentums of both
skaters immediately after the push shown at Time 2.
B. Applying Concepts In Figure 12-3, if Skater A is pushing Skater B, why does Skater A move?
C. Applying Concepts Suppose that the skaters repeat the demonstration in Figure 12-3 again. This time
Skater B is holding a 10-kilogram mass. If Skater A pushes exactly as he did the first time, will Skater
A’s motion be different this time? Will Skater B’s motion be different from the first time? Explain your
answers.
82. Use the example of a medieval trebuchet to explain how that potential energy due to gravity can be used to do
work.