Download 1 - Angelfire

1. Body fluids that require universal precautions include the followings except:
1. vaginal secretions
100.0%
2. faeces
3. cerebrospinal fluid
4. blood stained sputum
5. semen
2.
Which of the following is NOT true of typhoid fever?
1. The causative agent is Salmonella typhi
100.0%
2. The organism is only found in stool
3. The organism can be isolated from blood culture
4. A pulse/temperature deficit is occasionally observed
5. Rose spot is occasionally observed
3.
Which of the following is NOT a usual cause of pyrexia of unknown origin?
100.0%
1. Influenza A
2. Tuberculosis
3. Typhoid fever
4. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
5. Temporal arteritis
4.
A 5-year old child, diagnosed with leukameia, is planned to undergo bone marrow
transplantation. In the workup for the transplantation, preventative measures to reduce
infections include all of the followings EXCEPT
1. Vaccination
2. Isolation of patient to single room at transplantation
3. Prophylactic antibiotics
4. Aseptic technique for insertion of all catheters
100.0%
5. Splenectomy
5.
A seventy-five-year-old male was admitted with fever, blood pressure 90/65 mmHg,
and confusion. He has a urinary catheter inserted for prostatic hypertrophy and was
awaiting for surgery. The likely source of his infection is from the
1. Lungs
2. Abdomen
100.0%
3. Urinary tract
4. Skin
5. Unknown
6.
A patient was admitted to hospital after a road traffic accident and developed
wound infection. He was treated with a beta-lactam and an aminoglycoside. He
developed severe diarrhoea and pseudomembranous entercolitis. Antibiotic associated
diarrhoea and the more serious pseudomembranous enterocolits are generally caused
by :
1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Clostridium tetani
100.0%
3. Clostridium difficile
4. Staphylococcus aureus
5. Streptococcus pyogenes
7.
Which of the following is the cause of typhoid fever?
1. Influenza A
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
100.0%
3. Salmonella typhi
4. Salmonella enteritidis
5. Candida albicans
8.
A 30-year-old male teacher noted a lesion that was inflamed over his buttock. A
diagnosis of furuncle was confirmed. What is the most likely causative organism?
1. Staphylococcus epidermidis
100.0%
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Streptococcus pyogenes
4. Streptococcus milleri
5. Clostridium welchii
9.
A group of medical students visited Sai Kung for a seafood meal after the MB Part
II examinations. Late that evening, two of the students became unwell with frequent
opening of bowel with explosive diarrhoea. Two more students had similar symptoms
the next day. The students remained afebrile, the vitals remained normal, and the
diarrhoea subsided after two days. Culture of the stools revealed green-pigmented
colonies on TCBS (thiosulphate-citrate-bile-sucrose) culture medium. The diagnosis is
1. Salmonellosis
2. Food poisoning due to Bacillus cereus
3. Cholera
100.0%
4. Diarrhoea due to Vibrio parahaemolyticus
5. Food poisoning due to ciguatoxin
10.
The following statements are true for Clostridium -associated diseases except:
1. The production of gases in the infected soft tissues accounts for the crepitance
which may be detected by palpation, radiograph, or scans of the tissue involved
2. The great majority of Clostridium infections are polymicrobial
3. There is an association of colon carcinoma with C. septicum bacteraemia
4. Gram stain of the discharge in gas gangrene often shows a large number of
typical gram positive or gram variable rods with sparse or no white blood cells
100.0%
5. Gas gangrene can be prevented by immunization
11. A 69-year-old diabetic man was admitted to intensive care for management of
septic shock. Endotoxin produced by gram-negative bacteria can cause which of the
followings:
1. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
2. Erythroderma
100.0%
3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
4. Scalded-skin syndrome
5. Cholera
12. A 94-year-old male sprained his ankle and was confined to his bed. Three days
later, he complained of soreness of his back. Which of the following best describes this
patient’s condition?
100.0%
1. Prolonged pressure due to lying in bed leads to tissue ischaemia
2. It occurs mainly in elderly people
3. It is mainly caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. It is mainly caused by Staphylococcus aureus
5. Infection transmitted by health-care personnel
13. Which of the following is NOT the usual management during the initial evaluation
of a patient with classical pyrexia of unknown origin?
1. Baseline chest x-ray
2. Baseline complete blood count
3. Baseline renal function test
4. Baseline liver function test
100.0%
5. Empirical broad spectrum antibiotics
14. A five-year-old child presents with fever, conjunctivitis, and generalized
maculopapular skin rash for 4 days. There is no vesicular lesion. Which of the following
is consistent with the clinical presentation?
100.0%
1. Measles
2. Primary infection with varicella zoster virus
3. Cutaneous papillomavirus infection
4. Hand-foot-mouth disease
5. Herpes simplex type 1 infection
15. A 34-year-old lorry driver presented with vomiting and severe diarrhoea but with
no fever. The stool was watery. He admitted to having eaten at a road-side food stall
while he was in Shen Zhen. Which of the following organisms most likely causes his
illness?
100.0%
1. Vibrio cholerae
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella Typhi
4. Listeria monocytogenes
5. Shigella flexneri
16. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a useful tumor marker for monitoring
treatment of colonic malignancies, but not useful in population screening. What do you
guess might be the problem?
1. Colonic cancer prevalence in the general population is low.
2. Elevated CEA serum levels are not specific to colonic cancers.
3. Elevated CEA levels also occur in many benign conditions.
4. Elevated CEA levels already indicate advanced stage of the malignancies.
100.0%
5. All of the above are correct.
17. A 25-year-old man noted extensive diffuse area of swelling and redness of his left
forearm after being bitten by an insect. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Carbuncle
2. Bacterial synergistic gangrene
3. Decubitus ulcer
4. Erysipelas
100.0%
5. Cellulitis
18. Special staining methods are sometimes used to identify specific bacterium or to
reveal features of specific organisms. Which of the following organisms will show its
characteristic features with India ink?
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Plasmodium falciparum
100.0%
19.
5. Cryptococcus neoformans
Which of the following method / agent can be used alone for sterilization?
1. pasteurization
2. phenols
3. hypochlorite
4. boiling
100.0%
5. gamma irradiation
20. There are three genera of dermatophytes: Epidermophyton, Microsporum, and
Trichophyton. Infections caused by these organisms are
1. Easily treatable with amoxicillin
2. Often associated with dissemination
100.0%
3. Confined to keratinized tissues
4. Often treated with intravenous amphotericin
5. Marked by chronic inflammatory changes with plasma cells
21. For a patient without a history of drug allergy, the treatment of choice for
Bacteroides fragilis infections is :
100.0%
1. metronidazole
2. penicillin
3. amikacin
4. ciprofloxacin
5. erythromycin
22.
Actinomyces israelii is
1. A facultative anaerobe that often inhabits the buccal mucosa and can cause
bacterial endocarditis
2. A gram-positive spore-bearer that causes human infections mainly through
intoxication
3. A b-haemolytic gram positive cocci that may cause sore throat
100.0%
4. A constituent of the normal flora in the mouth and may cause chronic
cervicofacial infections
5. A facultative anaerobe that sticks to teeth firmly and is highly cariogenic
23. A 3-year-old girl developed high fever and sore throat 3 days ago. She consulted a
family doctor and was given ampicillin. On the next day she developed generalized
maculopapular skin rash. She has taken ampicillin many times before and no allergic
response was noted. Which viral infection may explain the clinical course?
100.0%
1. Primary Epstein-Barr virus infection
2. Reactivation of varicella zoster virus
3. Rubella virus
4. Cytomegalovirus
5. Enterovirus 71
24.
Which of the followings is not a determinant of surgical wound infection?
1. surgical techniques
2. virulence of organisms
3. type of disinfectant for skin preparation
100.0%
4. chronic hepatitis C infection
5. antibiotic prophylaxis
25.
The following statements for tetanus are correct except:
1. It is caused by a Gram-positive bacillus which will only grow in anaerobic
conditions
2. It has approximately 50% mortality worldwide
3. It always causes muscular rigidity
4. It does not confers life-long immunity
100.0%
5. Its transmission to other patients may take place through direct contact or
inhalation
26. Which of the following conditions should be considered in a returning traveler with
pyrexia of unknown origin?
1. Malaria
2. Brucella
3. Typhoid fever
4. Tuberculosis
100.0%
5. All of the above
27. The followings are involved in direct person-to-person transmission of infections
except
1. droplets
2. sexual intercourse
100.0%
3. food
4. casual contact
5. cough
28. ABO-incompatibility is a contraindication for most transplantation. Interestingly,
stem cell or bone marrow transplantation can be carried in the face of blood group
incompatibility. Why?
1. The pre-transplant conditioning that destructs the recipient's own bone marrow
kills off all the B lymphocytes that produce the anti-ABO blood group antibodies.
100.0%
2. Haematopoietic stem cells express little ABO blood group antigens, and B
lymphocytes developed from the engrafted stem cells do not produce antibodies
against the recipient's blood group because of tolerance.
3. The aggressive post-transplantation immunosuppressive treatment used in
bone marrow/stem cell transplantation to prevent graft versus host and graft
rejection responses can suppress activation of complement, and therefore
prevent hyperacute rejection of t
4. The donor's bone marrow/stem cells have so much regenerative capability that
the anti-donor blood group antibodies of the recipient are soon exhausted.
5. None of the above is correct.
29.
Which of the followings is a known risk factor for bacteriuria?
1. neonates
100.0%
2. duration of catheterization
3. breast cancer
4. male patients
5. alcoholism
30. A 19-year old woman was seen at Accident and Emergency with a fever 39.5°C and
blood pressure 90/65 mmHg. She is clinically jaundiced with hepatomegaly. The
differential diagnosis of the patient includes
1. Disseminated mycobacterial infection
2. Enterovirus infection
3. Leprosy
4. Amoebic liver abscess
100.0%
31.
5. Malaria
Facultative anaerobes are bacteria which
1. Can only grow under anaerobic conditions
2. Are always sensitive to metronidazole
100.0%
3. Are commonly found in commensal flora
4. Include Prevotella spp.
5. Are always resistant to penicillin
32. A 10-year-old boy presents with fever and rash for 5 days. The rash first appeared
over both cheeks, and became generalized involving the trunk and limbs. No vesicle is
found. Which of the following virus may cause this problem?
1. Parvovirus B18
2. Variola minor
3. Molluscum contagiosum
4. Papillomavirus
100.0%
5. None of above
33. A 64-year-old female patient who had undergone appendectomy was diagnosed to
have progressive bacterial synergistic gangrene of the wound. How did the doctor
make the diagnosis?
1. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis cultured from wound,
wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and
central necrosis
100.0%
2. Staphylococcus aureus and Peptostreptococcus cultured from wound, wound
shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and central
necrosis
3. Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli and Streptococcus agalactiae cultured
from wound, wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue
cyanosis and central necrosis
4. Staphylococcus aureus and Aeromonas species cultured from wound, wound
shows zones of gangrenous skin, blisters and vesicles
5. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Peptostreptococcus cultured from wound,
wound shows zones of peripheral erythema, purple ring of tissue cyanosis and
central necrosis
34. There were ten patients in the Burns Unit and seven of them had an infection. What
are the factors that predispose these patients to infection?
100.0%
1. Mechanical barrier destroyed, avascularity and leakage of plasma protein
2. Mechanical barrier destroyed and compression
3. Mainly avascularity
4. Mainly neutrophil dysfunction
5. Colonization by environmental organisms
35.
The followings about surveillance are correct except:
1. ongoing collection, analysis and dissemination of data
2. define baseline parameters of diseases
100.0%
3. cannot identify prevailing incidence level and trends
4. involve visit to wards, examination of clinical notes
5. evaluation of the trends of organisms isolated and their antimicrobial
susceptibility pattern
36. Which of the following is true for Salmonella paratyphi?
100.0%
1. It causes a milder form of typhoid fever
2. It is synonymous with Salmonella typhi bacteria
3. It is non-motile
4. It is a lactose fermenter
5. It cannot be recovered from blood culture
37. An 18-year-old man complained of 5 days' history of abdominal discomfort and
diarrhoea. He has three bowel movements per day. On examination, he was afebrile and
had normal vital signs. The abdominal examination was notable for lower abdominal
tenderness. Examination of the faeces showed numerous white blood cells but no red
cells. Culture on a special medium (Skirrow) grew a pure growth of gram-negative
curved rods. The cause of his diarrhoea is due to
1. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
2. Shigella boydii
3. Vibrio cholerae
4. Salmonella enteritis
100.0%
5. Campylobacter sp.
38. Which of the following statements about Salmonella typhi is true?
100.0%
1. It is a non-lactose fermenter
2. It cannot be grown on blood agar
3. It cannot be found in animal
4. The transmission is by air-born route
5. It is non-motile
39. Here is one dilemma in tumor immunology: lymph nodes are the primary sites
where immune responses are activated. Yet, finding of metastatic cancer cells in the
lymph node indicates a poor prognosis. Why?
1. The metastatic cancer cells in the lymph nodes trap the immune response there,
allowing other metastatic cells to spread through the blood circulation.
2. The presence of cancer cells in the lymph nodes indicates that there are already
so many of them. The immune system, no matter how active, cannot possibly
cope.
3. Anti-tumor immune responses are never strong enough to eradicate neoplastic
cells. Therefore the cancer cells can make use of the lymphatic system to
spread elsewhere. Detection of cancer cells in the lymph nodes means that this
process has already begun.
100.0%
4. These cancer cells have already found ways to avoid attack by the surrounding
T cells in the lymph nodes and must have spread to elsewhere through the
lymphatic system.
5. None of the above is correct
40.
Which of the followings is a common organism causing nosocomial infections?
1. Influenza A virus
100.0%
2. Pseudomonas. aeruginosa
3. Ebola virus
4. Streptococcus bovis
5. Yersinia pestis
41. A boy requires stem-cell transplant. He is lucky to have two HLA-identical siblings,
a brother and a sister. Both are willing to be the donor. How would you make a choice if
you were the boy's doctor?
1. Choose the sister because girls are usually stronger in health.
2. Choose the sister because girls do not have Y chromosome, and therefore have
fewer genes than the boys. This reduces the chance of mismatch in minor
histocompatibility antigens.
100.0%
3. Choose the brother because girls do not have Y chromosome, and their immune
system will regard proteins encoded by the chromosome as foreign, causing
graft versus host disease.
4. Choose the brother because the sister's stem cells can affect the sexual
development of the boy.
5. The donor will be decided by drawing lots, as it does not matter whether the
brother or sister is to donate the stem cells.
42. A fifty-five-year-old man, with hepatitis B-associated liver cirrhosis and
hepatocellular carcinoma, was admitted with obstructive jaundice. A stent was inserted
in the common bile duct to allow drainage of the bile. The organism most commonly
colonizes the stent and causes subsequent infections is
1. Bacteroides fragilis
100.0%
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Enterococcus faecalis
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
5. Staphylococcus aureus
43. A fifty-five-year-old diabetic man with liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma
was admitted for partial hepatectomy. He is particularly susceptible to the following
infections EXCEPT
1. Catheter-related bacteraemia
2. Surgical site wound infection
3. Aspiration pneumonia
4. Liver Abscess
100.0%
5. Cryptosporidiosis
44. Among the following bacteria, which is the most prevalent microorganism in the
vagina:
100.0%
1. Lactobacillus
2. Staphylococcus epidermidis
3. Escherichia coli
4. Bacteroides fragilis
5. a-haemolytic streptococci
45. A defect in cell activation is responsible for the immunodeficiency found in the
following diseases EXCEPT:
100.0%
1. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)
2. X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
3. X-linked hyper-IgM syndrome
4. X-linked agammaglobulinaemia
5. CD3 deficiency
46. A 43-year-old diabetic man noticed an ulcer on his right foot that produced
foul-smelling discharge. Which of the following statements can be used to describe this
patient’s condition?
1. caused by anaerobic organisms
2. Antimicrobial therapy is most important
3. Usually heals spontaneously
4. Caused by aerobic organisms
100.0%
47.
5. Occurs mainly in diabetics with vascular disease
Thermometers can be disinfected by:
1. soap & sterile water
2. absolute alcohol
3. phenol
100.0%
4. 70% alcohol
5. 0.5% chlorhexidine
48. Typhoidal bacilli cannot usually be recovered from which of the following patients’
specimen?
1. Blood culture
2. Stool
3. Urine
100.0%
4. Saliva
5. tears
49.
Which one is resistant to metronidazole?
1. Bacteroides fragilis
100.0%
2. Candida albicans
3. Entamoeba histolytica
4. Trichomonas vaginalis
5. Vincent’s organisms
50. A 5-year-old girl developed fever, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea five days
after eating a piece of water melon from a fruit store. She admitted seeing flies
frequenting the water melon. She subsequently became severely ill and dehydrated.
What is the most probable diagnosis and how would you treat her?
1. Shigellosis, rehydration and ciprofloxacin
100.0%
2. Shigellosis, rehydration and cotrimoxazole
3. Shigellosis, rehydration
4. Salmonellosis, rehydration
5. Salmonellosis, rehydration and ciprofloxacin
51. A fifty-five-year-old diabetic man with liver cirrhosis and hepatectomy perfomed
for hepatocellular carcinoma. Postoperatively, he developed a serious infection from
the necrotic wound. Gram’s stain of the debrided tissue revealed Gram-positive
non-septate hyphal filaments with branching. What is the most probable organism
seen?
1. Bacillus cereus
2. Aspergillus niger
3. Clostridium perfringens
100.0%
4. Mucor species
5. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
52. This 18-year-old student was diagnosed to have cholera. What is the most
probable source of the infection?
100.0%
1. Water
2. Chickens
3. Pigs
4. Cows
5. Pigeons
53. A fifty-five-year-old man with hepatitis B-associated liver cirrhosis and
hepatocellular carcinoma had partial hepatectomy performed. Postoperatively, he went
into septic shock and required intensive care. Which of the following criteria is
important in the classification to shock from severe sepsis:
100.0%
1. Hypotension despite fluid resuscitation
2. Skin rash
3. Acidosis
4. Confusion
5. Acute renal failure
54.
A 54-year-old patient was admitted with fever, chills, rigors and right upper
quadrant pain in the abdomen. On examination, he has a palpable tender, liver.
Ultrasound of the liver showed a large collection in the right lobe, suggestive of liver
abscess. Laboratory investigations include ALL of the followings EXCEPT
100.0%
1. Liver biopsy for culture
2. Blood culture
3. Amoebic serology
4. Aspiration of the pus for microscopy
5. Aspiration of the pus for culture
55. Prevention of hospital-acquired pneumonia can be done through the followings
except:
1. hand-washing
100.0%
2. properly cooked food
3. isolation
4. decontamination of equipment
5. wean off ventilation as soon as possible
56. Symptoms of C. botulinum food poisoning often begin with those involving cranial
serve dysfunction. Weakness spreads to the upper extremities, the trunk, and the lower
extremities. Respiratory and autonomic problems may follow. These symptoms are
consistent with
1. Invasion of the gut epithelium by C. botulinum
2. The secretion of an enterotoxin
3. Activation of cyclic AMP
4. Lack of an immunization history
100.0%
5. Ingestion of a neurotoxin
57. A 40-year-old female with renal failure developed a deep-seated infection on her
neck. She first noticed several boils which later coalesced and formed multiple draining
sinuses. What is the diagnosis?
1. Cellulitis
2. Erysipelas
3. Furuncle
100.0%
4. Carbuncle
5. Impetigo
58. A HIV-positive, intravenous drug addict presented with sudden onset of right-sided
weakness. He also had multiple seizures during the first 24 hours of hospital stay. He
has a fever, but no neck rigidity nor photophobia. CT brain scan revealed multiple
ring-enhancing lesions. The most likely diagnosis is
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae meningitis
2. Cryptococcal meningitis
100.0%
3. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
4. Cytomegalovirus encephalitis
5. Neurosyphilis
5. A facultative anaerobe that sticks to teeth firmly and is highly cariogenic
59. The pathogenesis of the following conditions can be explained by the effects of
bacterial toxin(s) except:
1. Tetanus
2. Botulism
3. Diphtheria
4. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis
100.0%
5. Necrotizing fasciitis
60. Allogeneic bone marrow/stem cell transplantation is an established treatment
option for leukemia. Given that the donor T cells present in the graft are responsible for
mediating GVHD, why complete depletion of donor T cells from the graft is not
commonly performed in those cases?
1. These transplantations are usually done so urgently that leave no time for the
extra procedure to deplete T cells
100.0%
2. Donor T cells are beneficial in helping to eradicate the residual leukemia.
3. GVHD seldom occurs to the leukemia patient after allogeneic bone
marrow/stem cell transplantation.
4. For the leukemia patients, the main cell type that mediates GVHD is the donor
NK cells, not the T cells.
5. None of the above is correct.
61. When using dendritic cells (DCs) pulsed with tumor peptides for tumor
immunotherapy, why is it best to use autologous DCs?
100.0%
1. Non-autologous DCs shift the immune response to the more immunogenic
alloantigens instead.
2. Non-autologous DCs definitely cannot present the tumor antigen peptides to the
patient's T cells.
3. Non-autologous DCs are not able to respond to the immunological signals in a
foreign host environment for entering into the tumor site.
4. The use of non-autologous DCs carries the risk of infection brought over from
the donor to the already cancer-stricken patient.
5. All of the above are correct.
62. The immune response can be manipulated in the following ways to treat or prevent
disease EXCEPT:
1. Repeated injections of increasing amounts of a pollen extract (allergen) to a
patient who has allergy to pollens
100.0%
2. Administration of anti-Rh(D) antibodies to Rh-negative women a few weeks
after the birth of a Rh-positive baby
3. Repeated injections of anti-IgE antibodies to sufferers of peanut allergy
4. Administration of Th1 cytokines to control the disease caused by certain
intracellular microorganisms
5. Oral intake of myelin basic protein to treat experimental multiple sclerosis
63.
Which of the following is true for Salmonella paratyphi?
100.0%
1. It causes a milder form of typhoid fever
2. It is synonymous with Salmonella typhi bacteria
3. It is non-motile
4. It is a lactose fermenter
5. It cannot be recovered from blood culture
64. If the allograft is depleted of all of its antigen-presenting cells (i.e. dendritic cells or
monocytes), why is it that the recipient cannot produce cytotoxic T cells (CTLs) that can
directly attack the allograft through the perforin- and granzyme-mediated lysis?
1. Such an allograft will fail to stimulate anti-donor T helper response which is
needed for generation of anti-donor CTLs.
2. Donor HLA proteins are not immunogenic in the absence of donor's
antigen-presenting cells.
3. CTLs specific to the donor HLA Class I peptides cannot be produced in the
recipient.
100.0%
4. Any anti-donor CTLs that the recipient can produce recognize the foreign HLA
peptides only through presentation by the recipient's own HLA Class I.
5. None of the above is correct.
65. A 65-year-old women presents with a 2 days' history of pin-point burning pain over
the right lateral chest wall. Today she starts to notice that tiny vesicles appear over the
painful area. Which of the following antiviral agent can be considered for managing her
problem?
1. Oseltamivir
2. Ribavirin
100.0%
3. Famciclovir
4. Nevirapine
5. Cidofovir
66. A fifty-five-year-old woman was admitted with cholangiocarcinoma for surgery.
Predisposing factor for cholangiocarcinoma includes:
1. Cigarette smoking
2. Ecchinococcus infection
3. Hepatitis B virus carrier
100.0%
4. Clonorchis sinensis infection
5. None of the above
67. For the T- and B-cell lymphoma, the cell surface antigen receptor can be regarded
as tumor-specific antigen. Why?
100.0%
1. The antigen receptor is clonally distinct. Each lymphoma therefore expresses a
unique cell surface receptor virtually not found on the normal lymphocytes.
2. The antigen receptors, being expressed on cell surface, are the most
immunogenic part of the tumor.
3. Expression of the cell surface antigen receptor is drastically increased in the
lymphoma. This makes the receptor virtually a tumor-specific antigen.
4. The antigen receptor of lymphoma empowers the tumor to kill specifically the
anti-lymphoma cytotoxic T cells and NK cells. This makes the receptor a
functional tumor-specific antigen.
5. None of the above is correct.
68. A seventy-year-old man was admitted with fever, hypotension and right upper
quadrant pain and tenderness. The most useful microbiological investigation at this
stage is:
1. Urine culture
2. Peritoneal aspirate for Gram stain
3. Sputum for latex agglutination test for S. pneumoniae
100.0%
4. Blood culture
5. Serology
69. This 22-year-old female came to consult you because of severe diarrhoea you
examined her and found she was mildly dehydrated. Microscopic examination of her
watery stool revealed large numbers of curved bacilli. How would you treat your
patient?
1. Admit her to the hospital for intravenous fluid replacement
2. Admit her to the hospital and start intravenous ceftriaxone
3. Prescribe tetracycline only
100.0%
4. Prescribe oral NaCl (5g/l) plus glucose (20g/l) solution
5. Prescribe oral NaCl (5g/l), NaHCO3 (2g/l) plus glucose (20g/l) solution
70. A 19-year old menstruating woman was seen at Accident and Emergency with a
fever 39.5°C, WBC 16 x 109/L, blood pressure 90/65 mmHg, a scarlatiniform rash on her
body, limbs involving palms and soles, vomiting and diarrhoea. The diagnosis of the
patient is most likely
1. Staphylococcal food poisoning
2. Guillain-Barre syndrome
3. Scalded skin syndrome
4. Necrotizing fasciitis
100.0%
5. Toxic shock syndrome
71. You went to a fast food restaurant with your 4-year-old child and had beef burgers.
Three days later, he developed fever, abdominal pain and watery stools. Two days later,
his stools became bloody and contained mucus. You, however, remained well. What is
the most probable diagnosis?
1. Diarrhoea caused by Salmonella sp
2. Diarrhoea caused by Vibrio parahaemolyticus
100.0%
3. Dysentery caused by Shigella sp or Escherichia coli O157:H7
4. Dysentery caused by Entamoeba histolytica
5. Dysentery caused by Giardia lamblia