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DENTISTRY FACULTY Pathological anatomy include the pathology of head and neck Module 2. Special Pathomorphology. TEXT TESTS 1. Acute endocarditis warty rheumatism accompanied by: A. fibrinoid changes of connective tissue and endothelium of the postponement of the masses in the form of warts B. mucoid changes of connective tissue with postponement of thrombotic masses in the form of warts C. fibrinoid changes of cardiomyocells and desquamation of the postponement of the epicardium warts D. mucoid changes of connective tissue and desquamation of the postponement of the epicardium warts E. * fibrinoid changes of connective tissue and desquamation of the postponement of endothelial damage in parts of thrombotic masses in the form of warts 2. Acute ischemic heart disease leads to ... A. Arrhythmias B. Acute aneurysm C. Chronic aneurysm D. Brown atrophy of myocardium E. * Sudden coronary death 3. Adverse effect of myocardial infarction. A. Cardiosclerosis B. Obesity Heart C. Heart disease D. Atrophy heart E. * Cardiorrhexis 4. Phase of rheumatic granuloma is characterized by the accumulation of: A. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocells B. Lymphocytes and follicles formation C. Lymphocytes and follicles formation in breeding centers D. All that described above E. * Macrophages around the fibrinoid necrosis 5. Rheumatic granuloma phase is characterized by granuloma formation and the first period of this formation is called as : A. "Flagging granuloma" B. "Acute granuloma" C. "Fading granuloma" D. "Blooming granuloma" E. * "Flowering granuloma" 6. Brain hematoma most often develops as a complication of … A. Atherosclerosis B. Posthaemorrhagic anemia C. Malignant anemia D. Myelomic disease E. * Hypertension disease 7. Who is authors of alimentary and metabolic theory of atherosclerosis pathogenesis? A. Asshof B. Goldstein, Braun C. M'yasnykov D. Dyuged E. * Anichkov, Halatov 8. What is a background disease for atherosclerosis development most often? A. Rheumatism B. Diabetes C. Symptomatic hypertension D. Cerebrovascular disease E. * Hypertension disease 9. What is the cardiovascular risk factors for atherosclerosis development? A. Hyperlipidemia B. Sedentary lifestyle C. Excessive body weight D. Arterial hypertension E. * All listed above 10.Causes of death in acute ischemic heart disease. A. Cardiogenic shock B. Ventricular fibrillation C. Hemoperykard D. Acute heart failure E. * All of the above 11.Name the changes in brain tissue which forming during hypertensive crisis. A. Plasmocells impregnating of the arterioles wall B. Cerebral ischemia C. Softening of brain tissue D. Brain cysts E. * Diapedetic brain hemorrhage 12.Changes in cardiomyocytes in focal ischemic myocardium dystrophy. A. Lysis of nuclei B. Lysis of cytoplasm C. Increasing the number of glycogen D. Coagulation of cytoplasm E. * Disappearance of glycogen 13.Changes in the aorta of developing hypertension A. Gummy infiltration, sclerosis B. Amyloidosis C. Divided aneurysm D. Caseous necrosis E. * Atherosclerosis, hyperelastozis 14.What changes of coronary arteries lead to myocardial infarction most often? A. Hiperelastoz B. Elastofibroz C. Hyalinosis D. Coronaritis E. * Atherosclerosis 15.Characteristic changes at liposklerosis stage of atherosclerosis. A. Ulceration in the area of intima plaques B. Vascularization in the area of intima plaques C. Formation of necrotic cells in the intima D. Ulceration of the wall surface thrombosis E. * Fibrous tissue growth in intima plaques 16.Characteristic changes at lipoidosis stage of atherosclerosis. A. The appearance of cells apoptoses B. Sclerosis C. Vascularization intimate D. Petrification E. * Focal infiltration of intima by cholesterol 17.Characteristic changes at prelipid stage of atherosclerosis. A. Accumulation of erythrocytes in the intima B. The appearance of foam cells C. Accumulation of glycogen in intimate D. Metabolic calcification E. * Loss of glycocalix, expansion of intraendothelial cracks, activation of endocytosis in endothelial cells 18.Name the risk factors for 2nd order of ischemic heart diseases. A. Hypertension B. Sedentary lifestyle C. Excessive body weight D. Protein starvation E. * Violation of tolerance to carbohydrates 19.Clinical and morphological form of hypertension. A. Suprarenal B. Hepatic C. Mesenteric D. Aortic E. * Brain 20.Clinical expression of arteriolosclerotic nephrocirrhosis at hypertension disease. A. Acute heart failure B. Chronic heart failure C. Acute renal failure D. Amyloidosis E. * Chronic renal failure 21.What type of vessels are affected by atherosclerosis mainly? A. Veins B. Venules C. Arterioles D. Capillaries E. * Arteries 22.Definition of hypertension. A. B. C. D. E. Hypertension, as a secondary manifestation of the disease Metabolic disease Contagion Disease impaired absorption * Disease, the main feature of which is sustainable increase arterial pressure 23.Depending on the prevailing alternatives or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valvular endocarditis: A. intramural endocarditis B. transmural endocarditis C. epikardial endocarditis D. mixed E. * diffuse endocarditis 24. Rheumatic diseases - a group of chronic diseases characterized by systemic lesion: A. *connective tissue and blood vessels B. joints C. the circulatory system D. cell E. Kidney 25. What is rheumatic disease - (a group of chronic diseases characterized by systemic lesion): A. *connective tissue and blood vessels B. joints C. the circulatory system D. cell E. kidney 26. In the etiology of rheumatic diseases is essential clinically expressed or latent: A. *streptococcal infection B. Meningococcal infection C. diplokoccal infection D. fungal infections E. all infections 27. Pathogenic mechanisms of rheumatic diseases: A. *allergic reactions of immediate and delayed-type B. streptococcal septicemia C. shock D. staphylococcus septicopyemia E. gipertermical reactions 28. To belong to pathogenetic mechanisms of rheumatic diseases: A. *allergic reactions of immediate and delayed-type B. streptococcal septicemia C. shock D. staphylococcus septicopyemia E. gipertermical reactions 29. In rheumatic diseases the main pathogenetic plot are: A. *progressive disorganization of the connective tissue B. stagnant around the plethora of small joints C. ischemia D. Hypertrophy of left heart E. atrophy 30. In the pathogenesis of rheumatic diseases is: A. atrophy B. *progressive disorganization of the connective tissue C. stagnant around the plethora of small joints D. ischemia E. Hypertrophy of left heart 31. In the pathogenesis of rheumatic diseases is: A. atrophy B. *progressive disorganization of the connective tissue C. stagnant around the plethora of small joints D. ischemia E. hypertrophy of left heart 32. Disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases includes: A. atrophy B. hyaline droplets dystrophy C. *mucoid swelling D. amyloidosis E. hydropic dystrophy 33. What includes the disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases: A. atrophy B. hyaline droplets dystrophy C. *mucoid swelling D. amyloidosis E. hydropic dystrophy 34. Disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases includes: A. *fibrinoid swelling and necrosis B. hyaline droplets dystrophy C. amyloidosis D. hydropic dystrophy E. atrophy 35. What type of dystrophy involves the disruption of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases: A. necrosis B. *fibrinoid edema and necrosis C. hyaline droplets dystrophy D. amyloidosis E. hydropic dystrophy 36. Disturbance of connective tissue in rheumatic diseases includes: A. *Hyalinosis B. cell reaction (granulematosis) and sclerosis C. hyaline droplets dystrophy D. amyloidosis E. hydropic dystrophy 37. In rheumatism sensitizing factor antibodies: A. *B-hemolytic streptococcus typeА B. B-hemolytic streptococcus, type B C. B-hemolytic streptococcus type AB D. B-hemolytic staphylococcus type D E. B-hemolytic staphylococcus type C 38. What antibodies are sensitizing factor in rheumatic conditions: A. B-hemolytic streptococcus, type B B. B-hemolytic streptococcus type AB C. *B-hemolytic staphylococcus type A D. B-hemolytic streptococcus type D E. B-hemolytic staphylococcus type C 39. B-hemolytic streptococci type A has affinity with antigens аntibodies against A. *connective tissue of heart B. liver C. kidney D. tonsils E. connective tissue of mediastinum 40. What kind of relationship with the antigens are B-hemolytic streptococci type A: A. kidney B. tonsils C. connective tissue of mediastinum D. *connective tissue of heart E. liver 41. Kinship antibodies against B-hemolytic streptococci type A antigens from connective tissue of the heart explains the predominant lesion in patients with rheumatism: A. *heart B. liver C. only epikard D. only endocard E. more pericardiocentesis 42. What explains the predominant lesion in patients with rheumatism affinity antibodies against B-hemolytic streptococci type A antigens from connective tissue of the heart: A. liver B. *heart C. only epikard D. only endocard E. more pericardiocentesis 43. In rheumatoid arthritis in patients with damage mainly to the connective tissue: A. *capsule of the joints B. heart C. kidney D. renal capsule E. liver 44. Connective tissue structures are damaged in rheumatoid arthritis: A. heart B. kidney C. renal capsule D. liver E. *capsule of the joints 45. In the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis are important: A. *immune complexes, where the antibodies are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig M, Ig G, Ig A) B. -C. immune complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig N, Ig Q, Ig B) D. complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig Y, Ig H, Ig L) E. immune complexes, where the antigen is a globulin of different classes (Ig M, Ig G, Ig A) 46. What have an important role in the pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis: A. immune complexes, where the antigen is a globulin of different classes (Ig M, Ig G, Ig A) B. *immune complexes, where the antibodies are different classes of immunoglobulin (Ig M, Ig G, Ig A) C. immune complexes, where the antigen is a globule of different classes (Ig M, Ig G, Ig A) -D. immune complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig N, Ig Q, Ig B) E. complexes, where there are different classes of immunoglobulins (Ig Y, Ig H, Ig L) 47. In systemic lupus erythematosus is violated: A. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm B. *exchange of DNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and cytoplasm C. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and cytoplasm D. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies E. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm 48. Violations in systemic lupus erythematosus: A. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm B. *exchange of DNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and cytoplasm C. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies to components of the nucleus and cytoplasm D. exchange of RNA and formation of antibodies E. exchange of DNA and antigens to components formed the nucleus and cytoplasm 49. Systemic scleroderma is characterized in the skin: A. violation of vascularization B. *sclerotic and atrophic changes C. inflammation D. calcification E. violation of vascularization 50. What changes in the skin are identified with systemic scleroderma: A. violation of vascularization B. *sclerotic and atrophic changes C. inflammation D. calcification E. violation of vascularization 51. The decisive factor for the development of scleroderma is a violation of the synthesis: A. keloid B. *collagen C. fibrin D. fibrinogen E. keloid 52. What is the decisive factor for the development of scleroderma - a violation of the synthesis: A. keloid B. *collagen C. fibrin D. fibrinogen E. keloid 53. For nodular periarteritis characterized mechanism immunokomplex vascular lesions such as: A. arterioles- capillaries anastomosis B. * small artery C. aorta D. large artery E. arterioles-capillary anastomosis 54. What affects the blood vessels in the nodular periarteritis: A. large-caliber artery B. arterioles-capillaries anastomosis C. *artery and small-medium caliber D. aorta E. large-caliber artery 55. It is believed that with nodular periarteritis due to fibrinous necrosis secondary hull vessels develop proliferative response of cells in the outer shell, followed by transfer to: A. granuloma B. *sclerosis and the formation of knots C. hyalinosis D. amyloidosis E. inflammation 56. In nodular periarteritis due to fibrinous necrosis secondary hull vessels develop proliferative response of cells in the outer shell, followed by transfer to: A. granuloma B. *sclerosis and the formation of knots C. hyalinosis D. amyloidosis E. inflammation 57. Bekhterev disease - a chronic rheumatic disease with the damage: A. *glenoid spine-connected device B. articular apparatus C. large joints D. small and large joints E. articular apparatus 58. What kind of surprised when the disease Bekhterev -A. *glenoid spine-connected device B. articular apparatus C. large joints D. small and large joints E. articular apparatus 59. Bekhterev disease - a chronic rheumatic disease damaged articular-connected device the spine, which leads to: A. *bone ankylosis B. bone amyloidosis C. osteopetrosis D. osteoporosis E. articular apparatus 60. As a result, the disease develops Bekhterev: A. Osteoporosis B. *bone ankylosis C. bone amyloidosis D. osteopetrosis E. Osteoporosis 61. Complications of the disease Bekhterev -A. *bone ankylosis B. bone amyloidosis C. osteonecrosis D. osteoporosis E. necrosis 62. Dermatomyositis - rheumatic diseases, leading to the clinical and morphological expression of which is a system failure: A. *skeletal muscles B. skin C. dermis D. only the smooth muscle E. kidney 63. What is leading to the clinical and morphological expression, with dermatomyositis: A. System failure only of smooth muscle B. *System failure skeletal muscles C. Systemic dermal D. System failure dermis E. System failure only of smooth muscle 64. What kind of surprised when dermatomyositis: A. *skeletal musculature B. skin C. derm D. only the smooth muscle E. kidney 65. Indicate which affects the structure with dermatomyositis: A. *skeletal musculature B. skin C. dermis D. only the smooth muscle E. kindey 66. Rheumatism - a chronic disease with predominant lesion: A. *heart and vascular B. kidney and liver C. arteries of medium caliber D. muscular arteries, elastic-type E. liver 67. In rheumatism predominantly affects: A. *heart and blood vessels B. kidney and liver C. medium-sized artery D. artery muscle-elastic type of E. liver 68. Determination of rheumatism - a chronic disease with predominant lesion: A. *heart and vascular B. kidney and liver C. arteries of medium caliber D. muscular arteries, elastic-type E. kidney and liver 69. In rheumatism periods alternate with periods of exacerbation of extinction (remission), so during rheumatism: A. remitting B. nonhomogeneous C. homogeneous D. *wave E. repeatedly 70. In rheumatism streptococci penetrate the body through the tonsils, release toxins and cause destruction in the invasion of cells and inflammation, which usually manifests itself: A. *angina B. tonzilyar abscesses C. retropharyngeal abscesses D. Qatar nasopharyngeal E. abscesses 71. Because rheumatic conditions streptococci penetrate the body through the tonsils, release toxins and cause destruction in the invasion of cells and inflammation, which usually manifests itself: A. *angina B. tonzilyar abscesses C. retropharyngeal abscesses D. Qatar nasopharyngeal E. abscesses 72. In rheumatism streptococci penetrate the body through the tonsils, release toxins, which are products of the destruction of cells is: A. *activated antibodies B. immune complexes C. antibodies, which produce antigens D. аntigens, that produce antibodies E. leukocytes 73. What structures are formed by the interaction of streptococcus toxins and products of destruction of cells in the amygdala rheumatic conditions: A. activated antibodies B. immune complexes C. antibodies, which produce antigens D. *antigens, that produce antibodies E. activated antibodies 74. In the development of rheumatism occurs mukoid edema, which is: A. *Surface and reverse disruption of connective tissue B. irreversible disruption of connective tissue C. Surface restructuring of the connective tissue D. reverse proliferation of connective tissue E. Surface restructuring of the connective tissue 75. Which involves mukoid swelling that develops rheumatic conditions: A. *surface reverse disruption of connective tissue B. irreversible disruption of connective tissue C. surface reorganization of connective tissue D. reverse the proliferation of connective tissue E. irreversible disruption of connective tissue 76. Early diagnosis and early treatment of rheumatism: A. *can lead to complete recovery B. can never lead to a cure C. can not lead to a reorganization of the connective tissue D. can not lead to the restitution of connective tissue E. can not lead to a reorganization of the connective tissue 77. As a result of early diagnosis and early treatment of rheumatism are: A. *Full recovery B. can never lead to recovery C. can not lead to a reorganization of the connective tissue D. can not lead to the restitution of connective tissue E. can never lead to a cure 78. When the development of rheumatism among the stages of disorganization of connective tissue are fibrinoid changes as swelling and necrosis, refer them to: A. *irreversible B. reversible C. partially reversible D. border E. reversible 79. Phase of disorganization of connective tissue such as fibrinoid changes, swelling and necrosis, refer them to: A. *irreversible B. reversible C. partially reversible D. border E. reversible 80. Fibrinoidnye changes (swelling and necrosis) in the rheumatic conditions are characterized by: A. *homogenization of collagen fibers with infiltration of plasma proteins B. homogenization of nerve fibers with infiltration their proteins C. homogenization keloidnyh fibers with infiltration their proteins D. granulyatsionnoy homogenization of tissue with infiltration plasma proteins E. homogenization keloid fibers with infiltration their proteins 81. What are fibrinoid changes (swelling and necrosis), rheumatic conditions: A. *homogenization of collagen fibers with prosyakannyam of plasma proteins B. homogenization of nerve fibers with prosyakannyam their proteins C. homogenization keloidnyh fibers with prosyakannyam their proteins D. granulyatsionnoy homogenization of tissue with prosyakannyam plasma proteins E. homogenization keloidnyh fibers with prosyakannyam their proteins 82. Stage granulematous rheumatic conditions morphologically evident: A. *Cell incendiary reaction B. Monokin reaction C. cytokine response D. polymorphonuclear cell inflammation of the reorganization E. -83. What stage is morphologically manifested granulematous rheumatic conditions: A. *Cell incendiary reaction B. Monokin reaction C. cytokine response D. polymorphonuclear cell inflammation of the reorganization E. -84. The first stage granulematous in the form of nodular formations in the stroma of heart described: A. *Ashof B. Bischoff C. Amosov D. Langerhans E. Amosov 85. Who first described the stage granulematous in the form of nodular formations in the stroma of heart: A. *Ashof B. Bischoff C. Amosov D. Langerhans E. Amosov 86. Three phases of development of rheumatic granulomas – alteration , exudation proliferations and sclerotic identified: A. *Talalaev B. Bischoff C. Amosov D. Ashof E. Amosov 87. Who first identified three phases of development of rheumatic granulomas – alteration? Exudation and proliferation and sclerotic: A. Amosov B. *Talalaev C. Bischoff D. Amosov E. Ashtof 88. The entire development cycle granuloma rheumatic conditions are: A. *4-6 months B. 1 year C. 1-2 years D. 9-12 months E. 2 years 89. The entire development cycle granuloma rheumatic conditions are: A. 9-12 Months B. 3 years C. 4-6 months D. 1 year E. 1-2 years 90. Specify how much of the entire development cycle granuloma rheumatic conditions: A. 9-12 Months B. 5 years C. *4-6 months D. 1 year E. 1-2 years 91. Alterative and exudative phase of development characterized by the accumulation of rheumatic granuloma: A. * macrophages around the focus fibrinoid necrosis B. lymphocytes and the formation of follicles C. lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers D. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes E. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes 92. What is alteration, axudative phase development of rheumatoid granuloma: A. accumulation of neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes B. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers C. *a macrophages ccumulation around the focus fibrinoid necrosis D. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles E. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers 93. Indicate what is alteration and exudation phase development of rheumatoid granulomy: A. accumulation of neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes B. accumulation of neutrophils, C. *accumulation around the campfire fibrinoidnogo necrosis of macrophages D. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles E. accumulation of lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in breeding centers 94. The presence of «sclerosing granuloma» refers to: A. *fading process B. exacerbation of the process after remission C. active attack of rheumatism D. recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism E. slight slowdown in the pace of development 95. At that indicates the existence of «sclerosing granuloma»: A. active attack of rheumatism B. *fading process C. exacerbation of the process after remission D. recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism E. slight slowdown in the pace of development 96. With the development of rheumatoid granulomy phase sclerosis fibroblasts replace the necrotic zone fibrinoid are synthesized: A. * argyrophil and collagen fibers B. mukoid swelling C. fibrinoid swelling D. hyalinosis E. amyloidosis 97. With the development of rheumatoid granuloma phase sclerosis fibroblasts replace the necrotic zone fibrinoid, are synthesized: A. * argyrophil and collagen fibers B. Mukoid swelling C. Fibrinoid swelling D. Hyalinosis E. amyloidosis 98. With the development of rheumatoid granuloma phase sclerosis granuloma recruits properties scar, a sign indicates: A. *remission of disease B. Acute period C. escalation process after remission D. rebuilding process after the strong attack of rheumatism E. slight slowdown in the pace of development 99. What period of the disease shows the development of rheumatoid granuloma in the sclerosis phase: A. acute period B. *remission of disease C. escalation process after remission D. rebuilding process after the strong attack of rheumatism E. slight slowdown in the pace of development 100. In a typical course of rheumatism in the first place is damaged: A. *heart B. only the large joints C. only small joints D. Only kidney E. liver 101. Which body is damaged in the first place, with a typical current of rheumatism: A. *heart B. only the large joints C. only small joints D. Only kidney E. liver 102. In a typical course of rheumatism in the first damaged heart, which develops a pathological process, such as: A. *endocarditis and myocarditis B. endovaskulitis coronary arteries C. pericarditis and pankarditis D. perivaskulitis coronary arteries E. cardiosclerosis 103. What pathologic process develops in the heart, with a typical current of rheumatism: A. *endocarditis and myocarditis B. endovaskulitis coronary arteries C. pericarditis and pankarditis D. perivasculitis of coronary arteries E. cardiosclerosis 104. Endocarditis rheumatic conditions on the localization can be: A. *valvular B. mural C. transmural D. epicardial E. pericardial 105. What endocarditis rheumatic conditions may be to localize: A. *valvular B. mural C. transmural D. epicardial E. pericardial 106. Endocarditis (inflammation endocardium) rheumatic conditions on the localization can be: A. *chordal B. mural C. transmural D. epicardial E. pericardial 107. How to localize endocarditis (inflammation of endocardium) rheumatic conditions: A. *chordal B. mural C. transmural D. epicardial E. pericardial 108. Endocarditis (inflammation of endocardium) rheumatic conditions on the localization can be: A. *subendocardial B. mural C. transmural D. epicardial E. pericardial 109. How to localize endocarditis (inflammation of endocardium) may be rheumatic conditions: A. *subendocardial B. mural C. transmural D. epicardial E. pericardial 110. Often the rheumatoid process affects: A. *mitral and aortic valves B. tricuspid valve C. valve pulmonary artery D. valve and the pulmonary artery and tricuspid valve E. -- 111. What most amazes rheumatic process: A. *mitral and aortic valves B. tricuspid valve C. valve pulmonary artery D. valve and the pulmonary artery valve tricuspid E. -112. What kind-hearted often surprised when rheumatic process: A. *mitral and aortic valve B. tricuspid valve C. valve pulmonary artery D. valve and the pulmonary artery tricuspid valve E. -113. Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis: A. *diffuse endocarditis B. mural endocarditis C. transmural endocarditis D. epicardial endocarditis E. pericarditis 114. Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis: A. *diffuse endocarditis B. mural endocarditis C. transmural endocarditis D. epicardial endocarditis E. pericarditis 115. Diffuse endocarditis as a kind of rheumatic valve endocarditis is characterized by diffuse: A. *mucoid swelling of connective tissue without damaging the endothelium B. fibrinoid necrosis of connective tissue and endothelial C. fibrinoid edema of connective tissue and endothelial damage D. hyalinosis of connective tissue and endothelial E. amyloidosis 116. What is diffuse endocarditis as a kind of rheumatic valve endocarditis: A. -B. *mukoid edema of connective tissue without damaging the endothelium C. fibrinoid necrosis of connective tissue and endothelial D. fibrinoid edema of connective tissue and endothelial damage E. hyalinosis of connective tissue and endothelial 117. Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis: A. *warty acute endocarditis B. Acute mural endocarditis C. transmural subacute endocarditis D. Acute endocarditis E. -- 118. What types of rheumatic valve endocarditis differ depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes: A. *warty acute endocarditis B. Acute endocarditis C. Acute mural endocarditis D. transmural subacute endocarditis E. Acute endocarditis 119. Acute papillose endocarditis rheumatic conditions is accompanied by: A. *fibrinoid changes in connective tissue and endothelial desquamation with delay in the sites of injury trombotic masses in the form of warts B. mucoid changes in connective tissue with a delay trombotic mass in the form of warts C. -D. fibrinotic changes in connective tissue and endothelium of the postponement of the masses of warts E. fibrinoid changes in cardiomyocytes and desquamation epicardium with postponement of warts 120. What is accompanied by a sharp papillose endocarditis rheumatic conditions: A. *fibrinoid changes in connective tissue and endothelial desquamation with delay in the sites of injury trombotic masses in the form of warts B. mukoid changes in connective tissue with a delay trombotic mass in the form of warts C. -D. fibrinoid changes in connective tissue and endothelium of the masses in the form of postponement of warts E. fibrinoid changes in cardiomyocytes and desquamation epicardium with postponement of warts 121. Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis: A. *fibroplastic endocarditis B. intramural endocarditis C. -D. transmural endocarditis E. epicardial endocarditis 122. Specify the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes: A. -B. *fibroplastic endocarditis C. mural endocarditis D. transmural endocarditis E. epicardial endocarditis 123. Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis - fibroplastichny endocarditis, characterized by: A. *growth of new tissue, scar revisions and valve insufficiency (acquired heart disease) B. -C. mucoid changes in connective tissue with a delay trombotic mass in the form of warts on the valves D. fibrinogen changes in connective tissue valves E. fibrinoid changes in cardiomyocytes and endothelial 124. Depending on the prevalence alterative or regenerative processes distinguish the type of rheumatic valve endocarditis: A. *rotary-papillose endocarditis B. re endocarditis C. re-trombotic endocarditis D. diffuse-papillose endocarditis E. -125. Rotary-papillose endocarditis is characterized by repeated disruptions: A. *newly formed connective tissue, endothelial injury and fibrin accumulation on a background of sclerosis and hyalinosis valve B. collagen tissue in the middle of the valve with the proliferation of endothelium C. -D. fibrous tissue valve with diffuse deposition of fibrin E. intact endothelium and the postponement of fibrinogen 126. Indicate the degree of disorganization of connective tissue in rotarypapillose endocarditis: A. -B. *neoformation of connective tissue, endothelial damage and fibrin deposition on the background of sclerosis and hyalinosis valve C. collagen tissue in the middle of the valve with the proliferation of endothelial D. fibrous tissue valve with diffuse deposition of fibrin E. intact endothelium and delays fibrinogen 127. Myocarditis (inflammation of the myocardium) - permanent manifestation of rheumatic disease, a form of it are: A. *granulematozny B. -C. focal parenchymatous D. diffuse ekssudative parenchymatous E. focal interstitial 128. Specify the form myocarditis (inflammation of the myocardium) permanent manifestation of rheumatism: A. -B. *granulematozny C. focal parenchymatous D. diffuse exudative parenchymatous E. focal interstitial 129. Granulematous myocarditis rheumatic conditions characterized by the presence of "blooming", and sclerotic rheumatic granulomas: A. *in the perivascular connective tissue of the myocardium B. in cardiomyocytes C. vascular endothelium in myocardial D. in epycardium E. -130. Specify the localization of "blooming", sclerotic granulomas rheumatic conditions: A. -B. *in the perivascular connective tissue of the myocardium C. in cardiomyocytes D. vascular endothelium in myocardial E. in epicardium 131. Exudative diffuse interstitial myocarditis is characterized by: A. *interstitial significant infiltration of lymphocytes, gistiocyts, neutrophils and eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas AshofTalalaev B. -C. slight infiltration of lymphocytes intersticial, gistiocyts, neutrophils and eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev D. interstitsiya significant infiltration of lymphocytes in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev E. slight infiltration of neutrophils in the presence of interstitial isolated granulomas Ashof-Talalaev 132. What is exudative diffuse interstitial myocarditis: A. *interstitial significant infiltration of lymphocytes, gistiocites, neutrophils and eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas AshofTalalaev B. slight infiltration of lymphocytes interstitial, gistiocyts, neutrophils and eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev C. interstitsiey significant infiltration of lymphocytes in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-Talalaev D. -E. slight infiltration of neutrophils in the presence of interstitial isolated granulomas Ashof-Talalaev 133. Development of myocarditis cardiosclerosis ends with: A. *favorable course of rheumatism B. -C. disadvantaged during rheumatism D. in the frequent recurrence of rheumatism E. in rheumatism with high activity indices of blood 134. Cardiosclerosis is the result of miocarditis with: A. -B. *favorable course of rheumatism C. disadvantaged during rheumatism D. During the frequent recurrence of rheumatism E. During rheumatism with high activity indices of blood 135. Prior to surgery, which of the following is the best medical therapy for a newborn infant with transposition of the pulmonary artery and aorta? A. *Give prostaglandin E2 to keep the ductus arteriosus open B. C. D. E. Give prostaglandin F2 to close the ductus arteriosus Give oxygen to keep the ductus arteriosus open Give indomethacin to keep the ductus arteriosus open Give indomethacin to close the ductus arteriosus 136. Name the stage of myocardial infarction. A. Dystrophic B. Metabolic C. Coronary D. All listed above E. * Necrotic 137. Name the stage of the course of hypertension. A. Metabolic B. Discirculatory C. Dystrophic D. Dystonic E. * Morphological changes in vessels 138. Name the type of heart attack, according to localization of necrosis foci. A. Second B. Mixed C. Focal D. Palindromic E. * Transmural 139. Name the type of macroscopic changes in cardiac blood vessels at 1st stage of atherosclerosis A. Liposclerosis B. Hyalinosis C. Atheromatosis D. Lipoidosis E. * Lipid spots and stripes 140. Name the type of macroscopic changes in large vessels at atherosclerosis. A. Arteriolosclerosis B. Lipoidosis C. Sclerosis D. Petrification E. * Fatty spots and stripes 141. The nature of foam cells in atherosclerotic plaques A. Granulocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Plasmocells D. Eosinophils E. * Macrophages 142. Pathogenetic factors of ischemic heart disease. A. Hyperlipidemia, smoking B. Arterial hypertension C. Excessive body weight D. Sedentary lifestyle E. * All listed above 143. Possible causes of death at myocardial infarction. A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Asystolia C. Cardiogenic shock D. Acute heart failure E. * All listed above 144. Name the possible extracardiac complications which are associated with acute heart aneurysm. A. Pneumonia B. Cirrhosis C. Pulmonary gangrene D. Hemorrhage in the brain E. * Ischemic infarct of brain 145. Presence of "flowering granuloma" refers to: A. escalation process after remission B. recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism C. some slowdown of development D. * active phase of process E. process of remission 146. Atherosclerosis of abdominal aorta can be complicated by development of: A. Brain infarction B. Myocardial infarction C. Pulmonary heart D. Pulmonary gangrene E. * Intestinal gangrene 147. Specify the factor that is important in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. A. Predominance of high density lipoproteins in plasma B. Predominance of very high density lipoproteins in plasma C. Hypercalciumaemia D. Dysproteinaemia E. * Hypercholesterolaemia 148. Specify the type of heart attack (myocardial infarct) which developed after first signs of ischemia. A. Necrotic infarct B. Ischemic infarct C. Transmural infarct D. Focal infarct E. * Primary infarct 149. Stages in the course of benign hypertension. A. Prelipid B. Clinical C. Vascular endothelial ulceration D. Cirrhotic E. * Changes in organs due to changes in arteries 150. The reason of death at malignant nephrosclerosis. A. B. C. D. E. Acute heart failure Acute liver failure Chronic renal failure Chronic heart failure * Acute renal failure 151. What is the main factor in pathogenesis of hypertension. A. Age factor B. Metabolic dysfunction factor C. Intake of lipoproteins D. Liver factor E. * Kidney factor 152. The modern theory of the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis. A. Theory of alimentary infiltration B. Emotional theory C. Trombogenic theory D. Golgi metabolic theory E. * Receptor theory 153. The modern theory of the pathogenesis of hypertension. A. Metabolic theory B. Receptor theory C. * Genetic pathology of cell membranes D. Golgi metabolic theory E. Emotional theory 154. Time of necrotizing stage at myocardial ischemia after the first signs. A. To 6-8 hours B. To 10-12 hour C. To 6 hours D. To 2:00 E. * More than 12 hours 155. What type of macroscopic complication is developed in arterial intima at the atherosclerosis. A. Fat and protein accumulation B. Hyalinosis C. Fibrous plaque D. Fatty strips E. * Mural hematoma 156. Type of calcification in atherosclerotic "plaque" according to pathogenesis. A. Metabolic B. Metastatic C. Secondary D. Primary E. * Dystrophic 157. Type of myocardial infarction depending on the timing of development since the first signs of ischemia. A. Hemorrhagic, ischemic B. Acute 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. C. Subacute D. Chronic E. * Recurrent, primary Types of hypertension depending on the activity pressure renal systems. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Hormonal D. Hypovolemic E. * Vasoconstruction Types of hypertension depending to nature of its passing. A. Primary B. Secondary C. Idiopathic D. Subacute E. * Malignant Typical changes of arterioles at hypertension. A. Atherosclerosis B. Liposclerosis C. Atheromatosis D. Atherocalcinosis E. * Hyalinosis What type of blood vessels does atherosclerosis affect? A. * Aorta B. Hollow vein C. Venules D. Thoracic duct E. Capillaries What are clinical and anatomic form of hypertension. A. Functional B. Escherichia C. Changes in vessels D. Changes in extremities E. * Renal What are clinical and anatomic form of hypertension. A. Mesenteric B. Portal C. Mediastinal D. Pulmonary E. * Cerebral What are complications of myocardial infarction? A. Chronic aneurysm B. Heart disease C. Diffuse cardiosclerosis D. Coronary artery spasm E. * Ventricular fibrillation What are synonyms of hypertension disease? A. Symptomatic hypertension B. C. D. E. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. Secondary hypertension Idiopathic hypertension Neurogenic hypertension * Primary hypertension What factor is most important at atherosclerosis development? A. Salt factor B. Protein starvation factor C. Carbohydrate rich foods factor D. Alcohol factor E. * Age factor What are the main factors in the hypertension development? A. Virus infection B. Protein starvation C. Food rich of carbohydrates D. Alcohol E. * Stress, Salt To what change of heart does acute ischemic heart disease lead? A. Metabolic myocardial damage B. Cardiomyoliposis C. Granulematous myocarditis D. Cardiomyopathy E. * Myocardial infarction To what change of heart does acute ischemic heart disease lead? A. Cardiomyoliposis B. Diffuse small focal cardiosclerosis C. Tiger heart D. Necrotic cardiomyopathy E. * Myocardial infarction What complications can develop in patients with acute aneurysm? A. Wall aneurysm rupture B. Cavity pericardial tamponade C. Renal infarction D. Myocardial ischemic brain E. * All listed above What is acute aneurysm of heart? A. Acute ischemic heart disease B. Forms of chronic ischemic heart disease C. Cardiomegaly complications D. Inherited defect of heart E. * Balloon-like bulge in the wall of heart at the infarction. What is characteristic for acute aneurysm? A. Situates in the wall of the right ventricle most often B. Wall aneurysms before scar tissue C. Wall aneurysms presented thrombotic masses D. Calcified aneurysm wall E. * Situates in the wall of the left ventricle most often What is characteristic for primary wrinkled kidney at atherosclerosis? A. B. C. D. E. Grained surface, reducing the size Expansion of sinuses and cups Expansion cortex The presence of small scars in the parenchyma * Reducing the size and formed large nodular surface 174. What is characteristic of transmural myocardial infarction? A. Focal necrosis in papillary muscles only B. Fibrinous endocarditis C. Only subendocardial focal necrosis D. Warty endocarditis E. * Myocardial necrosis through all layers 175. What is myocardial infarction? A. Expressions of cardiac arrhythmias B. Forms of chronic ischemic heart diseases C. Hemorrhagic necrosis D. Cardiomyopathy E. * Vascular necrosis of heart 176. What is the relationship between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis? A. Arteriosclerosis - a kind of atherosclerosis B. Atherosclerosis - a kind elastofibrozu C. Atherosclerosis - senile arteriosclerosis D. Atherosclerosis - allergic arteriosclerosis E. * Atherosclerosis - a metabolic arteriosclerosis 177. What layer of arterial wall does atherosclerosis injure? A. Adventitial B. All layers C. Media D. Perivascular tissue E. * Internal 178. What blood vessels does hypertension disease injure mostly? A. Venules B. Capillaries C. Muscular type arteries D. Arteries of muscle-elastic type E. * Arterioles 179. What pathological conditions may lead to symptomatic hypertension? A. CNS Diseases B. Vascular Diseases C. Kidney D. Endocrine system diseases E. * All of the above 180. With the development of rheumatic granuloma at the sclerosis phase fibroblasts replaces fibrynoid necrosis zones, and synthesized: A. mucoid fibers B. fibrynoid fibers C. hyaline fibers and colloid D. All the above E. * Argyrophil and collagen fibers 181. One of the stage of granuloma development is the scar formation, this moment shows about ... A. Escalation process after remission B. Recovery process after an active attack of rheumatism C. Some slowdown in development D. Some activation process E. * Phaze of remission 182. Acute rheumatic warty endocarditis is accompanied by: A. * fibrinoid changes and endothelial desquamation with thrombus formation in the warts forms B. mucoid changes of connective tissue with thrombus formation in the warts forms C. -D. fibrinoid changes of connective tissue and endothelium growthing in the warts forms E. fibrinoid changes of cardiomyocytes and epicardium growthing in the warts forms 183. Alterativ-exudativ phase of rheumatism characterized by rheumatic granuloma formation with accumulation of: A. * macrophages with hypertrophic nuclei around the fibrinoid necrosis in fan-like manner form B. lymphocytes and the formation of follicles in center C. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes near the D. neutrophils, lymphocytes, histiocytes E. -184. A clinical syndrome is characteristic for the renal amiloidisis ... A. Hepatonephrotic B. Lowe's syndrome C. Alport's syndrome D. * Nephrotic syndrome E. Nephritic syndrome 185. A gouty kidney develops as a result of abnormality of metabolism of A. Chromoproteins B. Lipids C. * Purines D. Albumins E. Carbonhydrates 186. Advanced cervical carcinoma can extend by direct continuity to all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Urinary bladder B. Ureters C. * Colon transversum D. Rectum E. Peritoneum 187. All of the following clinical features are likely to be found in nephrotic syndrome, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Proteinuria Hypoalbuminemia * Hematuria Hyperlipidemia Edema 188. All of the following conditions predispose to urolithiasis, EXCEPT: A. * Sickle cell nephropathy B. Hyperparathyroidism C. Gout D. Proteus pyelonephritis E. Enteric hyperoxaluria 189. All of the following morphologic features characterize the ovary adenocarcinoma cells, EXCEPT: A. Enlarged nucleoli B. Atypical mitoses C. Variation in size and shape D. Hyperchromatic nuclei E. * Nucleus inclusions 190. All of the following statements correctly describe chronic pyelonephritis, EXCEPT: A. It causes asymmetrically scarred kidneys B. It is associated with vesicoureteral reflux in most cases C. * It spares the calyces and pelvis D. It may produce thyroidization of tubules E. It is an important cause of secondary nephrosclerosis 191. All of the following statements correctly describe analgesic abuse nephropathy, EXCEPT: A. It is characterized by tubulo-interstitial component B. It is often caused by phenacetin C. It causes inability to concentrate urine D. It often improves with drug withdrawal E. * It predisposes to the development of renal cell carcinoma 192. All of the following statements correctly describe renal artery stenosis, EXCEPT: A. It is an uncommon form of hypertension B. It is the most common curable form of hypertension C. It is usually caused by atherosclerotic plaque D. It produces high renin levels in the venous blood of the ischemic kidney E. * It is treated by hemodialysis 193. All of the following statements regarding Goodpasture's syndrome are true, EXCEPT: A. Patients present with hemoptysis and hematuria B. Death occurs due to uremia and pulmonary hemorrhage C. Electron microscopy shows the absence of electron-dense deposits D. * Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of IgG in the glomeruli E. Immunofluorescence reveals linear deposits of IgG in the glomeruli 194. All of the following statements regarding postinfectious glomerulonephritis are true, EXCEPT: A. The disease follows streptococcus infection B. Electron microscopy shows large subendothelial immune-type deposits C. The histologic picture is that of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D. The clinical picture is characteristic of acute nephritis E. * Most affected children develop chronic renal failure 195. All statements concerning chorion-carcinoma are true, EXCEPT: A. The tumor has a dimorphic pattern B. Hemorrhages and necrosis are present C. The tumor is malignant D. The tumor is composed of cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast cells E. * The tumor produces chorionic villi 196. All statements concerning leiomyomas are true, EXCEPT: A. They regress or calcify after castration or menopause B. * They do not respond to estrogens C. They may undergo rapid increase in size during pregnancy D. Their cause is unknown E. They are found in 25% of reproductive women 197. An immunofluorescence-stained kidney specimen from a patient with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is likely to show which of the following: A. * Granular deposits of Ig G B. Linear deposits of Ig G C. Granular deposits of IgA D. Linear deposits of streptococcal antigen E. Granular deposits of streptococcal antigen 198. An important factor in cervical oncogenesis is which of the following: A. * HPV-infection B. Herpes simplex C. Herpes zoster D. Human immunodeficiency virus E. Respiratory syncytial virus 199. At extracapillar productive glomerulonephritis half moons are formed by A. Red corpuscles B. Neutrophilic leucocytes C. Red corpuscles and neutrophilic leucocytes D. Exfoliated endothelium and fibrin E. * Exfoliated renal epithelium and fibrin 200. Benign nephrosclerosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Narrowing of the lumen of the arterioles and small arteries B. Thickening and hyalinization of the vessels' walls C. * Deposition of amyloid within the Bowman space D. Foci of tubular atrophy E. Deposition of collagen within the Bowman space 201. Changes in a colon at uremia are A. Granulomatous inflammation B. C. D. E. Stricture Polyposis Ulcerous colitis * Fibrinous [diphtheritic] colitis 202. Chorioncarcinoma is commonly associated with which of the following: A. Systemic hypertension B. * Pregnancy C. Obesity D. Oral contraceptive steroid use E. Diabetes mellitus 203. Conditions leading to endometrial hyperplasia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Polycystic ovarian disease B. Functioning granulosa cell tumors of the ovary C. Excessive cortical function (cortical stroma hyperplasia) D. * Endometriosis E. Estrogen replacement therapy 204. Criteria to differentiate between benign and malignant tumors are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Maturity B. Rate and character of growth C. * Edema D. Metastases E. Local invasion 205. Diabetes mellitus is associated with all of the following renal disorders, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Benigh nephrosclerosis D. * Urate nephropathy E. Acute pyelonephritis 206. Distant hematogenic metastases of invasive cervical carcinoma occur in all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Liver B. Lungs C. Bone marrow D. * Lymph nodes E. Kidney 207. Endometrial hyperplasia is associated with which of the following: A. High estrogenic stimulation with normal progestational activity B. Normal estrogenic stimulation with increased progestational activity C. * High estrogenic stimulation with diminished progestational activity D. High estrogenic stimulation and progestational activity E. Normal estrogenic stimulation and progestational activity 208. First hematogenous metastases of the endometrial carcinoma can be found in which of the following organs: A. Bones B. C. D. E. Regional lymph nodes * Lungs Liver Central nervous system 209. First lymphogenous metastases of the papillary mucinous cystadnocarcinoma of the ovary can be found in which of the following organs: A. * Pelvic lymph nodes B. Aortic lymph nodes C. Liver D. Lungs E. Bones 210. First metastases of the Chorioncarcinoma can be found in which of the following organs: A. Liver B. * Lung C. Kidney D. Bones E. Brain 211. Give the determination of gynecomastia A. Non-cancerous cystous dysplasia of mammary gland B. Non-cancerous hyperplasia of mammary gland C. Malignant dysplasia of mammary gland D. Non-cancerous sclerotic dysplasia of mammary gland E. * Non-cancerous dysplasia of breast in men 212. Glomerular injury caused by circulating complexes occurs in all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. Syphilis B. Goodpasture's syndrome C. Hepatitis B D. Systemic lupus erythematosus E. * Lung cancer 213. Hematuria is a characteristic clinical feature of all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A. Glomerulonephritis B. * Malakoplakia C. Nephrolithiasis D. Renal cell carcinoma E. Bladder papilloma 214. Higher frequency of carcinoma of the endometrium is commonly associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. * Young age B. Obesity C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hypertension E. Infertility (anovulatory cycles) 215. Histologic features of malignant nephrosclerosis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles Medial thickening of arterioles * Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal artery Renal artery thrombosis Focal renal parenchymal infarction 216. Histological type of of high quality hyperplasia of prostatic gland A. Muscular type B. Stromal vascular type C. Amyloid type D. Fibroid cystous type E. * Mixed type 217. Hydronephrosis is caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. * Chronic renal vein thrombosis B. Large uterine leiomyoma C. Renal calculi D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy E. Papillary transitional cell carcinoma of the ureter 218. Hydronephrosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. * Kidney infarct B. Thinning of the renal parenchyma C. Dilatation of the renal pelvis D. Dilatation of the renal calyces E. Progressive atrophy of the kidney 219. Immunologicaly mediated glomerulonephritis all of the following cells contribute to the glomerular injury, EXCEPT: A. * Mast cells B. Macrophages C. Platelets D. Neutrophils E. Mesangial cells 220. In case of poisoning by mercuric chloride there is a necrosis of A. Cardiac hystiocytes B. * Epithelium of renal tubules C. Glomerular system of kidneys D. Renal stroma E. Wall of ureter 221. In case of poisoning by mercuric chloride there is a necrosis of A. Brain cells B. * Epithelium of renal tubules C. Glomerular system of kidneys D. Liver stroma E. Wall of ureter 222. In nonobstructive chronic pyelonephritis the most common way for bacteria to gain entrance into the kidney is which of the following: A. Arterial bloodstream B. The lymphatics C. Venous bloodstream D. * Vesicoureteral reflux E. Aberrant arteriovenous shunts 223. In pathogeny of glomerulonephritis a considerable role plays: A. * Sensitizing of an organism B. Reinfection C. Toxicness of microbes D. A presence of the inflammatory diseases of kidneys in anamnesis E. Superinfection 224. In the urinary tract obstruction all pathologic processes can be found. EXCEPT: A. Dilatation of the pelvis and calyces B. * Ischemic tubular necrosis C. Interstitial inflammation D. Interstitial fibrosis E. Glomerular and tubular atrophy 225. Invasive cervical carcinoma can manifest in which of the following patterns: A. * Ulcerating tumor B. Endocervical polyp C. Grapelike projections D. Paget's cancer E. Flattened plaque cancer 226. Mesangial cells can be characterized by all of the following properties, EXCEPT: A. Ingestion of macromolecules B. Connection with Lacis cells C. Ability to contract D. * Production of renin E. Production of basement membrane proteins 227. Microscopically, simple hyperplasia of endometrium is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. * Pressed endometrial glands B. Dilated endometrial glands C. Increased gland-to-stroma ratio D. Abundant stroma E. Complex ramified endometrial glands 228. Morphological form of subacute glomerulonephritis is: A. Mesangial membranous glomerulonephritis B. * Extracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis C. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis D. Minimum changes E. Intracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis 229. Most forms of chronic renal failure produce increased serum levels of all of the following substances, EXCEPT: A. * Calcium B. Aldosterone C. Phosphate D. Parathormone E. Renin 230. Most frequent complication of glomerulonephritis is A. Amiloidosis B. Increase of arterial pressure C. * Arteriolosclerotic kidney D. Renal abscesses E. Hematuria 231. Name the complication of dishormonal hypertrophic prostatopathy? A. Formation of the prostatic cysts. B. Purulent melting of prostate C. Sclerosis of prostate D. Appearance of polypous excrescences E. * Difficulty in the urine outflow 232. Name a process, which is regarded as an inflammatory disease of mucous membrane of uterus A. Cystophorous hyperplasia B. Pseudo erosion C. Polypous excrescence D. Endometriosis E. * Endometritis 233. Obstetrically related renal disease includes all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. * Nephrocalcinosis B. Diffuse cortical renal necrosis C. Acute ischemic tubular necrosis D. Acute glomerulonephritis E. Hydronephrosis 234. Poor prognosis in chorioncarcinoma is associated with which of the following features of the tumor... A. Lack of the capsule B. Absence of estrogen receptors C. Presence of secondary necrosis and hemorrhages D. Extensive angiogenesis E. * Early spread of hematogenous metastases 235. On gross examination, leiomyoma of the uterus is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Intramural, submucosal or subserosal localization B. Discrete multiple nodules C. Firm consistence D. Fibrous capsule E. * Dark brown color 236. On gross examination, leiomyoma of the uterus may be characterized by which of the following: A. Indistinct margins B. Brown color C. Soft consistence D. * Fibrillated cut surface E. Multicolored 237. On gross examination, the hyperplasia of endometrium is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Enlarged uterus B. Thickened uterus wall C. Foci of hemorrhages into endometrium D. * Suppurative endometritis E. Irregular thickened endometrium 238. Patogenetic basis of glomerulonephritis is formed by: A. * Immunoreactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries B. Exsudates reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries C. Necrotic reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries D. Exsudative necrotic reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries E. Proliferative reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries 239. Picrofuchsin by van Gieson staining of leiomyoma of the uterus results in which of the following: A. Red color of tumor parenchyma B. Blue color of tumor parenchyma C. Orange color of tumor parenchyma D. Yellow color of the tumor stroma E. * Red color of the tumor stroma 240. Proteinuria at glomerulonephritis is caused by A. Purulent exsudate permeating into the urine B. Hyperproteinemia C. Purulent infiltration of stroma D. * Damage of wall of glomerular capillares E. Damage of tubular wall 241. Renal diseases producing systemic hypertension include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. * Renal amyloidosis C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Chronic pyelonephritis E. Renal vasculitis 242. Risk factors for cervical cancer development include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Early age at first intercourse B. Multiple sexual partners C. Oral contraceptive use D. * Alcohol abuse E. HPV- infection 243. Structurally-functional unit of kidney is: A. Kidney pyramid; B. Kidney little body; C. Kidney lobule; D. Kidney bowl; E. * Nephron 244. Subendothelial granular electron-dense deposits can be found in which of the following diseases: A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Side cell nephropathy C. Membranous glomerulonephritis D. * Systemic lupus erythematosus E. Gouty nephropathy 245. Symptomatic hypertension evolves most frequently from: A. * Glomerulonephritis B. Atherosclerosis of renal arteries C. Thyrotoxicosis D. Aldosteronism E. Pheochromocytoma 246. Systemic lupus erythematosus gives rise to all of the following patterns of glomerular injury, EXCEPT: A. Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis B. Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis C. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D. * Lipoid nephrosis E. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis 247. The benign tumor characterized by the development of cysts lined by tall columnar epithelial cells and formation of regular papillary structures is referred to as: A. Chorioncarcinoma B. Adenoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. * Cystadenoma E. Fibroadenoma 248. The changes of epithelium of tubulis are in the shock stage of acute kidney insufficiency A. Metaplasia of epithelium B. * Dystrophy of epithelium C. Necrosis of epithelium D. The changes are absent E. Removing a layer by the layer of epithelium 249. The changes of tubular epithelium in the oliguric stage of acute renal insufficiency A. Metaplasia of epithelium B. Dystrophy of epithelium C. * Necrosis of epithelium D. Changes are absent E. Exfoliation of epithelium 250. The characteristic feature of chorioepithelioma is A. Sclerosis of stroma B. * Absence of stroma C. Atrophy of chorionic epithelium D. Presence of lymphatic vessels E. Petrification 251. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of men is A. * Gynecomastia B. Prostatitis C. Orchitis D. Epididymitis E. Cancer of testicles 252. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of men is A. Prostatitis B. * Adenoma of prostatic gland C. Orchitis D. Cancer of prostatic E. Urethritis 253. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of women is A. Cervicitis B. Endometritis C. * Mastopathy D. Salpingitis E. Cancer of the body of uterus 254. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of women is A. * Endocervicosis B. Oophoritis C. Cystitis D. Sarcoma of uterus E. Endometritis 255. The essence of pyelonephritis is A. Autoimmune aggression of renal tissue B. Non suppurative inflammation of glomerules C. Necrosis of renal cortical layer of kidney D. * Suppurative inflammation of kidney E. Hyalinosis of glomerular vessels 256. The factor least likely to cause acute pyelonephritis is which of the following: A. Pregnancy B. Nephrolithiasis C. Catheterization of the bladder D. Prostatic hypertrophy E. * Septicemia 257. The leiomyoma parenchyma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Haphazardly situated cells B. Uniformed in size and shape cells C. * Small vessels D. Oval nuclei of smooth muscle tumor cells E. Long cytoplasmic processus of tumor cells 258. The main complication of nephrolithiasis is A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle B. Hypertension C. * Hydronephrosis D. Contracted [granular] kidney E. Cancer of kidney 259. The malignant tumor characterized by easily recognizable glandular tubular pattern is referred to as: A. Chorioncarcinoma B. Adenoma C. * Adenocarcinoma D. Cystadenoma E. Fibroadenoma 260. The most common benign tumor of the ovary is which of the following: A. * Cystadenoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Cystadenocarcinoma D. Papilloma E. Fibroadenoma 261. The most frequent clinical display of fibroid hyperplasia of mucous membrane of uterus is: A. Pain syndrome B. Masculinization C. * Metrorrhagia D. Enlargement of uterus determined by ultrasonography E. The characteristic clinical displays are absent 262. The Russian scientist who was the first to describe the histogenesis of chorioncarcinoma was: A. R.Virchov B. * M.N.Nikiforov C. N.I.Pirogov D. I.M.Setchenov E. A.I.Abrikosov 263. The stain that helps to detect precancer and cancer of the cervix in smears is which of the following: A. Weigert's B. * Papanicolaou C. Sudan III D. Toluidin blue E. Hematoxylin and eosin 264. The stain used to differentiate leiomyoma and fibroma is which of the following: A. * Picrofuchsin B. Congo red C. Sudan III D. Toluidin blue E. Fuchselin 265. The tubular epithelial cells in acute tubular necrosis are characterized by all of the following pathologic features, EXCEPT: A. Karyolysis B. Plasmolysis C. Plasmorrhexis D. Plasmocoagulation E. * Tubulorrhexis 266. The tumor composed of clusters of cuboid cytotrophoblast cells separated by streaming masses of syncytiotrophoblast giant cells with marked atypia is referred to as: A. * Chorioncarcinoma B. Adenoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Cystadenoma E. Fibroadenoma 267. Ultrastructural changes in children primary nephrotic syndrome involve which of the following glomerular elements: A. Endothelium B. * Podocytes C. Mesangium D. Blood vessels E. Basement membrane 268. Uremia is associated with all of the following abnormalities, EXCEPT: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Gastritis C. * Polycythemia D. Pericarditis E. Diffuse alveolar damage 269. What illness from the listed below relates tothe large mottled kidney A. Amiloidosis of kidney B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Nephrolithiasis D. * Subacute glomerulonephritis E. Chronic glomerulonephritis 270. What abnormality develops at shock A. * Acute kidney insufficiency B. Chronic kidney insufficiency C. Glomerulonephritis D. Renal amiloidisis E. Renal cirrhosis 271. What belongs to the inherited diseases from these tubular patologies A. Pyelonephritis B. Necrotic nephrosis C. * Tubular enzimatic pathology D. “Myelome” kidney E. “Shield-shaped” kidney 272. What develops in case of prolong obstruction of ureters by stone in a kidney A. Heart attack B. Gangrene C. Glomerulonephritis D. Amiloidosis E. * Hydronephrosis 273. What disease can be complicated by amyloidosis: A. Atherosclerosis B. Heart ischemic disease C. * Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis of lungs D. Croupous pneumonia E. Hypertension 274. What pathologic condition of the kidneys is caused by mercury poisoning? A. * Acute tubular necrosis B. Renal papillary necrosis C. Crescentic glomerulonephritis D. Acute interstitial nephritis E. Renal cell carcinoma 275. What pathological process the hypertrophy of prostatic gland is related to? A. Chronic prostatitis B. Acute prostatitis C. Hyperfunction of sexual glands D. Disorder of the urine outflow E. * Hypofunction of sexual glands 276. What process occurs in the wall of urinary bladder at prostatopathy? A. Sclerosis B. Fibrosis C. Atrophy D. The changes are absent E. * Compensatory hypertrophy 277. What type of epithelium covers the mucous membrane of urinoexcretory ways? A. Monolayer pavement epithelium; B. * Multi-layered transitional C. Multi-layered ciliated D. Monolayer cylindrical E. Multi-layered pavement unonkeratinizing. 278. Which statement correctly characterizes membranous glomerulopathy? A. It is the most common cause of nephrotie syndrome in children B. Patients usually present with acute renal failure C. It is characterized by diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D. * Electron microscopy demonstrates numerous subepithelial immunetype deposits E. It is characterized by mesangial interposition phenomenon 279. "Black measles" is characterized by which of the following: A. * Hemorrhages B. Hypermelanosis C. Icterus D. Hyperchromatosis E. Multiple nevi 280. A calcified focus (fibrocalcific scar) forming in the lung parenchyma and in the hilar lymph node after the primary tuberculosis infection is also referred to as: A. Keloid B. Granuloma C. * Ghon focus D. Aschoff-Pule focus E. Simon focus 281. Acute adrenal insufficiency syndrome is also referred to as: A. * Waterhouse — Friderichsen syndrome B. Kimmelstill-Wilson syndrome C. Hamman-Rich syndrome D. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome E. Budd-Chiari syndrome 282. All of the following pathologic processes can be found in the second period of scarlet fever, EXCEPT: A. Vasculitis B. Acute glomerulonephritis C. Arthritis D. Endocarditis E. * Amyloidosis 283. All of these cells participate in immune response in primary lung tuberculosis, EXCEPT: A. Type I pneumocytes B. * Alveolar macrophages C. CD4+ helper T-cells D. CD8+ suppressor T-cells E. Double negative T-cells 284. An infectious agent causing diphtheria is which of the following: A. * Corynebacterium B. Staphylococcus C. Treponema D. Bordetella E. Esherichia 285. Caseating destructive secondary tuberculosis includes all of the following lesions, EXCEPT: A. Caseation in the lung B. Cavities in the lung C. Caseation in the lung lymph nodes D. * Miliary extrapulmonary lesions E. Extrapulmonary caseation 286. Complications of pyogenic meningitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Leptomeningeal fibrosis B. Hydrocephalus C. Adhesive arachnoiditis D. * Intracerebral hemorrhage E. Focal encephalitis 287. Complications of tuberculosis osteomyelitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Tuberculosis arthritis B. Sinus tract formation C. Cold abscess formation D. * Caseation in the lung E. Amyloidosis 288. Consequences of diphtheria include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Hyperplasia of the spleen B. Fatty myocardial changes C. * Systemic hemosiderosis D. Polyneuritis E. Focal necroses of the parenchyma of the organs 289. Diphtheria is characterized by the derangement of all of the following organs, EXCEPT: A. Nasopharynx B. Oropharynx C. Larynx D. Trachea E. * Esophagus 290. Erythematous rash in scarlet fever can be found on which of the following parts of the body: A. The trunk and inner aspects of the arms and legs B. * The upper aspects of the arms and legs C. The area about the mouth D. The knees E. The head 291. Exotoxin in diphtheria damages all of the following organs, EXCEPT: A. * Heart B. Nervous system C. Adrenals D. Kidneys E. Thyroid gland 292. Favored targets for miliary extrapulmonary seeding are all of the following organs, EXCEPT: A. Bone marrow B. Kidneys C. Liver D. * Uterus E. Spleen 293. Figuratively the influensa pneumonia is often referred to as: A. Hemosiderosis of the lung B. * Multicolored lung C. Silicosis D. Lung infarct E. Farmer's lung 294. Growth and multiplication of the tubercle bacilli in cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis are favored by which of the following pathologic conditions: A. Lymphatic drainage B. Progressive hypoxia C. Increased perfusion D. * Increased oxygen tension E. Sludging of blood in alveolar capillaries 295. Healed lesions in primary tuberculosis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Fibrous incapsulation B. * Caseous pneumonia C. Fibrocalcific scar D. Foci of ossification E. Focal pleural adhesions 296. Impairment of bronchociliary function in influenza results in which of the following: A. Fungal superinfection B. * Bacterial superinfection C. Protozoal superinfection D. Mycoplasmal superinfection E. Chlamydial superinfection 297. The common morphologic feature seen in the skin vessels in epidemic typhus fever is which of the following: A. Abscess B. Hyaline thrombus C. Caseous necrosis D. * VascuIitis E. Hemangioma 298. Influenza tracheitis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Hyperemic and swollen mucosa B. * Purulent exudate C. Narrowing of trachea lumen D. Pinpoint hemorrhages E. Grey-yellow mucosa covering films within trachea 299. Influenza virus of type A infects all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Horses B. Humans C. Pigs D. * Dogs E. Birds 300. Renal pathology that can be found in patients with scarlet fever is which of the following; A. * Glomerulonephritis B. Pyelonephritis C. Amyloidosis D. Glomerulosclerosis E. Lipoid nephrosis 301. Macrophages in tuberculous granulomatous inflammation can transform into which of the following cells: A. Monocytes B. Epithelial cells C. * Epithelioid cells D. Plasma cells E. Lymphocytes 302. Measles virus is transmitted by which of the following: A. Milk B. Food C. * Respiratory droplets D. Feces E. Blood 303. Measles virus multiplies inside all of the following cells, EXCEPT: A. Upper respiratory epithelial cells B. B lymphocytes C. Macrophages D. T lymphocytes E. * Hepatocytes 304. Meningococcal meningitis is most commonly characterized by which of the following types of inflammation: A. Serous B. * Purulent C. Fibrinous D. Granulomatous E. Catarrhal 305. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis is characterized by which of the following types of inflammation: A. * Catarrhal B. Serous C. Fibrinous D. Purulent E. Diphtherial 306. Microscopic features in diphtheria include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Neutrophilic infiltration B. Vascular congestion C. Interstitial edema D. * Hyaline deposition E. Fibrin exudation 307. Miliary tuberculosis is associated with which of the following pathologic conditions: A. Reinfection B. Localized caseation in the lungs C. Localized caseation in the lymph node D. Primary infection E. * Hematogenous tuberculosis 308. Morphologically, measles pneumonia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse neutrophil infiltration of the bronchiolar walls B. Destruction of some fragments of bronchiolar walls and squamous cell metaplasia C. Exudate with giant cells in the adjacent alveoli D. Interstitial lung inflammation E. * Large areas of hemorrhage in lung tissue 309. Morphology of influenza pneumonia is characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse neutrophil infiltration of the bronchiolar walls B. Dense fibrin-rich neutrophil exudate into adjacent alveoli C. Foci of necrosis and hemorrhages in lung tissue D. * Granuloma formation in bronchiolar walls E. Foci of necrosis and ulceration in bronchiolar mucosa 310. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. * Pili-forming B. Aerobic C. Non-spore-forming D. Nonmotile E. Red colored in acid-fast staining 311. Nervous system pathology in diphtheria includes which of the following: A. Intracerebral hemorrhage B. Ischemic necrosis C. Hydrocephalus D. * Polyneuritis E. Encephalitis 312. Caseous focus in tuberculosis may progress into a cavity in which of the following pathologic conditions: A. Reactivation of dormant disease B. Reinfection C. * Erosion into the bronchiole (drainage) D. Lobar exudate consolidation E. Caseous pneumonia 313. Diphtheria damage of the larynx is characterized by which of the following types of inflammation: A. Serous B. Catarrhal C. * Fibrinous D. Granulomatous E. Hemorrhagic 314. The type of necrosis that can be found in tuberculous granuloma is which of the following: A. Coagulation necrosis B. Liquefactive necrosis C. * Caseous necrosis D. Enzymatic fat necrosis E. Fibrinoid necrosis 315. The liver may be affected in which of the following forms of tuberculosis: A. Secondary tuberculosis B. Cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis C. Dormant tuberculosis D. Primary tuberculosis complex E. * Miliary tuberculosis 316. On gross examination, measles pneumonia is characterized by which of the following: A. Cavities B. Foci of necrosis C. Microbe colonies D. * Leukocyte infiltration E. Lymphocyte infiltration F. Edema of the tissue 317. On gross examination, measles pneumonia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Small grey-white foci in the lung B. Peribronchial localization of foci C. * Subpleural localization of foci D. Firm consistence of inflammatory foci E. Pus containing foci 318. On intracutaneous injection of tuberculin in an individual previously exposed to tubercle bacilli arise all immunopathologic processes, EXCEPT: A. * Release of CCb, the opsonin that promotes phagocytosis of microorganisms B. Interaction of memory THA cells with the antigen on the surface antigen- presenting cells C. Activation of THA cells D. Blast transformation of THA cells E. Proliferation of THA cells 319. Pathogenetic mechanisms of cell injury in infectious diseases are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Direct cell damage B. Indirect cell damage by release of toxins C. Indirect cell damage by release of enzymes D. Indirect cell damage by induction of killer effect E. * Direct cell damage by reduction of host responses 320. Pathological feature in the skin found in meningococcemia is which of the following: A. Erythematous rash B. * Hemorrhagic rash C. Furuncle D. Impetigo E. Koplic spots 321. Pathological feature that can be found in the heart in diphtheria is which of the following: A. Fibrinous pericarditis B. * Toxic myocarditis C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Myocardial infarction E. Heart aneurysm 322. Peribronchial pneumonia in measles often results in which of the following complications: A. Peripheral lung tumor B. Central lung tumor C. Hemosiderosis of the lung D. * Bronchiectasis E. Lung gangrene 323. Primary complex in tuberculosis may directly transform in all of the following pathologic conditions, EXCEPT: A. Fibrocalcific scars B. Latent pulmonary lesions C. * Miliary tuberculosis D. Latent extrapulmonary lesions E. Progressive primary tuberculosis 324. Prolonged bronchiectasis may result in which of the following derangements of protein metabolism: A. Primary amyloidosis B. Systemic hyalinosis C. * Secondary amyloidosis D. Mucoid changes E. Fibrinoid changes 325. Secondary tuberculosis is characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Caseous necrosis and cavities in the lung B. * Primary focus in the lung C. Reinfection with Mycobacteria D. Reactivation of dormant disease E. Progression directly into the disseminated disease 326. Severe destruction of vertebrae in spine tuberculosis may result in all of the following pathologic conditions, EXCEPT: A. Permanent compression fractures B. Scoliotic deformities C. * Drainage tract (sequestrum) forming D. Kyphotic deformities E. Neurologic deficits 327. Substances that prevent complete phagocytosis of Mycobacterium tuberculosis by macrophages and induce delayed type hypersensitivity are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Cord factor B. * Interleukin C. Lipoarabinomanan (LAM) D. Heart-shock protein E. Activated complement 328. The cause of measles development is which of the following: A. RNA virus of the retrovirus family B. * RNA virus of the paramyxovirus family C. DNA virus of the picornavirus family D. DNA virus of the adenovirus family E. RNA virus of the togavirus family 329. The cause of poliomyelitis development is which of the following: A. RNA virus of the retrovirus family B. RNA virus of the paramyxovirus family C. * DNA virus of the picornavirus family D. DNA virus of the adenovirus family E. RNA virus of the togavirus family 330. The causes of death in meningococcemia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Acute adrenal insufficiency B. Bacterial shock C. Acute tubular necrosis D. Acute heart failure E. * Cerebral cachexia 331. The cavity in cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis is characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Localized in the apex of the lung B. Lined by yellow-grey caseous material C. Walled by fibrous tissue D. Drained by bronchus E. * Filled with suppurative exudate 332. The cells playing the most important role in chronic tuberculous inflammation are which of the following: A. * Macrophages B. Leukocytes C. Eosinophils D. Erythrocytes E. Plasma cells 333. The complications of scarlet fever include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Poststreptococcal glomeru-lonephritis B. Retropharyngeal abscess C. Purulent mastoiditis D. * Acute poststreptococcal hepatitis E. Phlegmon of the neck 334. The disease causing predominant derangement of the upper airways is which of the following: A. Bacterial pneumonia B. * Diphtheria C. Meningococcal nasopharyngitis D. Cholera E. Tuberculosis 335. The disease characterized by the loss of motor neurons and flaccid paralysis with muscle wasting and hyporeflexia is which of the following: A. Intracerebral hemorrhage B. Graves disease C. * Poliomyelitis D. Meningoencephalitis E. Diabetes mellitus 336. The electron micrograph of epithelial cells infected by influenza virus is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Presense of influenza virus particles B. Hyperchromatic and enlarged nuclei C. * Displasia of epithelial cells D. Dilation of cysterns of endoplasmic reticulum E. Large vacuoles 337. The granuloma in tuberculosis is composed predominantly of which of the following cells: A. Fibroblasts B. * Epithelioid cells C. Eosinophils D. Plasma cells E. Neutrophils 338. The infectious agent causing meningococcal infection is which of the following: A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Corynebacterium D. Viruses E. * Dyplococcus 339. The intestine may be affected in which of the following forms of tuberculosis: A. Secondary tuberculosis B. Cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis C. Dormant tuberculosis D. * Primary tuberculosis complex E. Miliary tuberculosis 340. The measles rash results from which of the following: A. Nonimmune inflammation B. Delayed — type hypersensitivity C. Systemic immune complex reaction D. * T-cell — mediated immunity E. Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction 341. The meningococcal infection includes all of the following forms, EXCEPT: A. Nasopharyngitis B. Pyogenic meningitis C. Meningococcemia D. * Pyogenic encephalitis E. Chronic meningitis 342. The miliary lung tuberculosis is characterized by which type of inflammation: A. * Granulomatous B. Serous C. Fibrinous D. Suppurative E. Hemorrhagic 343. The most common cause of death in patients with diphtheria is which of the following: A. * Acute heart failure B. Chronic heart failure C. Chronic lung failure D. Acute tubular necrosis E. Intracerebral hemorrhage 344. The most common sites of skeletal tuberculosis involvement are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. * Skull bones B. Thoracic vertebrae C. Lumbar vertebrae D. Knees E. Hips 345. The pathologic change seen in the spinal cord in poliomyelitis is which of the following: A. * Neuronophagia of the anterior horns motor neurons B. Large hematoma C. Hemosiderosis of the anterior horns motor neurons D. Lipofuscinosis of the posterior horns motor neurons E. Amyloidosis of the posterior horns motor neurons 346. The pathologic changes seen in the spinal cord in poliomyelitis are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Mononuclear cell perivascular cuffs B. Neuronophagia of the anterior horns motor neurons C. Inflammation extension into the posterior horns D. * Abscess formation E. Cavitation 347. The possible causes of chronicity of inflammation in tuberculosis are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. B. C. D. E. Persistence of certain microorganisms Prolonged exposure to toxic agents Incomplete phagocytosis * Complete phagocytosis Resistance of etiologic agent 348. The severe form of measles pneumonia is characterized by which of the following: A. Foci of hemorrhagic inflammation B. Catarrhal bronchitis C. * Destructive panbronchitis D. Caseous necrosis E. Granulomatous inflammation 349. The severe form of measles pneumonia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Destructive panbronchitis B. Interstitial mononuclear infiltration C. Foci of suppurative inflammation D. Measles giant cells in the alveoli E. * Catarrhal bronchitis 350. The spine tuberculosis breaking through intervertebral discs and extending into the soft tissue with cold abscess forming is also referred to as: A. Paget's disease B. * Pott's disease C. Gohn complex D. Reinfection focus E. Dormant disease 351. The stain used to identify the causative organism in pyogenic meningitis is which of the following: A. Hematoxylin and eosin B. PAS-reaction C. * Gram D. Congo red E. Weigert's 352. The term "Koplik spots" referes to which of the following: A. Ulcerated gastric mucosal lesions B. Foci of granulomatous inflammation of the oral cavity C. Foci of purulent inflammation in the skin D. Ulcerated esophageal mucosal lesions E. * Ulcerated mucosal lesions in the oral cavity 353. The type of immune response initiated in tuberculosis is which of the following: A. Direct cell cytotoxicity reaction mediated by CDD T-cells B. * Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction mediated by CDD T- cells C. Complement-dependent reaction D. Antibody-mediated cellular dysfunction E. Antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity 354. Tuberculoma is macroscopically characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Intraparenchymal single mass B. Greyish-white appearance C. Well-circumscribed mass D. Several centimeters in diameter E. * Several millimeters in diameter 355. Tuberculous salpingitis can be found in which of the following forms of tuberculosis: A. Secondary tuberculosis B. Cavitary fibrocaseous tuberculosis C. Dormant lesions D. * Miliary tuberculosis E. Primary tuberculosis 356. The common morphologic features seen in the skin vessels in epidemic typhus fever are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Endothelial cell proliferation B. Thrombi C. Hemorrhages D. * Caseous necrosis E. Vasculitis 357. Typical tuberculous granuloma is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. * Plasma cells B. Area of central necrosis C. Epithelioid cells D. Langhans-type giant cells E. Lymphocytes 358. Ulcerated mucosal lesions in the oral cavity near the opening of Stensen ducts are referred to as: A. * Koplik spots B. Luschka spots C. Burkitt spots D. Paget spots E. Vegetations 359. Viruses can penetrate into the cell cytoplasm through all of the following mechanisms, EXCEPT: A. Translocation of the virus across the plasma membrane B. Fusion of the viral envelope with the cell membrane C. Receptor-mediated endocytosis of the virus D. Fusion with endosomal membranes E. * Virus apoptosis 360. According to the topography of the process in the stomach distinguish chronic gastritis: A. pyloric; B. small gastric curvature; C. large gastric curvature D. piloro-antral E. * pangastritis 361. According to the topography of the process in the stomach distinguish chronic gastritis: A. gastritis large curvature; B. small gastric curvature; C. pyloric D. cardial E. * fundal part; 362. According to the topography of the process in the stomach with chronic gastritis is: A. small gastric curvature; B. gastritis large curvature; C. pyloric. D. cardial E. * antral; 363. Acute appendicitis characterized by next morphological form as: A. alterative; B. dystrophic; C. productive; D. atrophic E. * destructive 364. Acute appendicitis characterized by next morphological form as: A. deep B. frontal; C. complex; D. false E. * superficial. 365. Acute appendicitis characterized by next morphological form as: A. dystrophic; B. complex; C. combined D. complex E. * simple; 366. According to clinic-morphological classification Acute virus hepatitis can be: A. fibrinous and necrotic B. alterative and fibrinous C. interstitial and fibrinous D. complex E. * cyclic and necrotic 367. Appendicitis is caused by: A. exogenous infection; B. chemical factors; C. physical factors. D. radiation E. * activated enterogenic autoinfection; 368. They are distinguish aggressive chronic hepatitis, in which prevails: A. fibrosis hepatocytes B. hyalinosis hepatocytes C. sclerosis hepatocytes D. total fatty dystrophy E. * dystrophy and necrosis of hepatocytes 369. They are distinguish chronic cholestatic hepatitis, characterized by: A. hyalinosis hepatocytes; B. sclerosis hepatocytes; C. fibrosis hepatocytes D. "Muscat liver" E. * cholestasis, cholangitis and cholangiolitis 370. They are distinguish chronic cholestatic hepatitis, characterized by: A. hyalinosis hepatocytes B. sclerosis hepatocytes C. fibrosis hepatocytes D. disintegration of erythrocytes in vessels segments E. * cholestasis, cholangitis and holanhiolitom 371. They are distinguish chronic persistent hepatitis, in which prevails: A. sclerosis hepatocytes B. hyalinosis hepatocytes C. fibrosis hepatocytes D. necrosis of hepatocytes E. * cell infiltration of portal zones and intralobulus stroma 372. What artificial particles are differed at cirrhosis: A. largest B. placed C. hyperchromic D. presence of fat droplets E. * broken angioarchitectonics 373. As a result of chronic alcoholic hepatitis, disorders of nutrition and metabolism occurs: A. necrotic cirrhosis B. atrophic cirrhosis C. biliary cirrhosis D. posttoxic cirrhosis E. * portal cirrhosis 374. Autoimmune gastritis is characterized by the presence of antibodies to parietal cells and is damaged: A. antral stomach B. pyloric stomach C. piloro-antral stomach D. gastric body E. fundal portion 375. Autoimmunization at viral hepatitis associated with: A. specific liver tromboplast B. liver specific albumin C. specific liver trombogen D. basis of virus protein E. * liver specific lipoprotein 376. Bottom of acute ulcer is gray-black color due to impurities: A. hemosiderin; B. hemomelanin; C. hematoidin D. hemoporfiryn E. * hematin hydrochloride; 377. The destructive appendicitis includes: A. catarrhal inflammation; B. surface inflammation; C. serous inflammation D. fibrinous inflammation E. * abscess; 378. Chronic hepatitis is characterized by: A. destruction of stroma, parenchyma cell infiltration, sclerosis B. destruction, stromal cell infiltration, altered regeneration C. cell infiltration of parenchyma & stroma, sclerosis D. collapse and necrosis of hepatocytes E. * destruction of parenchyma, stromal cell infiltration, sclerosis and altered regeneration 379. Combined ulcer complications are characterized: A. sequential multiple complications B. presence of only three complications in patients C. presence of only three more complications, which change each other D. change rapidly progressive stages of disease E. * combination of several variants of complications 380. According to particular morphological changes in gastric mucosa there is next form of acute gastritis: A. cirrhotic B. fibrotic C. adenomatous D. hyperplastic E. * fibrinous 381. Have many time does the toxic liver dystrophy continue? A. 1 year B. 2 months C. 5 months D. about 1 week E. * about three weeks 382. During the first days at the toxic liver dystrophy characterized by fatty dystrophy of hepatocytes of ... A. periphery B. around vessels C. around ducts D. total dystrophy E. * in center lobular area 383. During the first days in toxic liver dystrophy characterized by fatty dystrophy of hepatocytes in the center lobular area, then it quickly change into: A. sclerosis B. hyalinosis C. fibrosis D. cirrhosis E. * necrosis and autolysis collapse 384. Fecal mass in patients with bleeding from peptic ulcer is characterized by specific color and consistency. They have name ... A. coffee grounds B. raspberry jelly; C. metrorrhahia D. epistaxis E. * melena 385. Some chronic gastritis characterized by the presence of antibodies to gastric parietal cells in blood. This is ... A. reflux gastritis B. focal acute gastritis C. Helicobacter-associated chronic gastritis D. acute diffuse gastritis E. * autoimmune chronic gastritis 386. Formation of false particles in liver cirrhosis leads to: A. necrosis of hepatocytes B. sclerosis hepatocytes C. communities hemosyderosis D. ischemic foci E. * disturbed circulation in the liver 387. Gross mucous resembles Crohn's disease: A. island; B. track; C. conical cavity D. Multiple cavity like plates E. * pavement; 388. In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage: A. Yellow hypertrophy B. Yellow hypothrophy C. Yellow gonadal D. amiloidosis E. * yellow atrophy 389. In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage: A. Yellow hypertrophy B. Yellow hypothrophy C. Yellow gonadal D. yellow necrosis E. * yellow atrophy 390. In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage: A. B. C. D. E. 391. 392. 393. 394. 395. 396. 397. red aplasia red anaplasia red agenesia red infarct * red atrophy In the course of toxic liver dystrophy distinguish stage: A. cicatrization B. restitution C. substitution D. vascularization E. * restoration In the red stage dystrophy in toxic liver dystrophy becomes: A. gray B. muscat C. fat D. green E. * yellow with a red spots In the red stage dystrophy in toxic liver dystrophy often develops: A. renal failure B. heart failure C. cholangiocellular failure D. DIC syndrome E. * liver failure In ulcer-destructive ulcer complications include: A. stenosis; B. tetania; C. chlorhidropenia D. malignization E. * bleeding; In viral hepatitis liver cells damaged by the mechanism: A. apoptosis B. response alternatives C. anaphylactic reaction D. hypoxia E. * slow-type hypersensitivity Inflammation, which extended into all stomach layers is called: A. Massive gastritis B. diffuse gastritis C. widespread gastritis D. total gastritis E. * pangastritis Liver in toxic dystrophy becomes less feeble, yellow comes in stages: A. red atrophy B. Sclerosis C. fibrosis D. necrotic foci E. * yellow atrophy 398. Overgrowth of connective tissue on the course portal tracts in the form of sprouts, the penetration of particles in the liver, dividing them into small artificial characteristic: A. necrotic cirrhosis B. toxic cirrhosis C. biliary cirrhosis D. focal hepatic E. * portal cirrhosis 399. Precancerous stomach are: A. sharp erosion surface B. ulcer C. acute catarrhal gastritis D. Chronic hypertrophic gastritis E. * chronic atrophic gastritis 400. Precancerous stomach are: A. sharp erosion surface B. ulcer C. acute catarrhal gastritis D. carcinomatosis E. * chronic gastric ulcer 401. Precancerous stomach are: A. sharp erosion surface B. ulcer C. acute catarrhal gastritis D. intestinal metaplasia E. * severe dysplasia of gastric mucosal epithelium. 402. Primary biliary cirrhosis is the result: A. calculous cholecystitis B. abscessed cholecystitis C. purulent hepatitis hranulematoznoho D. toxic liver dystrophy E. * aseptic destructive (necrotizing), cholangitis and cholangiolitis 403. Primary hepatitis occurs following: A. bacteria B. mushrooms C. simpler D. Streptococci E. * Hepatotropic viruses 404. Primary hepatitis occurs following: A. bacteria B. mushrooms C. simpler D. staphylococci E. * Alcohol 405. Primary hepatitis occurs following: A. bacteria B. mushrooms 406. 407. 408. 409. 410. 411. 412. 413. C. simpler D. Streptococci E. * drugs Primary hepatitis occurs following: A. bacteria B. mushrooms C. simpler D. staphylococci E. * stagnation of bile Secondary biliary cirrhosis caused by: A. hepatitis B. alcoholic hepatitis C. active hepatitis D. excess copper in the blood E. * cholestasis due to extrahepatic biliary tract obstruction (stone, tumor) Secondary biliary cirrhosis caused by: A. hepatitis B. alcoholic hepatitis C. active hepatitis D. chronic lead intoxication E. * biliary tract infection (cholangiolitic cirrhosis) The basis of cirrhosis is: A. dystrophy portal tracts B. necrosis of bile duct epithelium C. necrosis and regeneration of pathological bile duct epithelium D. hepatic vascular hyalinosis E. * dystrophy and necrosis of hepatocytes The death of hepatocytes in cirrhosis leads to: A. Pathologic restitution portal tracts B. incomplete substitution of hepatocytes C. hyperplasia and hypertrophy of hepatic bile ducts D. liver infarctions E. * enhanced regeneration of stored parenchyma The liver in primary biliary cirrhosis: A. not increased red B. increased brown-red C. increased yellow D. gray-red, reduced E. * increased in terms of gray-green The liver in secondary biliary cirrhosis: A. brown due to hemosiderin B. red due to diapedesis of erythrocytes C. yellow color due to fat accumulation in hepatocytes D. gray with a red spots E. * green due to bile soaking The signs of aggravation of peptic ulcer is the appearance: A. hyalinosic ulcer B. C. D. E. sclerosis during ulcer; amyloid cells in the edges of ulcers metaplasia mucosa at the edges of ulcers * fibrynoid changes of vascular walls ulcer; 414. Violation of circulation in liver cirrhosis is increasing hypoxia, which leads to: A. necrobiotic processes in hepatocytes B. portal hypertension C. local hypertrophy D. venous plethora E. * dystrophy and death of hepatocytes, regenerate the nodes, enhanced overgrowth of connective tissue 415. Viral hepatitis - a disease caused by: A. hepatogenic viruses B. tixotropic viruses C. hepatocellular viruses D. AIDS virus E. * hepatotropic viruses 416. When ulcer healing source of stomach forms in its place: A. surface erosion B. severe erosion, resulting substitution C. partial epithelization, as a consequence of substitution D. focal metaplasia E. * rough scar, which often leads to stenosis of pylorus 417. A study area with fibrotic inflamed pulp, revealed that cellular infiltration consisting of: A. erythrocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes B. eosinophil, mast cells, neutrophils C. lymphocytes, mast cells, macrophages D. * lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells E. lymphocyte, eosinophil, plasma cell 418. Among age groups are usually observed the development of cement caries? A. in boys B. girls C. in pregnant women D. * in older people E. equally in the groups listed 419. Among the types of dental stone are: A. fisuric and contact B. acute and chronic C. local and distributed D. surface and deep E. * supragingival and subgingival 420. At what degree of fluorosis dentine begins to collapse? A. 1st B. 2nd C. * 3rd D. 4th E. 5th 421. At what stage of caries begins to form a cavity in the tooth? A. surface caries B. stage spot C. stage progression D. * average caries E. deep caries 422. Caries development stage begins ... A. stage of enamel demineralization B. surface caries C. chemical changes D. * stage spot E. stage alteration 423. Cement caries usually occurs in ... A. boys B. girls C. * seniors D. pregnant women E. equally in all groups listed 424. Chalk pigmentation spots associated with the accumulation of tyrosine, which becomes: A. triiodthyronine B. thyreotropin C. Adenosine-3-phosphate D. * melanin E. hemosiderin 425. Chronic pulpitis has the following form ... A. serous B. fibrinous C. abscessed D. * hranulyuyuchyy E. Progressive 426. Developing fluorosis in areas where fluoride content in water and food than A. 0. 7 mg / l B. 1 mg / l C. 1. 2 mg / l D. * 2 mg / l E. 4 mg / l 427. Development of a typical medium caries is within ... A. 2 / 3 of the surface area of enameling B. enamel and cement C. * dentin D. dental pulp E. half crown 428. Development of caries in occlusal surface explains ... A. Bacterial theory B. acid theory C. metabolitna theory D. * proteolytic theory E. hormonal theory 429. Disease process in which the demineralization and destruction of hard tooth tissues with formation of a defect - is: A. * caries B. hyperftorosis C. tooth erosion D. pulpitis E. periodontitis 430. Dispersal of cement when it caries entitled: A. hipertsementoz B. cementoma C. * cementolisis D. cementoblastoma E. all of these terms are synonymous 431. Favorable background for dental carious lesions are ... A. hypersecretion of saliva B. use hard toothbrushes C. regular use of chewing gum D. * sexual maturation E. nothing from the above 432. Favorable background of wedge defects of the tooth is ... A. salivary gland disease B. Staff bone disease C. oral disease D. * Gastrointestinal Tract E. nothing among the above 433. Fluorosis - is ... A. * endemic B. occupational illness C. iatrogenic disease D. metabolic diseases E. hormonal diseases 434. Fluorosis 3 degrees is called ... A. poor lesion B. * moderately expressed affection C. heavy damage D. stage complications E. in the development of fluorosis no stadiynosti 435. Fluorosis a first degree is called ... A. poor lesion B. * very weak damage C. moderately expressed affection 436. 437. 438. 439. 440. 441. 442. 443. D. heavy damage E. stage complications Fluorosis in its development is ... A. 5 degrees B. * 4 degrees C. 3 degrees D. 2 degrees E. No degrees of separation Fluorosis two first degree is called ... A. * poor lesion B. very weak damage C. moderately expressed affection D. heavy damage E. stage complications Formation of irregular carious dentin during cavity - a manifestation: A. metaplasia B. compensatory hypertrophy C. physiological regeneration D. * reparative regeneration E. malignization Frequently localization of caries? A. Bicuspid B. * Molar upper jaw C. Cutters D. Fangs E. Mandibular molar Frequently localization parodontosis: A. In the incisors B. In the canines C. In the bicuspid D. In the upper jaw molars E. * In the incisors and canines How is the secondary dentine of the primary? A. * degree of mineralization and structural structure B. location C. absence of cellular elements D. no different E. no such structure in the teeth How many stages of development of caries you know? A. 2 stage B. 3 stages C. * 4 stage D. 5 stage E. its development has not stages In the majority of tooth decay begins ... A. bicuspid B. * molars of the upper jaw 444. 445. 446. 447. 448. 449. 450. 451. C. cutter D. iklah E. mandibular molars In what is developing within typical average caries? A. 2 / 3 of the surface area of enameling B. pathological process extends to the enamel and cement C. * process passes to dentine D. is in the process of destruction of the tooth pulp E. destroyed half crown In which areas are placed interstitial dentykle? A. pulp B. on the border between dentin and enamel of the tooth C. * middle weight dentin D. near the tooth root E. among sponge trabecula jaw In which parts of a tooth caries development is the fastest? A. * in dentin B. in pulp C. in cement D. in enamel E. no data Most tooth decay affects: A. fangs B. Cutters C. * first big teeth D. 2nd tricuspid teeth E. small teeth Name the morphological features of dentin regeneration? A. * randomly placed dentyn tubules B. high content of fluorine and calcium in its structure C. lack of it prisms D. high content of loose connective tissue in its structures E. broken relationship between cells and intercellular substance Name the factors of fluorosis ... A. genetic metabolic B. Professional harmful effects on the body C. violation of mineral metabolism D. insufficient flow of fluoride in the body E. * increased arrivals of fluoride in the body Name the place where are most often dentykles situate. A. molars of deciduous teeth B. provisional bicuspid teeth C. canines of the upper jaw D. Permanent bicuspid teeth E. * molars of permanent teeth Uncariose damages of hard tooth tissues include ... A. periodontitis B. C. D. E. pulpitis gingivitis * enamel hypoplasia hypertsementosis 452. Nomenclature name soft tissue of the tooth A. stroma B. * pulp C. dentine D. spongy bone tissue E. keloid 453. Often causes the development of flux: A. * Acute apical periodontitis B. Gangrenous pulpitis C. Fibrous pulpitis D. Catarrhal gingivitis E. Periodontal disease 454. One of the factors forming the transparent dentin is an excessive delay in dentin channels A. fluoride salts B. acids C. * calcium salts D. phosphorus salts E. microorganisms 455. One of the main etiofactor of caries development is ... A. * bacteria B. Viruses C. simple D. chemical damage to teeth E. physical damage to teeth 456. One of the most common causes of periodontitis are: A. * gingivitis B. fluorosis C. acute pulpitis D. chronic pulpitis E. caries 457. One option caries, which is characterized by local dissolution of enamel is ... A. circular caries B. early caries C. lateral tooth decay D. retrograde caries E. * stationary caries 458. Periodontal disease - a chronic periodontal disease: A. Inflammatory nature B. Alternatives character C. Tumor disease D. * Primary-dystrophic diseases 459. 460. 461. 462. 463. 464. 465. 466. E. Secondary-dystrophic diseases Periodontitis often affects ... A. upper incisors B. lower incisors C. bicuspid D. * lower molars E. upper molars Predecessor plaque on the teeth ... A. * Dental plaque B. pelikule C. cuticle D. tartar E. bacteria Primary cause of tooth erosion are ... A. mechanical damage to the enamel chewing B. thermal damage to the enamel C. changes the chemical composition of saliva D. professional Damage E. * disease is kryptogenuc Reactive changes include pulp A. * atrophy, dystrophy, necrosis B. necrosis, caries, periodontitis C. dentykli, atrophy, pulpitis D. atrophy, dystrophy, caries E. pulpitis, periodontitis, caries Resorption of bone tissue disease caused by cells in periodontitis: A. osteoblasts B. osteocyte C. * osteoclast D. plasma E. macrophages Synonymous with the diagnosis "subenamelum caries" are: A. circular caries B. * early caries C. lateral tooth decay D. stationary caries E. retrograde caries Tell the tooth surface which has the greatest resistance against caries A. contact distal B. proximal contact C. buccal D. * lingual E. chewing The concept of early caries means ... A. caries development in milk teeth B. caries development shortly after cuttings permanent teeth C. shortly after the development of caries teeth cuttings 467. 468. 469. 470. 471. 472. 473. 474. D. development of caries in children in July 1910 age E. * development of caries directly under a layer of enamel The concept of retrograde cavities means ... A. development of caries in the back teeth B. development of caries from the back surface of the tooth contact C. * development of caries with dental pulp D. development of dental caries cement E. development of caries from the enamel layer The development of caries on the smooth surface of the tooth explains ... A. Bacterial theory B. * acid theory C. proteolytic theory D. metabolitic theory E. hormonal theory The development of fluorosis caused by excessive amount in the body ... A. calcium B. phosphorus C. * fluorine D. boron E. iron The development of fluorosis share on ... A. 2 degrees B. 3 degrees C. * 4 degrees D. 5 degrees E. No degrees of separation The earliest stage of development of caries are: A. surface caries B. * Stage Spot C. stage progression D. secondary caries E. deep caries The first stage of caries - a ... A. surface caries B. prekariyes C. initial caries D. fisurnyy caries E. * Stage Spot The most common cause of periodontitis are: A. caries B. * gingivitis C. acute pulpitis D. chronic pulpitis E. fluorosis The presence of excessive number of cavities in parotynum ... A. serves as a catalyst B. accelerated destruction of hyperactivity in microbial hialuronidazy C. accelerates fracture between teeth changes D. * slows the destruction of tooth E. not affect the course of caries 475. The reason most often speaks of flux ... A. * acute apical periodontitis B. gangrenous pulpitis C. fibrotic pulpitis D. catarrhal gingivitis E. parodontosis 476. Through many stages of development is caries? A. 2 B. 3 C. * 4 D. 5 E. its development has stages 477. Transparent dentine formed as a result of excessive delay in dentynnyh channels A. microorganisms B. acids C. * calcium salts D. fluoride salts E. phosphorus salts 478. Trophic damaged dentin and organic matter on soil development cause disease alimentary canal A. fluorosis B. * wedge-shaped defects of hard tissue C. erosion of teeth D. acid hard tissue necrosis E. pulpitis 479. What characterized retrograde cavities? A. distribution of root caries with cement on the neck and enamel crown B. * carious damage passes from the enamel dentine C. carious tooth root damage only D. inflammation occurs in the root canal E. only damaged tooth pulp 480. What characterized the stationary tooth decay? A. disease progresses rapidly to stay in a stationary office B. caries developed as iatrogenic disease etiology C. * carious damage is progressing D. damage only large molar teeth E. no such cavities 481. What does dentycle formed in tooth? A. pulp B. primary dentin C. * secondary dentin D. peryodontium E. rudimentary elements of permanent teeth 482. 483. 484. 485. 486. 487. 488. 489. What is the criterion of secondary dentin differences from the original? A. * degree of mineralization and structural building B. location C. presence or absence of cellular elements D. no different E. no such structure in the teeth What is the etiological factor of caries? A. Viruses B. simple C. * bacteria D. chemical damage to teeth E. physical damage to teeth What is the first manifestation of caries? A. appearance of black spots on tooth enamel B. appearance of brown stains on tooth enamel C. * appearance of white opaque spots on tooth enamel D. appearance of radial cracks oriented E. appearance of small black enamel erosion What is the initial phase of wedge defects in tooth? A. traumatic damage to the chewing B. * trophic disorders of organic matter in enamel and dentin C. Acidic chemical influences D. alkaline chemical attack E. significant temperature differences What is the precursor to plaque? A. pelikula B. * Dental plaque C. cuticle D. tartar E. bacteria What regenerative dentine morphologically different from the typical? A. prevailing lack of prisms B. high levels of fluoride and calcium in the structures C. * chaotic arrangement of dentine tubules D. high content of loose connective tissue structures E. abnormal ratio between cells and intercellular substance What special stationary development of caries? A. develops after medical interventions on teeth B. develops when patients stay in hospital inpatient C. * localized only in enamel and progresses D. developing in the rudiments of permanent teeth E. no such option caries When excess in the body develops a chemical element fluorosis? A. phosphorus B. boron C. iron D. * fluorine 490. 491. 492. 493. 494. 495. 496. 497. E. calcium Which teeth are most often found dentykli? A. molars of deciduous teeth B. provisional bicuspid teeth C. canines of the upper jaw D. * molars of permanent teeth E. Permanent bicuspid teeth Why developing fluorosis? A. a genetic metabolic B. through professional detrimental effects on the body C. for violations of mineral metabolism D. insufficient flow through the body fluorine E. * through increased revenues of fluoride in the body 3 rd degree of fluorosis was named ... A. very weak damage B. poor lesion C. * moderately expressed affection D. heavy damage E. stage complications 4-th degree of fluorosis was named ... A. poor lesion B. very weak damage C. moderately expressed affection D. * heavy damage E. stage complications According to etiology, acid teeth hard tissue necrosis is ... A. infections B. * occupational diseases C. hereditary diseases D. polyetiologic disease E. idiopathic disease Acid necrosis hard tissue of teeth in its etiology - is: A. * occupational illness B. infectious diseases C. hereditary pathology D. unexplained etiology E. vascular disease Acid tooth hard tissue necrosis affects categories of people ... A. chewing tobacco abusers B. abusers products that canned acids C. with low pH of saliva D. * advancement in contact with mineral acids E. no dependence Acute apical periodontitis is inflammation of the form: A. Granulematous B. * Suppurative C. Fibrinous D. Alternatives E. Productive derivative 498. Against the background of digestive diseases frequently developing trophic damage of organic matter and dentin entitled A. fluorosis B. * cuneiform hard tissue defects C. erosion of teeth D. acid hard tissue necrosis E. pulpitis 499. At what stage is formed carious cavities? A. Stage Spot B. surface caries C. * secondary caries D. stage progression E. deep caries 500. A follicle cyst develops from: A. * enamel organ of tooth which was not cut B. Granulation tissue C. Fibrotic tissue D. Inflammatory infitration E. From the wall of chronic abscess 501. A follicle cyst more frequently is combined: A. with the first premolar B. * with the second premolar C. with the first molar D. with the second molar E. with the lower incisiva-tooth 502. A follicle cyst more frequently is combined: A. with the first premolar B. * with the third molar C. with the first molar D. with the second molar E. with the lower incisiva-tooth 503. A follicle cyst more frequently is combined: A. with the first premolar B. * with the lower canina-tooth C. with the first molar D. with the second molar E. with the lower incisiva-tooth 504. A malignant lymphadenoma with typical localization in jaws bones is: A. a Abrikosov's tumor B. * a Bercit's tumor C. a Willms' tumor D. a Sezary tumor E. a Khodjkin's tumor 505. According to the clinic-morphological features the ameloblastomas are: A. * benign tumor B. C. D. E. malignanted benign tumor malignant tumor a tumor with local destructive growth a tumular process 506. Accrding to etiology giant cementoma is a: A. result of trauma B. result of specific inflammatory process C. * inherited disease D. complication of visceral mycosis E. manifestation of chronic radiation illness 507. Adenomatic tumor arises up more often: A. intra-uterine B. at infants and children of the first year-old C. * in the second decade-period of life D. in the people of mature age E. in the old people 508. At a parathyreoid osteodystrophy in the maxillufacial bones to the skeleton is observed: A. * lacunar resorbtion and formation of fibrotic tissue B. specific inflammatory process C. heterospecific inflammatory process D. sequestra formation E. hyperostosis 509. At a paratireoid osteodystrophy in the bones of maxillufacial skeleton is observed: A. * lacunar resorbtion and formation of fibrotic tissue B. specific inflammatory process C. unspecific (heterospecific) inflammatory process D. sequestr formation E. hyperostosis 510. At acuteinig of inflammation in the wall of radicular cyst develops: A. Abscess B. Granulosum C. Necrosis D. * Acanthosis of covering epithelium E. dysplasia of epithelium 511. At histological research of dentinoma it is possible to discover: A. trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium B. immature connecting tissue C. the islets of dysplastic dentine D. * all structures that are marked E. nothing from enumerated 512. At inflammation the radicular cyst cavity can be filling: A. * By granulation tissue B. By fibrotic tissue C. by fibrinosic exsudate D. By necrosis E. By a festering exsudate 513. At the congenital form of uncompleted osteogenesis in bones of maxillufacial skeleton is observed: A. * normal amount of osteocytes and deficiti of basic matter in bones trabecules B. the deficit of osteocytes is expressed C. specific inflammatory process D. aseptic necrosis of bone tissue E. substituting of bone tissue by a cartilage 514. At the histological research of jaw periosteum thay found inflammatory hyperemia, swollen, moderate infiltration by neutrophilic leucocytes. Inflammation developed after a trauma. What process is it? A. * Serosic periostitis B. Festering periostitis C. Fibrotic periostitis D. osteomielitis E. Secondary amyloidosis 515. Character of inflammation acute periostitis is: A. fibrotic B. * serosal, festering C. alterativ, productive D. destructive, hyperplastic E. primary, recidive 516. For a adenomatoid tumor typically is: A. * a odontogenic epithelium forms structures which remind the channels B. atypizm and polymorphism of odontogenic epithelium are expressed C. epidermoid metaplasia of odontogenic epithelium D. metastasis in the regional lymphatic nodes E. all that are enumerated 517. For an ameloblastoma the typically is: A. metastasis by a haematogenic way B. metastasis by a lymphogenic way C. * numerous niduses of bone destruction D. quick growth E. more often is localized in a maxilla 518. For what form of ameloblastoma the typically is epidermoid cell metaplasia with keratin formation? A. follicle B. plexiform C. * akantomatic D. basalcell E. granularcell 519. Histological form of ameloblastoma, which meets more often than other: A. akantomatosal B. * follicle C. basalcell D. roundcell 520. 521. 522. 523. 524. 525. 526. 527. E. granularcell It is possible to see in the internal wall of follicle cyst: A. atypic cells B. osteoblasts C. * mucus productings cells D. Ferrous cells E. All that are enumerated cells Osteomielitis is the: A. * Marrow inflamation of jaws bones B. Festering inflammation of mucus membrane C. Odontogenic antritis D. Odontogenic sepsis E. Secondary amyloidosis Osteomielitis more frequent develops: A. in a maxilla B. * in a mandibula C. frequency of defeat is identical D. at the same time in the maxilla and mandibula E. in a maxilla osteomielit arises up never Periostitis is : A. infectiously-allergic process which develops in a bone B. festering-necrotizing process which develops in a bone C. * an inflammatory process in a periosteum D. inflammatory process which will strike tissues of parodont and spreads on bones structures adjoining to him E. a tumular process is in bone Premordial cyst develops more often in … A. In the area of the first molar B. in the area of the second molar C. * in the area of the third molar D. in the area of the first premolar E. in the area of the second premolar The ameloblastic fibroma is characterized by: A. contains the islets of proliferativ odontogenic epithelium B. contains the fluffy tissue which reminds the tissue of dental papilla C. typical localization is the area of premolar D. developsmore more frequently in in child's and young age E. * all that are enumerated The benign odontogenic tumor of ectodermal origin is: A. * ameloblastoma B. cementoma C. odontogenic carcinoma D. osteoblastoclastoma E. dentinoma The benign odontogenic tumors of mesenchyma origin are: A. ameloblastoma, adenomatic tumor B. * dentinoma, myxoma, cementoma C. odontogenic carcinoma, osteoblastoclastoma D. ameloblastic fibroma, odontoameloblastoma E. all that are enumerated 528. The benign unodontogenic tumor of jaw is: A. ameloblastoma B. odontoameloblastoma C. * osteoblastoclastoma D. osteosarcoma E. all are enumerated 529. The capsule of sequestral cavity is formed by: A. the unchanged bone tissue B. necrotic bone tissue C. * fibred connecting tissue D. granular tissue E. cartilaginous tissue 530. The cells which form the parenchima of osteoblastoclastomas are belonging to: A. * osteogenic B. odontogenic ectodermic origin C. odontogenic mesenchimal origin D. melaninproductors E. ephithelial 531. The clinic-anatomical forms of ameloblastoma is: A. odontogenic and osteogenic B. ectodermal and mesenchimal C. smallnidus and diffuse D. acute and recidivic E. * cystophorous and solid 532. The inflammatory diseases of jaws are: A. * periostitis, osteomielitis B. osteomielitis, osteoma C. cyst,osteoblastoclastoma D. periostitis, paratireoid osteodystrophy E. all that are enumerated disease 533. The internal surface of radicular cyst wall is covered: A. By a ferrous epithelium B. By a transitional epithelium C. * By a multi-layered flat uncarotinized epithelium D. By a multi-layered flat carotinized epithelium E. By fibrotic tissue 534. The internal surface of wall of premordial cyst is covered: A. By mature connecting tissue B. * By a multi-layered flat epithelium C. By a ferrous epithelium D. By a transitional epithelium E. By fluffy connecting tissue 535. The odontogenic epithelium of ameloblastoma contains the numerous acidophilic granules. This is a: A. malignant ameloblastoma B. plexiform form of ameloblastoma C. akantomatic form of ameloblastoma D. basalcell form of ameloblastoma E. * granularcell form of ameloblastoma 536. The odontogenic fibroma is characterized by: A. contains the islets of inactive odontogenic epithelium B. contains the mature connecting tissue C. more frequently meets in senior age-dependent groups D. * all that are enumerated is right E. all that are enumerated is incorrectly 537. The pathognomic sign of cemenomas is: A. a presence of young or mature fibrotic tissue B. * a formation of cementoid matter with the different degree of mineralization C. a presence of trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium D. a presence of trabeculs of odontogenic epithelium with the signs of polymorphism and atypizm E. it contains the islets of dysplastic dentine 538. The primary intracyst carcinoma can develop from: A. the epithelium of mucus membrane of mouth cavity B. * the epithelium of disontogenetic odontogenic cysts C. the odontogenic mesenchyma D. the bone tissue E. can develop from all enumerated structures 539. The primary intracyst carcinoma develops from: A. the epithelium of mucus membrane of mouth cavity B. * the epithelium of Malasse's islets C. the odontogenic mesenchyma D. the bone tissue E. can develop from all enumerated structures 540. The radicular cyst develops as a ressult of: A. acute abscess B. chronic abscess C. acute periodontitis D. * Chronic periodontitis E. Follicle cyst 541. The radicular cyst develops: A. * from a complex granulomas B. From a follicle cyst C. From acute periodontitis D. From an acute abscess E. From a chronic abscess 542. The radicular cyst meets: A. In 20% from all cases B. C. D. E. In 40% from all cases In 50% from all cases In 60% from all cases * In 80% from all cases 543. The typically difference of odontogenic myxoma from the myxomas of other localization is next: A. the base of tumor is formed by mucous mass B. contains the a lot of acid mucopolisaccharides C. * contains the trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium D. a tumor does not metastases E. a tumor is predispositioned to the relapses (recedives) after the surgical delete 544. The wall of sequestral cavity consists of: A. unchanged bone tissue B. granulation tissue C. connective tissue capsule and ephithelial layer D. * connective tissue capsule and pyogenic membrane E. all enumerated variants are possible 545. What changes are present in bone tissue at acute osteomyelitis: A. excrescence of granulation tissue B. sclerosis C. * resorbtion of bones trabecules D. regeneration of bones trabecules E. tissue atipism 546. What form of ameloblastoma according to a histological structure reminds an enamel organ? A. * follicle B. plexiform C. akantomatosal D. basalcell E. granularcell 547. What form of ameloblastoma according to a histological structure reminds a basalcell cancer? A. follicle B. plexiform C. akantomatic D. * basalcell E. granularcell 548. What histological types of cementom do you known? A. * benign cementoblastoma, cementitious fibroma, giant cementoma B. benign cementoblastoma, dentinoma, ameloblastoma C. benign cementoblastoma, cementitious fibroma, odontoameloblastoma D. cementitious fibroma, giganticcells tumor E. all that are enumerated 549. What name of the tumor, which is introduced by the trabecular net of odontogenic epithelium with whimsical branching? A. a follicle form of ameloblastoma B. C. D. E. * a plexiform form of ameloblastoma an akantomatic form of ameloblastoma a basalcell form of ameloblastoma a granularcell form of ameloblastoma 550. What pathomorphological change characterizes odontogenic osteomyelitis most full? A. inflammation of peridont B. inflammation and niduses of peridont destruction C. inflammation and destruction of peridont, festering-inflammatory process in a periosteum D. * festering infiltration of marrow, thrombosis of vessels, festering melting of trombs, area of hemorrhage and osteonecrosis E. festering-inflammatory process in a jaw and surrounding tissues 551. What structure of teeth has the ectodermal origin? A. dentine B. odontoblasts C. pulp D. * enamel E. cement 552. What tumor does not belong to the odontogenic tumor s of the mixed origin? A. ameloblastic fibroma B. odontoameloblastoma C. ameloblastic fibroodontoma D. * cementitious fibroma E. odontogenic fibroma 553. What tumors are belonging to odontogenic carcinomas? A. osteoblastoclastoma and osteosarcoma B. basalcell and acidophilic forms of ameloblastomas C. * malignant ameloblastoma and primary intracyst carcinoma D. ameloblastic fibroma and odontoameloblastoma E. all that are transferred 554. What tumors does not belong to the odontogenic tumors of mesenchymal origin? A. dentinoma B. odontogenic myxoma C. * odontoameloblastoma D. benign cementoma E. giant cementoma 555. A typical diagnostic criteria of dry syndrome is autoimmune sialoadenit and: A. adenocarcinoma of salivary gland B. chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw C. obesity at the top type D. all referred E. * polyarthritis 556. At which disease occurs sialoadenit with salivary gland destruction of lymphocytes and macrophages? A. Down syndrome B. Patau syndrome C. Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome D. Syndrome Stein-Leventhal E. * Sjogren syndrome 557. At which disease often develops autoimmune sialoadenit: A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Systemic sclerosis C. AIDS D. Viscidosis E. * Sjogren syndrome dry 558. Causative agent of mumps are: A. retrovirus B. adenoidal pharyngeal conjunctival virus C. respiratory syncytial virus D. Mycoplasma E. * miksovirus 559. Chronic inflammation sialoadenit in nature tends to be: A. alternatives B. catarrhal C. abscess D. gangrenous E. * productive 560. Combined secondary lesions of salivary glands and tearfully known as: A. Alport syndrome B. Patau syndrome C. Cider Zhilbera D. Syndrome kartagener E. * Syndrome of Mykulich 561. Diseases of salivary gland origin are: A. Genetically-determined B. Intoksykatsiynoho origin C. Inflammatory origin D. Chronic E. * Congenital 562. Erysipelas caused lips: A. Staphylococcus B. Ps.aeruginosa C. Papilloma-virus D. With Epstein-Bar E. * Streptococcus 563. Frequently localization of adenolymphoma: A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland 564. 565. 566. 567. 568. 569. 570. 571. D. tumor occurs about equally in all glands E. * parotid Frequently localization carcinoma of salivary glands: A. sublingual gland B. submandibular gland C. parotid D. tumor occurs about equally in all glands E. * small salivary glands hard and soft palate Frequently monomorphic adenoma localization: A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. tumor occurs about equally in all glands E. * parotid Frequently pleomorfnoyi adenoma localization: A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. tumor occurs about equally in all glands E. * parotid Frequently sialoadenitu primary reason: A. Epstein-Bar virus B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Fungi of Candida E. * Mumps Frequently sialoadenitu primary reason: A. Epstein-Bar virus B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Fungi of Candida E. * Cytomegalovirus Granulomatous heylitis is the first manifestation of the syndrome: A. Uoterhauzena-Frederiksena B. Kon C. Pituitary Kushinh D. Simonds E. * Melkerson-Rosenthal Hlositis - is: A. inflammation of the lips B. inflammation of the mucous membrane of mouth C. salivary gland inflammation D. inflammation of the jaw bone E. * tongue inflammation In the parotid glands in mumps develops A. Unilateral purulent parotitis B. two-sided purulent parotitis C. cirrhosis glands D. sialolitiaz E. * duplex interstitial parotitis 572. Most dangerous complication of furuncle lips: A. Stroke B. Lymphadenitis C. Limphangoitis D. Dermatitis E. * Angular vein thrombophlebitis 573. Name acute infectious viral disease, which is typical for inflammation in the stroma of parotid salivary glands. A. measles B. rubella C. paragripom D. Filatov's disease E. * parotitis 574. Name innate disease of salivary glands. A. sialoadenit B. sialolitiaz C. onkocitoma D. all of these E. * ektopia 575. Pleomorfna adenoma of salivary glands are often found in: A. children of the first year of life B. pubertal age C. in men under 30 D. in the elderly, regardless of the article E. * in women after 40 years 576. What are the main morphological structures are signs of pregnancy? A. glandular hyperplasia edometriya B. placental polyp C. * chorionic villi and decidual tissue D. Iron-cystic hyperplasia E. Endotservikoz 577. Termination of pregnancy and the allocation of the uterus before the fetus from 14 weeks of conception denote as: A. Miscarriage B. Late abortion C. *Early abortion D. Premature birth E. Criminal abortion 578. Termination of pregnancy and the allocation of the fetus from the uterus of 14 weeks to 20 weeks from the moment of conception denote as: A. Miscarriage B. *Late abortion C. Early abortion D. Premature birth E. Criminal abortion 579. Allocation of the fetus from the uterus of 28 to 37 weeks is called: A. Miscarriage B. Late abortion C. Early abortion D. *Premature birth E. Criminal abortion 580. Abortion was carried out outside the boundaries of the medical institution is called: A. Septic abortion B. *Criminal abortion C. Artificial board D. Cystic mole E. Vesiculare cystic mole 581. It is called an abortion outside a medical institution: A. Septic abortion B. *Criminal abortion C. Artificial board D. Puzirny mole E. Vesiculare cystic mole 582. Villi cystic placenta reborn, their number increased dramatically, becoming a conglomerate of the vine with: A. *Cyst change of placenta B. Premature birth C. Late abortion D. Miscarriage E. Trubnaya pregnancy 583. What is the name of the process, when the placenta villi cystic reborn, their number increased dramatically, becoming a conglomerate of vines: A. *Vesiculare mole B. Premature birth C. Late abortion D. Miscarriage E. Tubular Pregnancy 584. Name the process in endometrium which appears diffuse leukocyte infiltration. A. Placental polyp B. Horionepithelioma C. *Endometritis D. Septic endometritis E. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium 585. Embriopathias A. *Pathology embryonic period, with 16 days of pregnancy B. Pathology embryonic period, with 20 days of pregnancy C. Pathology embryonic period, with 40 days of pregnancy D. Pathology embryonic period, with 52 days of pregnancy E. Pathology embryonic period, with 58 days of pregnancy 586. Which includes embriopatias A. *Pathology embryonic period, with 16 days of pregnancy B. Pathology embryonic period, with 20 days of pregnancy C. Pathology embryonic period, with 40 days of pregnancy D. Pathology embryonic period, with 52 days of pregnancy E. Pathology embryonic period, with 58 days of pregnancy 587. What is embriopathias A. *Pathology embryonic period, with 16 days of pregnancy B. Pathology embryonic period, with 20 days of pregnancy C. Pathology embryonic period, with 40 days of pregnancy D. Pathology embryonic period, with 52 days of pregnancy E. Pathology embryonic period, with 58 days of pregnancy 588. The most difficult gaps arise in the development of the child injury in the early neural tube bookmark: A. *3-4 weeks of intrauterine development B. 5-6 week of intrauterine development C. 7-8 week of intrauterine development D. 9-10 weeks of intrauterine development E. 11-12 weeks of intrauterine development 589. What are the disadvantages of the most difficult child development occur when damage to the neural tube early favorite: A. 3-4 weeks of intrauterine development B. 5-6 week of intrauterine development C. 7-8 week of intrauterine development D. 9-10 weeks of intrauterine development E. 11-12 weeks of intrauterine development 590. When the most difficult developmental damage in children with neural tube early favorite: A. *3-4 weeks of intrauterine development B. 5-6 week of intrauterine development C. 7-8 week of intrauterine development D. 9-10 weeks of intrauterine development E. 11-12 weeks of intrauterine development 591. Microcephaly, primary marrow hypoplasia relate to: A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 592. To which group pathology include microcephaly-(hypoplasia main brain): A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 593. Indicate which group pathology include microcephaly-(hypoplasia main brain): A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 594. Born hydrocephalus, the excess accumulation of liquor in the cerebral ventricle or subarachnoid space, refers to: A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 595. In which group of diseases include hydrocephalus nee-(excessive accumulation of liquor in the cerebral ventricle or subarachnoid space): A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 596. Specify which group of diseases include hydrocephalus nee-(excessive accumulation of liquor in the cerebral ventricle or subarachnoid space): A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 597. Spinal cord herniation associated with splitting dorsal vertebrae divisions, are: A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 598. To which group of diseases included spinal cord herniation associated with splitting dorsal vertebrae divisions: A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 599. Specify which group of diseases included spinal cord herniation associated with splitting dorsal vertebrae divisions: A. Embriopathias B. Fetopattias C. Pathology consequences D. Secular change E. Perinatal Pathology 600. Defect mezhzheludochnoy partition belongs to: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. *Embriopathias D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 601. To which group of diseases include defect ventricular septa: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. *Embriopathias D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 602. Specify which group of diseases include defect ventricular septa: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. *Embriopathias D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 603. Complete transposition pulmonary artery and aorta refers to: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. *Embriopathias E. Perinatal Pathology 604. To which group of diseases include full transposition pulmonary artery and aorta: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. *Embriopathias E. Perinatal Pathology 605. Specify which group of diseases include full transposition pulmonary artery and aorta: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. *Embriopathias E. Perinatal Pathology 606. Stenosis and atresia occurs when the pulmonary artery walls of blood replacement barrel to the right, often with a defect ventricular septa, and is a manifestation of: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. *Embriopathias E. Perinatal Pathology 607. Triad Fallouh (defect ventricular septa, pulmonary artery stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy) is to: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. Perinatal Pathology E. *Embriopathias 608. To which the pathology refers tetrad Fallouh (defect ventricular septa, narrowing of the pulmonary artery, dekstrapozition of aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy): A. Fetopathias B. *Embriopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 609. Polycystic of liver - multiple cysts of various sizes, found polycystic of the kidneys and pancreas, refers to: A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 610. To which the pathology of the liver include polycystic - (multiple cysts of various sizes, found out polycystic kidney and pancreas): A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 611. Ageneziya of kidney congenital absence of one or both kidneys is related to A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 612. What pathology refers ageneziya kidney - the absence of one or both kidneys: A. *Embriopathias B. Fetopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 613. Renal hypoplasia - reducing weight and volume of the kidney may be one-and two-way: A. Fetopathias B. C. D. E. *Embriopathias Pathology consequences Birth trauma Perinatal Pathology 614. Which renal pathology include renal hypoplasia - reducing weight and volume of the kidney may be one-and two-way: A. Fetopathias B. *Embriopathias C. Pathology consequences D. Birth trauma E. Perinatal Pathology 615. Displasia renal hypoplasia, with the simultaneous presence of embryonic kidney tissue, refers to: A. Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. Perinatal Pathology E. *Embriopathias 616. Congenital emphysema - a dramatic swelling are the top percentage of the left lung with hypoplasia cartilage, elastic and muscular bronchial tissue related to: A. *Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. Perinatal Pathology E. Embriopathias 617. Dislocations and dysplasia of the hip joint is related to: A. Pathology consequences B. Birth trauma C. Perinatal Pathology D. Embriopathias E. *Fetopathias 618. Polidaktiliya - Increase the number of fingers is related to: A. *Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. Perinatal Pathology E. Embriopathias 619. What pathology refers polydactylia - Increase the number of fingers: A. *Fetopathias B. Pathology consequences C. Birth trauma D. Perinatal Pathology E. Embriopathias 620. Perinatal period starts from: A. *196 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body B. 197 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body C. 198 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body D. 199 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body E. 200 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body 621. When starting the perinatal period: A. *196 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body B. 197 days dnya fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body C. 198 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body D. 199 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body E. 200 days fetal life and lasts for up to 1 week of life outside the mother's body 622. Infant mortality and childbirth are called: A. Perinatal mortality B. Intranatal C. *Antenatal D. Neonatal E. -623. Hyaline membrane lung disease refers to: A. Antenatal pathology B. Intranatal pathology C. Postnatal pathology D. *Pneumopathy E. -624. What pathology include hyaline membrane lung disease: A. Antenatal pathology B. Intranatal pathology C. Postnatal pathology D. *Pneumopathy E. -625. Birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the fetus mechanical forces) occurs: A. Before birth B. *At the time of childbirth C. After childbirth D. As a consequence of childbirth E. -626. To which the pathology include birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the fetus mechanical forces): A. Before birth B. C. D. E. *At the time of childbirth After childbirth As a consequence of childbirth -627. Indicate how pathology relates to birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the fetus mechanical forces): A. Before birth B. *At the time of childbirth C. After childbirth D. As a consequence of childbirth E. -628. Causes of fetal birth trauma, set in a position of the fetus during labor is all listed, except: A. High moving vessels B. Lack of blood prothrombin C. The shortage of vitamins C and P D. Softness bone E. *The shortage of vitamin C 629. What pathology include birth injury (damage to tissues and organs of the fetus mechanical forces): A. Before birth B. *At the time of childbirth C. After childbirth D. As a consequence of childbirth E. – 630. 631. 632. Extrapulmonary complication of croupous pneumonia can be: A. abscess of the lung B. empyema of pleura C. gangrene of the lung D. bronchitis E. meningitis ANSWER: E Extrapulmonary complication of croupous pneumonia can be: A. abscess of the lung B. empyema of pleura C. gangrene of the lung D. bronchitis E. meningitis ANSWER: E Extrapulmonary complication of croupous pneumonia can be: A. peritonitis B. abscess of the lung C. empyema of pleura D. gangrene of the lung E. carnification ANSWER: A 633. At dissection examination in intimae of aorta of the abdominal department the flat yellow bars, which do not rise above its surface were found. The presence of leiomyocytes is histologically marked, Macrophages with foamy cytoplasm. At colouring of sudan III in these cells are marked yellow granules. Specify the credible stage of atherosclerosis. A. Lipoidosis B. Prelipi C. Liposclerosis D. Atheromatosis E. .Atherocalcinosis ANSWER: A 634. On a section fibrinous inflammation of serous and mucus membranes, swollen cerebrum and lungs were found out in a patient which died with uremia. In kidney arteries are numeral atherosclerotic plaques which close 2/3 of lumen. In kidneys there are plural band scars, polycystosis. Specify the form of nephrosclerosis . A. Primary wrinkled kidney B. Secondary wrinkled kidney C. Atherosclerotic wrinkled kidney D. Amyloidal wrinkled kidney E. Born polycystosis of kidneys ANSWER: C 635. The woman had suffered from a rheumatic heart disease for a long period of time. She was hospitalized with complaints of short breath, edema on legs, ascites and enlarged liver. She died of chronic cardiac insufficiency. In section one could observe mitral stenosis. Which of the morphogenetic factors is the most probable? A. Sclerosis and thickening of cusps B. Shortening of tendinous fibres C. Sclerosis and shortening of cusps D. Inosculation of cusps E. Small thrombi on the surface of valves ANSWER: D 636. A child died after adenoviral infection and low lobular bilateral pneumonia. On a section the sites of suppuration and necrosis were found out. Round the sites of necrosis there is serous-hemorrhagic inflammation. Specify the type of pneumonia after the credible etiology. A. Viral B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Mycoplasmic ANSWER: B 637. Gastrobiopsy has revealed chronic atrophic gastritis with considerable decrease of epithelium cells number. It is also known that the patient has a high level of gastrinaemia and low level of hydrochloric acid in gastric juices and signs of anaemia. Name the most probable disease. A. Chronic fundic gastritis B. Chronic stomach ulcer C. Reflux gastritis D. Stomach haemorrhage E. Giant hypertrophic gastritis ANSWER: A 638. The person affected by peptic ulcer suffers from frequent vomiting of undigested food and periodic convulsion. An X-ray examination of stomach revealed pyloric stenosis. What complication has developed in the patient’s body? A. Perforated ulcer B. Penetrating ulcer C. Acute ulcer D. Malignization E. Chlorohydropenic tetany ANSWER: E 639. The person affected by stomach ulcer began to vomit with “coffee grounds” character. What complication has developed? A. Haemorrhage from esophagus B. Stomach haemorrhage C. Malignization of ulcer D. Perforation of ulcer E. Penetration of ulcer ANSWER: B 640. Cervical node examinations revealed the effaced picture, diffused spread of lymph cells, the presence of eosinophils, giant binuclei cells, nidi of necrosis and sclerosis. What type of lymphogranulomatosis is represented? A. With lymph tissue domination B. With lymph tissue oppression C. Mixed cellular D. Mixed E. Nodular sclerosis ANSWER: C 641. During the necropsy of man, 48 years in intimae of aorta of the abdominal department the flat yellow bars, which do not rise above its surface were found. The presence of leiomyocytes is histologically marked, Macrophages with foamy cytoplasm. At colouring of sudan III in these cells are marked yellow granules. Specify the credible stage of atherosclerosis. A. Prelipid B. Lipoidosis C. Liposclerosis D. Atheromatosis E. .Atherocalcinosis ANSWER: B 642. During histological and histochemical research of coronal vessels of heart of man, who died suddenly, amorphous masses, which consisted of crystals of cholesterol, fragments of elastic and collagenic fibres are determined. The masses are marked off from lumen of arteries by hyalinised the connective tissue. Specify the credible stage of atherosclerosis. A. Prelipid B. Lipoidosis C. Liposclerosis D. Atheromatosis E. Atherocalcinosis ANSWER: D 643. During necropsy of old man, who died of acute myocardial infarction , an aorta in an abdominal department bursts saccatee. Its wall is refined, with yellow and white bars, areas of stony closeness. Specify the name of the pathologically changed aorta. A. Displasia B. Atrophy from pressure C. Atrophy disfunctional D. Hypertrophy working E. Aneurysm ANSWER: E 644. An old man entered clinic with the complaints about sharp pains in an abdominal region. Death came in a few minutes. On a section in the abdominal department of aorta the saccate thrusting was found out. A wall is refined with the presence of defect with unequal edges; the surrounding tissues are saturated with blood. Complication of what form of arteriosclerosis took place in this case? A. Ischemic diseases of heart B. Abdominal ischemic disease C. Atherosclerosis of aortas D. Syphilitic mesaortitis E. System vasculitis ANSWER: B 645. A man, who died from the cardio-vascular insufficiency, at necropsy in the coronal arteries of heart numerous atherosclerotic plaques were found out which close 2/3 of lumen of vessel. At histological research of myocardium diffuse surplus development of the connective tissue and proliferation of fibroblasts are marked in interstitium, dystrophy and hypertrophy of cardiomyocytes. Specify a credible disease. A. Acute ischemic heart diseases (myocardial infarction ) B. Acute ischemic heart diseases (stage of ischemic dystrophy) C. Chronic ischemic heart diseases (diffuse cardiosclerosis) D. Chronic ischemic heart diseases (postattack cardiosclerosis) E. Chronic ischemic heart diseases (chronic aneurysm of heart) ANSWER: C 646. A patient died of uremia. On a section fibrinous inflammation of serous and mucus membranes, swollen cerebrum and lungs were found out. In kidney arteries are numeral atherosclerotic plaques which close 2/3 of lumen. In kidneys there are plural band scars, polycystosis. Specify the form of nephrosclerosis . A. Primary wrinkled kidney B. Secondary wrinkled kidney C. Amyloidal wrinkled kidney D. Atherosclerotic wrinkled kidney E. Born polycystosis of kidneys ANSWER: D 647. A man, 40 years, died suddenly after a considerable psyhoemotional overstrain. Histologically and histochemically in the myocardium of the left ventricle of heart paretic expansion of capillaries, focus eozinofilia of cardiomyocytes with the loss of them banding, diminishing of number of granules of glycogen were found. Intimae of coronal arteries is waval, endothelicytes take a place as a tile. Specify the credible pathology. A. Acute myocardial infarction , stage of ischemic dystrophy B. Acute myocardial infarction , stage of necrosis C. Acute myocardial infarction , stage of scarring D. Repeated myocardial infarction E. Relapsable myocardial infarctio ANSWER: A 648. A female patient has suffered from rheumatism complicated by mitral defect since childhood. In the recent years, signs of cardiovascular collapse and cough with rusty expectoration have frequently occurred. Name the complication that has developed in the lungs. A. Brown induration of lungs B. Emphysema C. Atelectasis D. Pneumosclerosis E. Bronchiectasis ANSWER: A 649. A female patient had suffered from a rheumatic heart disease for a long period of time. She was hospitalized with complaints of short breath, edema on legs, ascites and enlarged liver. She died of chronic cardiac insufficiency. In section one could observe mitral stenosis. Which of the morphogenetic factors is the most probable? A. Sclerosis and thickening of cusps B. Shortening of tendinous fibres C. Sclerosis and shortening of cusps D. Inosculation of cusps E. Small thrombi on the surface of valves ANSWER: D 650. At the incision of a patient who had suffered from rheumatoid arthritis one found enlargement of kidney that was of yellow-white colour with waxy hue and quite dense. Stained with Congo-rot, it showed deposition of pink masses in capillary loops of glomerules, on the walls of arterioles, arteries, in basal membrane of tubules, in the stroma. What complication of rheumatoid arthritis developed in the patient’s body? A. Acute necrotic nephrosis B. Secondary renal amyloidosis C. Fibroblastic glomerulonephritis D. Rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis E. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis ANSWER: B 651. At histologic examination of the patient’s heart auricle for mitral stenosis one has found Aschoff-Talalayev granulomas. What genesis of heart disease suggests itself? A. Rheumatic B. Septic C. Congenital D. Syphilitic E. Atherosclerotic ANSWER: A 652. An old man with the stomach cancer had pneumonia from which he died. On section: the basal parts of lungs from the two lobes are of grey color. Histologically: exudate from mucus, neutrophiles and filaments of fibrin, is distributed in alveolar ways unevenly: in one there is much, in other- few. The sites of emphysema, atelectasis are determined. Bronchitis is expressed. Specify the type of pneumonia. A. Lobar B. Bronchopneumonia C. Interstitial D. Friedlander’s ANSWER: B 653. A child after adenoviral infection had lowlobular bilateral pneumonia from which he died. On a section the sites of suppuration and necrosis were found out. Round the sites of necrosis there is serous-hemorrhagic inflammation. Specify the type of pneumonia after the credible etiology. A. Viral B. Staphylococcus C. Streptococcus D. Mycoplasmic ANSWER: B 654. Lobar pneumonia was diagnosed in a clinic. In a week purulent meningitis developed from which the man died. It is discovered on section that the lower part of the right lung developed into an airless fleshy tissue. Histologically – the masses of fibrin in alveolar ways developed granulation tissue. Specify the complication of lobar pneumonia. A. Gangrene B. Carnification C. Pneumocirrhosis D. Black induration ANSWER: B 655. During a birth, in the premature removing of the placenta layer by layer, pneumonia was marked from which the new-born child died. It is discovered on a section that lungs are enlarged in volume and dense. Histologically in bronchiole and alveolar ways meconium, and clots of fat, bronchitis and purulent alveolitis were discovered. Specify the credible form of pneumonia. A. Lobar B. Intermediate C. Aspirate D. Lipid ANSWER: C 656. Histologic examination of gastrobiopsy has revealed chronic atrophic gastritis with considerable decrease of epithelium cells number. It is also known that the patient has a high level of gastrinaemia and low level of hydrochloric acid in gastric juices and signs of anaemia. Name the most probable disease. A. Chronic fundic gastritis B. Chronic stomach ulcer C. Reflux gastritis D. Stomach haemorrhage E. Giant hypertrophic gastritis ANSWER: A 657. A person affected by peptic ulcer suffers from frequent vomiting of undigested food and periodic convulsion. An X-ray examination of stomach revealed pyloric stenosis. What complication has developed in the patient’s body? A. Perforated ulcer B. Penetrating ulcer C. Acute ulcer D. Malignization E. Chlorohydropenic tetany ANSWER: E 658. A person affected by stomach ulcer began to vomit with “coffee grounds” character. What complication has developed? A. Haemorrhage from esophagus B. Stomach haemorrhage C. Malignization of ulcer D. Perforation of ulcer E. Penetration of ulcer ANSWER: B 659. A person affected by stomach ulcer suddenly felt pain in epigastrium due to the development of a collapse. At examination one found that the abdominal wall was very tense and painful. A laparotomy revealed a through defect with dense edges and gastric contents flowing out of it in the area of the pyloric part, the mesentery was hyperaemic and of dirty-grey colour with grey deposition. Set the diagnosis taking into consideration the clinical picture and the operational findings. A. Penetrating stomach ulcer B. Perforated stomach ulcer C. Acute stomach ulcer D. Chronic stomach ulcer E. Malignant stomach ulcer ANSWER: B 660. At an operation on chronic appendicitis was discovered excrescence of mucus-like tissue on the peritoneum and cystic dilatation of the appendix. The latter is filled with mucus and mucous masses in the form of layers. What is the diagnosis? A. Phlegmonous appendicitis B. Apostematous appendicitis C. Primary gangrenous appendicitis D. Mucocele E. False appendicitis ANSWER: D 661. Microscopic examination of an enlarged appendix revealed diffuse suppurative inflammation of the organ and the mesentery as well as ulcerative defects of the mucous tunic. Identify the form of appendicitis. A. Acute simple appendicitis B. Acute superficial appendicitis C. Apostematous appendicitis D. Ulcerophlegmonous appendicitis E. Secondary gangrenous appendicitis ANSWER: D 662. A patient died of acute loss of blood. At autopsy a large quantity of blood and blood clots was found in the stomach and the intestines. In the stomach wall on the lesser curvature there was a deep defect with dense edges and a patulous vessel at the bottom. Set the diagnosis. A. Acute stomach ulcer B. Stomach cancer C. Exacerbation of chronic stomach ulcer D. Perforation of stomach ulcer E. Penetration of stomach ulcer ANSWER: C 663. Macroscopic examination of an enlarged appendix has shown that the serous tunic is of dirty-grey colour and hyperaemic. The appendix is thickened and its mesentery is swollen and hyperaemic. Microscopically, one can see that the inflammatory infiltration involves all layers of the appendix wall. Identify the morphologic form of acute appendicitis. A. Simple B. Superficial C. Phlegmonous D. Apostematous E. Gangrenous ANSWER: C 664. Macroscopic examination of an enlarged appendix has shown that it is thickened and its serous tunic and mesentery is hyperaemic and of dirty-grey colour. Microscopically one can observe diffuse leucocytic infiltration and microabscesses. Identify the morphologic form of acute appendicitis. A. Simple B. Superficial C. Phlegmonous D. Apostematous E. Gangrenous ANSWER: D 665. A laparoscopy revealed signs of peritonitis and thrombosis of mesentery vessels of the appendix. The appendix was thickened and the serous tunic was of dirty-grey colour. Microscopically one found haemorrhages, vessel thrombosis and appendix wall necrosis. Identify the morphologic form of acute appendicitis. A. Simple B. Phlegmonous C. Ulcerophlegmonous D. Apostematous E. Gangrenous ANSWER: E 666. For a woman, 92, which died at the phenomena of cardiovascular insufficiency, at life the phenomena of forgetfulness were marked, it is set on a section, that bend of cerebrum narrow, sulci are deep. In the vessels of the base of brain numerous atherosclerotic plaqueswhich close 2/3 orifice. Specify the credible displays of pathology of cerebrum. A. Sharp ischemia B. It was swollen C. Swelling D. Heart arrest E. Atrophy ANSWER: E 667. For a woman years, which long time suffered from the atherosclerotic defeat of vessels of cerebrum, on a section, diminishing of sizes of hemispheres, smoothing of crinkles and deepening of fissure are found. What is the reason of atrophy changes in main of dying woman? A. From insufficient blood supply B. From high pressure C. From actions of physical and chemical factors D. From decline of function E. From violation of innervation ANSWER: A 668. A 37-year-old woman was operated on for ulcerophlegmonous appendicitis. Three days later she suffered from hectic fever, pain in the area of the right hypochondrium, icteritiousness of skin and visible mucous tunics; in her blood the increased levels of conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin were found. What complication of acute destructive appendicitis developed in the given case? A. Minor pelvis abscesses B. Subphrenic space abscesses C. Pylephlebitic abscesses D. General fibrinopurulent peritonitis E. Viral hepatitis ANSWER: C 669. A 6-year-old child was taken to the resuscitation department with signs of hepatorenal syndrome which developed after eating mushrooms. The next day she died. In section the liver was diminished, the capsule – wrinkled, the parenchyma – of cherry-brown colour, with numerous haemorrhages. Histologically one could observe deranged liver particle structure, massive centrolobular hepatocytes necrosis, central veins of particles were preserved but overfilled with blood. What disease are such changes typical for? A. Parenchymatous hepatitis B. Fatty liver C. Acute active hepatitis D. Massive hepatic necrosis E. Persistent hepatitis ANSWER: D 670. For the sake of diagnosis of a liver pathology, patient c. underwent puncture biopsy of the organ. Histologically, hydropic degeneration and necrosis of hepatocytes and a large quantity of Councilman’s corpuscles were seen. Electronomicroscopically were hyaloid hepatocytes and sandy nuclei. What diagnosis is the most probable? A. Progressive massive necrosis B. Viral hepatitis C. Acute alcoholic hepatitis D. Persistent alcoholic hepatitis E. Hepatic injury ANSWER: B 671. At the cholecystectomy because of chronic calculous cholecystitis, was discovered that the gallbladder was completely filled with faceted stones. What is the type of jaundice in this case? A. Mechanical B. Obstructive C. Haemolytic D. Parenchymatous E. No jaundice ANSWER: E 672. Mushroom poisoning of a patient resulted in jaundice with signs of hepatic failure. One observed progressing liver diminution. Identify the most probable pathology. A. Nutmeg cirrhosis B. Biliary cirrhosis C. Obstructive jaundice D. Postnecrotic cirrhosis E. Massive hepatic necrosis ANSWER: E 673. A patient has undergone 8-year treatment for liver pathology which developed after viral hepatitis type A (Botkin’s disease). Histological examination of the biopsy material revealed dilated and sclerosed periportal areas, false particles and regeneration nodes and fatty degeneration of hepatocytes. What is the most probable pathology? A. Portal cirrhosis B. Postnecrotic cirrhosis C. Biliary cirrhosis D. Liver adenoma E. Hepatocellular cancer ANSWER: A 674. The autopsy of a woman who had suffered from calculous cholangitis for a long time revealed an enlarged, dense, fine-grained and green liver with dilated and bile-filled ducts on section. What is the most probable cirrhosis form? A. Primary biliary cirrhosis B. Secondary biliary cirrhosis C. Portal cirrhosis D. Postnecrotic cirrhosis E. Mixed cirrhosis ANSWER: B 675. Three months after blood transfusion jaundice was detected in the patient’s body. The liver was enlarged. Puncture biopsy revealed ballooning degeneration of hepatocytes and Councilman’s corpuscles. What pathologic process is implied? A. Viral hepatitis type A B. Viral hepatitis type B C. Acute massive hepatic necrosis D. Chronic aggressive hepatitis E. Viral hepatitis type E ANSWER: B 676. Palpation of a patient, affected by chronic nonspesific pheumonia for the last five months, showed an enlarged liver. Puncture biopsy revealed hyperaemia of central veins and sinusoids, degeneration of centrolobular hepatocytes and hypertrophy of peripheral ones, copper cells proliferation, continuous basic membrane in sinusoids. Identify the presumable pathologic process in the liver. A. Nutmeg liver B. Nutmeg cirrhosis C. Portal cirrhosis D. Mixed cirrhosis E. Hepatitis ANSWER: A 677. A patient died of hepatorenal insufficiency. On section one found portal liver cirrhosis. Histologically, fatty degeneration of hepatocytes and the presence of Mellori’s hyaline was seen. What cirrhosis developed in the patient’s body, according to the etiologic principle? A. Viral B. Alcoholic C. Autoimmune D. Hemochromatic E. Obstructive ANSWER: B 678. Patient, 55 years old, has suffered from diabetes mellitus for a long time. On the left foot a skin became black, tissues are dense. What is your diagnosis? A. Wet gangrene B. Soft gangrene C. Gas gangrene D. Trophical ulcer E. Bedsore ANSWER: B 679. The woman, 42 years old, has obesity on an overhead type, arterial hypertension, hyperglikemia, glucosuria lasted. Death was caused by hemorrhage in a cerebrum. Morphological research showed basophil adenoma of the hypophysis, hyperplasy of bark of adrenal gland. What is your diagnosis? A. Greyvs illnes B. Itsenko-Kushing disease C. Acromegal D. Diabetes mellitu E. Hypophysial naniz ANSWER: B 680. At histological research of biopsy of kidney patient (70 years old) with the phenomena of uremia, which long time was ill wth fibrocavernous tuberculosis, found out the deposit of homogeneous eosinophilic masses at a glomerule mesangium and in the walls of vessels which give the positive reaction of metachromasia at colouring iodine-grune. Specify the most reliable type of dystrophy. A. Nephropathic inherited amyloidosis B. Gerontic amyloidosis C. Genetic amyloidosis D. Primary amyloidosis E. Secondary amyloidosi ANSWER: E 681. A patient directed to the hospital with the signs of sharp kidney colic. The cystoskopy showed that from right ureter the urine is not selected. Obturation of ureter by the stone could be the result of: A. Polycystic renal disease B. Oliguria and anuria C. Primary wrinkling of kidney D. Secondary wrinkling of kidney E. To hydronephrosis ANSWER: E 682. A woman which during 10 years treats the glomerulonephritis has appeared the signs of chronic kidney deficiency. Specify the most credible reason of it. A. Secondary wrinkling of kidney B. Primary wrinkling of kidney C. Atherosclerotic wrinkled kidney D. Pyelonephritic wrinkled kidney E. Amyloid wrinkled kidney ANSWER: A 683. A boy (10 years old) who two weeks ago carried quinsy has a sharp rising of temperature, pain in loin, urine became turbid. Laboratory found out the proteinuria and gematuria. Name the most reliable reason of disease. A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Acute pyelonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Chronic glomerulonephritis E. Necrotic nephrosis ANSWER: A 684. At histological research of kidneys found out next changes: sclerosis and lymphoplasmatic infiltration of calyxes and pelvises, chronic intermediate inflammation and sclerosis of kidney tissue,canals are sharply stretched, lumens of them are filled wih coloid-liked maintenance (“thyroid kidney”). Name the pathology of kidneys. A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Acute pyelonephritis D. Subacute glomerulonephritis E. Amyloidosis ANSWER: B 685. A patient delivered to hospital in a state of shock after car accident, an anury developed. What morphological changes of kidneys are predefine such complication? A. The anemia of kidney cortex B. Necrosis of the canals epithelium C. The oedema of intersticium D. The hyaloid-spot dystrophy of canals epithelium E. Stroma hemorrhage ANSWER: B 686. A child (8 years old) delivered to hospital with the phenomena of moderate catarrhal quinsy and urticaria. She had a scarlatina month ago. Treatment did not give any effect. Death came from chronic kidney deficiency. Histological in kidney tissue there is the formation of “half-moons” from the proliferative cells of nephrotelium and podocytes of glomerules capsules . What most credible pathology of kidney brought on uremia? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Subacute glomerulonephritis C. Mesangial glomerulonephritis D. Fibroplastic glomerulonephritis E. Nephropathy with minimum changes ANSWER: B 687. A child 10 years old has a nephrotic syndrome and face edema after carried quinsy two weeks ago. In the analysis of urine is haematuria, leukocyturia, cylindruria, unsharp proteinuria. On the nephrobiopsy there are the plethora of malpighian corpuscle, lymphoplasmocytic infiltration of mesangium. Serous exudate is in the lumen of capsule. Your diagnose? A. Acute poststreptococcus glomerulonephritis B. Acute fast-progressive glomerulonephritis C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Acute pyelonephritis E. Acute tubulo-interstitial nephrit ANSWER: A 688. On the autopsy of the deceased 48 years old, which long time was ill with cystitis and diskinesia of ureters, was found out the morphological signs of uremia. Histological was found out a “thyroid kidney”, foci of intermediate inflammation. What from is most reliable diagnose? A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Atherosclerotic wrinkled kidney D. Primary wrinkled kidney E. Amyloid wrinkled kidney ANSWER: B 689. A woman which during 10 years treats the glomerulonephritis has appeared the signs of nephrotic syndrome (face and feet edemata, arterial high blood pressure). Specify the credible pathology. A. Primary nephrotic syndrome B. Secondary nephrotic syndrome C. Alport's syndrome D. Pyelonephritic wrinkled kidney E. Amyloid wrinkled kidney ANSWER: B 690. A young woman, 36 years old, died from intoxication and respiratory insufficiency. On the section of the dead woman: tissue of lungs in all departments is multi-coloured with plural hemorrhages, focuses of emphysema. Histological in lungs found out hemorrhagic bronchopneumonia with abscess formation, in the cytoplasm of epithelium of bronchial tubes there are eosinophilic and basophilic includings. What disease did the sick woman have? A. Parainfluenza B. Influenza C. Adenoviral infection D. Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia E. Respiratory syncytial infection ANSWER: B 691. At patient who suffered from tubercular hyperpigmentation of skin, adynamy, low blood pressure appeared. What disease developed in him? A. Toxic nigredo B. Illness of Icenco-Kyshin C. Illness of Simmon D. Pellagra E. Illness of Addison ANSWER: E 692. At histological biopsy research of kidney of patient, 70 years old, with the phenomenon of uremia, who was ill with fibrous-cavernouse tuberculosis for a long time, the deposits of homogeneous eosinophilic masses are exposed in mesangium of glomerule and in the walls of vessels which give the positive reaction of metachromasia at colouring of iodine -green. Specify the most possible type of dystrophy. A. Secondary amyloidosi B. Senile amyloidosi C. Genetic amyloidosi D. Primary amyloidosi E. Nephropathy inherited ANSWER: A 693. In a child with sharply enlarged quinsy lymphatic nodes : paratracheal, bifurcational, neck. At microscopic research of neck lymphatic knot the following things are exposed: presence of focuses of necrosis bordered by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and giant cells of Pirogov-Langhans. Specify the most possible pathology. A. Tuberculosis B. Sarcoidosis C. Scarlatina D. Diphtheria E. Rhinoscleroma ANSWER: A 694. The following changes are exposed in the remote enlarged lymphatic site of histological: round focuses of necrosis are billow from epithelioid cells which are among single giant multinuclear cells, on periphery is a roller from lymphocytes. What is the disease? A. Syphili B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosies D. Scleroma E. Lymphogranulematosis ANSWER: B 695. A young woman has been treated for sterility for a long tme. There is a positive test of Mantu at an inspection. Biological test on tuberculosis positive is (infection of guinea-pig by material of aspiration of uterus cavity content). What is your diagnosis? A. Tuberculosis of kidneys B. Tuberculosis of adrenals C. Tuberculosis of Fallopian tubes D. Tuberculosis lymphadenitis E. Tuberculosis leptomeningitis ANSWER: C 696. On the section of dying K., 40 years the supervalvular aortoclasia is found with tamponade of pericardium. At microscopic research of ascending department of aorta in more thick walls it is found out infiltration by lymphocytes, plasmocytes, epithelioid cells, areas of necrosis in a middle shell, adventitia, endothelial cells. Such changes in an aorta more frequent can develop at: A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Septic aortitis C. Rheumatic aortitis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta E. Hypertensive illness ANSWER: C 697. The cervical node examinations revealed the effaced picture, diffused spread of lymph cells, the presence of eosinophils, giant binuclei cells, nidi of necrosis and sclerosis. What type of lymphogranulomatosis is represented? A. With lymph tissue domination B. With lymph tissue oppression C. Mixed cellular D. Mixed E. Nodular sclerosis ANSWER: C 698. At the dissection doctor hold necropsy of old man, who died of acute myocardial infarction , an aorta in an abdominal department bursts saccatee. Its wall is refined, with yellow and white bars, areas of stony closeness. Specify the name of the pathologically changed aorta. A. Displasia B. Atrophy from pressure C. Atrophy disfunctional D. Hypertrophy working E. Aneurysm ANSWER: E 699. A patient died from the chronic cardiac insufficiency. The syndrome of lameness was marked during life. On a section atrophy and dryness of skin and atrophy of muscles of shin, gangrene of the first finger of foot were found out. What were the credible changes of vessels? A. Thromboflebitis B. Vasculitis C. – D. Capillaritis E. Atherosclerosis ANSWER: E 700. At histologic examination Aschoff-Talalayev granulomas were founded in the patient’s heart auricle with mitral stenosis. What genesis of heart disease suggests itself? A. Rheumatic B. Septic C. Congenital D. Syphilitic E. Atherosclerotic ANSWER: A 701. A patient with the symptoms of the dyspnoea and cough uremia. At bronchoscopy mucus bronchial tubes are sanguineous, filling out with shallow hemorrhages. In the lumen of bronchial tubes there is much mucus. Specify the form of bronchitis. A. Primary acute B. Secondary acute C. Primary chronic D. Secondary chronic E. Deformate. ANSWER: B 702. The doctor diagnosed lobar pneumonia in a clinic. In a week purulent meningitis developed from which the man died. It is discovered on section that the lower part of the right lung developed into an airless fleshy tissue. Histologically – the masses of fibrin in alveolar ways developed granulation tissue. Specify the complication of lobar pneumonia. A. Gangrene B. Carnification C. Pneumocirrhosis D. Black induration ANSWER: B 703. The patient with jaundice was operated with diagnosis "chronic calculous cholecystitis". What is the type of jaundice in this case? A. Mechanical B. Suprahepatic C. Haemolytic D. Parenchymatous E. No jaundice ANSWER: A 704. The woman has been treated for sterility for a long time. There is a positive test of Mantu at an inspection. Biological test on tuberculosis positive is (infection of guinea-pig by material of aspiration of uterus cavity content). What is your diagnosis? A. Tuberculosis of kidneys B. Tuberculosis of adrenals C. Tuberculosis of Fallopian tubes D. Tuberculosis lymphadenitis E. Tuberculosis leptomeningitis ANSWER: C 705. On the dissection the supervalvular aortoclasia is found with tamponade of pericardium. At microscopic research of ascending department of aorta in more thick walls it is found out infiltration by lymphocytes, plasmocytes, epithelioid cells, areas of necrosis in a middle shell, adventitia, endothelial cells. Such changes in an aorta more frequent can develop at: A. Syphilitic aortitis B. Septic aortitis C. Rheumatic aortitis D. Atherosclerosis of aorta E. Hypertensive illness ANSWER: C 706. The patient with alcoholism suddenly had a cough with the secretion of purulent phlegm, blood cough and fever and died from hepatargia. Dissection showed part of the right lung is dense, heavy and grey. Histologically alveolar ways are filled with fibrin and leucocytes, venous stagnation. What is stage of lobar pneumonia A. Rush. B. Red hepatization. C. Grey hepatization. D. Resorbtion. E. Carnification. ANSWER: C 707. An old man had a moist cough and fever after supercooling. He died on the fourth day from pulmonary-cardiac insufficiency. On section: the lower parts of lungs are dense with the deposits of fibrin on a pleura, by consistency resembles a liver, on cut is grey brown. Specify the credible disease. A. Lobar pneumonia. B. Pneumonia of Friedlander. C. Influenza bronchopneumonia. D. Streptococcus bronchopneumonia. E. Intermediate pneumonia. ANSWER: A 708. A man, with alcoholism, suddenly had moist cough with the secretion of ferruginous sputum, fever developed. Lobar pneumonia was diagnosed in a clinic. He died of the progressing pulmonary-cardiac insufficiency. It was discovered on section that the lung was of black brown color with the widespread of necrosis. Grey brown liquid flowed down from thesurface. Specify the complication of lobar pneumonia. A. Gangrene. B. Carnification. C. Pneumocirrhosis. D. Black induration. E. Brown induration. ANSWER: A 709. At pathoanatomical research of lungs of a child who died of measles encephalitis, the presence of panbronchitis was revealed. An inflammatory process passed to surrounding tissue and spread on adjoining intraalveolar partitions, that predetermines their bulge. In alveolar ways there is exudate which consists of alveolar macrophages and single neutrophiles.Specify the form of pneumonia. A. Lobar. B. Bronchopneumonia. C. Peribronchial. D. Interlobular. E. Interalveolar. ANSWER: C 710. At pathoanatomical research of the lungs of a dying person of purulent mediastenitis is revealed that inflammation has flegmonous character in mediastinal pleura with "stratification" lungs on a fate. Specify the form of pneumonia. A. Lobar. B. Bronchopneumonia. C. Peribronchial. D. Interlobular. E. Interalveolar. ANSWER: D 711. In the patient on a section the thrombosis of left middle cerebral arteria is found. The site of grey softening of cerebrum is found in the area of ??left hemisphere;. It is needed to define a pathological process which developed for a patient. A. Ischemic attack. B. Hemorrhagic attack. C. Swelling. D. Abscess. E. Atrophy. ANSWER: A 712. At sick, 29 years old, the particle of thyroid gland is remote.Histological research showed considerable limphoid infiltration with the formation of limphoid follicles, destruction of parenchymatose structures, excrescence of connecting fabric.What pathology of thyroid gland takes place? A. Colloid goitre. B. Endemic goitre. C. Parenchymatose goitre. D. Hasimoto goitre. E. Toxic goitre. ANSWER: D 713. Patient, 40 years old, has multiplied extremities: feet, hands, bones of facial skull, lips. Found out the adenoma of hypophysis.What is the pathology? A. Basedov's illness. B. Acromegaly. C. Diabetes mellitus. D. Diabetes insipidus. E. Addisons illness. ANSWER: B 714. At insufficiency of circulation of blood, especially on a background the stagnant phenomena in lungs at patients can arise up: A. stagnant pneumonia B. hypostatic pneumonia C. paravertebral pneumonia D. atelectatic pneumonia E. croupous pneumonia ANSWER: A 715. At the protracted bed mode at heavy and hyposthenic patients in lungs can arise up: A. stagnant pneumonia B. aspiration pneumonia C. atelectatic pneumonia D. croupous pneumonia E. hypostatic pneumonia ANSWER: E 716. Blood vessels affected in atherosclerosis are which of the following: A. Aorta only B. Large arteries and large veins C. Large veins D. Aorta and arterioli E. Aorta and large arteries ANSWER: E 717. Blood vessels affected in systemic hypertension are which of the following: A. Aorta and large arteries only B. Aorta only C. Large arteries and large veins D. Venules E. Arterioli ANSWER: E 718. The cells accumulating cholesterol or cholesterol esters in atherosclerotic plaque are which of the following: A. Neutrophils. B. Lymphocytes and macrophages. C. Mesenchymal cells D. Giant cells. E. Macrophages and smooth muscle cells ANSWER: E 719. Material accumulated in macrophages and smooth muscle cells in atherosclerotic plaque is which of the following: A. Glycogen B. Lipohyaline C. Triglycerides D. Lipoproteids E. Cholesterol or cholesterol esters ANSWER: E 720. Material deposited in arteriolar walls in systemic hypertension is which of the following: A. Amyloid B. Glycogen C. Cholesterol or cholesterol esters D. Lipoprotein E. Hyaline ANSWER: E 721. Atherosclerosis commonly affects the arteries supplying all of the following organs, except: A. Lower extremities B. Heart C. Brain D. Kidney E. Upper extremities ANSWER: E 722. The consequences of atherosclerosis are all of the following, except: A. Myocardial infarction B. Cerebral infarct C. Gangrene of lower extremities D. Abdominal aortic aneurism E. Cardiomyopathy ANSWER: E 723. The complications of atheromatous plague are all of the following, except: A. Thrombus formation B. Plaque rupture C. Calcification D. Hemorrhage E. Plague malformation ANSWER: E 724. All of the following components can be found in the necrotic center of atheromatous plaque, except: A. Cell debris B. Cholesterol crystals C. "Foam" cells D. Calcium crystals E. Glycogen granules ANSWER: E 725. Cholesterol-laden macrophages and smooth muscle cells in atheromatous plaque are also referred to as: A. Giant cells B. "Popcorn" -cells C. Epithelioid cells D. Vacuolated cells E. "Foam" cells ANSWER: E 726. The fibrous cap of atheromatous plaque consists of all of the following components, except: A. Smooth muscle cells B. Macrophages C. Collagen and elastan D. Proteoglycans E. Glycogen ANSWER: E 727. The lowered risk of ischemic heart disease in atherosclerosis depends on which of the following: A. High serum level of low-density lipoproteins B. High serum level of very low density lipoproteins C. High serum-level of intermediate-density lipoproteins D. High serum level of triglycerides E. High serum level of high-density lipoproteins ANSWER: E 728. The well developed atheromatous plaque results from all of the following processes, except: A. Endothelial injury with adhesion of monocytes and platelets B. Migration of monocytes from the lumen and smooth muscle cells from the media into the intima C. Lipid absorption by macrophages and smooth muscle cells D. Smooth muscle cell proliferation, collagen deposition E. Action of membrane-bound tissue factor ANSWER: E 729. The chronic endothelial injury in atherosclerosis may be caused by all of the following factors, except: A. Hyperlipidemia B. Hypertension C. Smoking D. Immune reactions E. Genetic defects ANSWER: E 730. The chronic endothelial injury in atherosclerosis includes all pathologic processes, except: A. Increased endothelial permeability B. Adhesion of blood monocytes to the endothelium C. Adhesion of platelets to the intima D. Insudation of lipoproteins into the vessel wall E. Regeneration of endothelial cells ANSWER: E 731. The clinical syndrome of malignant hypertension includes all ofthe following symptoms, except: A. Retinal hemorrhages B. Diastolic pressure >120 mmHg C. Renal failure D. Papilledema E. Systolic pressure >120 mmHg ANSWER: E 732. Secondary hypertension may be caused by all of the following diseases, except: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Gushing's syndrome C. Pheochromocytoma D. Coarctation of aorta E. Lobar pneumonia ANSWER: E 733. The humoral constriction factors that lead to the peripheral resistence in hypertension are all of the following, except: A. Angiotensin II B. Catecholamines C. Thromboxanes D. Leukotriens E. Prostaglandines ANSWER: E 734. The renin-angiotensin system consists of all of the following components, except: A. Renin B. Angiotensin I C. Plasma angiotensinogen D. Angiotensin II E. Tissue angiotensinogen ANSWER: E 735. The antihypertensive substances produced in the kidney are all of the following, except: A. Prostaglandines B. Urinary kallikrein-kinin system C. Platelet-activating factor D. Nitric oxide E. Thromboxane ANSWER: E 736. All of the following factors may contribute to vasoconstriction, except: A. Behavioral factors B. Neurogenic factors C. Increased release of vasoconstric-tive agents D. Increased sensitivity of vascular smooth muscles to constricting agent E. Acute coagulation factor ANSWER: E 737. The special stain used to identify "foam cells" in atherosclerotic plaque is which of the following: A. Picrofuchsin B. Hematoxylin and eosin C. Congo red stain D. PAS-reaction E. SudanIII ANSWER: E 738. The malignant hypertension can be identified microscopically by all of the following features, except: A. Onion-skin concentric laminated thickening of the arteriolar walls B. Progressive narrowing of the arteriolar lumina C. Fibrinoid necrosis of the arteriolar walls D. Perivascular fibrosis E. Cholesterol-laden "foam cells" in the arteriolar walls ANSWER: E 739. On gross examination, the kidneys in systemic chronic hypertension are characterized by all of the following features, except: A. Reduced in size and weight B. Fine granularity on cortical surface C. Grain leather-like cortical surface D. Narrowed cortical surface on section E. Hemorrhages on cortical surface ANSWER: E 740. The typical pathologic proces in arterioles and small arteries in systemic hypertension is referred to as: A. Hyaline atrophy B. Hyaline hyperplasia C. Fibroelastic hyalinosis D. Hyaline atherosclerosis E. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis ANSWER: E 741. All of the following are stages of the atherosclerotic plaque development, except: A. Fibrous plaque B. Fibrofatty plaque C. Atheromatous plaque D. Fibrolipid plaque E. Fibrinous plaque ANSWER: E 742. The major nonmodifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis are all of the following, except: A. Increasing age B. Male gender C. Family history D. Genetic abnormalities E. Increased water resorption ANSWER: E 743. The potentially controllable risk factors for atherosclerosis are all of the following, except: A. Hyperlipidemia B. Hypertension C. Cigarette smoking D. Diabetes mellitus E. Gene tic abnormalities ANSWER: E 744. The gene defects in enzymes involved in aldosterone metabolism in systemic hypertension lead to all of the following effects, except: A. Adaptive increase in aldosterone secretion B. Increased salt resorption C. Increased water resorption D. Plasma volume expansion E. Increased lipoprotein resorption ANSWER: E 745. The pathologic process in arterioles in malignant hypertension is referred to as: A. Endothrombovasculitis B. Thromboangitis obliterans C. Necrotizing atherosclerosis D. Productive arteriolitis E. Necrotizing arteriolitis ANSWER: E 746. Coronary artery suppying blood to the posterior portion of the interventricular septum is which of the following: A. Left anterior descending artery B. Left circumflex coronary artery C. Proximal marginal coronary artery D. Right coronary artery ANSWER: D 747. Coronary artery supplying blood to the anterior part of the interventricular septum is which of the following: A. Left main coronary artery B. Right coronary artery C. Left circumflex coronary artery D. Proximal marginal coronary artery E. Left anterior descending artery ANSWER: E 748. Changes in the aging heart are all of the following, except: A. Epicardial coronary artery tortuosity B. Decreased subepicardial fat C. Brown atrophy of myocardium D. Increased number of inflammatory cells in myocardium ANSWER: D 749. Symptoms of cardiac dysfunction include all of the following, except: A. Failure of the pump itself B. Obstruction of blood flow C. Regurgitant blood flow D. Disorders of cardiac conduction E. Disorders of blood coagulation ANSWER: E 750. Microscopically, most cases of acute myocarditis are characterized by all of th following, except: A. Nonspecific inflammatory infiltrate B. Variable amount of interstitial edema C. Variable degree of myofiber degeneration D. Variable degree of myofiber necrosis E. Marked fibrosis of interstitium ANSWER: E 751. Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Mitral and/or aortic valve involvement B. Small (1 to 5 mm), sterile vegetations C. Vegetations along the line of valve closure D. Systemic emboli development E. Tricuspid valve involvement ANSWER: E 752. Acute rheumatic carditis is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Unremarkable gross appearance of the heart B. The Aschoff bodies in myocardium C. Diffuse nonspecific myocarditis D. The Aschoff bodies in joints E. "Tigered effect" gross appearance ANSWER: E 753. The correct order of histologic phases in the development of Aschoff bodies is which of the following: A. Granulomatous — late — exudative B. Acute — chronic — healed C. Nonspecific — specific D. Early — pathognomonic — intermediate E. Exudative - proliferative - fibrous ANSWER: E 754. Aschoff giant cells are large mesenchymal cells and are believed to be derived from which of the following: A. Fibroblasts B. Lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Erythrocytes E. Macrophages ANSWER: E 755. The valvular effects of chronic rheumatic heart disease are all of the following, except: A. Thickened and deformed valve leaflets B. Valvular calcification C. Thickened and shortened chordae tendineae D. "Fish-mouth" appearance of mitral valve E. Valvular abscess formation ANSWER: E 756. Left-sided heart failure is most often caused by all of the following, except: A. Ischemic heart disease B. Hypertension C. Aortic and mitral valvular diseases D. Nonischemic heart disease E. Brown atrophy of myocardium ANSWER: E 757. Resulting from left-sided heart failure are all of these pathologic changes, except: A. Brown induration of the lung B. Hypoxic encephalopathy C. Pulmonary edema D. Prerenal azotemia E. Secondary amyloidosis ANSWER: E 758. The nonrheumatic degenerative calcific aortic stenosis is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Heaped-up calcified masses within aortic cusps B. Distorted cuspal architecture C. Not involved free cuspal edges D. Primary involvement of the valvular fibrosa E. Lipid deposition and cellular proliferation ANSWER: E 759. The mitral annular calcification is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Irregular, stony hard nodule appearance B. Possible thromboembolic complications C. Infective endocarditis D. Absence of inflammatory changes E. Severely impaired valvular function ANSWER: E 760. The disease that is characterized by the systolic murmur without signs of mitral valve failure is called as: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Mitral annular calcification C. Degenerative calcific aortic valve stenosis D. Congenitally bicuspid aortic valve E. Mitral valve prolapse ANSWER: E 761. Etiologically and pathogenetically, rheumatic fever and rheumatic heart disease are characterized by all of the following, except: A. Initial attack of illness some weeks after streptococcal infection B. Elevated serum titers of antibodies to streptolysin and hyaluronidase C. Sterile tissue lesions not resulting from direct bacterial invasion D. Recurrent acute illness following the streptococcal infection E. Decreased serum protein levels ANSWER: E 762. Heart lesions in acute rheumatic fever are called as which of the following: A. Tuberculoma B. Foreign bodies C. Gumma D. Mitral stenosis E. Aschoff bodies ANSWER: E 763. The Aschoff bodies consist of all of the following, except: A. Lymphocytes (primarily T cells) B. Anitschkow cells C. Fibrinoid degeneration D. Plasma cells E. "Foam cells" ANSWER: E 764. The Anitschkow cells are characterized by all of the following, except: A. Abundant amorphophilic cytoplasm B. Central round-to-ovoid nucleus C. Central disposed chromatin (caterpillar cells) D. Monocytic cytogenesis E. B-lymphocytic cytogenesis ANSWER: E 765. Infective endocarditis is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Microbic invasion into the heart valves B. Destructive vegetation formation C. Mural thrombosis D. Destruction of the underlying cardiac tissues E. Amyloid mass deposition ANSWER: E 766. Systemic emboli in infective endocarditis may occur because of all of the following, except: A. Involvement of aortic and mitral valves B. Severe valvular damage C. Numerous amount of vegetations D. Friable nature of vegetations E. Chronic heart insufficiency ANSWER: E 767. Systemic embolism in infective endocarditis may cause infarcts in all of the following organs, except: A. Brain B. Kidneys C. Heart D. Spleen E. Lungs ANSWER: E 768. What vessels are struck by atherosclerosis? A. Aorta B. V. cava inferior C. Veins D. Arteries E. Capillaries ANSWER: E 769. Microscopycally the vegetations of subacute infective endocarditis are characterized by all of the following, except: A. Fibrosis B. Microbic body calcifications C. Chronic inflammatory infiltrate D. Granulation tissue at vegetation's bases E. Granuloma formation ANSWER: E 770. Non embolic complications of infective endocarditis include all of the following, except; A. Valvular insufficiency or stenosis with cardiac failure B. Myocardial ring abscess C. Suppurative pericarditis D. Endocarditis of artificial valves E. Acute myocardial infarction ANSWER: E 771. The cardinal anatomic changes of the mitral (or tricuspid) valve in chronic rheumatic heart disease are all of the following, except: A. Leaflet thickening B. Commisural fusion C. Shortening and thickening of the tendinous cords D. Fusion of the tendinous cords E. Leaflet softening ANSWER: E 772. Microscopically, chronic rheumatic heart disease is characterized by all of the following, except: A. Diffuse fibrosis of leaflets B. Neovascularization of leaflets C. Destruction of original leaflet architecture D. Aschoff bodies in perivascular connective tissue E. Acute purulent inflammation ANSWER: E 773. Fibrosis bridging across the valvular commissures and calcification in chronic rheumatic heart disease cause which of the following: A. "Tigered effect" B. Fibrofatty atheromas C. Starry sky appearance D. Granulomatosis E. Fish mouth or buttonhole stenosis ANSWER: E 774. The morphological and clinical effects of pure (isolated) right-sided heart failure are all of following, except: A. Congestive hepatomegaly B. Ascites C. Pleural and pericardial effusions D. Anasarca E. Cerebral hematoma ANSWER: E 775. The clinical consequences of valvular dysfunction depend on all of the following, except: A. Valve involved B. Degree of impairment C. Rate of dysfunction development D. Rate and quality of compensatory mechanisms E. Sex of the patient ANSWER: E 776. What is the name of the soft tooth tissue? A. stroma B. dentine C. spongy bone tissue D. keloid E. pulp ANSWER: E 777. What is a physiological anticaries factor? A. cleaning of teeth a twice a day B. the using of ftoric food C. to make use of ftoric tooth-pastes D. to chew the cuds regullary wich do not contain sugar E. formation of transparent (sclerotic) and reparative dentine ANSWER: E 778. What is a favourable background for caries development? A. hypersecretion of saliva B. the use of hard teeth brushes C. to chew the cuds regullary D. nothing from mentioned above E. sexual ripening ANSWER: E 779. What surfaces of teeth are destroyed by a caries rarely than other? A. cheek's B. contact distal C. contact proximal D. occlusal E. lingual ANSWER: E 780. What surface of tooth is destroyed by wedge-shaped defects? A. occlusal surface B. contact proximal surface C. contact distal surface D. lingual surface of crown E. vestibular surface of tooth collum ANSWER: E 781. In what essence of fluorosis development? A. excessive mineralization of hard tissues of tooth B. excessive mineralization of soft tissues of tooth C. violation of tooth-alveolar connections D. discoloration teeth without the change their durability properties E. combined defeat of internalss with violation of forming and calcification of tooth enamel ANSWER: E 782. How is the 4th degree of development of fluorosis named? A. weak defeat B. very weak defeat C. the defeat is moderato expressed D. stage of complications E. heavy defeat ANSWER: E 783. What age-old categories of people more frequent are ill by teeth erosion? A. people of old years B. youths and girls of young age C. it is the disease of child's age D. there is no age-old dependence E. people of mature age ANSWER: E 784. What is structural different between highly developed denticles from under-developed one? A. they have a good mineralization B. they have a good developed interdenticular connections C. they are complete integrated in the system of tooth vital functions D. by chemical composition E. under-developed denticles have no dentinal canals ANSWER: E 785. How is the name of 1th degree of fluorosis development? A. weak defeat B. the defeat is moderato expressed C. heavy defeat D. stage of complications E. very weak defeat ANSWER: E 786. What does differ the secondary dentine from primary? A. the place of location B. the cellular elements absence C. no differs D. there is no such structure in teeth E. the mineralization degree and structure ANSWER: E 787. What delays the spreading of microorganisms and products of their vital functions in transparent and reparative dentine? A. antibacterials secretion of dentincells B. the enhanceable osmotic pressure in a dentine C. the mionectic osmotic pressure in a dentine 788. 789. 790. 791. 792. 793. D. the improved trophism of such dentine E. the chaotic placing of dentinal tubulis and their narrowing ANSWER: E Where does a superficial teeth caries develop? A. a pathological process develops only on-the-spot enamel B. a pathological process engulfs an enamel and part of dentine C. a pathological process destroys dentinal-enamel connection D. a pathological process is characterized by dismineralization and demineralizing of enamel in a subsuperficial layer E. a pathological process keeps indoors outside of an enamel ANSWER: E What from the indicated variants is an offtype caries? A. middle caries B. caries of the front teeth C. caries of incisival teeth D. caries of third molars E. circular caries ANSWER: E What part of teeth is destroyed by wedge-shaped defects? A. crown of the tooth B. root of tooth C. masticatory surface of tooth D. crown with a neck E. neck of tooth ANSWER: E How many degrees does development fluorosis have? A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. there is no division on a degree E. 4 ANSWER: E How are the 2-nd degree of fluorosis development characterized? A. chalky spots occupy more than the half of surface of teeth and meet between itself B. separated and plural erosions of enamels are different form and colourless or pigmented. Teeth are fragile and collapse easily C. chalky spots are small and expressed weakly. They occupied 1/3 labial and tongue surface of teeth D. dicking and fall out of teeth E. chalky spots occupy near the half of area the crowns of the teeth, some pigmented spots situated in enamel ANSWER: E What categories of people are ill acid necrosis of hard tissues of tooth? A. the people, which abuse to mastications of tobacco B. the people, which abuse products which canned by acids C. the people, which have the mionectic рН of saliva D. there are no such diseases of teeth E. professional disease of teeth at people, which contact with inorganic acids ANSWER: E 794. What is the name of inflammatory process which is localized directly at connective tissue shell of tooth? A. paradontitis B. pulpitis C. gingivitis D. paradontosis E. pericementitis ANSWER: E 795. What name of 3th degree of fluorosis development? A. weak defeat B. very weak C. heavy defeat D. stage of complications E. moderato expressed defeat ANSWER: E 796. What structures form the denticles? A. pulp B. a primary dentine C. periodont D. the embryonic elements of the second teeth E. the secondary dentine ANSWER: E 797. What age-old categories, as a rule, are ill by caries of cement? A. the youths B. the girls C. the pregnant women D. identically in the all groups E. the old people ANSWER: E 798. What is the way of microorganisms diffusion in the enamel of tooth? A. dentinal-enamel connections B. dentinal tubulis C. enamel prisms D. intraprisms channels E. the soft intraprisms matter and cracks ANSWER: E 799. What is the retrograde caries? A. the caries of the back teeth B. caries which begins from the back contact surface of tooth C. caries which begins from cement of tooth D. caries which begins under the enamel layer E. caries which begins from a pulp of tooth ANSWER: E 800. What is the initial phase of development of wedge-shaped defects of tooth? A. traumatic damages at mastication B. acid chemical influencing C. alkaline chemical influencing D. considerable temperature overfalls E. trophic violations in the organic matter of enamel and dentine ANSWER: E 801. How is a 1 degree of development of fluorosis characterized? A. chalky spots occupy near the half of area the crowns of the teeth, there are separate pigmented spots in an enamel B. chalky spots occupy more than the half of surface of teeth and meet between itself C. separate and plural erosions of the enamels have the different forms. They are colourless or pigmented. The teeth are fragile and collapse easily D. dicking and fall out of teeth E. chalky spots are small and poorly expressed. They occupy 1/3 labial and tongue surface of teeth ANSWER: E 802. How are 3 degrees of development of fluorosis characterized? A. chalky spots occupy near the half of area the crowns of the teeth, separate spots pigmented and situated in an enamel B. separated and plural erosions of enamels are the different form. They are colourless or pigmented. Teeth are fragile and collapse easily C. chalky spots are small and weakly expressed. They occupy 1/3 labial and tongue surface of teeth D. dicking and fall out of teeth E. chalky spots occupy more than the half of surface of teeth and meet between yourself ANSWER: E 803. What is acid necrosis of hard tooth tissues characterized? A. necrosis and tearing away of hard tissues of tooth with pulpitis B. the rapid necrosis development and sequestration of teeth crowns C. the quick progress of dentine necrosis with the saving of enamel of tooth D. the quick progress of necrosis of dentine and enamel of tooth E. plural demineralizing of dental crowns and their destroyed ANSWER: E 804. What teeth more frequent are destroyed by periodontitis? A. superior incisives B. inferior incisives C. premolars D. superior molars E. inferior molars ANSWER: E 805. What essence of fluorosis development? A. surplus mineralization of hard tooth tissues B. surplus mineralization of soft tooth tissues 806. 807. 808. 809. 810. 811. C. violation of tooth-alveolar connections D. discoloration of teeth without the change them strength properties E. combined defeat of internalss with violation of processes of forming and calcification of teeth enamel ANSWER: E What groups of people more frequent are ill by caries? A. men B. women C. people of mature age D. there is no age-old and sexual gradation E. the children and teenagers ANSWER: E How many stages of development of caries do you know? A. 2 stages B. 3 stages C. 5 stages D. its development have no phases E. 4 stages ANSWER: E In what limit does a typical middle caries develop? A. on 2/3 areas of enamel surface B. a pathological process spreads on an enamel and cement C. the destruction is localized in pulp of tooth D. there is destruction of half of tooth crown E. a process passes into dentin ANSWER: E What feature is of stationary caries? A. it develops after medical interventions on teeth B. it develops when the patient are in hospital C. it develops in the rudiments of the second teeth D. there is no such variant of caries E. it is localized only in an enamel and is not made progress ANSWER: E How quickly do the wedge-shaped defects of teeth develop? A. very quickly (sometimes instantly) B. from a few days to a few weeks C. from a few weeks to a few months D. after the multiple repeated influencing E. some years ANSWER: E What name of the 2th degree of fluorosis development? A. very weak defeat B. the defeat is moderato expressed C. heavy defeat D. stage of complications E. weak defeat ANSWER: E 812. 813. 814. 815. 816. 817. How the 4 degrees of fluorosis development are characterized? A. chalky spots occupy near the half of area the crowns of the teeth, some separated spots are pigmented and situated in an enamel B. chalky spots occupy more than the half of surface of teeth and meet between itself C. chalky spots occupy near the 1/3 of the labial| and tongue surface of the teeth D. dicking and falling out of teeth E. separated and plural erosions of enamels are the different shape, they are colourless or pigmented. Teeth are fragile and destroy easily ANSWER: E What is the denticles of tooth? A. the granular formings are in the cavity of tooth B. the granular stratifications are in the area of dental alveolus C. salts crystals are in the area of neck of tooth D. the structures which are like to the tooth dentine and are disposed on the external surface of enamel or cement of tooth E. the round or oval formations which are built by amorphous salts or are like to the structure of recovery dentine and are disposed in pulp or dentine of tooth ANSWER: E Name the types of chronic periodontitis? A. serosal and festering B. typical and atypical C. protract and progressive D. atrophy and resorbtic, hypertrophy and hyperplastic E. granular, granulomatosal and fibrotic ANSWER: E How many degrees does fluorosis development subdivide? A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. there is no degree division E. 4 ANSWER: E What is the etiologic factor of caries development? A. viruses B. the simplest C. chemical damages of teeth D. physical damages of teeth E. bacteria ANSWER: E How is a caries classified after motion? A. sharp and chronic B. repeated and recedivic C. superficial and deep D. turning and irreversible E. fast and slow ANSWER: E 818. What is the typical deep caries? A. there is destroyed 1/3 teeth B. there is destroyed the superior or lateral surface of crown enamel C. a carious cavity spread into the root of tooth D. all tooth is destroyed E. the forming of large cavity in a dentine, It occupies in pulp ANSWER: E 819. What is the early caries? A. the caries develops in baby teeth B. the caries develops shortly after cuting of the second teeth C. the caries develops shortly after cuting of baby teeth D. develops at 7 - 10-years-old children E. develops directly under the layer of enamel ANSWER: E 820. What is the favourable background of development of wedge-shaped defects of tooth? A. disease of bone sceleton B. disease of mouth cavity C. disease of salivary glands D. nothing among the above-mentioned E. disease of gastroenteric tract ANSWER: E 821. How name of the 1th degree of fluorosis development? A. weak defeat B. the defeat is moderato expressed C. heavy defeat D. stage of complications E. very weak defeat ANSWER: E 822. What is the reason of development of tooth erosion? A. the mechanical damage at mastication B. the considerable thermal overfalls C. the changes of chemical composition of saliva D. the professional harmful E. the reason is unknown ANSWER: E 823. What types of denticles do you know? A. undifferentiated and amorphous denticles B. simple and complex denticles C. highly mineralized dense and lowly mineralized soft denticles D. structured denticles and unstructured E. highly developed and lowly developed denticles ANSWER: E 824. To which group of diseases does epulis belong? A. granulomatous diseases of soft tissues of tooth 825. 826. 827. 828. 829. 830. B. inflammatory processes of gums C. tumular processes of muscular tissue of cheeks or tongue D. the granulomatous formings on bone tissue of jaw E. tumular processes of gums ANSWER: E Characterize the 1st degree of fluorosis development? A. chalky spots occupy near the half of area the crowns of the teeth, there are separate pigmented spots in an enamel B. chalky spots occupy more than the half of surface of teeth and meet between itself C. separate and plural erosions of the enamels have the different forms. They are colourless or pigmented. The teeth are fragile and collapse easily D. dicking and fall out of teeth E. chalky spots are small and poorly expressed. They occupy 1/3 labial and tongue surface of teeth ANSWER: E The caries of which parts of tooth develops more quickly? A. pulp B. cement C. enamel D. develops with the same speed E. dentine ANSWER: E What is the first display of caries development? A. appearance of black spot on the enamel of tooth B. appearance of brown spot on the enamel of tooth C. appearance of the radially oriented cracks D. appearance of a little black erosion on an enamel E. appearance of white opaque spot on the enamel of tooth ANSWER: E What teeth are defeated by a caries more frequently than other? A. lower premolar B. superior premolar C. lower first molar D. there is no set conformity to the law E. superior first molar ANSWER: E What teeth are more frequently defeated by wedge-shaped defects? A. medial incisiva-teeth B. lateral incisiva-teeth C. molar D. all teeth identically often E. canina-teeth and premolars ANSWER: E Why does a fluorosis develop? A. because to the genetic metabolic disturbances B. because to professional harmful influences into an organism 831. 832. 833. 834. 835. C. because to violation of mineral exchange D. because to the insufficient entering of fluorine in organism E. because to the enhanceable entering of fluorine in organism ANSWER: E How is the name of 3d degree of fluorosis development? A. weak defeat B. very weak C. heavy defeat D. stage of complications E. moderato expressed defeat ANSWER: E Give the definition of teeth erosion? A. diminishing of mineralization of teeth enamel with development of unache defect B. demineralizing of noncommunicative areas of enamel of one or two molars C. forming of pigmented defects on the labial surface of incisiv-teeth, which can precede to development of caries D. the progressiv forming of pigmented cracks on the masticatory surface of molars E. the progressiv like cup form defects with diminishing of enamel and dentine which localized on the vestibular surface of teeth and have ache character ANSWER: E Where are the interstitial denticles localized? A. in pulp B. on a border between a dentine and enamel of tooth C. near the tooth root D. between the jaw spongy tissue E. in the deep of dentine ANSWER: E What is the basic display of paradontosis development? A. an inflammatory process in gums with a pain symptom B. an inflammatory process in gums without a pain symptom C. an inflammatory process in tissues of paradontium D. inflammatory process in a paradontium with increasing of vascularizing and hyperplasia of surround tissues E. retraction of gums with baring of tooth neck ANSWER: E What name of the 2th degree of fluorosis development? A. very weak defeat B. the defeat is moderato expressed C. heavy defeat D. stage of complications E. weak defeat ANSWER: E 836. At a parathyreoid osteodystrophy in the maxillufacial bones to the skeleton is observed: A. specific inflammatory process B. heterospecific inflammatory process C. sequestra formation D. hyperostosis E. lacunar resorbtion and formation of fibrotic tissue ANSWER: E 837. The benign unodontogenic tumor of jaw is: A. ameloblastoma B. odontoameloblastoma C. osteosarcoma D. all are enumerated E. osteoblastoclastoma ANSWER: E 838. The cells which form the parenchima of osteoblastoclastomas are belonging to: A. odontogenic ectodermic origin B. odontogenic mesenchimal origin C. melaninproductors D. ephithelial E. osteogenic ANSWER: E 839. A malignant lymphadenoma with typical localization in jaws bones is: A. a Abrikosov's tumor B. a Willms' tumor C. a Sezary tumor D. a Khodjkin's tumor E. a Bercit's tumor ANSWER: E 840. What structure of teeth has the ectodermal origin? A. dentine B. odontoblasts C. pulp D. cement E. enamel ANSWER: E 841. The benign odontogenic tumor of ectodermal origin is: A. cementoma B. odontogenic carcinoma C. osteoblastoclastoma D. dentinoma E. ameloblastoma ANSWER: E 842. According to the clinic-morphological features the ameloblastomas are: A. benign tumor B. malignanted benign tumor C. malignant tumor D. a tumular process E. a tumor with local destructive growth ANSWER: E 843. For an ameloblastoma the typically is: A. metastasis by a haematogenic way B. metastasis by a lymphogenic way C. quick growth D. more often is localized in a maxilla E. numerous niduses of bone destruction ANSWER: E 844. Histological form of ameloblastoma, which meets more often than other: A. akantomatosal B. basalcell C. roundcell D. granularcell E. follicle ANSWER: E 845. The clinic-anatomical forms of ameloblastoma is: A. odontogenic and osteogenic B. ectodermal and mesenchimal C. smallnidus and diffuse D. acute and recidivic E. cystophorous and solid ANSWER: E 846. What form of ameloblastoma according to a histological structure reminds an enamel organ? A. plexiform B. akantomatosal C. basalcell D. granularcell E. follicle ANSWER: E 847. What name of the tumor, which is introduced by the trabecular net of odontogenic epithelium with whimsical branching? A. a follicle form of ameloblastoma B. an akantomatic form of ameloblastoma C. a basalcell form of ameloblastoma D. a granularcell form of ameloblastoma E. a plexiform form of ameloblastoma ANSWER: E 848. For what form of ameloblastoma the typically is epidermoid cell metaplasia with keratin formation? A. follicle B. plexiform C. basalcell D. granularcell E. akantomatic ANSWER: E 849. What form of ameloblastoma according to a histological structure reminds a basalcell cancer? A. follicle B. plexiform C. akantomatic D. granularcell E. basalcell ANSWER: E 850. The odontogenic epithelium of ameloblastoma contains the numerous acidophilic granules. This is a: A. malignant ameloblastoma B. plexiform form of ameloblastoma C. akantomatic form of ameloblastoma D. basalcell form of ameloblastoma E. granularcell form of ameloblastoma ANSWER: E 851. For a adenomatoid tumor typically is: A. atypizm and polymorphism of odontogenic epithelium are expressed B. epidermoid metaplasia of odontogenic epithelium C. metastasis in the regional lymphatic nodes D. all that are enumerated E. a odontogenic epithelium forms structures which remind the channels ANSWER: E 852. Adenomatic tumor arises up more often: A. intra-uterine B. at infants and children of the first year-old C. in the people of mature age D. in the old people E. in the second decade-period of life ANSWER: E 853. What tumors are belonging to odontogenic carcinomas? A. basalcell and acidophilic forms of ameloblastomas B. malignant ameloblastoma and primary intracyst carcinoma ANSWER: B 854. What tumors are belonging to odontogenic carcinomas? A. osteoblastoclastoma and osteosarcoma B. basalcell and acidophilic forms of ameloblastomas C. ameloblastic fibroma and odontoameloblastoma D. all that are transferred E. malignant ameloblastoma and primary intracyst carcinoma ANSWER: E 855. The primary intracyst carcinoma develops from: A. the epithelium of mucus membrane of mouth cavity B. the odontogenic mesenchyma C. the bone tissue D. can develop from all enumerated structures E. the epithelium of Malasse's islets ANSWER: E 856. The primary intracyst carcinoma can develop from: A. the epithelium of mucus membrane of mouth cavity B. the odontogenic mesenchyma C. the bone tissue D. can develop from all enumerated structures E. the epithelium of disontogenetic odontogenic cysts ANSWER: E 857. The benign odontogenic tumors of mesenchyma origin are: A. ameloblastoma, adenomatic tumor B. odontogenic carcinoma, osteoblastoclastoma C. ameloblastic fibroma, odontoameloblastoma D. all that are enumerated E. dentinoma, myxoma, cementoma ANSWER: E 858. What tumors does not belong to the odontogenic tumors of mesenchymal origin? A. dentinoma B. odontogenic myxoma C. benign cementoma D. giant cementoma E. odontoameloblastoma ANSWER: E 859. The typically difference of odontogenic myxoma from the myxomas of other localization is next: A. the base of tumor is formed by mucous mass B. contains the a lot of acid mucopolisaccharides C. a tumor does not metastases D. a tumor is predispositioned to the relapses (recedives) after the surgical delete E. contains the trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium ANSWER: E 860. At histological research of dentinoma it is possible to discover: A. trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium B. immature connecting tissue C. the islets of dysplastic dentine D. nothing from enumerated E. all structures that are marked ANSWER: E 861. The pathognomic sign of cemenomas is: A. a presence of young or mature fibrotic tissue B. a presence of trabeculs of inactive odontogenic epithelium C. a presence of trabeculs of odontogenic epithelium with the signs of polymorphism and atypizm D. it contains the islets of dysplastic dentine E. a formation of cementoid matter with the different degree of mineralization ANSWER: E 862. What histological types of cementom do you know? A. benign cementoblastoma, dentinoma, ameloblastoma B. benign cementoblastoma, cementitious fibroma, odontoameloblastoma C. cementitious fibroma, giganticcells tumor| D. all that are enumerated E. benign cementoblastoma, cementitious fibroma, giant cementoma ANSWER: E 863. Accrding to etiology giant cementoma is a: A. result of trauma B. result of specific inflammatory process C. complication of visceral mycosis D. manifestation of chronic radiation illness E. inherited disease ANSWER: E 864. What tumor does not belong to the odontogenic tumor s of the mixed origin? A. ameloblastic fibroma B. odontoameloblastoma C. ameloblastic fibroodontoma D. odontogenic fibroma E. cementitious fibroma ANSWER: E 865. The ameloblastic fibroma is characterized by: A. contains the islets of proliferativ odontogenic epithelium B. contains the fluffy tissue which reminds the tissue of dental papilla C. typical localization is the area of premolar D. developsmore more frequently in in child's and young age E. all that are enumerated ANSWER: E 866. The odontogenic fibroma is characterized by: A. contains the islets of inactive odontogenic epithelium B. contains the mature connecting tissue C. more frequently meets in senior age-dependent groups D. all that are enumerated is incorrectly E. all that are enumerated is right ANSWER: E 867. The inflammatory diseases of jaws are: A. osteomielitis, osteoma B. cyst,osteoblastoclastoma C. periostitis, paratireoid osteodystrophy D. all that are enumerated disease E. periostitis, osteomielitis ANSWER: E 868. Periostitis is : 869. 870. is: A. infectiously-allergic process which develops in a bone B. festering-necrotizing process which develops in a bone C. inflammatory process which will strike tissues of parodont and spreads on bones structures adjoining to him D. a tumular process is in bone E. an inflammatory process in a periosteum ANSWER: E Character of inflammation acute periostitis is: A. fibrotic B. alterativ, productive C. destructive, hyperplastic D. primary, recidive E. serosal, festering ANSWER: E For acute serosal periostitis the followings changes are typically, except A. hyperemia B. inflammatory edema C. moderate neutrophilic infiltration of periosteum D. posttraumatic E. resorbtion of bone ANSWER: E 871. "Serosal periostitis" is the synonym of diagnosis: A. productive periostitis B. alterative periostitis C. festering periostitis D. fibrotic periostitis E. simple periostitis ANSWER: E 872. Removing a layer by the layer of periosteum with the accumulation of pus between him and bone at festering periostitis is this: A. acute osteomielitis B. chronic osteomyelitis C. cyst D. granulim E. subperiosteal abscess ANSWER: E 873. What term is the synonym of diagnosis "osteomielitis of jaw"? A. phlegmona of bone B. gaversitis C. osteitis D. panostitis E. osteoblastoclastoma ANSWER: E 874. Osteomielitis more frequent develops: A. in a maxilla B. frequency of defeat is identical C. at the same time in the maxilla and mandibula D. in a maxilla osteomielit arises up never E. in a mandibula ANSWER: E 875. What pathomorphological change characterizes odontogenic osteomyelitis most full? A. inflammation of peridont B. inflammation and niduses of peridont destruction C. inflammation and destruction of peridont, festering-inflammatory process in a periosteum D. festering-inflammatory process in a jaw and surrounding tissues E. festering infiltration of marrow, thrombosis of vessels, festering melting of trombs, area of hemorrhage and osteonecrosis ANSWER: E 876. What changes are present in bone tissue at acute osteomyelitis: A. excrescence of granulation tissue B. sclerosis C. regeneration of bones trabecules D. tissue atipism E. resorbtion of bones trabecules ANSWER: E 877. What from enumerated does not meet at acute osteomielitis? A. necrosis of bone tissue B. neutrophilic infiltration C. phlegmonous character of inflammation D. thrombosis of vessels E. sclerosis of bone tissue ANSWER: E 878. The wall of sequestral cavity consists of: A. unchanged bone tissue B. granulation tissue C. connective tissue capsule and ephithelial layer D. all enumerated variants are possible E. connective tissue capsule and pyogenic membrane ANSWER: E 879. The capsule of sequestral cavity is formed by: A. the unchanged bone tissue B. necrotic bone tissue C. granular tissue D. cartilaginous tissue E. fibred connecting tissue ANSWER: E 880. At the congenital form of uncompleted osteogenesis in bones of maxillufacial skeleton is observed: A. the deficit of osteocytes is expressed B. specific inflammatory process C. aseptic necrosis of bone tissue D. substituting of bone tissue by a cartilage E. normal amount of osteocytes and deficiti of basic matter in bones trabecules ANSWER: E 881. At a paratireoid osteodystrophy in the bones of maxillufacial skeleton is observed: A. specific inflammatory process B. unspecific (heterospecific) inflammatory process C. sequestr formation D. hyperostosis E. lacunar resorbtion and formation of fibrotic tissue ANSWER: E 882. At the histological research of jaw periosteum thay found inflammatory hyperemia, swollen, moderate infiltration by neutrophilic leucocytes. Inflammation developed after a trauma. What process is it? A. Festering periostitis B. Fibrotic periostitis C. osteomielitis D. Secondary amyloidosis E. Serosic periostitis ANSWER: E 883. Osteomielitis is the: A. Festering inflammation of mucus membrane B. Odontogenic antritis (Himoritis) C. Odontogenic sepsis D. Secondary amyloidosis E. Marrow inflamation of jaws bones ANSWER: E 884. Premordial cyst develops more often in … A. In the area of the first molar B. in the area of the second molar C. in the area of the first premolar D. in the area of the second premolar E. in the area of the third molar ANSWER: E 885. The internal surface of wall of premordial cyst is covered: A. By mature connecting tissue B. By a ferrous epithelium C. By a transitional epithelium D. By fluffy connecting tissue E. By a multi-layered flat epithelium ANSWER: E 886. A follicle cyst develops from: A. Granulation tissue B. Fibrotic tissue C. Inflammatory infitration D. From the wall of chronic abscess 887. 888. 889. 890. 891. 892. 893. E. enamel organ of tooth which was not cut ANSWER: E A follicle cyst more frequently is combined: A. with the first premolar B. with the first molar C. with the second molar D. with the lower incisiva-tooth E. with the second premolar ANSWER: E A follicle cyst more frequently is combined: A. with the first premolar B. with the first molar C. with the second molar D. with the lower incisiva-tooth E. with the third molar ANSWER: E A follicle cyst more frequently is combined: A. with the first premolar B. with the first molar C. with the second molar D. with the lower incisiva-tooth E. with the lower canina-tooth ANSWER: E It is possible to see in the internal wall of follicle cyst: A. atypic cells B. osteoblasts C. Ferrous cells D. All that are enumerated cells E. mucus productings cells ANSWER: E The radicular cyst meets: A. In 20% from all cases B. In 40% from all cases C. In 50% from all cases D. In 60% from all cases E. In 80% from all cases ANSWER: E The radicular cyst develops as a ressult of: A. acute abscess B. chronic abscess C. acute periodontitis D. Follicle cyst E. Chronic periodontitis ANSWER: E The radicular cyst develops: A. From a follicle cyst B. From acute periodontitis 894. 895. 896. 897. 898. 899. 900. C. From an acute abscess D. From a chronic abscess E. from a complex granulomas| ANSWER: E The internal surface of radicular cyst wall is covered: A. By a ferrous epithelium B. By a transitional epithelium C. By a multi-layered flat carotinized epithelium D. By fibrotic tissue E. By a multi-layered flat uncarotinized epithelium ANSWER: E At acuteinig of inflammation in the wall of radicular cyst develops: A. Abscess B. Granulosum C. Necrosis D. dysplasia of epithelium E. Acanthosis of covering epithelium ANSWER: E At inflammation the radicular cyst cavity can be filling: A. By fibrotic tissue B. by fibrinosic exsudate C. By necrosis D. By a festering exsudate E. By granulation tissue ANSWER: E Before the innate diseases of salivary glands belongs: A. Sialoadenit B. Salivary stoun C. Kheylit D. Parotitis E. Ageneziya ANSWER: E Parotitis – it: A. Inflammation of salivary gland B. Inflammation of sublingual salivary gland C. Inflammation of palatal salivary gland D. Inflammation of all of salivary glands E. Inflammation of parotid salivary gland ANSWER: E Most frequent reason of primary sialoadenitis: A. A virus is Epstain- Bar B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. sort of Candida E. Virus of epidemic parotitis ANSWER: E That is reason of sialodenit of uninfectious origin: A. Tumours of cavity of mouth B. sort of Candida C. Poisoning of mushrooms D. Alcoholic intoxication E. Poisoning salts of heavy metal ANSWER: E 901. Most frequent reason of primary sialodenitis: A. A virus is Epshtain -Bar B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. sort of Candida E. Citomegalovirus ANSWER: E 902. The second defeat of salivary and tear glands is combined it is known as: A. Syndrome of Al'porta B. Syndrome of Patau C. By cider of Zhil'bera D. Syndrome of Kartagenera E. Syndrome of Mikulich ANSWER: E 903. Name the innate disease of salivary glands. A. sialodenit B. sialolithiasis C. oncocitoma D. all are marked E. aectopy ANSWER: E 904. Sialoadenit - is: A. ephithelial tumour of salivary gland B. inflammation of sublingual salivary gland C. inflammation of sublingual salivary gland D. inflammation of parotid salivary gland E. inflammation be what salivary glands ANSWER: E 905. Parotitis – it: A. inflammation be what salivary gland B. inflammation of sublingual salivary gland C. inflammation of sublingual salivary gland D. ephithelial tumour be what salivary gland E. inflammation of parotid salivary gland ANSWER: E 906. What from the transferred morphological changes do not meet at epidemic parotitis? A. it was swollen the interstitium of parotid glands B. lymphoid infiltrations round channels and аcinus C. a plethora is expressed D. secret is in channels E. diffuse neutrophilic snfiltration ANSWER: E 907. Name complication of epidemic parotitis. A. meningitis B. meningiencephalitis C. orchitis D. pancreatitis E. all ANSWER: E 908. At what infection of еpiteliocites channels of salivary glands does acquire the type of "owl eye"? A. epidemic parotitis B. windy pox C. orchitis D. german measles E. citomegalia ANSWER: E 909. What organs are more frequent all struck at the noncommunicative form of cytomegaly? A. liver, buds B. buds, pancreas C. lymph organs D. submandibular salivary glands E. parotid salivary glands ANSWER: E 910. What group does the exciter of citomegalic parotitis belong to? A. gram-positive bacteria B. gram-negative bacteria C. the simplest D. RNA-virus E. DNA-virus ANSWER: E 911. Is there what way of penetration of infections in a salivary gland at cialoadenitis? A. stomatogenic B. gematogenic C. lymphogenic D. pin E. all ANSWER: E 912. What factor is instrumental in formation of salivary stone? A. dyskinesia of channels B. cialodochitis C. increase of pH saliva D. a hit of extraneous body is in a channel E. all ANSWER: E 913. What compounds do form the bulk of salivary stone? A. salts of urinary acid B. cholesterol and salts of bilious acids C. chloride and sulfate of sodium D. mucopolysacharids E. phosphate and carbonate of Ca ANSWER: E 914. What from transferred does not behave to complications of sialolithiasis? A. cialodochitis B. festering cialodenitis C. sclerosis of salivary gland D. sialocele E. ectopia of salivary gland ANSWER: E 915. What from the diseases transferred below belongs to precancer: A. inflammation of lips B. Granulematois of cheylitis C. Eksfoliativ of cheylitis D. Glandular cheylit E. cheylit Manganotti ANSWER: E 916. That from below transferred behaves to the tubular diseases of salivary glands: A. Sialoadenit B. Ectopia of salivary glands C. Stoun illness D. Pleomorfic adenoma E. Sialozis ANSWER: E 917. Most dangerous complication of furuncle of lip: A. Stroke B. Limfadenitis C. Limfangoitis D. Dermatitis E. Thrombophlebitis of angular vine ANSWER: E 918. How is a sialocele, in education of which there is mucus named? A. retential cyst B. varicocele C. mucoepidermoid tumour D. оncocytoma E. mucocele ANSWER: E 919. What tumour of salivary glands does meet more frequent all? A. оncocytoma B. аcynocells tumour C. mucoepidermoid tumour D. carcinoma E. pleomorfic adenoma ANSWER: E 920. Tumours of which histogenic groups do meet in salivary glands most frequent ? A. mesenchimal B. teratomas C. tumours of меlaninforming cells D. none of the transferred groups E. Epithelial ANSWER: E 921. What from transferred does not behave to the ephithelial tumours of salivary glands? A. Aciniforming tumour B. carcinoma C. monoforming adenoma D. oncocitoma E. mucocele ANSWER: E 922. Pleomorfsc adenoma of salivary glands more frequent all meets in: A. children of first-year of life B. rof men under 20 years C. for men under age 30 D. for old people E. for women after 40 years ANSWER: E 923. Most frequent localization of plepomorphyc adenoma: A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. a tumour meets approximately with identical frequency in all of glands E. parotid glands ANSWER: E 924. What most widespread localization of tumours of salivary glands? A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. tumours meets approximately with identical frequency in all of glands E. parotid gland ANSWER: E 925. How macroscopically does the pleomorphyc adenoma of salivary gland look on a cut? A. reminds fish meat B. hollow education, surrounded the thin-walled capsule, is muciferous C. a greyish knot is with numerous hemorrhages and necrotic areas D. all are possible variants are marked (depending on the stage of development of tumour) E. gum-blush, with shallow cists ANSWER: E 926. For the histological structure of pleomorpyc adenoma characteristic is: A. there are ephithelial cages of different form B. tumour cages form structures which remind channels C. there are the fields of mucoid membrane D. all is transferred E. the local hyalinosis of stroma is possible ANSWER: E 927. What assertion in relation to the pleomorfic adenoma of salivary gland is incorrect? A. grows slowly B. more frequent meets for women C. tumour cages form structures which remind channels D. a hyperkeratinization is possible in the ephithelial areas of tumour E. more frequent all localized in submandibular glands ANSWER: E 928. Most frequent localization of monomorfic adenoma: A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. a tumour meets approximately with identical frequency in all of glands E. parotid gland ANSWER: E 929. Is there what main difference of monomorfic adenoma of salivary gland from pleomorfic? A. has an ephithelial origin B. it is of high quality C. slow growth D. more frequent all localized in a parotid gland E. same of histological structure within the limits of one tumor ANSWER: E 930. The synonym of diagnosis "оncocitoma" is: A. pleoformic adenoma B. adenolimfoma C. mucoepidermoid tumor D. acinocellular tumour E. oxifilic adenoma ANSWER: E 931. Most frequent localization of adenolimphomas: A. small salivary glands of oral cavity B. sublingual gland C. submandibular gland D. a tumour meets approximately with identical frequency in all of glands E. parotid gland ANSWER: E 932. The tumour of salivary gland is built from a prismatic epithelium from sharply by a aeosinophylyc cytoplasm. The expressed lymphocitic infiltration of stroma of tumour is marked. Specify the most credible diagnosis. A. Oxifilic adenoma B. Basalcells monomorfic adenoma C. Small cells monomorfic adenoma D. pleomorfic adenoma E. Adenolymhosarcoma ANSWER: E 933. What from transferred is not characteristic for adenolymphoma? A. built from a prismatic epithelium B. the epithelium of tumour takes a place in two rows C. the epithelium of tumour forms nipple structures D. lymphocitic infiltration of stroma of tumour E. cytoplasm of tumour cages sharply basophilic ANSWER: E 934. The tumour of salivary gland is presented combination of cages of epidermoid of type and gravitated from mucoidprodaction cages, stroma is expressed well. Specify the most credible diagnosis. A. basalcalls моnomorphyc adenoma B. smallcells monomorphyc adenoma C. oncocitoma D. adenolimphoma E. mucoepidermoid tumor ANSWER: E 935. Most frequent localization of карциноми of salivary glands: A. sublingual gland B. submandidular gland C. parotid gland D. a tumour meets approximately with identical frequency in all of glands E. small salivary glands of hard ANSWER: E 936. What malignant tumour of salivary glands does meet more frequent all? A. oncocitoma B. adenolymphoma C. pleomorfic adenoma D. mucoepidermoid tumour E. Adenocist carcinoma ANSWER: E 937. What pathological processes are underlaid diseases of soft fabrics of oral cavity? A. dystrophic B. disorders of circulation of blood C. inflammatory D. tumour E. all ANSWER: E Glossitis – it: A. inflammation of lips B. inflammation of mucus shell of mouth C. inflammation of salivary gland D. inflammation of bone E. inflammation of tongue ANSWER: E 939. What is stomatitis? A. inflammation of lips B. glossitis C. inflammation of salivary gland D. inflammation of bone fabric of jaw E. inflammation of mucus shell of mouth ANSWER: E 940. Name a sharp infectious viral disease for which typical is an inflammatory process in stroma of parotid salivary glands. A. mesesels B. german measles C. parainfluenza D. illness of Filatova E. epidemic paropitis ANSWER: E 941. What assertion in relation to epidemic parotitis is incorrect? A. an entrance gate is a mucus shell of mouth, nose B. an edema and hyperemia registers in the interstitium of salivary glands C. there is lymphoid infiltration of stroma of salivary glands D. proof immunity a stay after illness E. DNA-virus ANSWER: E 942. Describe an inflammatory process at epidemic parotitis. A. gangrenous parotitis B. sharp local festering parotitis C. sharp diffuse festering parotitis D. productive parotitis E. interstitial parotitis ANSWER: E 943. Chronic sialoadenit after character inflammation most frequent is: A. alterativ B. catarrhal C. phlegmonous D. gangrenous E. productive ANSWER: E 944. What disease is sialoadenitis at with destruction of salivary glands lymphocites and macrophages? A. syndrome of Daun B. syndrome of Patau 938. C. syndrome of Shereshevsky-Terner D. syndrome of Shteyl-Levental E. syndrome of Shegren ANSWER: E 945. Name complication of sialoadenit. A. sclerosis of gland B. atrophy of acinus C. lipomatosis of stroma D. xerostomia E. all ANSWER: E 946. How is a disease at which concrements appear in the channels of salivary gland named? A. oncocitoma B. parotitis C. sialoadenitis D. sialocirros E. sialolitiasis ANSWER: E 947. The cell types in the corpus gastric glands are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Mucous cells B. Parietal cells C. Chief cells D. Endocrine cells E. Hurtle cells ANSWER: E 948. The gastric mucosal protection from autodigestion is possible due to all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. Mucus secretion B. Bicarbonate secretion C. Epithelial barrier D. Mucosal blood flow E. Gastrin receptor activation ANSWER: E 949. Chronic infection of the gastric mucosa is associated with which of the following bactertia: A. Escherichia coli B. Campilobacter jejuni C. Enterococcus falcium D. Escherichia chaffeensis E. Helicobacter pylori ANSWER: E 950. Chronic gastritis may be characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Lymphocyte infiltration B. Plasma cell infiltration C. Intestinal metaplasia D. Atrophy E. Suppurative inflammation ANSWER: E 951. Acute gastritis is commonly caused by all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. Excessive use of aspirin B. Heavy smoking C. Excessive alcohol consumption D. Treatment with cancer chemotherapeutic drugs E. Genetic abnormalities ANSWER: E 952. Acute gastritis is commonly associated with all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. Uremia B. Severe stress C. Systemic infections D. Ischemia and shock E. Delayed gastric emptying ANSWER: E 953. Acute catarrhal gastritis is morphologically characterized by aU of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Moderate edema of lamina propria B. Vascular congestion of lamina propria C. Neutrophil infiltration D. Abundant mucus amount on the gastric epithelium E. Atrophy of the mucosa ANSWER: E 954. The major etiologic associations of chronic gastritis are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Chronic Helicobacter pylori infection B. Autommune factors C. Toxic factors D. Bile reflux E. Ischemia and shock ANSWER: E 955. The major etiologic associations of chronic gastritis are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Helicobacter pylori infection B. Radiation injury C. Granulomatous diseases D. Autoimmune reactions E. Salmonella infections ANSWER: E 956. Special forms of gastritis are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Eosinophilic gastritis B. Allergic gastroenteropathy C. Lymphocytic gastritis D. Granulomatous gastritis E. Interstitial gastritis ANSWER: E 957. The clinical syndrome associated with gastric, duodenal and jejunal peptic gastrin-induced ulcers development is which of the following: A. Horner syndrome B. Nephrotic syndrome C. DIG syndrome D. Malabsorption syndrome E. Zollinger- Ellison syndrome ANSWER: E 958. Morphologically, all of the following zones can be found in the active ulcer base, EXCEPT: A. Necrotic debris B. Nonspecific acute inflammation C. Granulation tissue D. Fibrosis E. Granulomatous tissue ANSWER: E 959. The appendix in acute appendicitis is grossly characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Enlarged with thickened walls B. Swollen C. Hyperemic with engorged vessels D. With fibrin covered serosa E. Firm and indurated ANSWER: E 960. Catarrhal gastritis is grossly characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Thickened gastric walls B. Swollen gastric mucosa C. Pinpoint hemorrhages on the mucosa D. Abundant viscuos mucus on the mucosa E. Multiple erosions on the mucosa ANSWER: E 961. All of the following complications may be found in chronic peptic ulcer, EXCEPT: A. Perforation B. Bleeding C. Malformation D. Penetration E. Caseation ANSWER: E 962. The causes of malabsorption syndrome are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Defective intraluminal digestion B. Primary mucosal cell abnormalities C. Reduced surface of small intestine D. Lymphatic obstruction E. Small intestine diverticula ANSWER: E 963. Pathologic changes of the intestinal wall in Crohn's disease include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Granuloma formation B. Areas of chronic inflammation with vasculitis C. Segmental fibrosis D. Slit ulcers E. Pseudomembranous colitis ANSWER: E 964. The predisposing conditions for ischemic bowel disease are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Arteriolar thrombosis B. Arteriolar embolism C. Venous thrombosis D. Portal hypertension syndrome E. Helicobacter pylori infection ANSWER: E 965. Giant cerebriform enlargement of the gastric mucosa in Menetrier disease is caused by which of the following pathologic processes: A. Inflammation B. Atrophy of the mucosa C. Interstitial metaplasia D. Fibrosis E. Hyperplasia of the mucosal epithelial cells ANSWER: E 966. Complications of the duodenal peptic ulcer disease include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Bleeding B. Perforation C. Penetration D. Obstruction by edema or scarring E. Malabsorption ANSWER: E 967. Cancerous ulcer margins are grossly characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Greyish-white B. Elevated C. Firm D. Irregular and thickened . E. Relatively straight walls ANSWER: E 968. The most common localization of peptic ulcer is which of the following: A. Greater curvature B. Lesser curvature C. Anterior wall of the gastric corpus D. Posterior wall of the gastric corpus E. Duodenal pyloric ring ANSWER: E 969. The classic peptic ulcer is grossly characterized by all of the following features. EXCEPT: A. Round-to-oval B. Sharply defined C. Punchet-out defect D. Elevated margins E. Superficial defect ANSWER: E 970. The inflammatory infiltrate in the remission stage of chronic gastritis may consist of all of the following cells, EXCEPT: A. Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. Fibroblasts D. Macrophages E. Neutrophils ANSWER: E 971. The granulation tissue in the active ulcer base is infiltrated predominantly by all of the following cells, EXCEPT: A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Plasma cells D. Macrophages E. Giant cells ANSWER: E 972. The most common pathologic change of uninvolved gastrointestinal tract in peptic ulcer patients is which of the following: A. Hypertrophic gastropathy B. Gastric dilatation C. Menetrier disease D. Chronic gastritis ANSWER: D 973. Bleeding from peptic ulcer is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Occurs in 15-20% of patients B. Is most frequent complication of peptic ulcer C. May be life-threatening D. Causes 25% of ulcer deaths E. Causes chronic renal failure ANSWER: E 974. Gastrointestinal tract obstruction from edema or scarring in peptic ulcer disease is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Occurs in 2% of patients B. Often occurs in pyloric channel ulcer C. May occur in duodenal ulcer D. Causes incapacitating, crampy abdominal pain E. May occur in the stomach corpus ANSWER: E 975. Multiple superficial lesions located in the gastric mucosa are called: A. Peptic ulcers B. Acute stress ulcers C. Gastric ulcerations D. Active ulcers E. Erosions ANSWER: E 976. Point out the hepatic cells that participate in the storage and metabolism of vitamin A: A. Hepatocytes B. Kupfer cells C. Endothelial cells D. Hepatic fibroblasts E. Stellate cells (Ito cells) ANSWER: E 977. Microfilaments surrounding the canaliculi and propelling secreted biliary fluid along the canaliculi are which of the following: A. Fibronectin and laminin B. Vinculin and actin C. Talin and vinculin D. Tensin and myosin E. Actin and myosin ANSWER: E 978. A single large lipid droplet, macro vesicular steatosis, that displaces the nucleus may be seen in all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Hepatitis virus C B. Alcohol abuse C. Obesity D. Diabetis mellitus E. Hepatitis virus B ANSWER: E 979. Injury to the liver associated with an influx of acute or chronic inflammatory cells is termed as which of the following: A. Liver regeneration B. Liver cirrhosis C. Hepatoma D. Liver degeneation E. Hepatitis ANSWER: E 980. Yellow discoloration of the skin and sclerae, internal organs and mucus membranes is referred to as: A. Melanosis B. Vitiligo C. Nevi D. Cyanosis E. Jaundice ANSWER: E 981. Unconjugated bilirubin is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Insoluble in water B. Tightly complexed to serum albumin C. Cannot be excreted in the urine D. May diffuse into tissue and produce toxic injury E. Increased only in impaired bile flow ANSWER: E 982. Conjugated bilirubin is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Water soluble B. Nontoxic C. Loosely bound to albumin D. Can be excreted in the urine E. May induce kernicterus ANSWER: E 983. Jaundice occurs when the equilibrium between bilirubin production and clearance is disturbed by all of the following factors, EXCEPT: A. Excessive production of bilirubin B. Impaired bile flow C. Reduced hepatocyte uptake D. Impaired conjugation E. Increased hepatocellular excretion ANSWER: E 984. All of the following syndromes are characterized by hereditary hyperbilirubinemias, EXCEPT: A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II B. Gilbert syndrome C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome D. Rotor syndrome E. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type III ANSWER: E 985. The morphologic alterations that cause liver failure are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Massive hepatic necrosis B. Acute inflammation C. Cirrhosis D. Chronic inflammation E. Small fatty droplets in hepatocytes ANSWER: E 986. Liver chirrhosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Bridging fibrous septa B. Parenchymal nodular architecture C. Reorganized vascular architecture D. Disrupted liver architecture E. Hemosiderin granules in liver cells ANSWER: E 987. Collagen synthesis by hepatic stellate cells (Ito cells) and its deposition may be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Disruption of the extracellular matrix B. Direct stimulation of stellate cells by toxins C. Cytokine production by stimulated liver cells D. Inflammatory cytokine production (TNF-a, TGF-b) E. Apoptosis of Ito cells ANSWER: E 988. The possible machanisms of most cirrhotic deaths are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Progressive liver failure B. Complication related to portal hypertension C. Development of hepatocellular carcinoma D. Systemic infection E. Pulmonary thromboembolism ANSWER: E 989. The major consequences in portal hypertension in cirrhosis are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Formation of portosystemic venous shunts B. Congestive splenomegaly C. Hepatic encephalopathy D. Ascites E. Intracerebral hematoma ANSWER: E 990. The pathogenesis of ascites involves all of the following mechanisms, EXCEPT: A. Sinusoidal hypertension B. Percolation of the hepatic lymph into the peritoneal cavity C. Intestinal fluid leakage D. Renal retention of sodium and water E. Increased oncotic plasma pressure ANSWER: E 991. Principal sites of portosystemic shunts opening with the rise of portal systemic pressure are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Veins within the rectum (hemorrhoids) B. Veins of cardioesophageal junction C. Retroperitoneal vein D. Veins of falciform ligament of the liver E. Hepatic veins ANSWER: E 992. Hepatitis A is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Benign, self-limited infectious course B. Low death rate C. Fecal-oral route of transmission D. Protective immunity against reinfection E. Fulminant course ANSWER: E 993. Hepatitis B may be characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Prolonged persistence of HBV in patient's blood B. Presence of HBV in all pathologic and physiologic body fluids C. Vertical transmission D. Contamination of blood and blood products E. Small size virus with defective RNA ANSWER: E 994. Hepatitis B virus may produce all of the following morphologic variants of liver disease, EXCEPT: A. Acute hepatitis B. Nonprogressive chronic hepatitis C. Progressive chronic hepatitis D. Fulminant hepatitis E. Liver steatosis ANSWER: E 995. Hepatitis B virus may produce all of the following variants of liver disease, EXCEPT: A. Progressive chronic hepatitis B. Asymptomatic carrier state C. Indolent chronic hepatitis D. Acute hepatitis E. Congestive cirrhosis ANSWER: E 996. The carrier state for hepatitis virus B is defined by the presence of which of the following: A. HBeAg in the urine for 12 months B. HBcAg in the cerebrospinal fluid for at least 6 months C. HBcAg in the serum for 12 months D. HBsAg in the urine for 8 months E. HBsAg in the serum for 6 months ANSWER: E 997. The possible outcomes of hepatitis virus B acute infection include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Subclinical disease B. Acute hepatitis C. "Healthy" carrier D. Persistent infection E. "Nutmeg" liver ANSWER: E 998. Hepatitis virus C is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Parenteral route of transmission B. Possible sexual and vertical transmission C. High rate of progression to chronic disease D. Absence of effective immunity E. Low rate of progression to cirrhosis ANSWER: E 999. Hepatitis virus D is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. High risk for HDV infection to male homosexuals B. Rare development of chronicity C. Conversion of mild chronic HBV infection to fulminant disease D. High risk for HDV infection to drug addicts and hemophiliacs E. Common development of hepato-cellular carcinoma ANSWER: E 1000. Hepatitis virus E is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Enterically transmitted, water-borne infection B. Common in young to middle aged adults C. High mortality rate among pregnant women D. Commonly self-limited disease E. Inducing massive liver necrosis ANSWER: E 1001. Morphologically, acute viral B hepatitis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse swelling (ballooning degeneration) of hepatocytes B. Inflammatory cells in the sinusoids and portal tracts C. Hepatocellular apoptosis D. Confluent and bridging necrosis of hepatocytes E. Portal tract expansion with fibrous tissue ANSWER: E 1002. Morphologically, chronic indolent viral B hepatitis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Well preserved liver architecture B. Periportal and bridging fibrosis C. Limited to portal tract inflammation D. Smoldering hepatocyte necrosis throughout the lobule E. Severe cholestasis ANSWER: E 1003. Microscopically, fulminant hepatitis virus B is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Complete destruction of hepatocytes in damaged lobules B. Collapsed reticulin framework C. Preserved portal tracts D. Inflammatory cell reaction E. Hepatocyte regenerative nodules ANSWER: E 1004. Macroscopically, the liver in chronic alcoholism is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Enlargement (up to 4 to 6 kg) B. Soft consistence C. Yellow and greasy appearance D. Smooth surface E. "Nutmeg" liver ANSWER: E 1005. Alcoholic hepatitis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Swelling, steatosis and necrosis of hepatocytes B. Mallory bodies formation C. Neutrophilic reaction D. Sinusoidal and perivenular fibrosis E. Councilman bodies formation ANSWER: E 1006. Most forms of chronic renal failure produce increased serum levels of all of the following substances, EXCEPT: A. Aldosterone B. Phosphate C. Parathormone D. Renin E. Calcium ANSWER: E 1007. Uremia is associated with all of the following abnormalities, EXCEPT: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Gastritis C. Pericarditis D. Diffuse alveolar damage E. Polycythemia ANSWER: E 1008. Glomerular injury caused by circulating complexes occurs in all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. Syphilis B. Goodpasture's syndrome C. Hepatitis B D. Systemic lupus erythematosus E. Lung cancer ANSWER: E 1009. Diabetes mellitus is associated with all of the following renal disorders, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis C. Benigh nephrosclerosis D. Acute pyelonephritis E. Urate nephropathy ANSWER: E 1010. All of the following conditions predispose to urolithiasis, EXCEPT: A. Hyperparathyroidism B. Gout C. Proteus pyelonephritis D. Enteric hyperoxaluria E. Sickle cell nephropathy ANSWER: E 1011. The factor least likely to cause acute pyelonephritis is which of the following: A. Pregnancy B. Nephrolithiasis C. Catheterization of the bladder D. Prostatic hypertrophy E. Septicemia ANSWER: E 1012. Mesangial cells can be characterized by all of the following properties, EXCEPT: A. Ingestion of macromolecules B. Connection with Lacis cells C. Ability to contract D. Production of basement membrane proteins E. Production of renin ANSWER: E 1013. Immunologicaly mediated glomerulonephritis all of the following cells contribute to the glomerular injury, EXCEPT: A. Macrophages B. Platelets C. Neutrophils D. Mesangial cells E. Mast cells ANSWER: E 1014. Systemic lupus erythematosus gives rise to all of the following patterns of glomerular injury, EXCEPT: A. Focal proliferative glomerulonephritis B. Diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis C. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis E. Lipoid nephrosis ANSWER: E 1015. All of the following statements correctly describe chronic pyelonephritis, EXCEPT: A. It causes asymmetrically scarred kidneys B. It is associated with vesicoureteral reflux in most cases C. It may produce thyroidization of tubules D. It is an important cause of secondary nephrosclerosis E. It spares the calyces and pelvis ANSWER: E 1016. All of the following statements correctly describe analgesic abuse nephropathy, EXCEPT: A. It is characterized by tubulo-interstitial component B. It is often caused by phenacetin C. It causes inability to concentrate urine D. It often improves with drug with drawal E. It predisposes to the development of renal cell carcinoma ANSWER: E 1017. Renal diseases producing systemic hypertension include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Chronic pyelonephritis D. Renal vasculitis E. Renal amyloidosis ANSWER: E 1018. Histologic features of malignant nephrosclerosis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles B. Medial thickening of arterioles C. Renal artery thrombosis D. Focal renal parenchymal infarction E. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal artery ANSWER: E 1019. All of the following statements correctly describe renal artery stenosis, EXCEPT: A. It is an uncommon form of hypertension B. It is the most common curable form of hypertension C. It is usually caused by atherosclerotic plaque D. It produces high renin levels in the venous blood of the ischemic kidney E. It is treated by hemodialysis ANSWER: E 1020. Obstetrically related renal disease includes all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse cortical renal necrosis B. Acute ischemic tubular necrosis C. Acute glomerulonephritis D. Hydronephrosis E. Nephrocalcinosis ANSWER: E 1021. Hematuria is a characteristic clinical feature of all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A. Glomerulonephritis B. Nephrolithiasis C. Renal cell carcinoma D. Bladder papilloma E. Malakoplakia ANSWER: E 1022. Ultrastructural changes in children primary nephrotie syndrome involve which of the following glomerular elements: A. Endothelium B. Mesangium C. Bloodvessels D. Basement membrane E. Podocytes ANSWER: E 1023. Which statement correctly characterizes membranous glomerulopathy? A. It is the most common cause of nephrotie syndrome in children B. Patients usually present with acute renal failure C. It is characterized by diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D. It is characterized by mesangial interposition phenomenon E. Electron microscopy demonstrates numerous subepithelial immunetype deposits ANSWER: E 1024. Subendothelial granular electron-dense deposits can be found in which of the following diseases: A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Side cell nephropathy C. Membranous glomerulonephritis D. Gouty nephropathy E. Systemic lupus erythematosus ANSWER: E 1025. What pathologic condition of the kidneys is caused by mercury poisoning? A. Renal papillary necrosis B. Crescentic glomerulonephritis C. Acute interstitial nephritis D. Renal cell carcinoma E. Acute tubular necrosis ANSWER: E 1026. In nonobstructive chronic pyelonephritis the most common way for bacteria to gain entrance into the kidney is which of the following: A. Arterial bloodstream B. The lymphatics C. Venous bloodstream D. Aberrant arteriovenous shunts E. Vesicoureteral reflux ANSWER: E 1027. An immunofluorescence-stained kidney specimen from a patient with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is likely to show which of the following: A. Linear deposits of Ig G B. Granular deposits of IgA C. Linear deposits of streptococcal antigen D. Granular deposits of streptococcal antigen E. Granular deposits of Ig G ANSWER: E 1028. All of the following clinical features are likely to be found in nephrotic syndrome, EXCEPT: A. Proteinuria B. Hypoalbuminemia C. Hyperlipidemia D. Edema E. Hematuria ANSWER: E 1029. All of the following statements regarding postinfectious glomerulonephritis are true, EXCEPT: A. The disease follows streptococcus infection B. Electron microscopy shows large subendothelial immune-type deposits C. The histologic picture is that of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis D. The clinical picture is characteristic of acute nephritis E. Most affected children develop chronic renal failure ANSWER: E 1030. All of the following statements regarding Goodpasture's syndrome are true, EXCEPT: A. Patients present with hemoptysis and hematuria B. Death occurs due to uremia and pulmonary hemorrhage C. Electron microscopy shows the absence of electron-dense deposits D. Immunofluorescence reveals linear deposits of IgG in the glomeruli E. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of IgG in the glomeruli ANSWER: E 1031. Hydronephrosis is caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Large uterine leiomyoma B. Renal calculi C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy D. Papillary transitional cell carcinoma of the ureter E. Chronic renal vein thrombosis ANSWER: E 1032. Benign nephrosclerosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Narrowing of the lumen of the arterioles and small arteries B. Thickening and hyalinization of the vessels' walls C. Foci of tubular atrophy D. Deposition of collagen within the Bowman space E. Deposition of amyloid within the Bowman space ANSWER: E 1033. The tubular epithelial cells in acute tubular necrosis are characterized by all of the following pathologic features, EXCEPT: A. Karyolysis B. Plasmolysis C. Plasmorrhexis D. Plasmocoagulation E. Tubulorrhexis ANSWER: E 1034. Hydronephrosis is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Thinning of the renal parenchyma B. Dilatation of the renal pelvis C. Dilatation of the renal calyces D. Progressive atrophy of the kidney E. Kidney infarct ANSWER: E 1035. In the urinary tract obstruction all pathologic processes can be found. EXCEPT: A. Dilatation of the pelvis and calyces B. Interstitial inflammation C. Interstitial fibrosis D. Glomerular and tubular atrophy E. Ischemic tubular necrosis ANSWER: E 1036. In pathogeny of glomerulonephritis a considerable role plays: A. Reinfection B. Toxicness of microbes C. A presence of the inflammatory diseases of kidneys in anamnesis D. Superinfection E. Sensitizing of an organism ANSWER: E 1037. Patogenetic basis of glomerulonephritis is formed by: A. Exsudates reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries B. Necrotic reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries C. Exsudative necrotic reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries D. Proliferative reactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries E. Immunoreactions on the basic membranes of glomerular capillaries ANSWER: E 1038. A 43 years old man is diagnosed clinically with the subacute rapidly progressive| glomerulonephritis. Its morphological equivalent is: A. Intracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis; B. Glomerulosclerosis ; C. Membranous glomerulonephritis; D. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis. E. Extracapillary proliferative glomerulonephritis ANSWER: E 1039. Structurally-functional unit of kidney is: A. Nephron ANSWER: A 1040. What type of epithelium covers the mucous membrane of urinoexcretory ways? A. Monolayer pavement epithelium; B. Multi-layered ciliated ; C. Monolayer cylindrical; D. Multi-layered pavement unonkeratinizing . E. Multi-layered transitional; ANSWER: E 1041. In case of poisoning by mercuric chloride there is a necrosis of A. Cardiac hystiocytes B. Glomerular system of kidneys C. Renal stroma D. Wall of ureter E. Epithelium of renal tubules ANSWER: E 1042. What develops in case of prolong obstruction of ureters by stone in a kidney A. Heart attack B. Gangrene C. Glomerulonephritis D. Amiloidosis E. Hydronephrosis ANSWER: E 1043. What disease can be complicated by amyloidosis: A. Atherosclerosis B. Heart ischemic disease C. Croupous pneumonia D. Hypertension E. Fibrous cavernous tuberculosis of lungs ANSWER: E 1044. Symptomatic hypertension evolves most frequently from: A. Atherosclerosis of renal arteries B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Aldosteronism D. Pheochromocytoma E. Glomerulonephritis ANSWER: E 1045. A gouty kidney develops as a result of abnormality of metabolism of A. Chromoproteins B. Lipids C. Albumins D. Carbonhydrates E. Purines ANSWER: E 1046. What abnormality develops at shock A. Chronic kidney insufficiency B. Glomerulonephritis C. Renal amiloidisis D. Renal cirrhosis E. Acute kidney insufficiency ANSWER: E 1047. Morphological form of subacute glomerulonephritis is: A. Mesangial membranous glomerulonephritis B. Mesangial proliferative C. Minimum changes D. Intracapillar proliferative E. Extracapillar proliferative ANSWER: E 1048. 1049. 1050. 1051. 1052. by A clinical syndrome is characteristic for the renal amiloidisis A. Hepatonephric B. Lowe's syndrome C. Alport's syndrome D. Nephritic syndrome E. Nephrotic syndrome ANSWER: E Changes in a colon at uremia are A. Granulomatous inflammation B. Stricture C. Polyposis D. Ulcerous colitis E. Fibrinous [diphtheritic] colitis ANSWER: E Proteinuria at glomerulonephritis is caused by A. Purulent exsudate permeating into the urine B. Hyperproteinemia C. Purulent infiltration of stroma D. Damage of tubular wall E. Damage of wall of glomerular capillares ANSWER: E Most frequent complication of glomerulonephritis is A. Amiloidosis B. Increase in arterial pressure C. Renal abscesses D. Hematuria E. Arteriolosclerotic kidney ANSWER: E At extracapillar productive glomerulonephritis half moons are formed A. Red corpuscles B. Neutrophilic leucocytes C. Red corpuscles and neutrophilic leucocytes D. Exfoliated endothelium and fibrin E. Exfoliated renal epithelium and fibrin ANSWER: E 1053. The main complication of nephrolithiasis is A. Hypertrophy of the left ventricle B. Hypertension C. Contracted [granular] kidney D. Cancer of kidney E. Hydronephrosis ANSWER: E 1054. The changes of epithelium of tubulis are in the shock stage of acute kidney insufficiency A. Metaplasia of epithelium B. Necrosis of epithelium C. The changes are absent D. Removing a layer by the layer of epithelium E. Dystrophy of epithelium ANSWER: E 1055. The changes of tubular epithelium in the oliguric stage of acute renal insufficiency A. Metaplasia of epithelium B. Dystrophy of epythelium C. Changes are absent D. Exfoliation of epithelium E. Necrosis of epithelium ANSWER: E 1056. What belongs to the inherited diseases from these tubular patologies A. Pyelonephritis B. Necrotic nephrosis C. “Myelome” kidney D. “Shield-shaped” kidney E. Tubular enzimatic pathology ANSWER: E 1057. What illness from the listed below relates to the large mottled kidney A. Amiloidosis of kidney B. Chronic pyelonephritis C. Nephrolithiasis D. Chronic glomerulonephritis E. Subacute glomerulonephritis ANSWER: E 1058. The characteristic feature of chorioepithelioma is A. Presence of lymphatic vessels B. Petrification C. Absence of stroma D. Sclerosis of stroma E. Atrophy of chorionic epithelium ANSWER: C 1059. Histological type of of high quality hyperplasia of prostatic gland A. Muscular type B. Stromal vascular type C. Amyloid type D. Fibroid cystous type E. Mixed type ANSWER: E 1060. The most frequent clinical display of fibroid hyperplasia of mucous membrane of uterus is: A. Pain syndrome B. Masculinization C. Enlargement of uterus determined by ultrasonography D. The characteristic clinical displays are absent E. Metrorrhagia ANSWER: E 1061. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of men is A. Prostatitis B. Orchitis C. Epididymitis D. Cancer of testicles E. Gynecomastia ANSWER: E 1062. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of men is A. Prostatitis B. Orchitis C. Cancer of prostatic gland D. Urethritis E. Adenoma of prostate ANSWER: E 1063. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of women is A. Cervicitis B. Endometritis C. Salpingitis D. Cancer of the body of uterus E. Mastopathy ANSWER: E 1064. The dishormonal disease of the sexual system of women is A. Oophoritis B. Cystitis C. Sarcoma of uterus D. Endometritis E. Endocervicosis ANSWER: E 1065. What process occurs in the wall of urinary bladder at prostatopathy ? A. Sclerosis B. Fibrosis C. Atrophy D. The changes are absent E. Compensatory hypertrophy ANSWER: E 1066. Name a process, which is regarded as an inflammatory disease of mucous membrane of uterus A. Cystophorous hyperplasia B. Pseudo erosion C. Polypous excrescence D. Endometriosis E. Endometritis ANSWER: E 1067. What pathological process the hypertrophy of prostatic gland is related to? A. Chronic prostatitis B. Acute prostatitis C. Hyperfunction of sexual glands D. Disorder of the urine outflow E. Hypofunction of sexual glands ANSWER: E 1068. Name the complication of dishormonal hypertrophic prostatopathy? A. Formation of the prostatic cysts. B. Purulent melting of prostate C. Sclerosis of prostate D. Appearance of polypous excrescences E. Difficulty in the urine outflow ANSWER: E 1069. Give the determination of gynecomastia A. Non-cancerous cystous dysplasia of mammary gland B. Non-cancerous hyperplasia of mammary gland C. Malignant dysplasia of mammary gland D. Non-cancerous scleroyic dysplasia of mammary gland E. Non-cancerous dysplasia of breast in men ANSWER: E 1070. Pneumonia (pneumonia) is the disease, which includes large group of varied after etiology, pathogenic and morphological description of inflammations: A. respiratory department of lung B. pleura C. mediastinum D. overhead respiratory tracts E. pericardium ANSWER: E 1071. The way of penetration of exciter of pneumonia in lungs is called: A. contageous B. primary C. second D. primary or second E. bronchogenic ANSWER: E 1072. Lobar pneumonia – in 95 % cases is caused by: A. streptococcus B. staphylococcus C. chlamydiae D. coli bacteria E. Franklyn’s pneumococcus ANSWER: E 1073. At croupous pneumonia in the red hepatization color of sputum is: A. black B. red C. yellow D. grey 1074. 1075. 1076. 1077. up: E. ferruginous ANSWER: E Pulmonary complications of croupous pneumonia can be: A. pneumofibrosis B. acute bronchitis C. fibrous alveolitis D. meningitis E. carnification ANSWER: E Extrapulmonary complication of croupous pneumonia can be: A. abscess of the lung B. empyema of pleura C. gangrene of the lung D. bronchitis E. meningitis ANSWER: E By foreign bodies of respiratory tracts can arise up: A. stagnant pneumonia B. paravertebral pneumonia C. hypostatic pneumonia D. croupous pneumonia E. atelectatic pneumonia ANSWER: E By the hit of extraneous bodies in respiratory tracts in lungs can arise A. aspiration pneumonia B. stagnant pneumonia C. hypostatic pneumonia D. atelectatic pneumonia E. croupous pneumonia ANSWER: E 1078. The most prevalent way of penetration of exciter at bronchopneumonia is: A. bronchogenic B. haematogenic C. lymphogenic D. mixed E. enterogenic ANSWER: A 1079. Atelectasis is: A. The active сollaps of pulmonary tissue, which can arise up at the lack of surfactant B. multiplying the amount of teethridge C. in. diminishing of amount of teethridge D. passive сollaps force-feed exsudate or air E. passive сollaps of pulmonary fabric force-feed tumour ANSWER: A 1080. Collapse is: A. The passive сollaps force-feed exsudate, air or tumour B. The active сollaps of pulmonary fabric, which can arise up at the lack of surfactant C. multiplying the amount of teethridge D. diminishing of amount of teethridge E. the active сollaps of pulmonary fabric with diminishing of amount of teethridge ANSWER: A 1081. The exception of part of teethridge from a respiratory function draws the development of the: A. collapse B. atelectasis C. Hamman-Rich syndrome D. collapse and atelectasis E. vicarious (compensatory) emphysema ANSWER: E 1082. Subject to character of exsudate pneumonia is: A. serosal B. primary C. bronchopneumonia D. interstitial E. secondary ANSWER: A 1083. What is the possible complication of bronchopneumonia: A. gangrene B. myocardial infarction C. pulmonary infarction D. Hamman-Rich syndrome E. renal infarct ANSWER: A 1084. To the atipical forms of pneumonias belongs: A. intermediate B. viral C. croupous D. bronchopneumonia E. bacterial ANSWER: A 1085. Intermediate pneumonia is: A. peribronchial B. lobular C. segmental D. acinous E. croupous ANSWER: A 1086. What is the possible complication of interstitial pneumonia: A. pneumosclerosis B. myocardial infarction C. bronchial asthma D. acute bronchitis E. renal infarct ANSWER: A 1087. A chronic bronchitis with the protracted clinical course is accompanied: A. by dystrophy of elastic, muscular and cartilaginous frameworks B. by hypertrophy of elastic and cartilaginous frameworks C. by atrophy of elastic framework D. by hyperplasia of muscular type E. by dystrophy of cartilaginous framework ANSWER: A 1088. Emphysema of lungs is: A. The pathological state of pulmonary fabric, which is characterized by enhanceable maintenance in her air B. The active collapse of pulmonary fabric, which can arise up at the lack of surfactant C. multiplying the amount of teethridge D. the passive collapse force-feed exsudate, air or tumor E. the pathological state of pulmonary fabric, which is characterized by the lowered maintenance in her air ANSWER: A 1089. Emphysema of lungs is: A. acute B. chronic C. croupous D. subacute E. vesicular ANSWER: E 1090. The development of the vesicular emphysema is connected with: A. chronic bronchitis, bronchiolitis B. croupous pneumonia C. delete of part of lungs D. age-old involution of lungs E. lobar pneumonia ANSWER: A 1091. Chronic bronchitis is associated with all of the following pathologic changes, EXCEPT: A. Inflammatory infiltration of alveolar walls B. Goblet cell hyperplasia in bronchi C. Goblet cell metaplasia in bronchioli D. Hypertrophy of bronchial submucosal glands E. Inflammatory infiltration of bronchioli ANSWER: A 1092. An autopsy of a 45-year-old male patient, who had double bronchopneumonia and died under the phenomena of intoxication, revealed in the lower lobe of the right lung some thick-walled cavity, 4 cm in diameter, filled with liquid yellowish masses. Choose pathological process complicated the course of pneumonia: A. Tuberculoma B. Gangrene C. Abscess D. Sequester E. Empyema ANSWER: A 1093. An autopsy of 78-year-old male patient, who died from cardiopulmonary insufficiency, revealed an enlarged right lung with massive fibrinous superpositions on the pleura. Histologically, the alveolar lumen had accumulations of fibrin and neutrophils. The lymph nodes in the lung roots were pale pink and somewhat enlarged. Name the stage of croupous pneumonia: A. Red hepatization B. Influx C. Grey hepatization D. Resolution E. Empyema ANSWER: C 1094. On autopsy, 380 ml of some yellow fluid with an unpleasant odour were found in the right pleural cavity. Microscopically, the liquid contained a lot of neutrophilic granulocytes. Choose the diagnosis: A. Pulmonary abscess B. Phlegmon C. Pulmonary gangrene D. Pulmonary infarction E. Pleural empyema ANSWER: E 1095. Chronic obstructive bronchitis is associated with all of the following pathologic changes, EXCEPT: A. Goblet cell hyperplasia in bronchi B. Goblet cell metaplasia in bronchioli C. Hypertrophy of bronchial submucosal glands D. Inflammatory infiltration of bronchioli E. Inflammatory infiltration of alveolar walls ANSWER: E 1096. An autopsy of a 43-year-old male, who died from cardiopulmonary insufficiency, revealed an enlarged grey dense air-free lower lobe of the left lung, the vincernl pleura of this lobe had superpositions of fibrin. Microscopically, the lumens of alveoli revealed some fibrinous-leukocytic exudate. Name the stage of croupous pneumonia: A. Red hepatization B. Influx C. Grey hepatization D. Resolution E. Empyema ANSWER: C 1097. An autopsy of a 55-year-old male, who died from cardiopulmonary insufficiency, revealed thickened deformed bronchi filled with some mucopurulent exudate. Microscopically, an inflammatory infiltration, foci of squamous metaplasia of the epithelium and an increased number of goblet cells were found in the bronchi. Choose the diagnosis: A. Chronic bronchitis B. Bronchopneumonia C. Bronchiectatic disease D. Acute bronchitis E. Fibrinous bronchitis ANSWER: C 1098. Complications of bronchopneumonia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Bronchiectasis B. Pleural fibrosis C. Metastatic abscess formation D. Permanent lobar solidification E. Lung histiocytosis ANSWER: E 1099. All of the following factors commonly predispose to bacterial pneumonias, EXCEPT: A. Viral respiratory tract infections B. Cigarette smoking C. Congestive heart failure D. Anesthesia E. Bacterial urinary tract infection ANSWER: E 1100. Aspiration of gastric contents produces all of the following types of pulmonary injury, EXCEPT: A. Adult respiratory distress syndrome B. Lipoid pneumonia C. Lung abscess D. Empyema E. Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis ANSWER: E 1101. Diseases with diffuse interstitial lung fibrosis development include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Sarcoidosis B. Asbestos C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Bleomycin lung E. Measles pneumonia ANSWER: E 1102. Eosinophilic infiltrates characterize all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. Loeffler's syndrome B. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis C. Bronchial asthma D. Pigeon/bird breeder's lung E. Pneumocystic infection ANSWER: E 1103. Cigarette smoke contributes to the pathogenesis of the chronic obstructive emphysema by all of the following mechanisms, EXCEPT: A. Attracting neutrophils into the lung B. Stimulating release of neutrophil elastase C. Inhibiting the ability of pulmonary leukocytes to clear bacteria D. Inhibiting alpha 1-antitrypsin E. Stimulating macrophage elastase activity ANSWER: C 1104. Noncaseating pulmonary granulomas can be found in all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A. Chronic berylliosis B. Silicosis C. Sarcoidosis D. Alveococcosis E. Tuberculosis ANSWER: E 1105. Primary pulmonary hypertension is characterized by which of the following: A. Strong association with cigarette smoking B. Association with pulmonary embolism C. Common association with chronic obstructive lung disease D. "Bush tea " drinking lung E. Atherosclerosis of the pulmonary arteries ANSWER: E 1106. Cigarette smoking is causally related to all of the following pulmonary diseases, EXCEPT: A. Chronic bronchitis B. Centrilobular emphysema C. Small airway disease (bronchiolitis) D. Bronchogenic carcinoma E. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (fibrosing alveolitis) ANSWER: E 1107. Types of emphysema, according to the anatomic nature of the lesion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Centriacinar B. Panacinar C. Paraceptal D. Irregular E. Interstitial ANSWER: E 1108. The abnormal fenestrations of the walls of the alveoli, destruction of septal walls, abnormal airspaces and possibly blebs or bullae are common histological features of which of the following diseases: A. Chronic bronchitis B. Bronchial asthma C. Pheumonia D. Lung abscess E. Chronic obstructive emphysema ANSWER: E 1109. The abnormal dilation of the bronchi and bronchioli is the main characteristic feature of which of the following diseases: A. Emphysema B. Lung abscess C. Bronchial asthma D. Pneumonia E. Bronchiectasis ANSWER: E 1110. Patchy consolidation of the lung is the dominant characteristic of which of the following: A. Bronchopneumonia B. Lobar pneumonia C. Bronchiectasis D. Emphysema E. Bronchial asthma ANSWER: A 1111. Acute bacterial infection of an entire lobe is often referred to as which of the following: A. Bronchopneumonia B. Lobar pneumonia C. Emphysema D. Tuberculosis E. Bronchial asthma ANSWER: B 1112. The stages of lobar pneumonia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Congestion B. Red hepatization C. Yellow hepatization D. Grey hepatization E. Resolution ANSWER: C 1113. Exudate in lobar pneumonia may consist of all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Fibrin B. Neutrophils C. Erythrocytes D. Macrophages E. Plasma cells ANSWER: E 1114. Complications of pneumonia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Abscess formation B. Empyema C. Organization of the exudate D. Thromboembolism of the pulmonary artery E. Bacteremic dissemination ANSWER: D 1115. The most characteristic feature of viral pneumonia is which of the following: A. The interstitial nature of the inflammatory reaction B. Presence of acute suppurative inflammation C. Emphysema formation D. Coalescent granulomas formation E. Suppurative destruction of the lung parenchyma ANSWER: A 1116. The cardinal histologic change in the acute abscess of the lung is which of the following: A. Emphysema formation B. The interstitial nature of the inflammatory reaction C. Fibrinous exudate D. Ghon complex formation E. Suppurative destruction of the lung parenchyma ANSWER: E 1117. All of the following diseases are pneumoconioses, EXCEPT: A. Anthracosis B. Silicosis C. Tuberculosis D. Asbestosis E. Berylliosis ANSWER: C 1118. The stain used to identify fibrin is which of the following: A. Weigert's stain B. Congo red stain C. PAS-reaction D. Hematoxylin and eosin stain E. Toluidin blue stain ANSWER: A 1119. The term given to the group of lung diseases that are caused by the chronic inhalation of particulate or gaseous agents as a result of occupational exposure is which of the following: A. Granulomatous disease B. Pneumoconiosis C. Mycobacteriosis D. Pseudolymphoma E. Bronchiectasis ANSWER: B 1120. Conditions that predispose to lung abscess formation are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Aspiration of infective material B. Antecedent primary bacterial infection C. Septic embolism D. Neoplasia E. Injury of the mucociliary apparatus ANSWER: E 1121. Factors that predispose to bacterial pneumonia are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Loss or supression of the cough reflex B. Injury of the mucociliary apparatus C. Pulmonary congestion and edema D. Accumulation of secretions E. Septic embolism ANSWER: E 1122. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is the most common cause of which of the following diseases: A. Atopic asthma B. Nonatopic asthma C. Drug-induced asthma D. Bacterial pneumonia E. Bronchogenic carcinoma ANSWER: A 1123. The histological features in hypersensitivity pneumonitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Interstitial pneumonitis B. Interstitial fibrosis C. Obliterative bronchiolitis D. Hemosiderosis E. Granuloma formation ANSWER: D 1124. The infection causing interstitial pneumonia is which of the following: A. Gram-positive bacterial B. Gram-negative bacterial C. Viral D. Fungal E. Parasitic ANSWER: C 1125. The form of chronic interstitial pneumonia characterized by marked proliferation and desquamation of alveolar lining cells is which of the following: A. Usual interstitial pneumonitis B. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis C. Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis D. Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis E. Hamman-Rich syndrome ANSWER: C 1126. Tumor associated mainly with occupational exposure to asbestos is which of the following: A. Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma B. Oat cell carcinoma C. Mesothelioma D. Squamous cell carcinoma E. Adenocarcinoma ANSWER: C 1127. Clinically, insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Normal weight B. Anti-islet cell antibodies in the serum C. Ketoacidosis D. Decreased blood insulin level E. Normal or increased blood insulin level ANSWER: E 1128. Clinically non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Obesity B. Absence of anti-islet-cell antibodies C. Absence of ketoacidosis D. Normal or increased blood insulin level E. Decreased blood insulin level ANSWER: E 1129. Secondary diabetes may accompany all of the following diseases, EXCEPT: A. Cytomegalovirus infection B. Down syndrome C. Pituitary tumors D. Adrenal endocrinopathy E. Bacterial infection ANSWER: E 1130. The causes of morbidity and death from diabetes are the long-term complications developing in all of the following organs, EXCEPT: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Eyes D. Nerves E. Blood vessels ANSWER: E 1131. All of the following pathogenic factors may contribute to the development of type I diabetes, EXCEPT: A. HLA-linked genes and other genetic loci B. Immune response to normal beta-cells C. Immune response to altered beta-cells D. Molecular mimimcry of beta-eel after viral infection E. Peripheral tissue insulin resistance ANSWER: E 1132. All of the following pathogenetic mechanisms may lead to the development of type II diabetes, EXCEPT: A. Primary beta-cell insufficiency B. Deranged insulin secretion C. Inadequate glucose utilization D. Peripheral tissue insulin resistan< E. Immune response to altered beta-cells ANSWER: E 1133. Insulin is necessary for all cell metabolic processes, EXCEPT: A. Transmembrane transport of glucose and amino acids B. Glycogen formation C. Protein synthesis D. Glucose conversion to triglycerides E. Lipid synthesis ANSWER: E 1134. Genetic defects of beta-cell function leading to diabetes development are all of following, EXCEPT: A. Mutations in the gene for hepatocyte nuclear transcription factor 4a MODY-I B. Mutations in the glucokinase gene - MODY2 C. Mutations in the gene for HNF-la - MODY3 D. Point mutations in mitochondrial DNA E. Point mutations in the gene for low-density lipoprotein receptorMODY4 ANSWER: E 1135. Diabetic nephropathy can lead to all of the following pathologic processes, EXCEPT: A. Nephrosclerosis B. Glomerulosclerosis C. Tubulopathy D. Pyelonephritis E. Hydronephrosis ANSWER: E 1136. Diabetic nephropathy is microscopically characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse glomerulosclerosis B. Diffuse increase of the mesangial matrix C. Mesangial cell proliferation D. Basement membrane thickening E. Amyloid masses within mesangial matrix ANSWER: E 1137. Diabetic microangiopathy is most evident in the capillaries of all of the following organs, EXCEPT: A. Skin B. Sceletal muscle C. Retina (eye) D. Kidney E. Liver ANSWER: E 1138. Diabetic microangiopathy may be seen in all of the following internal organs, EXCEPT: A. Kidney B. Brain C. Skin D. Lung E. Lens ANSWER: E 1139. Type I diabetes is clinically characterized by all of the following features, EXCEPT: A. Polyphagia B. Poliuria C. Weight loss D. Polydipsia E. Obesity ANSWER: E 1140. The most threatening and frequent atherosclerotic events in long standing diabetes are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Myocardial infarction B. Cerebrovascular accidents C. Gangrene of the leg D. Renal insufficiency E. Lung artery thromboembolism ANSWER: E 1141. Morphological changes in diabetic microangiopathy are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Endothelium prolit'iration B. Generalized basement membrane thickening of capillaries C. Hyalinosis D. Artheriolosclerosis E. Generalized basement membrane thikenening ANSWER: E 1142. Morphological lesions in the pancreas in type I diabetes include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Reduction in the number of islets B. Reduction in the size of islets C. Inconspicuous islets D. Leukocyte infiltration of islets E. Replacement of islets by glycogen ANSWER: E 1143. Leukocytic infiltration of the islets in type I diabetes is also referred to as: A. Insulinoma B. Granuloma C. Pancreatitis D. Interstitial inflammation E. Insulitis ANSWER: E 1144. Pancreatic islet lesions in Zollinger- Ellison syndrome are associated with which of the following diseases of gastrointestinal tract: A. Cancerous stomach ulcer B. Pseudomembranous colitis C. Hypertrophic gastropathy D. Crohn disease E. Severe peptic ulceration ANSWER: E 1145. Major clinical features of Cushing's syndrome are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Central obesity B. Hirsutism C. Hypertension D. Osteoporosis E. Gastrointestinal bleedings ANSWER: E 1146. The causes of primary adrenocor-tical insufficiency are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Autoimmune process in the adrenal cortex B. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome C. Loss of adrenal cortex D. Metabolic failure in hormone production E. Hypothalamic pituitary disease ANSWER: E 1147. The causes of secondary adrenocortical insufficiency are all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Hypothalamic pituitary disease B. Neoplasm of the adrenal cortex C. Long-term steroid administration D. Tuberculosis of the adrenal cortex E. Hereditary atrophy of cortex ANSWER: E 1148. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Overwhelming bacterial infection B. Rapidly progressive hypertension C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation with widespread skin purpura D. Rapidly developing adrenocortical insufficiency associated with massive bilateral adrenal hemorrhages E. Hyperpigmentation of the skin, particularly of sun-exposed areas ANSWER: E 1149. The dominant clinical symptom in patients with pheochromocytoma is which of the following: A. Rapidly progressive hypotension leading to collapse B. Hyperpigmentation of the skin C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation with widespread skin purpura D. Severe peptic ulceration E. Severe hypertension ANSWER: E 1150. The hypertension in pheochromocytoma is associated with synthesis of which of the following products: A. ACTH B. Aldosteron C. Cortisol D. TSH E. Catecholamines ANSWER: E 1151. The pheochromocytoma may be associated with all of the following clinical symptoms, EXCEPT: A. Tachycardia B. Headache C. Sweating D. Tremor E. Hyperpigmentation of the skin ANSWER: E 1152. Pituitary adenomas include all of the following variants, EXCEPT: A. Growth hormone cell adenoma B. Prolactin cell adenoma C. ACTH cell adenoma D. TSH cell adenoma E. Catecholamine cell adenoma ANSWER: E 1153. Hypothyroidism may be caused by all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. Hashimoto thyroiditis B. Immune block of TSH receptors C. Iodine deficiency D. Pituitary lesions reducing TSH secretion E. Diffuse hyperplasia of thyroid in Graves disease ANSWER: E 1154. Thyrotoxicosis may be caused by all of the following disorders, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse hyperplasia of the thyroid in Graves disease B. Ingestion of exogenous thyroid hormone C. Hyperfunctional multinodular goiter D. Hyperfunctional adenoma of the thyroid E. Pituitary lesions reducing TSH secretion ANSWER: E 1155. The clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism include all of the following symptoms, EXCEPT: A. Tremor B. Ocular changes C. Tachycardia D. Atrophy of sceletal muscles E. Skin striae ANSWER: E 1156. Hypertension is found in all of the following endocrine disorders, EXCEPT: A. Cushing's syndrome B. Pheochromocytoma C. Adrenal medullary hyperplasia D. Conn's syndrome E. Addison's disease ANSWER: E 1157. The defect of interventricular septum belongs to: A. fetopathy B. pathologies of placenta C. birth trauma D. perinatal pathology E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1158. Complete transposition of pulmonary artery and aorta belongs to: A. fetopathy B. pathology of placenta C. birth trauma D. perinatal pathology E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1159. The Fallot's triad (defect of interventricular septum, stenosis of pulmonary artery, hypertrophy of right ventricle) belongs to: A. fetopathy B. pathology of placenta C. birth trauma D. perinatal pathology E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1160. The Fallot's pentade (defect of interventricular septum, narrowing of pulmonary artery, dextraposition aorta, hypertrophy of right ventricle, defect of interatrial septum) belongs to: A. fetopathy B. birth trauma C. perinatal pathology D. pathology of placenta E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1161. Cystic disease of liver is the plural cysts of different sizes, meets from cystic disease kidney and pancreas, belongs to: A. fetopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma D. pathology of placenta E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1162. Agenesis of kidneys belongs to: A. fetopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma D. pathology of placenta E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1163. Renal hypoplasia belongs to: A. fetopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma D. pathology of placenta E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1164. Renal dysplasia belongs to: A. fetopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma D. pathology of placenta E. embryopathy ANSWER: E 1165. Cysts of lungs belong to: A. perinatal pathology B. birth trauma C. pathology of placenta D. embryopathy E. fetopathy ANSWER: E 1166. Innate emphysema belongs to: A. perinatal pathology B. birth trauma C. pathology of placenta D. embryopathy E. fetopathy ANSWER: E 1167. Dysplastic acetabulum belongs to: A. embryopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma 1168. 1169. 1170. 1171. 1172. 1173. to: D. pathology of placenta E. fetopathy ANSWER: E Polydactyly is multiplying the number of fingers, belongs to: A. embryopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma D. pathology of placenta E. fetopathy ANSWER: E The system hypoplasia of muscular system belongs to: A. embryopathy B. perinatal pathology C. birth trauma D. pathology of placenta E. fetopathy ANSWER: E Fetopathy has a period from: A. from 71 for 280 day B. from 73 for 280 day C. from 74 for 280 day D. from 75 for 280 day E. from 72 for 280 day ANSWER: E Hemolytic illness of new-born belongs to: A. infectious fetopathyes B. reactive changes C. embryopathies D. malformation E. uninfectious fetopathyes ANSWER: E Dropsy of amnion belongs to: A. defect of removing of placenta B. defect of localization of placenta C. malformation of form D. reactive changes E. malformation of amnion ANSWER: E Mucoviscidosis (fibrocystic disease [cystic fibrosis] of pancreas) belongs A. infectious fetopathyes B. reactive changes C. embryopathies D. malformation E. uninfectious fetopathyes ANSWER: E Endocardial fibroelastosis belongs to: A. infectious fetopathyes B. reactive changes C. embryopathies D. malformation E. uninfectious fetopathyes ANSWER: E 1174. Oligo(hydr)amnios belongs to: A. defect of removing of placenta B. defect of localization of placenta C. malformation of form D. reactive changes E. malformation of amnion ANSWER: E 1175. What fetus is considered viable? A. By mass of 960 gr, by length 35 centimeter B. By mass of 970 gr, by length 35 centimeter C. By mass of 980 gr, by length 34 centimeter D. By mass of 1000 gr, by length 30 centimeter E. By mass of 1000 gr, by length 35 centimeter ANSWER: E 1176. Births from 28 week by mass of fetus less than 1000 me and length, less than 35 centimeter is named: A. late abortion B. prematurely fetus C. overmature fetus D. stillborn fetus E. miscarriage ANSWER: E 1177. The death-rate of children in the first 7 days after birth is named: A. intrapartum B. postnatal C. neonatal D. intranatal E. perinatal ANSWER: E 1178. Child's death-rate to births is named: A. perinatal B. intrapartum C. postnatal D. neonatal E. antenatal ANSWER: E 1. 2. 3. 4. SITUATIONAL TASKS Several days following a myocardial infarction, a 51-year-old man develops the sudden onset of a new pansystolic murmur along with a diastolic flow murmur. Workup reveals increased left atrial pressure that develops late in systole and extends into diastole. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abnormalities present in this individual? A. Aneurysmal dilation of the left ventricle B. Obstruction of the aortic valve C. Rupture of the left ventricle wall D. *Rupture of a papillary muscle E. Thrombosis of the left atrial cavity Three weeks following a myocardial infarction, a 54-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, and chest pain. The pain is worse with inspiration, better when he is sitting up, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. Physical examination finds a friction rub along with increased jugular venous pressure and pulsus paradoxus (excess blood pressure drop with inspiration). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings? A. Caplan’s syndrome B. *Dressler’s syndrome C. Ruptured papillary muscle D. Ruptured ventricular wall E. Ventricular aneurysm A 59-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath. Physical examination reveals signs of left heart failure. She is admitted to the hospital to workup her symptoms, but she dies suddenly. A section from her heart at the time of autopsy reveals marked thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, but the thickness of the right ventricle is within normal limits. Many of the nuclei of the myocytes in the wall of the left ventricle have a “box car” appearance. The endocardium does not appear to be increased in thickness or fibrotic, and the cardiac valves do not appear abnormal. The left ventricular cavity is noted to be decreased in size. What is the most likely cause of this cardiac pathology? A. Carcinoid heart disease B. Cor pulmonale C. Eccentric hypertrophy D. *Systemic hypertensive E. Volume overload A 71-year-old woman presents with increasing chest pain and occasional syncopal episodes, especially with physical exertion. She has trouble breathing at night and when she lies down. Physical examination reveals a crescendodecrescendo midsystolic ejection murmur with a paradoxically split second heart sound (S2). Pressure studies reveal that the left ventricular pressure during systole is markedly greater than the aortic pressure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? 5. 6. 7. 8. A. Aortic regurgitation B. *Aortic stenosis C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Mitral regurgitation E. Mitral stenosis A 63-year-old man presents with signs of congestive heart failure, including shortness of breath, cough, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals a hyperdynamic, bounding, “water-hammer” pulse and a decrescendo diastolic murmur. His hyperdynamic pulse causes “bobbing” of his head. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of the cardiac valvular abnormality present in this individual? A. Aortic dissection B. Infective endocarditis C. Latent syphilis D. Marfan syndrome E. *Rheumatic fever Physical examination of an asymptomatic 29-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic fever during childhood finds an early diastolic opening snap with a rumbling late diastolic murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Aortic regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. *Mitral stenosis E. Pulmonic stenosis A 7-year-old boy presents with the acute onset of fever, pain in several joints, and a skin rash. Physical examination finds an enlarged heart, several subcutaneous nodules, and a skin rash on his back with a raised, erythematous margin. Laboratory tests find an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and an elevated antistreptolysin O titers. Within the past month, this boy most likely had which one of the following abnormalities? A. Anitschkow cells develop in the lungs B. Aschoff bodies develop in the skin C. *Beta-hemolytic streptococci infection of the pharynx D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection of the aorta E. Stenosis of the mitral valve An autopsy done on a 23-year-old man who died suddenly with no previous medical history reveals the right ventricle to be dilated with near total transmural replacement of the right ventricle (RV) free-wall myocardium by fat and fibrosis. No skin or hair abnormalities are seen. What is the best diagnosis? A. *Arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy B. Endocardial fibrosis C. Hyper-serotonin RV syndrome D. Loeffler endomyocarditis E. Naxos syndrome 9. A 31-year-old woman presents with fever, intermittent severe pain in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen, and painful lesions involving her fingers and nail beds. History reveals that she had acute rheumatic fever as a child and that when she was around 20 years of age she developed a new cardiac murmur. At the present time one of three blood cultures submitted to the hospital lab grew a specific bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her disease? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. * α-hemolytic viridans streptococci C. Candida species D. Group A streptococci E. Pseudomonas species 10. A 23-year-old woman develops the sudden onset of congestive heart failure. Her condition rapidly deteriorates and she dies in heart failure. At autopsy, patchy interstitial infiltrates composed mainly of lymphocytes are found, some of which surround individual myocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s heart failure? A. Autoimmune reaction (to group A β-hemolytic streptococci) B. Bacterial myocarditis (due to S. aureus infection) C. Hypersensitivity myocarditis (due to an allergic reaction) D. Nutritional deficiency (due to thiamine deficiency) E. *Viral myocarditis (due to coxsackievirus infection) 11. At the time of autopsy of a 39-year-old woman who died of complications of systemic lupus erythematosus, several medium-sized vegetations are found on both sides of the mitral valve and tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the basic abnormality that produced these cardiac vegetations? A. Turbulent blood flow through an incompetent mitral valve B. Excess secretion of a vasoactive amine C. *Presence of an anticardiolipin antibody D. Cachexia produced by a hypercoagulable state E. Bacterial colonization of an abnormal valve 12. A 37-year-old woman presents with prolonged cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and episodic flushing of the skin. Additionally, she develops pearly white, plaque-like deposits on the tricuspid valve leaflets. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be present in this individual? A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Amyloidosis C. Iron overload D. Hypothyroidism E. *Carcinoid heart disease 13. A 59-year-old patient receiving chemotherapy with the anthracycline Adriamycin develops severe heart failure. Sections from an endocardial biopsy specimen reveal vacuolization of the endoplasmic reticulum of the myocytes. Adriamycin therapy most frequently causes what type of cardiomyopathy? A. *Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hyperplastic cardiomyopathy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Obliterative cardiomyopathy E. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 14. A 3-month-old girl is being evaluated for feeding difficulty and failure to thrive. Physical examination finds pallor, peripheral cyanosis, tachypnea, and fine expiratory wheezing. Chest x-ray shows cardiac enlargement. She is admitted to the hospital, quickly develops severe cardiac failure, and dies 3 days after admission. At the time of autopsy the endocardium is found to have a “cream cheese” gross appearance. Histologic sections from this area reveal thickening of the endocardium due to a proliferation of fibrous and elastic tissue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Infective endocarditis D. Libman-Sachs endocarditis E. * Restrictive cardiomyopathy 15. A 49-year-old man 7 days after being admitted to the hospital for an inferior wall, transmural myocardial infarction suddenly becomes short of breath. Physical examination reveals hypotension, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. His systemic blood pressure drops 13 mmHg with inspiration. Which one of the following pathologic processes produced these clinical findings? A. Acute inflammation of the pericardium due to an autoimmune reaction B. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of a papillary muscle C. Acute suppurative inflammation of the pericardium due to bacterial infection D. *Blood accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to rupture of the ventricular wall E. Serous fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to congestive heart failure 16. A 35-year-old man179. A 35-year-old man presents with weight loss, fever, and fatigue. Physical examination finds signs and symptoms of mitral valve disease. Further workup finds a pedunculated mass in the left atrium. The tumor is resected and histologic sections reveal stellate cells in a loose myxoid background. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chordoma B. Fibroelastoma C. Leiomyoma D. *Myxoma E. Rhabdomyoma 17. A 2-year-old girl is being evaluated for growth and developmental delay. She has had several past episodes when she would suddenly have trouble breathing, become blue, and then assume a squatting position to catch her breath. Workup finds a defect in the wall of the ventricular septum, increased thickness of the right ventricle, and dextroposition of the aorta. Which of the following cardiovascular abnormalities is most likely to be present in this child? A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Incompetence of the mitral valve C. Patency of the foramen ovale D. Persistence of the AV canal E. *Stenosis of the pulmonic valve 18. A 2-month-old girl is being examined for a routine checkup. She was born at term, and there were no problems or complications during the pregnancy. The baby appeared normal at birth and has been asymptomatic. Physical examination at this time finds a soft systolic murmur with a systolic thrill. No cyanosis is present, and her peripheral pulses are thought to be within normal limits. An ECG reveals slight left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Persistent truncus arteriosus D. Tetralogy of Fallot E. *Ventricular septal defect 19. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood in an individual with an atrial septal defect who develops Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Aorta to pulmonary artery to lungs to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta B. Left atrium to right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium C. Left ventricle to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium to right ventricle D. *Right atrium to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium E. Right ventricle to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium to right ventricle 20. A 43 years old man is diagnosed clinically with the subacute progressive glomerulonephritis. Its morphological equivalent is: A. Intracapillar proliferative glomerulonephritis; B. Glomerulosclerosis C. Membranous glomerulonephritis; D. * Extracapillary proliferative glomerulonephritis E. Mesangial proliferative glomerulonephritis. 21. In the villages of saliva mumps patient the microscopic study showing giant cells that contain large basophilic intranuclear inclusion surrounded by a zone enlightenment. The appearance of these cells resembles SAUVIGNY eye. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. mumps B. non-specific bacterial parotitis C. candidiasis mumps D. non-contagious mumps because of lead poisoning E. * cytomegalovirus parotitis 22. During an ectopic pregnancy in the uterine wall of the pipe through a small hole, which is overweighted with packages tamponirovalos blood. What is the name of such a complication? A. Blood drop B. *Covered the gap C. Cystic drop D. Incomplete tubal abortion E. Full Pipe abortion 23. In microscopic examination revealed endometrial villi chorion, the convolution of blood decidual tissue. What is the process of being developed? A. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrial B. Iron-cystic hyperplasia of endometrial C. *Placental polyp D. Fibrous polyp E. Adenomatous polyp 24. In the microscopic study revealed endometrial villi of chorion, the convolution of blood decidual tissue. What is the process of being developed? A. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrial tissue B. Iron-cystic hyperplasia endometrial tissue C. *Placental polyp D. Fibrous polyp E. Adenomatous polyp 25. In the microscopic examination of endometrial tissue revealed diffuse leukocyte infiltration. What is the process of being developed? A. Placental polyp B. Horionepithelioma C. *Endometritis D. Septic endometritis E. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium 26. A 56 year old man was taken to the hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain and burning in the region of tongue, extremity numbness. In the past he had resection of cardiac part of ventricle. Blood test: Hb- 80 g/L; RBC2,0*1012/L; colour index of blood- 1,2; leukocytes - 3,5*109/L. What type of anemy is it? A. A. Iron-deficient B. Hemolytic C. Aplastic D. * В12 folic-deficient E. Posthemorrhagic 27. A 7 year old child had an acute onset of disease. Pediatrician stated that mucous membrane of fauces is hyperemic and covered with a lot of mucus. Mucous membrane of cheeks has whitish stains. Next day the child's skin of face, neck, body was covered with coarsely-papular rash. What disease may be presumed? A. Allergic dermatitis B. Diphteria C. Scarlet fever D. * Measles E. Meningococcemia 28. Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from patient's skin reveals granulomas that consist of epithelioid cells surrounded mostly by T-lymphocytes. Among epithelioid cells there are solitary giant multinuclear cells of Pirogov-Langhans typ. In the centre of some granulomas there are areas of caseous necrosis. Blood vessels are absent. What disease are the described granulomas typical for? A. * Tuberculosis B. Syphilis C. Leprosy D. Rhinoscleroma E. Glanders 29. Autopsy of an 8 year old boy who was ill with pharyngeal and tonsillar diphtheria and died one week after illness begin revealed myocardial changes in form of small-focal myocardiocyte necroses, stroma edema with slight lymphocytic infiltration. What type of myocarditis is it: A. Septic B. * Alterative C. Granulomatous D. Focal-intermediate, exudative E. Interstitional 30. A 7 year old child was taken to the infectious disease hospital with complaints of acute pain during swallowing, temperature rise up to 390С, neck edem. Objective signs: tonsills are enlarged, their mucous membrane is plethoric and covered with a big number of whitish-yellowish films that are closely adjacent to the mucous membrane. After removal of these films the deep bleeding defect remains. What type of inflammation is it? A. Purulent B. Crupous C. Serous D. Hemorrhagic E. * Diphteritic 31. Autopsy of a man who died from ethylene glycol poisoning revealed that his kidneys are a little bit enlarged, edematic; their capsule can be easily remove. Cortical substance is broad and light-grey. Medullary substance is dark. What pathology had this man? A. * Necrotic nephrosis B. Acute tubular-interstitial nephritis C. Lipoid nephrosis D. Acute glomerulonephritis E. Acute pyelonephritis 32. Recovery from an infectious disease is accompanied by neutralization of antigens by specific antibodies. What cells produce them? A. * Plasmocytes B. Tissue basophils C. Fibroblasts D. T-lymphocytes E. Eosinophils 33. A patient with an acute myocarditis has the clinic presentations of cardiogenic shock. What pathogenetic mechanism plays the main part in shock development? A. Depositing of blood in veins B. Decrease of diastolic flow to the heart C. * Disorder of pumping ability of heart D. Increase of vascular tone E. Decrease of vascular tone 34. Histologic examination revealed in all layers of appendix a big number of polymorthonuclear leukocytes; hyperemia, stases. What disease are these symptoms typical for? A. Superficial appendicitis B. * Phlegmonous appendicitis C. Gangrenous appendicitis D. Chronic appendicitis E. Simple appendicitis 35. A 20 year old patient complains of excessive thirst and urinary excretion up to 10 L a day. The level of glucose in blood is normal, there is no glucose in urine. What hormone deficit can cause such changes? A. Insulin B. Cortisol C. Oxytocin D. * Vasopressin E. Triiodothyronine 36. Dystrophic changes of heart are accompanied by dilatation of cardiac cavities, decrease of heart beat force, increased volume of blood that remains in cardiac cavity after systole; veins are overfille. What state is this presentation typical for? A. Cardiac tamponade B. Tonogenic dilatation C. Cardiosclerosis stage D. Emergency phase of myocardial hypertrophy E. * Myogenic dilatation 37. The symptoms of regeneration process (callus) on the place of fracture were revealed at the histologic specimen of tubular bon. What tissue forms this structure? A. * Fibrous bone tissue B. Loose connective tissue C. Reticular tissue D. Epithelial tissue E. Lamellar bone tissue 38. During the experimental analysis of chondrohistogenesis a sclerotome was damage. What cells will it make impossible to differentiate? A. Smooth myocytes B. Fibroblasts C. Epidermocytes D. * Chondroblasts E. Myoblasts 39. After a psychoemotional stress a 48 year old patient had a sudden attack of acute heart pain with irradiation to the left hand. Nitroglycerine suppressed pain in 10 minutes. What pathogenetic mechanism is principal for the pain development? A. Increased need of myocardium in oxygen B. Dilatation of peripheral vessels C. Embarrassement of coronary vessels D. * Spasm of coronary vessels E. Coronary vessel occlusion 40. Skin samples of a patient with bronchial asthma revealed allergen sensitization of poplar fuzz. What factor of immune system plays the main part in development of this immunopathological state? A. Sensitized Т-lymphocytes B. IgM C. IgD D. * IgE E. 41. A patient has the following diagnosis: renal hypertension. What is the initial pathogenetic factor of arterial hypertension development in this case? A. * Renal ischemia B. Intensified renin synthesis C. Hypernatremia D. Intensified angiotensin synthesis E. Hyperaldosteronism 42. Patient with pigmentary xeroderma are characterized by anamalously high sensivity to ultraviolet rays that causes skin cancer as a result of enzyme systems incapability to restore damages of hereditary apparatus of cells. What process abnormality is this pathology connected with? A. DNA recombination B. * DNA reparation C. Genetic complementation D. Genetic conversion E. DNA reduplication 43. A one year old child has enlarged head and belly, retarded cutting of teeth, destruction of enamel structur. What hypovitaminosis causes these changes? A. Hypovitaminosis С B. Hypovitaminosis В2 C. Hypovitaminosis А D. Hypovitaminosis В1 E. * Hypovitaminosis D 44. What vitamin deficit causes the simultaneous disorder of reproductive function and dystrophy of skeletal musculature? A. Vitamin К B. * Vitamin Е C. Vitamin В1 D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin А 45. A man had an acute onset of disease, he complained of chill, temperature rise up to 400С, headache, cough, dyspnoe. On the fifth day of illness he died. Autopsy revealed: his lungs were enlarged, they had a look of "coal-miner's lungs". What illness is such postmortem diagnosis typical for? A. Respiratory syncytial infection B. Adenovirus infection C. * Influenza D. Croupous pneumonia E. Multiple bronchiectasis 46. A patient with chronic glomerulonephritis has disorder of incretory function of kidneys. What blood elements deficit will result from it? A. Erythrocytes and leukocytes B. * Erythrocytes C. Leukocytes and thrombocytes D. Thrombocytes E. Leukocytes 47. The lung hypertension and cardiac insufficiency of right ventricle with ascites and edemata developed at patient with pneumosclerosis. What is the principal pathogenetic mechanism of edemata development? A. Decrease of osmotic blood pressure B. Increase of oncotic pressure of intercellular fluid C. Increase of vascular permeability D. Decrease of oncotic blood pressure E. * Increase of hydrostatic blood pressure in veins 48. A 46 year old patient was admitted to the hematological department. It was found that he had disorder of granulocytopoesis and thrombocytogenesis processes. In what organ does this pathological process take pace? A. Lymphatic ganglion B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Palatine tonsil E. * Red bone marrow 49. Two days after myocardial infarction a patient had a sudden systolic pressure decrease up to 60 mm, tachycardia up to 140/min, dyspnea; the patient lost consciousness. What mechanism is principal for the shock pathogenesis? A. * Decrease of cardiac volume B. Decrease of circulating blood volume C. Anaphylactic reaction D. Paroxysmal tachycardia E. Intoxication 50. A patient has the sudden decrease of Са2+ content in blood. What hormone secretion will increase? A. Thyrocalcitonin B. * Parathormone C. Vasopressin D. Aldosterone E. Somatotropin 51. The chemical burn of esophagus caused its local constriction as a result of scar formation. What cells of loose connective tissue take part in scar formation? A. Young fibroblasts B. Myofibroblasts C. * Mature specialized fibroblasts D. Fibrocytes E. Fibroclasts 52. What substance makes saliva viscous and mucous, has protective function, protects mucous membrane of oral cavity from mechanical damage? A. Glucose B. Amylase C. Kallikrein D. Lysozyme E. * Mucin 53. During the embryogenesis of oral cavity the development of dental enamel was disturbe. What source of dental development was damaged? A. Dental saccule B. Mesenchyma C. Dental papilla D. * Epithelium E. Mesoderma 54. A patient with kidney disease has high blood pressure, espesially the diastolic. Hypersecretion of what biologically active substance causes blood pressure rise? A. Catecholamines B. Vasopressin C. * Renin D. Adrenaline E. Noradrenaline 55. There is a 9 year old boy in endocrinological department, who has already had a few fractures of extremeties caused by fragility of bones. Malfunction of what endocrinous glands (gland) takes place? A. Epiphysis B. Thymus C. Thyroid gland D. * Parathyroid glands E. Adrenal glands 56. A 22 year woman has enlarged lymphatic ganglions. Histological analysis of a ganglion revealed lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticular cells, small and great Hodgkin's cells, multinuclear Reed-Sternberg cells, solitary foci of caseous necrosis. What disease are these changes typical for? A. Cancer metastasis B. Lymphosarcoma C. * Lymphogranulematosis D. Acute leukemia E. Chronic leukemia 57. After recovering from epidemic parotiditis a patient began to put off weight, he was permanently thirsty, drank a lot of water, had frequent urination, voracious appetit. Now he has complaints of skin itch, weakness, furunculosis. His blood contains: glucose - 16 mmole/L, ketone bodies - 100 mcmole/L; glucosuria. What disease has developed? A. * Insulin-dependent diabetes B. Diabetes insipidus C. Insulin-independent diabetes D. Malnutrition diabetes E. Steroid diabetes 58. Before teeth come out first on their roots appears a solid tissue that looks like membrane reticulated bone. What tissue is it? A. Enamel B. * Cement C. Loose fibrous connective tissue D. Dentin E. Dense fibrous connective tissue 59. A patient with adenoma of glomeral zone of adrenal cortex (Conn's disease) has arterial hypertension, convulsions, polyuria. What is the main link in pathogenesis of these disorders? A. Glucocorticoid hyposecretion B. Glucocorticoid hypersecretion C. Catecholamine hypersecretion D. * Aldosterone hypersecretion E. Aldosterone hyposecretion 60. 15 minutes after a car accident examination of a 35 year old man revealed massive injury of lower extremities without serious external loos of blood. The victim is in excited stat. What component of pathogenesis of traumatic shock is basic and requires urgent correction? A. * Pain B. Cardiac function disorder C. Acute renal insufficience D. Internal loss of plasma E. Intoxication 61. A 65 year old patient suddenly die. She suffered from thrombophlebitis of deep veins of shin. Autopsy revealed: trunk and bifurcation of pulmonary artery contain red loose masses with dull corrugated surface. What pathological process did the morbid anatomist reveal in pulmonary artery? A. Foreign body embolism B. Thrombosis C. Fat embolism D. * Thromboembolism E. Tissue embolism 62. During the electronical microscopic analysis of salivary gland the cell fragmets were revealed which are surrounded by a membrane and contain condensed particles of nuclear substance and solitary organelles; the inflammatory reaction around these cells is absent. What process is meant? A. Karyopicnosis B. * Apoptosis C. Karyorhexis D. Coagulation necrosis E. Karyolysis 63. A patient complains of having urination disorder. He is diagnosed the hypertrophy of prostate gland. What part of gland is damaged? A. Right lobe B. Apex C. Base D. Left lobe E. * Median lobe 64. A man permanently lives high in the mountains. What changes of blood characteristics can be found in his organism? A. Decrease of hemoglobin content B. Decrease of colour index of blood C. * Increase of erythrocytes number D. Decrease of reticulocytes number E. Erythroblasts in blood 65. Microspecimen analysis of child's finger skin revealed that epidermis has signs of inadequate development. What embryonal leaf was damaged in the process of development? A. Entoderma B. Mezenchyma C. Ectomezenchyma D. Mesoderma E. * Ectoderma 66. Autopsy of a woman who died of tumorous dissemination of mucinosous cystadenocarcinoma and before that had to stay in bed for a long time revealed big necrotic areas of skin and soft subjacent tissues in sacral region. What form of necrosis is the case? A. Sequester B. Infarction C. * Pressure sore D. Zenker's necrosis E. Caseous necrosis 67. A man who took part in disaster-management at a nuclear power plant had hemorrhagic syndrome at the same time with acute radiation sickness. What is the most important thing for the pathogenesis of this syndrome? A. Low activity of anticoagulative blood system B. * Thrombocytopenia C. High activity of anticoagulative blood system D. Destructed structure of vessel walls E. High activity of fibrinolysis factors 68. A woman after labor lost 20 kg of body weight, her hair and teeth fall out, she has muscle atrophy (hypophysial cachexia). Synthesis of what hypophysis hormone is disturbed? A. Gonadotropic B. Corticotrophic C. * Somatotropic D. Prolactin E. Thyreotropic 69. A patient who suffered form syphilis took a course of antibiotic therapy and fully recovere. Some time later he was infected again with Treponema pallidum. What form of infection is it? A. Superinfection B. Recurrence C. Secondary infection D. * Reinfection E. Complication 70. During the histologic lung analysis of a man who died from cardiac insufficiency the inflammation focuses were reveale. Alveoles were full of light-pink fluid, here and there with pinkish fibers that formed a close-meshed reticulum with a small number of lymphocytes. What type of exudate is present in lungs? A. Fibrinous B. Hemorrhagic C. Serous D. * Serofibrinous E. Purulent 71. A 53 year old patient consulted a doctor about white patch on the mucous membrane of tongue. This patch sticks out from the mucous membrane, its surface is cracked. Microscopic analysis reveals thickening of multilayer epithelium, parakeratosis and acanthosis. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Geographic tongue B. Papilloma C. Median rhomboid glossitis D. Epidermoid cancer E. * Leukoplakia 72. After consumption some tinned meat a patient had diplopia, acute headache, deglutition disorder, hard breathing, muscle weakness. The diagnosis was botulism. What factor of pathogenicity are the clinic presentations of this disease connected with? A. Fibrinolysin B. Plasmocoagulase C. * Exotoxin D. Endotoxin E. Hemolysin 73. A patient's preliminary diagnosis is toxoplasmosis. What material was used for diagnostics of this disease? A. * Blood B. Sputum C. Feces D. Urine E. Duodenal contents 74. A 30 year old patient who was taken to the hospital with diagnosis acute glomerulonephritis has proteinuria. What disorder caused this occurrence? A. * Increased permeability of renal filter B. Decreased number of functioning nephrons C. Delayed excretion of nitrogen metabolism products D. Increase of hydrostatic blood pressure in capillaries E. Decreased oncotic pressure of blood plasma 75. During morphologic analysis of pulp floor three zones can be distinctly differentiated: the one of softened dentin, transparent dentin and replacing dentin. What stage of caries are these changes typical for? A. Chronic caries B. Deep caries C. Stain stage D. Superficial caries E. * Median caries 76. The impact of oxitocine on uterus wall helps to stop uterine bleeding after labor. What membrane of this organ reacts on the effect of this hormone? A. Perimetrium B. Endometrium C. Parametrium D. * Myometrium E. Submucous membrane 77. A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeare. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon? A. Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity B. Immediate hypersensitivity C. Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity D. E. * Delayed-type hypersensitivity 78. Microscopic analysis of tissue sampling from affected area of mucous membrane of oral cavity revealed bacillus in form of accumulations that looked like a pack of cigarettes. Ziehl-Neelsen staining gives them red colour. What kind of pathogenic organism was most likely revealed in tissue sampling? A. A.bovis B. M.avium C. M.tuberculosis D. A.israilii E. * M.leprae 79. During the histologic examination of thyroid gland of a man who died of cardiac insufficiency together with hypothyroidism there was found the diffusive infiltration of gland by lymphocytes and plasmocytes, parenchyma atrophy and growth of connective tissue. Formulate a diagnosis: A. Thyroid gland adenoma B. Thyrotoxic goiter C. * Hashimoto's thyroiditis D. E. Purulent thyroiditis 80. During the tooth development the enamel organ has prismatic cells with hexagonal intersection; the nucleus is situated in the central part of the cell. What cells are meant? A. Preodontoblasts B. Cambial cells C. * Preenameloblasts D. Enamel pulp cells E. Exterior enameloblasts 81. Microscopic analysis of brain base vessels of a patient who died of ischemic stroke revealed that intima of cerebral vessels is irregular, with moderate quantity of yellow stains and yellowish-whitish patches that narrow lumen. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Nodular periarteritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. * Atherosclerosis D. Rheumatism E. Primary hypertension 82. While the examination of patient's oral cavity the dentist found xerostomia, numerous erosions. What vitamin deficit caused this effect? A. * Vitamin А B. Vitamin Р C. Vitamin К D. Vitamin Н E. Vitamin РР 83. A 10 year old child lives in the region where fluorine content in water is above the mark. A dentist examined the child and found teeth damage in form of chalky and also pigmentary stains and stripes. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. Wedge defects B. * Fluorosis C. Median caries D. Tooth erosion E. Acidic necrosis of hard tooth tissues 84. Histologic analysis of uterus mucous membrane revealed twisting glands, serrated and spinned, they were extended by stroma growth with proliferation of its cells. Formulate a diagnosis: A. Cystic mole B. Placental polyp C. Leiomyoma D. * Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium E. Acute endometritis 85. The microscopic analysis of bronch biopsy revealed a tumor that consisted of circumscribed accumulations of atypical cells of multylayer plane epithelium, here and there with typical "pearls". What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Solid carcinoma B. * Epidermoid cancer with keratinization C. Epidermoid cancer without keratinization D. Scirrhus E. Mucous carcinoma 86. Autopsy of a man who died of typhoid fever revealed ulcers along the ileum. These ulcers have even sides, clean fundus formed by muscle layer or even by serous tunic of an intestine. What stage of disease does the described presentation correspond with? A. Stage of medullary swelling B. * Stage of "clean" ulcers C. Stage of necrosis D. Stage of "dirty" ulcers E. Stage of ulcer healing 87. Tissue sample of soft palate arches that was taken because a tumor was suspected (microscopic analysis revealed an ulcer with dense fundus) revealed mucous membrane necrosis, submucous layer was infiltrated by lymphocytes, epithelioid cells, plasmocytes, solitary neutrophils. There was also evident endovasculitis and perivasculitis. What disease are these changes typical for? A. * Primary syphilis B. Vensan's ulcerative-necrotic stomatitis C. Aphthous stomatitis D. Faucial diphteria E. ulcerative stomatitis 88. Autopsy of a 5 year old child revealed that pia maters of brain are extremely plethoric, nebulous, have a look of yellowish-green "bonnet". Microscopic analysis: pia mater of brain is very thickened, plethoric, impregnated with purulent exudate containing fibrin. What disease is meant? A. Anthrax B. Measles C. * Meningococcosis D. Influenza E. Tuberculosis 89. After a long-lasting and grave illness the blood pressure of a patient fell up to 60/40 mm; he has tachicardia, dyspnea, black-out. How can this state be defined? A. * Preagony B. C. Apparent death D. Shock E. Agony 90. A woman has ovary hyperemia, increase of hematofollicular barrier permeability with edema development, infiltration of follicle wall by segmentonuclear leukocytes. The volume of follicle is big, its wall is thinned. What period of sex cycle does the described picture correspond with? A. * Preovulatory stage B. Ovulation C. Relative rest period D. Menstrual period E. Postmenstrual period 91. A 50 year old woman had her tooth extracte. The tissue regenerated. Which of the following organelle are the most active during tissue regeneration? A. Lysosomes B. * Ribosomes C. Agranular endoplasmic reticulum D. Postlysosomes E. Centrosomes 92.A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood). What type of anaemia is represented? A. acute post-hemorrhagic anaemia B. chronic post-hemorrhagic anaemia C. megaloblastic anaemia D. *acute post-hemorrhagic anaemia. E. hypochromic anaemia 93.A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood). What is the colour of the skin and tissue of the deceased? A. yellow coloured and swelling B. * pale coloured, anaemic. C. . rose coloured and hot D. . blue coloured and cold E. . dark coloured with ecchymoses 94.A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood). What microscopic changes will there be in his internal organs? A. swelling, dystrophic changes. B. hypertrophied, serous exudation C. amyloid accumulation, hypertrophy D. * anaemic, dystrophic changes. E. hyalinosis 95.A dead man who suffered from a stomach ulcer for a long time died of massive stomach= hemorrhage (in the stomach and intestine there is more than 2,5 l (0,66 gallon) of blood). What changes are there in the hemopoietic organs? A. * hyperplastic changes B. hypotrophy changes C. atrophy changes D. dystrophy changes E. no changes 96.An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What type of anaemia is represented? A. megaloblastic anaemia B. anaemia by Adisson-Birmer C. * hemolytic anaemia D. hypochromic anaemia E. posthaemorrhagic anaemia 97.An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What is the name of the disease? A. В12 vitamin-deficit anaemia B. Addison-Biermer anaemia C. B12 achrestic anemia D. neoplastic anaemia E. * falciformcell anaemia 98.An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What is the pathogenesis of the disease? A. * defective erythrocytes can't live along time B. neoplastic processes lead to erythrocytes destroyed C. defective erythrocytes are attacked by antibodies D. defective erythrocytes are is phagocytized by macrophages E. there are agglutination of erythrocytes 99.An ill woman aged 22 has icteric sclera and skin, and enlarged spleen. Blood test, reveals decreased and falciform erythrocytes. What macroscopic changes are there in the spleen? A. hypoplastic & atrophy processes B. neopplastic processes, necrosis & hemorrhages C. * hyperplastic processes & hemosiderosis D. splenomegaly and stasis of erythrocytes E. blood & B-leucocytes accumulation 100. An ill woman has metrorrhagia of more than two months and has not sought medical help. There is increased weakness, paleness, tachycardia, and dyspnoea. What type of anaemia is represented? A. hemolytic B. acute posthemorrhagic C. * chronic posthemorrhagic D. hypoplastic E. deficiency 101. An ill woman has metrorrhagia of more than two months and has not sought medical help. There is increased weakness, paleness, tachycardia, and dyspnoea. What changes are there in the circulating blood? A. * decrease of erythrocytes, hemoglobin, nucleic (young) erythrocytes are possible B. decrease of erythrocytes, increase of hemoglobin and bilirubin C. agglutination of erythrocytes, stasis in the microcirculatory vessels D. hemolysis, hemoglobinosis E. bilirubineamia, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis of erythrocytes are possible 102. A 70-year-old male patient with an expressed hepatosplenomegaly and cachexia underwent a diagnostic puncture biopsy of his liver. A histological examination revealed that along the portal tracts there were numerous infiltrates of monomorphous round cells verified as prolymphocytes and Blymphocytes. What disease are the above changes characteristic of? A. B. C. D. E. Lymphosarcoma Acute lymphoplastic leukaemia Lymphogranulomatosis *Chronic lymphatic leukaemia Cesari's disease 103. A death of a 7-year-old boy resulted from acute posthaemorrhagic anaemia caused by a profuse bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. A postmortem examination revealed: macroscopically - an anaemia of the internal organs, an enlargement of lymph nodes in different groups, thymomegaly, a moderately manifested hepatosplenomegaly, a bright red bone marrow; microscopically - a hypercellular bone marrow with some monomorphous infiltrate of blast cells, diffuse-focal tumour infiltrates in the liver, spleen, lymph nodes, meninges and substance of the brain. Make a diagnosis for this form of leukaemia. A. *Acute lymphoblastic B. Acute myeloblastic C. Acute stem cell D. Acute monoblastic E. Acute plasmablastic 104. A histological examination of an enlarged cervical lymph node revealed the following microscopic signs: proliferation of the lymphoid cells with various degrees of maturity, presence of giant Hodgkin's and Reed-Sternberg cells, as well as eosinophils, plasma cells and neutrophilic leukocytes, among which there were foci of necrosis and fibrosis. Which of the variants of lymphogranulomatosis listed below was the most probable? A. With prevalence of the lymphoid tissue B. Nodular sclerosis C. *Mixed-cell variant D. With suppression of the lymphoid tissue E. Hodgkin's sarcoma 105. A histological examination of an enlarged lymph node revealed a proliferation of lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticular cells, acidophilic leukocytes, small and large Hodgkin's cells, multinuclear Reed-Sternberg cells. Which of the diseases listed below do the described morphological data correspond to? A. Lymphosarcoma B. Metastasis of carcinoma C. Chronic leukaemia D. Acute leukaemia E. *Lymphogranulomatosis 106. A male patient, who worked for a long period of time with petrol, develops progressing anaemia and the haemorrhagic syndrome. A biopsy of his breastbone reveals prevalence of a fatty tissue, and there are some small islets of haemopoiesis with solitary cells of myelopoiesis. What is your diagnosis? A. Chronic myeloleukosis B. Pernicious anaemia C. Haemolytic anaemia D. *Hypoplastic anaemia E. Aplastic anaemia 107. A tumour was found in the locus of a pathological fracture of a rib in a male patient. The case history contained information about persistent proteinuria with presence of abnormal proteins of Bence-Jones type, as well as presence of osteolytic foci in the bones of the spine, skull and pelvis. Histologically, the tumour cells were represented by plasmablasts and plasmacytes. What is your diagnosis? A. Primary macroglobulinaemia B. Heavy-chain disease C. Osteosarcoma D. *Multiple myeloma E. Fibrosarcoma 108. An autopsy of a female, who suffered from some blood disease (in her clinical blood analysis leukocytosis achieved 100x109), revealed a pyoid bone marrow (microscopically, it had myelocytes, promyelocytes and blast cells), an enlarged spleen weighing up to 7 kg (microscopically, it had ischaemic infarcts and an infiltration of the pulp by myelocytes), an enlarged liver weighing up to 6 kg (microscopically, it had a diffuse leukaemic infiltration of the sinusoids). Name the diagnosis which was the most probable one of those listed below. A. Acute granulocytic leukaemia B. *Chronic granulocytic leukaemia C. Acute stem cell leukaemia D. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia E. Multiple myeloma 109. An autopsy of a male, who died from chronic renal insufficiency, revealed numerous nodes with soft elastic consistency in the ribs, bones of the vault of the skull and the breastbone. The osseous substance was decalcified according to the nodes. The kidneys were enlarged, light grey, dense, their section had some greasy lustre. What is your diagnosis? A. Primary amyloid nephropathy B. Parathyroid osteodystrophy C. *Multiple myeloma D. Osteoma E. Osteosarcoma 110. An autopsy of a male, who suffered from frequent fractures of his bones and died from uraemia, revealed phenomena of osteoporosis and multiple smooth-walled defects (as if produced by punching) in the bones of the skull, ribs and spine. A microscopic examination of the bone marrow revealed its diffuse infiltration by tumour cells of the lymphoplasmacytic line. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. *Multiple myeloma B. Primary macroglobulinaemia C. Heavy-chain disease D. Paget's disease E. Recklinghausen's disease 111. An autopsy of a person, who died at a haematological department, revealed numerous haemorrhages in the skin, mucous and serous membranes, enlarged dark-grey tonsils. The lymph nodes of different localization were up to 1.5 cm in diameter, soft, and grey-pink on section. The bone marrow of the femur was dark red. Microscopically, the lymph nodes, liver, spleen and kidneys contained leukaemic infiltrates consisting of lymphoblasts. It was known that during the life-time the clinical blood analysis showed up to 3 x 10l2 of erythrocytes, 100x109 of leukocytes, a lot of lymphoblasts with presence of mature forms and absence of prolymphocytes. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. Lymphogranulomatosis B. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia C. *Acute lymphocytic leukaemia D. Lymphosarcoma E. Chronic granulocytic leukaemia 112. An X-ray examination of a male patient revealed numerous foci of osteoporosis and osteolysis in his flat bones. A high content of tumour plasma cells was found in a trepanobiopsy. What is your diagnosis? A. Acute monocytic leukaemia B. Chronic myeloleukaemia C. Osteosarcoma D. *Multiple myeloma E. Fibrosarcoma 113. At autopsy of a man who suffered from frequent fractures and died of uremia, in the bones of the skull, ribs and spine - the phenomenon of osteoporosis and multiple "punched" defects. Microscopic examination of bone marrow revealed its diffuse infiltration of tumor cells limfoplazmotsitarnogo series. Which of the following diagnoses most reliable? A. *Multiple myeloma B. Primary makroglobulinemiya C. Heavy chain disease D. Paget's disease E. Recklinghausen's disease 114. At autopsy of the deceased in the hematological unit revealed multiple hemorrhages in the skin, mucous and serous membranes, enlarged tonsils dark gray color. The lymph nodes of various sites to 1,5 cm in diameter, soft, grayish-pink in cross-section. The bone marrow of the femur dark red. Microscopic examination of lymph nodes, liver, spleen and kidneys revealed leukemic infiltration of lymphoblasts. Which of the following diagnoses most reliable? A. Lymphogranulomatosis B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C. *Acute lymphocytic leukemia D. Lymphosarcoma E. Chronic myeloid leukemia 115. At autopsy the body of the deceased, who suffers from blood (complete blood leukocytosis reached 100 ×109, found: pioidny bone marrow, increased to 7 kg spleen (microscopically in it - ischemic heart attacks and infiltration of the pulp myelocytes) increased to 6 kg of liver (microscopically in it - diffuse leukemic infiltration of sinusoids). Which of the following diagnoses most reliable? A. Acute myeloid leukemia B. *Chronic myelogenous leukemia C. Acute undifferentiated leukemia D. Acute lymphocytic leukemia E. Multiple myeloma 116. At necropsy males 78 years revealed patchy replacement of red bone marrow is yellow. Lymph nodes, spleen reduced in size with marked atrophy of the parenchyma. Such changes are characteristic: A. Hemolytic anemia B. Fanconi anemia C. Anemia Ehrlich D. *Ageing E. Iron-deficiency anemia 117. Autopsy of a woman, who died from renal insufficiency, revealed in her spinal column, cranial bones and ribs some defects of the osseous tissue with tumour nodes on their margins. The kidneys were enlarged, dense and "greasy" on section. Microscopically, the tumour nodes and bone marrow were characterized by a proliferation of tumour cells of the plasmacytic line. Which of the diseases listed below corresponds to the description? A. Metastasis of pulmonary carcinoma into bones B. Osteosarcoma C. *Multiple myeloma D. Osteoporosis E. Osteomyelitis 118. During the microscopic examination of an enlarged cervical lymph node 14 years old girl was found: lymphoid follicles are missing, there are areas of sclerosis and focal necrosis, cellular composition of the polymorphic site, there are lymphocytes, eosinophils, atypical cells are large (Berezovsky-Sternberg cells) and mononuclear cells, as large. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Burkitt's lymphoma B. Acute lymphatic leukemia C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia D. *Lymphogranulomatosis E. Granulosarcoid 119. Histological examination of enlarged lymph node revealed proliferation of lymphocytes, histiocytes, reticulum cells, eosinophils, small and large cells of Hodgkin's and Reed-Sternberg cells, whom of these diseases are responsible described morphological data? A. Lymphosarcoma B. Cancer Metastasis C. Chronic leukemia D. Acute leukemia E. *Lymphogranulomatosis 120. In a patient with X-ray examination in the flat bones revealed multiple cells of osteoporosis and osteolyzis. In trepanobioptate found a high content of cancer of plasma cells. Your diagnosis. A. Acute monocytic leukemia B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia C. *Multiple myeloma D. Lymphogranulomatosis E. Histiocytosis 121. Patients in both jaws radiologically detected numerous defects in the form of round holes with smooth walls. Histologically: the phenomenon osteolizisa and osteoporosis in the background of weak bone formation. In the urine - protein Bence-Jones. Name the disease. A. Chronic myeloid leukemia. B. *Myeloma disease. C. Chronic erythroleukemia. D. Acute undifferentiated leukemia. E. Acute myeloid leukemia. 122. The patient with the dental examination revealed atrophy of the mucous membrane of the tongue with red spots (Gunter’s glossitis). The sclera is yellowish. Color index greater than unity. For what anemia is characterized by these changes? A. Pernicious B. Hemolytic C. Chronic posthaemorrhagic D. Iron. E. 123. The patient, who long worked with petrol, progressing anemia and hemorrhagic syndrome. In the biopsy of sternum predominant adipose tissue, revealed a few small islands with isolated blood cells myelopoiesis. Your diagnosis. A. Chronic myeloid leukemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. *Hypoplastic E. Iron deficiency anemia 124. Thoracotomy in a 55-year-old male patient revealed a packet of lymph nodes in the anterior mediastinum; a biopsy was taken from one of them. Microscopically, there were infiltrates consisting of lymphocytes, histiocytes, eosinophils and Reed-Stemberg multinuclear cells which were surrounded by vegetations of a fibrous connective tissue. Name the clinical-morphological form of lymphogranulomatosis. A. Lymphogranulomatosis with suppression of the lymphoid tissue B. Mixed-cell variant of lymphogranulomatosis C. * Lymphogranulomatosis, nodular sclerosis D. Lymphogranulomatosis with prevalence of the lymphoid tissue E. - 125. When imaging in a patient in the mediastinum were found enlarged lymph nodes. Histological examination of the lymph nodes detected circular growths of connective tissue that surrounded granulemopodobnye formation of lymphocytes, plasma cells and large Berezovsky-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Tuberculosis B. Lymphosarcoma C. *Lymphogranulomatosis D. Sarcoidosis E. Lymphoid 126. A 40-year-old female patient underwent an operation of thyroidectomy. A histological examination of the thyroid tissue revealed that its follicles differed in size, contained some foamy colloid, the follicular epithelium was high and in some places it formed papillae. The stroma of the gland had clusters of lymphocytes which formed follicles with light centres. Make a diagnosis of the disease of the thyroid gland. A. *Toxic goiter B. Hashimoto's disease C. Ligneous thyroiditis D. Acute nonsuppurative thyroiditis E. Nodular goiter 127. A histological examination of the thyroid gland revealed a significant infiltration of its tissue by lymphocytes, formation of lymphoid follicles, an atrophy of parenchymatous elements and a significant vegetation of the connective tissue. What disease is characterized by this picture? A. Colloid goiter B. Endemic goiter C. *Hashimoto's disease D. Diffuse toxic goiter E. Parenchymatous goiter 128. An autopsy of a young female, who died from adrenal insufficiency, revealed diffuse hypermelanosis of the skin, hyperplasia of the cells in islets of Langerhans in the pancreas, the adrenal glands were sharply reduced in size and their thinned cortical substance had foci of necrosis, haemorrhages and sclerosis. What is your diagnosis? A. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome B. Primary aldosteronism C. Cushing's disease D. *Addison's disease E. Pheochromocytoma 129. In a young male, an abundant quantity of the somatotropic hormone and enlargement of the nose, lips, ears, lower jaw, hands and feet were revealed. What is your diagnosis? A. Pituitary dwarfism B. Cushing's disease C. Addison's disease D. Adiposogenital dystrophy E. *Acromegaly 130. In a male patient with an increased level of the parathormone, a histological examination in the area of a pathological fracture of his femur revealed foci of a lacunar resolution of the osteoid beams and new formation of a fibrous tissue. What is your diagnosis? A. Multiple myeloma B. *Parathyroid osteodystrophy C. Osteoblastoclastoma D. Paget's disease E. Osteopetrosis 131. A male patient with phenomena of hypothyroidism died from heart failure. On histological examination, his thyroid gland revealed a diffuse infiltration of the gland by lymphocytes and plasmacytes, an atrophy of the parenchyma and a vegetation of the connective tissue. What disease was it? A. Acute nonsuppurative thyroiditis B. Ligneous thyroiditis C. *Hashimoto's disease D. Nodular goiter E. Toxic goiter 132. An autopsy of a 45-year-old female, who was suffering from arterial hypertension, diabetes mellitus and ovarian dysfunction during past 15 years, revealed obesity by the upper type, a pituitary basophil adenoma in the anterior lobe of the hypophysis, hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. *Cushing's disease B. Cushing's syndrome C. Hypertensive disease D. Addison's disease E. Adiposogenital dystrophy 133. A 50-year-old female took medical advice complaining of excretion of a large amount of urine and excessive thirst. On examination, her nourishment was reduced, the skin was dry, density of the urine ranged from 1001 to 1010, data of an ultrasound examination and computed tomography of the brain revealed a tumour in the posterior lobe of the hypophysis. Indicate the most probable disease. A. Acromegaly B. Babinsky-Frelich disease C. *Diabetes insipidus D. Simmonds disease E. Cushing's disease 134. A 46-year-old male patient, who suffered from bulimia, polydipsia, polyuria with glucosuria and albuminuria, died of renal insufficiency. On autopsy, the kidneys were reduced in size, dense and had a fine-grained surface. The pancreas was reduced and partially substituted for a fatty tissue. Microscopically, islets of Langerhans were fine, in some places they were substituted for a connective tissue, solitary ones were hypertrophic. The kidneys reveal intracapillary glomerulosclerosis. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable? A. Subacute glomerulonephritis B. *Diabetes mellitus C. Chronic indurative pancreatitis D. Diabetes insipidus E. Chronic glomerulonephritis 135. A 36-year-old female patient underwent resection of the both lobes of her thyroid gland; each of them was 5 x 6 cm in size, pink-yellow, moderately dense and had a tuberous surface. A microscopic examination revealed follicles of various size, some of them were dilated like cysts and filled with some colloid; the follicular walls were lined with the smoothed cuboidal epithelium; the stroma of the gland was redundantly developed owing to the connective tissue, there were foci of calcinosis. Which of the diseases listed below corresponded most to the changes found? A. Parenchymatous goiter B. *Colloid goiter C. Toxic goiter D. Hashimoto's disease E. Ligneous thyroiditis 136. An autopsy of a 24-year-old female (from her case history it is known that a year before the woman had given birth to a child) revealed a sharp decrease of the body weight down to 38 kg, the skin was dry and thin, the weight of the internal organs was lowered. Also, there was a sharp decrease in the weight of the adenohypophysis, the latter had cicatrices; there were foci of dystrophy, necrobiosis and hyalinosis in the diencephalon. The ovaries, thyroid and adrenal glands had phenomena of hypotrophy, the mucous membrane of the intestines was atrophied. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable? A. Nutritional dystrophy B. Suprarenal cachexia C. Cachexia associated with chronic amoebiasis D. Cachexia associated with pellagra E. *Cerebrohypophysial cachexia 137. An autopsy of a 45-year-old female patient, who suffered from obesity by the upper type, steroid diabetes mellitus, arterial hypertension and secondary ovarian dysfunction, revealed hypertrichosis, hirsutism, striae on the skin of the thighs and abdomen. The anterior lobe of the hypophysis contained a white-pink encapsulated tumour, 2.5 cm in diameter (microscopically, it was a pituitary basophil adenoma); the adrenal glands were characterized by bilateral hyperplasia of the fascicular layer. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable? A. Cushing's syndrome B. Adiposogenital dystrophy C. *Cushing's disease D. Simmonds disease E. Pituitary dwarfism 138. A 52-year-old male died from renal insufficiency. On microscopic examination of his organs, the pancreas revealed lipomatosis and sclerosis with an atrophy of islets of Langerhans, the kidneys had hyalinosis of the mesangium and glomeruli (Kimrnelstiel-Wilson syndrome) and a glycogenic infiltration of the epithelium of the tubules, the liver was characterized by fatty degeneration. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. *Diabetic glomerulosclerosis B. Arterial nephrosclerosis C. Amyloid shrunk kidneys D. Chronic glomerulonephritis E. Goodpasture's syndrome 139. An autopsy of a male, who died from chronic renal insufficiency, revealed atherosclerosis of the aorta and large arteries, small and dense kidneys with a finegrained surface, an enlarged yellow-brown and flaccid liver, the pancreas was reduced in size. Microscopically, there was atherocalcinosis of the aorta and arteries, an atrophy of the parenchyma, sclerosis and lipomatosis of the pancreas; the kidneys were characterized by hyalinosis of the mesangium and glomeruli, a glycogenic infiltration of the epithelium of the tubules, with large-drop adiposis in the hepatocytes. What pathological process took place in the kidneys? A. *Diabetic nephrosclerosis B. Arterial nephrosclerosis C. Chronic pancreatitis D. Chronic glomerulonephritis E. Steatosis 140. On autopsy of a male, who died from uraemia, it was found that the pancreas was reduced in size, his contracted kidneys had a fine-grained surface, the liver was enlarged, yellow and flaccid. Microscopically, the pancreatic tissue revealed an atrophy of the parenchyma, including islets of Langerhans, the atrophied parenchyma was substituted for hyperplastic connective and fatty tissues. The kidneys were characterized by sclerosis and hyalinosis of the glomeruli, as well as by a glycogenic infiltration of the tubules; there was a fatty degeneration in the liver and a fibrinous inflammation in the mucous coats of the trachea, bronchi and stomach. What disease did the died person suffer from? A. Chronic indurative pancreatitis B. Chronic glomerulonephritis C. Hypertensive disease D. *Diabetes mellitus E. Steatosis 141. An autopsy of a male revealed a tumour in the anterior lobe of the hypophysis, enlarged adrenal glands, a reduction of the gonads in size, a hypertrophy of the left cardiac ventricle, the pancreas was reduced in size and thickened. Histologically, there was a pituitary basophil adenoma and a hyperplasia of the cortical layer in the adrenal glands. The pancreas was characterized by a moderately expressed atrophy of the parenchyma, including islets of Langerhans. What disease did the patient suffer from? A. B. C. D. E. Diabetes mellitus Adiposogenital dystrophy *Cushing's disease Cushing's syndrome Simmonds disease 142. For a histological examination, a lobe and a part of the isthmus of the thyroid gland were received. The tissue of the gland was dense and tuberous, on section it was pale brown and had grey-whitish foci. Microscopically, against a background of an atrophy of the follicles of the gland, there was some diffuse lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of the stroma with formation of lymphoid follicles. What pathological process were these changes typical for? A. Toxic goiter B. *Allergic thyroiditis C. Thyroid adenoma D. Colloid goiter E. Sporadic goiter 143. A histological examination of a thyroid gland revealed follicles of various size and shape which were lined with the columnar epithelium; the latter proliferated and formed papillae of various size. The follicular lumens contained some liquid and vacuolized colloid. The stroma of the gland was characterized by a lymphoplasmacytic infiltration, in some places with formation of lymphatic follicles having light centres. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable? A. Colloid goiter B. Nodular goiter C. Hashimoto's disease D. Ligneous thyroiditis E. *Toxic goiter 144. An autopsy of a 48-year-old male, who died from vascular collapse, revealed an increased pigmentation of the skin, the adrenal glands were reduced in size, the brown-yellow liver was enlarged. On histological examination, foci of necrosis with a tuberculous granulation tissue were found in the adrenal glands. The liver was characterized by phenomena of fatty degeneration. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable? A. *Addison's disease B. Steatosis C. Primary aldosteronism D. Cushing's syndrome E. Lipofuscinosis 145. At autopsy in the lungs is determined by chronic bronchitis. The cavity is lined with a flat focal bronchial epithelium. A manifestation of a pathological process are changes in the bronchial mucosa? A. *Metaplasia B. Dispalasia C. Hypoplasia D. Hypertrophy E. Hyperplasia 146. At autopsy in the lungs is determined by the expansion of the bronchi. The cavity is lined with enhanced bronchial columnar epithelium from the pus in the lumen. A manifestation of a pathological process are changes in the bronchial mucosa. A. *Bronchiectasis B. Acute bronchitis C. Asthma D. Bronchopneumonia E. Hot abscess 147. At autopsy men 40 years, who died from complications of influenza, the signs of bronchopneumonia. Enter the localization of pathological changes in this disease: A. *Respiratory division lung B. Pleura C. Mediastinum D. Pericardium E. Upper respiratory 148. At autopsy of the body men aged 35, who had abused alcohol, showed signs of lobar pneumonia. Which organism is more often the cause of this type of pneumonia? A. Aeruginosa B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. *Pneumococcus Frenkel E. Chlamydia 149. At autopsy the lungs revealed bronchiectasis. The cavity is lined with enhanced bronchial columnar epithelium from the pus in the lumen. Changes in the bronchial mucosa - an expression: A. *Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Regeneration D. Metaplasia E. Organization 150. An autopsy of a 45-year-old male patient, who had had double bronchopneumonia and died under the phenomena of intoxication, revealed in the lower lobe of the right lung some thick-walled cavity, 4 cm in diameter, filled with liquid yellowish masses. What pathological process complicated the course of pneumonia? A. Tuberculoma B. Gangrene C. *Abscess D. Sequester E. Empyema 151. At autopsy the woman's body 35 years, who died from complications of influenza, the signs of bronchopneumonia. What goes through pathogen in respiratory department of the lungs in this disease? A. Contact B. C. D. E. *Bronchogenic Primary Secondary Enteral 152. At autopsy the woman's body 48 years, who died from complications of SARS, showed signs of bronchopneumonia. Specify the most common way of penetration of the agent in this disease: A. Hematogenous or lymphogenous B. Lymphogenous C. *Bronchogenic D. Mixed E. Enterogenny 153. At bronchoscopy in men 40 years revealed hyperemia and edema of the mucous membrane with the presence of small hemorrhages and mucus in the lumen. Enter the diagnosis: A. Lobar pneumonia B. *Bronchitis C. Bronchopneumonia D. Lobar pneumonia E. Intermediate pneumonia 154. At necropsy men 50 years old, who suffered from chronic bronchitis, revealed tumor-like formations around the right main bronchus. Histological examination - clumps of cells laminated, flat epithelium with signs of polymorphism and abundance of mitosis. What process has evolved in the lungs? A. Bronchiectasis B. Emphysema C. Chronic pneumonia D. *Cancer E. Pneumosclerosis 155. At necropsy men who died of chronic pulmonary heart, were found morphological signs hypertension pulmonary circulation. Which of these symptoms most characteristic? A. *Expansion of the right ventricle B. Increased left ventricular C. Expansion of the left and right ventricular D. Expansion of the right atrium E. Expansion of the left atrium 156. At necropsy men who died of chronic pulmonary heart, were found morphological signs of "pulmonary heart." Which of these symptoms most characteristic? A. *Expansion of the right ventricle B. Increased left ventricular C. Expansion of the left and right ventricular D. Expansion of the right atrium E. Expansion of the left atrium 157. At the opening of men 50 years old, suffers from chronic bronchitis, revealed tumor-like formations around the right main bronchus. Histological examination - clumps of cells laminated, flat epithelium with signs of polymorphism and abundance of mitosis. What is the etiological factor for this disease? A. *Smoking B. Supercooling C. Excessive insolation D. Fluctuations in atmospheric pressure and temperature E. Alcoholism 158. Female 38 years old for several years suffered from atopic bronchial asthma. What are the morphological changes were observed in the microscopic examination of bronchial wall in the period between the attacks? A. *Thickening of the basement membrane of epithelium B. Thinning of the basement membrane of the epithelium C. Thinning and sclerosis of the basement membrane of the epithelium D. Pathological changes are absent E. The changes only under the basement membrane 159. Female 38 years old for several years, suffering from atopic bronchial asthma. What pathogenetic mechanism is most likely? A. Autoimmune reaction and hypersensitivity reaction with Ig A B. Hypersensitivity reaction with Ig A C. Hypersensitivity reaction with Ig M D. *Hypersensitivity reaction with Ig E E. Autoimmune process 160. In patients with final stage chronic renal failure during bronchoscopy revealed hyperemia and edema of the mucosa with the presence of small hemorrhages and mucus in the lumen of the bronchi. Name of these changes? A. Bronchiectasia B. Precancerous condition C. Cancer D. Bronchiolitis E. *Bronchitis 161. In the pulmonary section of a patient admitted with a diagnosis of chronic nonspecific lung disease. Which of the following diseases the patient suffered: A. Lung cancer B. Purulent pneumonia C. *Bronchiectasis D. Measles pneumonia E. Respiratory distress syndrome 162. Male 50 years died of chronic heart failure, which developed as a result of bronchiectasis. During the autopsy of the lungs revealed multiple saccular bronchiectasis. Specify the mechanism of their formation: A. When coughing and decreases sharply when intrabronchial pressure in areas of least resistance to change bronchial wall expands B. Coughing when intrabronchial pressure rises sharply in most parts of the bronchial wall of resistance to change extends C. When coughing and decreases sharply when intrabronchial pressure in areas of greatest resistance to change bronchial wall expands D. Coughing when intrabronchial pressure rises sharply in areas of least resistance decreases bronchomotor E. *Coughing when intrabronchial pressure rises sharply in areas of least resistance to change bronchial wall expands 163. Male 65 years died from chronic heart failure. “Pulmonary heart” developed as a result of occupational disease - silicosis. What could cause the development of this disease: A. *Prolonged inhalation of dust containing free silica SiO2. B. Prolonged inhalation of coal dust C. Prolonged inhalation of ambient dust D. Prolonged inhalation of decomposition products of cellulose from cotton E. Prolonged inhalation room and coal dust 164. Male 65 years died of congestive heart failure, which developed as a result chronic nonspecific lung diseases. During the autopsy revealed signs of chronic bronchitis. Give frequent cause of this disease: A. Hypothermia B. *Smoking C. Fluctuations in atmospheric pressure D. Temperature drops E. Excessive insolation 165. Male 65 years died of congestive heart failure, which developed as a result of bronchiectasis. During the autopsy the lungs showed signs of chronic diffuse obstructive pulmonary emphysema. Give frequent cause of this disease: A. Gangrene of the lung B. Mediastenitis C. Hamman-Rich syndrome D. Acute bronchitis E. *Chronic diffuse bronchitis 166. Male 70 years died from chronic heart failure, “lung heart”, which developed as a result of occupational disease - anthracosis. What could cause the development of this disease: A. Prolonged inhalation of dust containing free silica SiO2. B. Prolonged inhalation of ambient dust C. Prolonged inhalation of decomposition products of cellulose from cotton D. Long-term smoking E. *Prolonged inhalation of coal dust 167. Patient age 67 died from chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung diseases. At autopsy of the body revealed signs of chronic bronchitis. Which of the chemical factors could contribute to its development: A. *A pair of chlorine, nitric oxide B. Carbon dust C. Room dust D. Ultraviolet irradiation E. Fluctuations in atmospheric pressure 168. Patient age 67 died from chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung diseases. At autopsy of the body revealed signs of focal ill pneumosclerosis. After a pathological process it developed? A. Acute bronchitis B. Fibrinous pleurisy C. Emphysema D. Lobar pneumonia E. *Abscesses 169. Patient age 67 died from chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung diseases. At autopsy of the body revealed signs of diffuse reticular pneumosclerosis. After a pathological process it developed? A. *Unfinished bronchopneumonia B. Acute bronchitis C. Fibrinous pleurisy D. Emphysema E. Abscess 170. Patients suffering from chronic bronchitis, X-ray revealed darkening around the right main bronchus. Histological examination revealed the accumulation of cells multilayered, squamous epithelium with the phenomena of polymorphism and a large number of mitoses. What process has evolved in the lungs? A. Bronchiectasis B. Emphysema C. Chronic pneumonia D. *Cancer E. Pneumosclerosis 171. The patient admitted to hospital with high fever, cough, with lots of smelly sputum. X-rays revealed a cavity with fluid level. Performed lobectomy. Macroscopically revealed pus filled cavity, which communicates with the bronchus. Enter the diagnosis: A. *Abscess B. Lung C. Chronic bronchitis D. Acute bronchitis E. Empyema 172. The patient 60 old years, died of chronic heart failure due to chronic nonspecific lung diseases. At autopsy the body showed signs of chronic pulmonary emphysema. As can be seen after opening the chest? A. *Lungs unabated B. Lung collapses C. Slightly reduced in volume D. Lungs partially reduced in volume E. Collapses only one lung 173. The patient was admitted to hospital with high fever, cough, an abundance of foul-smelling sputum. X-rays revealed a cavity with fluid level. Performed lobectomy. Macroscopically revealed pus filled cavity, which communicates with the bronchus. What kind of disease a patient? A. Bronchiectasis B. Emphysema C. Chronic pneumonia D. *Lung abscess E. Pneumosclerosis 174. The patient X-ray revealed darkening around the right main bronchus. Histological examination of biopsy revealed accumulation of cells laminated, squamous epithelium with the phenomena of polymorphism and a large number of mitoses. As a result, diagnosed with lung cancer. What was the cause of this pathology? A. Acute bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Atypical form of pneumonia D. *Chronic bronchitis E. Lobar pneumonia 175. X-rays revealed a cavity with fluid level. Performed lobectomy. Macroscopically vychvlyaetsya pus filled cavity, which communicates with the bronchus. What a complication often develops in this case? A. *Amyloidosis B. Cancer C. chronic bronchitis D. Acute bronchitis E. Empyema 176. A 39-year-old female with a clinical picture of acute abdomen underwent surgical removal of an enlarged uterine tube. On examination, the serous coat of the uterine tube was dark purple, the lumen contained some blood clots. A histological examination of the wall of the tube revealed that the mucous membrane had layers of the decidual cells, and there were villi of the chorion among the blood clots. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. *Tubal pregnancy B. Placental polyp C. Choriocarcinoma D. Haematosalpinx E. Salpingitis 177. A histological examination of a scrape from the uterine cavity of a 45year-old woman with clinical manifestations of a disordered ovariomenstrual cycle revealed that the number of the endometrial glands was increased, the lumens in some of them were significantly dilated and rounded, the epithelium of the glands had morphological signs of the phase of proliferation. What is your diagnosis? A. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium B. Atypical hyperplasia of endometrium C. Glandular polyp of endometrium D. *Glandulocystic hyperplasia of endometrium E. Endometrial adenocarcinoma 178. On gynaecological examination, a red area, 0.7 cm in diameter, was found in the vaginal portion of the uterine cervix. A histological examination of a biopsy from the uterine cervix revealed that the squamous epithelium was substituted for the columnar one, as well as accumulation and new formation of glands under the integmentary epithelium were observed. What is your diagnosis? A. Adenosis B. Simple endocervicosis C. *Proliferative endocervicosis D. Papillary endocervicosis E. Healing endocervicosis 179. Microscopically, a scrape from the uterine cavity, taken in a 36-year-old female against a background of uterine bleeding, revealed a neoplasm which consisted of a large number of light epithelial cells of Langhans and multinuclear symplasts, the number of figures of mitosis was increased. The stroma was absent, the vascular cavities were lined with the above cells. Make a diagnosis of the uterine tumour. A. *Choriocarcinoma B. Endometrial polyp C. Endometrial adenocarcinoma D. Simple hydatidiform mole E. Invasive hydatidiform mole 180. A histological examination of the vaginal portion of the uterine cervix revealed substitution of the stratified squamous epithelium for the simple columnar one with numerous underlying glands without any signs of their new formation. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. Papillary endocervicosis B. *Simple endocervicosis C. Progressing endocervicosis D. Healing endocervicosis E. Adenosis 181. A scrape from the uterine cavity revealed in the blood some particles of a neoplasm which had an organoid structure and consisted of the columnar epithelial cells which formed glandular structures; the stroma of the neoplasm was significantly developed, the area of its "pedicle" had glomi of thick-walled vessels. Which of the tumours was the most probable? A. Uterine adenocarcinoma B. Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium C. Uterine fibroadenoma D. Endometriosis E. *Endometrial polyp 182. A 34-year-old female took medical advice of a gynaecologist complaining of a uterine haemorrhage for 10 days after her menses. A scrape from the uterine cavity revealed a large number of the endometrial glands which were spirally convoluted, dichotomically divided and ramified in a treelike manner. The stroma of the endometrium was hyperplastic and had a great number of predecidual cells. Which of the diagnoses was the most probable? A. B. C. D. E. Atypical hyperplasia of endometrium Mixed hyperplasia of endometrium *Glandular hyperplasia of endometrium Glandulocystic hyperplasia of endometrium Remnants of abortion 183. A mammary gland of a 25-year-old female revealed a slightly tender node, 3 cm in diameter; a sectorial resection of the mammary gland was made. Macroscopically, the node was whitish and had round hollows 0.1-0.3 cm in diameter. Microscopically, there was a vegetation of the connective tissue with foci of hyalinosis, an atrophy of the glandular lobules and dilation of the lumens in some places. What disease are the above morphological changes typical for? A. Fibrous mastopathy B. *Fibrocystic mastopathy C. Sclerosing adenosis D. Fibroadenoma of mammary gland E. Carcinoma 184. Within the first stage of labour, the blood pressure in a female elevated (220/110 mm Hg), she developed convulsions and a loss of consciousness. Her death resulted from a sharp impairment of cerebral circulation. An autopsy revealed jaundice, an intracerebral haemorrhage, a pulmonary oedema with microfocal haemorrhages into the pulmonary parenchyma, an enlarged yellow liver with numerous haemorrhages, enlarged flaccid kidneys with a swollen cortical layer, where on microscopic examination symmetrical necroses were found. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. Haemorrhagic insult B. Viral hepatitis C. *Eclampsia D. Necrotic nephrosis E. Haemorrhagic pneumonia 185. On gynaecological examination of a 36-year-old female, a red focus, which was 0.8 x 0.5 cm in size and had uneven contours, was found in the mucous coat of the vaginal portion of the uterine cervix on its border with the mouth of the womb. A microscopically examination revealed substitution of the stratified squamous epithelium for the columnar one, as well as accumulation and new formation of glands from the cambial elements of the columnar epithelium in the cervical channel were observed under the integmentary epithelium. Which of the diagnoses listed below was the most probable? A. Simple endocervicosis B. Adenomatosis of uterine cervix C. Healingendocervicosis D. *Proliferative endocervicosis E. Dysplasia of epithelium of uterine cervix 186. Several days following a myocardial infarction, a 51-year-old man develops the sudden onset of a new pansystolic murmur along with a diastolic flow murmur. Workup reveals increased left atrial pressure that develops late in systole and extends into diastole. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the abnormalities present in this individual? A. Aneurysmal dilation of the left ventricle B. Obstruction of the aortic valve C. Rupture of the left ventricle wall D. *Rupture of a papillary muscle E. Thrombosis of the left atrial cavity 187. Three weeks following a myocardial infarction, a 54-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, and chest pain. The pain is worse with inspiration, better when he is sitting up, and not relieved by nitroglycerin. Physical examination finds a friction rub along with increased jugular venous pressure and pulsus paradoxus (excess blood pressure drop with inspiration). Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings? A. Caplan’s syndrome B. *Dressler’s syndrome C. Ruptured papillary muscle D. Ruptured ventricular wall E. Ventricular aneurysm 188. A 59-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath. Physical examination reveals signs of left heart failure. She is admitted to the hospital to workup her symptoms, but she dies suddenly. A section from her heart at the time of autopsy reveals marked thickening of the wall of the left ventricle, but the thickness of the right ventricle is within normal limits. Many of the nuclei of the myocytes in the wall of the left ventricle have a “box car” appearance. The endocardium does not appear to be increased in thickness or fibrotic, and the cardiac valves do not appear abnormal. The left ventricular cavity is noted to be decreased in size. What is the most likely cause of this cardiac pathology? A. Carcinoid heart disease B. Cor pulmonale C. Eccentric hypertrophy D. *Systemic hypertensive E. Volume overload 189. A 71-year-old woman presents with increasing chest pain and occasional syncopal episodes, especially with physical exertion. She has trouble breathing at night and when she lies down. Physical examination reveals a crescendodecrescendo midsystolic ejection murmur with a paradoxically split second heart sound (S2). Pressure studies reveal that the left ventricular pressure during systole is markedly greater than the aortic pressure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Aortic regurgitation B. *Aortic stenosis C. Constrictive pericarditis D. Mitral regurgitation E. Mitral stenosis 190. A 63-year-old man presents with signs of congestive heart failure, including shortness of breath, cough, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals a hyperdynamic, bounding, “waterhammer”pulse and a decrescendo diastolic murmur. His hyperdynamic pulse causes “bobbing” of his head. Which of the following is the most frequent cause of the cardiac valvular abnormality present in this individual? A. Aortic dissection B. Infective endocarditis C. Latent syphilis D. Marfan syndrome E. *Rheumatic fever 191. Physical examination of an asymptomatic 29-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic fever during childhood finds an early diastolic opening snap with a rumbling late diastolic murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Aortic regurgitation B. Aortic stenosis C. Mitral regurgitation D. *Mitral stenosis E. Pulmonic stenosis 192. A 7-year-old boy presents with the acute onset of fever, pain in several joints, and a skin rash. Physical examination finds an enlarged heart, several subcutaneous nodules, and a skin rash on his back with a raised, erythematous margin. Laboratory tests find an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and an elevated antistreptolysin O titers. Within the past month, this boy most likely had which one of the following abnormalities? A. Anitschkow cells develop in the lungs B. Aschoff bodies develop in the skin C. *Beta-hemolytic streptococci infection of the pharynx D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection of the aorta E. Stenosis of the mitral valve 193. An autopsy done on a 23-year-old man who died suddenly with no previous medical history reveals the right ventricle to be dilated with near total transmural replacement of the right ventricle (RV) free-wall myocardium by fat and fibrosis. No skin or hair abnormalities are seen. What is the best diagnosis? A. *Arrhythmogenic RV cardiomyopathy B. Endocardial fibrosis C. Hyper-serotonin RV syndrome D. Loeffler endomyocarditis E. Naxos syndrome 194. A 31-year-old woman presents with fever, intermittent severe pain in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen, and painful lesions involving her fingers and nail beds. History reveals that she had acute rheumatic fever as a child and that when she was around 20 years of age she developed a new cardiac murmur. At the present time one of three blood cultures submitted to the hospital lab grew a specific bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her disease? A. Staphylococcus aureus * α-hemolytic viridans streptococci Candida species Group A streptococci Pseudomonas species 195. A 23-year-old woman develops the sudden onset of congestive heart failure. Her condition rapidly deteriorates and she dies in heart failure. At autopsy, patchy interstitial infiltrates composed mainly of lymphocytes are found, some of which surround individual myocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s heart failure? A. Autoimmune reaction (to group A β-hemolytic streptococci) B. Bacterial myocarditis (due to S. aureus infection) C. Hypersensitivity myocarditis (due to an allergic reaction) D. Nutritional deficiency (due to thiamine deficiency) E. *Viral myocarditis (due to coxsackievirus infection) 196. At the time of autopsy of a 39-year-old woman who died of complications of systemic lupus erythematosus, several medium-sized vegetations are found on both sides of the mitral valve and tricuspid valve. Which of the following is the basic abnormality that produced these cardiac vegetations? A. Turbulent blood flow through an incompetent mitral valve B. Excess secretion of a vasoactive amine C. *Presence of an anticardiolipin antibody D. Cachexia produced by a hypercoagulable state E. Bacterial colonization of an abnormal valve 197. A 37-year-old woman presents with prolonged cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and episodic flushing of the skin. Additionally, she develops pearly white, plaque-like deposits on the tricuspid valve leaflets. Which of the following disorders is most likely to be present in this individual? A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Amyloidosis C. Iron overload D. Hypothyroidism E. *Carcinoid heart disease 198. A 59-year-old patient receiving chemotherapy with the anthracycline Adriamycin develops severe heart failure. Sections from an endocardial biopsy specimen reveal vacuolization of the endoplasmic reticulum of the myocytes. Adriamycin therapy most frequently causes what type of cardiomyopathy? A. *Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hyperplastic cardiomyopathy C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy D. Obliterative cardiomyopathy E. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 199. A 3-month-old girl is being evaluated for feeding difficulty and failure to thrive. Physical examination finds pallor, peripheral cyanosis, tachypnea, and fine expiratory wheezing. Chest x-ray shows cardiac enlargement. She is admitted to the hospital, quickly develops severe cardiac failure, and dies 3 days after admission. At the time of autopsy the endocardium is found to have B. C. D. E. a “cream cheese” gross appearance. Histologic sections from this area reveal thickening of the endocardium due to a proliferation of fibrous and elastic tissue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Dilated cardiomyopathy B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Infective endocarditis D. Libman-Sachs endocarditis E. * Restrictive cardiomyopathy 200. A 49-year-old man 7 days after being admitted to the hospital for an inferior wall, transmural myocardial infarction suddenly becomes short of breath. Physical examination reveals hypotension, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. His systemic blood pressure drops 13 mmHg with inspiration. Which one of the following pathologic processes produced these clinical findings? A. Acute inflammation of the pericardium due to an autoimmune reaction B. Acute mitral regurgitation due to rupture of a papillary muscle C. Acute suppurative inflammation of the pericardium due to bacterial infection D. *Blood accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to rupture of the ventricular wall E. Serous fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity due to congestive heart failure 201. A 35-year-old man179. A 35-year-old man presents with weight loss, fever, and fatigue. Physical examination finds signs and symptoms of mitral valve disease. Further workup finds a pedunculated mass in the left atrium. The tumor is resected and histologic sections reveal stellate cells in a loose myxoid background. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chordoma B. Fibroelastoma C. Leiomyoma D. *Myxoma E. Rhabdomyoma 202. A 2-year-old girl is being evaluated for growth and developmental delay. She has had several past episodes when she would suddenly have trouble breathing, become blue, and then assume a squatting position to catch her breath. Workup finds a defect in the wall of the ventricular septum, increased thickness of the right ventricle, and dextroposition of the aorta. Which of the following cardiovascular abnormalities is most likely to be present in this child? A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Incompetence of the mitral valve C. Patency of the foramen ovale D. Persistence of the AV canal E. *Stenosis of the pulmonic valve 203. A 2-month-old girl is being examined for a routine checkup. She was born at term, and there were no problems or complications during the pregnancy. The baby appeared normal at birth and has been asymptomatic. Physical examination at this time finds a soft systolic murmur with a systolic thrill. No cyanosis is present, and her peripheral pulses are thought to be within normal limits. An ECG reveals slight left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Coarctation of the aorta B. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Persistent truncus arteriosus D. Tetralogy of Fallot E. *Ventricular septal defect 204. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood in an individual with an atrial septal defect who develops Eisenmenger’s syndrome? A. Aorta to pulmonary artery to lungs to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta B. Left atrium to right atrium to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium C. Left ventricle to right ventricle to lungs to left atrium to right ventricle D. *Right atrium to left atrium to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium E. Right ventricle to left ventricle to aorta to right atrium to right ventricle 205. Prior to surgery, which of the following is the best medical therapy for a newborn infant with transposition of the pulmonary artery and aorta? A. *Give prostaglandin E2 to keep the ductus arteriosus open B. Give prostaglandin F2 to close the ductus arteriosus C. Give oxygen to keep the ductus arteriosus open D. Give indomethacin to keep the ductus arteriosus open E. Give indomethacin to close the ductus arteriosus 206. A 55-year-old man presents with prolonged epigastric pain and severe vomiting. Laboratory evaluation finds that his blood pH is increased to 7.46, while his serum bicarbonate is increased to 30 mM. Blood gases also reveal the arterial carbon dioxide to be increased. Physical examination finds the man to be afebrile with dry mucous membranes and decreased skin turgor. His heart rate is increased, but his respiratory rate is decreased in frequency. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation B. Mixed metabolic acidosis and metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation D. Respiratory alkalosis with no compensation E. Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation 207. An anxious 19-year-old woman presents with perioral numbness and carpopedal spasm. Laboratory examination reveals decreased PCO2 and decreased bicarbonate. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Metabolic acidosis due to ketoacidosis B. Metabolic acidosis due to renal tubular acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis due to thiazide diuretic D. Respiratory acidosis due to hypoventilation E. *Respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation 208. A 35-year-old woman during her first pregnancy develops oligohydramnios. At 34 weeks of gestation she delivers a stillborn infant with abnormal facial features consisting of wide-set eyes, low-set floppy ears, and a broad-flat nose. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in this still-born infant? A. Absence of the thymus B. *Bilateral renal agenesis C. Congenital biliary atresia D. Cystic renal dysplasia E. Urinary bladder exstrophy 209. An 8-month-old male infant presents with progressive renal and hepatic failure. Despite intensive medical therapy, the infant dies. At the time of autopsy, the external surfaces of his kidneys are found to be smooth, but cut section reveals numerous cysts that are lined up in a row. Which of the following is the mode of inheritance of this renal abnormality? A. Autosomal dominant B. *Autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant D. X-linked recessive E. Mitochondrial 210. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the clinical combination of generalized edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hypercholesterolemia in an adult whose urinalysis demonstrated marked proteinuria, with fatty casts and oval fat bodies? A. Nephritic syndrome B. *Nephrotic syndrome C. Acute renal failure D. Renal tubular defect E. Urinary tract infection 211. A 35-year-old woman recovering from hepatitis B develops hematuria, proteinuria, and red cell casts in the urine. Which one of the following statements best describes the expected renal changes in this patient? A. Plasma cell interstitial nephritis B. IgG linear fluorescence along the glomerular basement membrane C. *Granular deposits of antibodies in the glomerular basement membrane D. Diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane by subepithelial immune deposits E. Nodular hyaline glomerulosclerosis 212. A 2-year-old boy is being evaluated for the development of progressive peripheral edema. Physical examination finds that he is afebrile, and his blood pressure is within normal limits. Laboratory examination finds decreased serum albumin, increased serum cholesterol, and normal BUN and creatinine levels. Examination of his urine finds massive proteinuria and lipiduria, but no red blood cells are seen. The loss of albumin in the urine is much greater than the loss of globulins. A histologic section from a renal biopsy examined with a routine H flattening and fusion of the foot processes of the podocytes. The basement membrane is not fragmented and electron dense deposits are not found. What is the best diagnosis? A. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (DPGN) B. C. D. E. Heymann glomerulonephritis (HGN) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) Membranous glomerulopathy (MGN) *Minimal change disease (MCD) 213. A 28-year-old man presents with moderate proteinuria and hypertension. Histologic sections of a kidney biopsy reveal the combination of normalappearing glomeruli and occasional glomeruli that have deposits of hyaline material. No increased cellularity or necrosis is noted in the abnormal glomeruli. Additionally, there is cystic dilation of the renal tubules, some of which are filled with proteinaceous material. Electron microscopy reveals focal fusion of podocytes, and immunofluorescence examination finds granular IgM/C3 deposits. Further workup finds a mutation involving the NPHS2 gene, the product of which is found within the slit diaphragm of the glomerulus. What is the normal protein product of this gene? A. Cubilin B. Megalin C. Nephrin D. *Podocin E. Polycystin 214. A 6-year-old boy presents with bilateral swelling around his eyes. His parents state that the child’s eyes have become “puffy” over the past several weeks, and his urine has become smoky-colored. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral periorbital edema, but peripheral edema is not found. The boy is afebrile and his blood pressure is slightly elevated. A urinary dipstick reveals mild proteinuria, while microscopic examination of the boy’s urine reveals hematuria with red blood cell casts. Laboratory tests reveal increased ASO titers and decreased serum C3 levels, but C2 and C4 levels are normal. A microscopic section from the kidney reveals increased numbers of cells within the glomeruli. An electron microscopic section of the kidney reveals large electron-dense deposits in the glomeruli that are located between the basement membrane and the podocytes. The foot processes of the podocytes are otherwise unremarkable. Which one of the listed infections did this child most like recently have that precipitated this renal disease? A. An E. coli infection of the small or large intestines B. A fungal infection of the urethra or urinary bladder C. A staphylococcal infection of the skin or mouth D. *A streptococcal infection of the pharynx or skin E. A viral infection of the upper or lower respiratory tract 215. A 47-year-old man presents with increasing peripheral edema and dark, tea-colored urine. Laboratory examination finds decreased serum albumin, while examination of a 24-h urine specimen reveals marked proteinuria. Microscopic examination of this patient’s urine reveals numerous red cells along with rare red cell casts. Electron microscopic examination of a renal biopsy from this patient reveals dense, ribbon-like deposits in the lamina densa of the glomerular basement membrane. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. C. D. E. IgA nephropathy Lipoid nephrosis *Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis Membranous glomerulopathy 216. A 21-year-old woman presents because her urine has turned a brown color. She states that about 2 months ago her urine turned brown 2 days after a cold and stayed brown for about 3 days. At the current time a urinalysis reveals complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, glucose, antinuclear antibodies (ANAs), and serum complement levels (C3 and C4). All of these tests are within normal limits. Immunofluorescence examination of a renal biopsy from this patient reveals the presence of large, irregular deposits of IgA/C3 in the mesangium. A linear staining pattern is not found. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. *Berger’s disease B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis C. Goodpasture’s syndrome D. Lipoid nephrosis E. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis 217. A 43-year-old man with a history of microscopic polyarteritis acutely develops renal failure with oliguria and hematuria. Laboratory examination reveals the presence of serum p-ANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies). A renal biopsy is diagnostic of type III rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Which of the following histologic changes is most likely to have been present in this biopsy specimen? A. Eosinophilic masses were seen attached to the capsule of Bowman’s space B. Fibrinoid necrosis was present in many of the afferent arterioles C. Large numbers of neutrophils were seen in the interstitium and tubules D. *Numerous crescents were present in the glomeruli E. The basement membrane was seen to be split by mesangial cells 218. A 28-year-old man with a history of malaise and hemoptysis presents with the acute onset of renal failure. Laboratory examination reveals increased serum creatinine and BUN, but no antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) nor antinuclear (ANA) antibodies are present. Urinalysis reveals the microscopic presence of red blood cells and red blood cell casts, while a renal biopsy reveals crescents within Bowman’s space of many glomeruli. Immunofluorescence reveals linear deposits of IgG and C3 along the glomerular basement membrane. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Alport’s syndrome B. Diabetic glomerulopathy C. *Goodpasture’s syndrome D. Henoch-Schonlein purpura E. Wegener’s granulomatosis 219. A 26-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and malaise. She states that recently she develops a red facial rash whenever she goes outside on a sunny day. Physical examination finds that she is afebrile, but her blood pressure is slightly increased and slight peripheral edema is found. Laboratory evaluation finds slightly elevated BUN and creatinine, while dipstick examination of her urine reveals slight proteinuria with microscopic hematuria. Very rare granular and red cell casts are seen. Laboratory examination is also positive for serum antinuclear antibodies, one of which is anti–double-stranded DNA. A renal biopsy reveals changes of diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, and the diagnosis of class IV lupus nephritis is made. Which of the following histologic changes is most characteristic of class IV lupus nephritis? A. Mesangial deposits form a “holly leaf” pattern B. Positive immunofluorescence staining forms a “string of popcorn” pattern C. Splitting of the basement membrane forms a “tram-track” pattern D. Thickening of the basement membrane forms a “spike and dome” appearance E. *Thickening of the glomerular capillaries forms a “wire-loop” appearance 220. An asymptomatic 24-year-old woman is found to have microscopic hematuria with a routine urinalysis. Her blood pressure and kidney function are within normal limits, but it is discovered that several members of her family also have asymptomatic microscopic hematuria. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present in this woman? A. A hereditary defect in the renal transport of neutral amino acids B. A lack of the globular domain of type IV collagen C. A mutation involving the cytoplasmic btk gene D. * Diffuse thinning of the glomerular basement membrane E. The presence of C3 nephritic factor in the serum 221. Histologic sections of a kidney reveal patchy necrosis of epithelial cells of both the proximal and distal tubules with flattening of the epithelial cells, rupture of the basement membrane (tubulorrhexis), and marked interstitial edema. Acute inflammatory cells are not seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute pyelonephritis B. *Acute tubular necrosis C. Chronic glomerulonephritis D. Chronic pyelonephritis E. Diffuse cortical necrosis 222. During a routine physical examination, a 42-year-old woman is found to have an elevated blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. Workup reveals a small left kidney and a normal-sized right kidney. Laboratory examination reveals elevated serum renin levels. Further workup reveals that renal vein renin levels are increased on the left but decreased on the right. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension? A. Atherosclerotic narrowing of the left renal artery B. Atherosclerotic narrowing of the right renal artery C. *Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the left renal artery D. Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the right renal artery E. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis 223. A 53-year-old man presents with severe headaches, nausea, and vomiting. He also relates seeing spots before his eyes and is found to have a diastolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg. Microscopic examination of a renal biopsy demonstrates hyperplastic arteriolitis. Gross examination of his kidneys is most likely to reveal which one of the following changes? A. A finely granular appearance to the surface B. * Multiple small petechial hemorrhages on the surface C. Diffuse, irregular cortical scars overlying dilated calyces D. Cortical scars overlying dilated calyces in renal poles E. Depressed cortical areas overlying necrotic papillae of varying stages 224. A 35-year-old woman presents with the sudden onset of severe, colicky pain on the right side of her abdomen. She does not relate the pain to food, but says that she cannot find a pain-free position. Physical examination finds marked tenderness over the right costovertebral angle, but rebound tenderness is not present. A pelvic examination is unremarkable. Microscopic examination of her urine reveals the presence of numerous red blood cells. The urine is negative for esterase and nitrite, and no bacteria are seen. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her signs and symptoms? A. Bilirubin gallstones B. *Calcium oxalate kidney stones C. Cholesterol gallstones D. Magnesium ammonium phosphate kidney stones E. Acute uric acid nephropathy 225. An 8-month-old infant boy presents with an enlarging abdominal mass. Laboratory evaluation finds normal urinary levels of vanillylmandelic acid (VMA). The mass is removed surgically and microscopic sections reveal undifferentiated mesenchymal cells, immature tubules, and abortive glomerular formation. This tumor is most closely associated with abnormalities involving which one of the listed genes? A. MET gene B. PRCC gene C. p16INK4a gene D. VHL gene E. * WT-1 gene 226. Physical examination of a 3-day-old male infant reveals urine leaking from the area of the umbilicus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Balanoposthitis B. Meckel’s cyst C. Meckel’s diverticulum D. Omphalocele E. *Urachal fistula 227. A 19-year-old man presents with dysuria and a mucoid or watery urethral discharge. No prostatic pain is present. Microscopic examination of the discharge reveals numerous neutrophils, but no organisms are seen. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient’s signs and symptoms? A. * Chlamydia trachomatis B. Escherchia coli C. Mycoplasma genitalium D. Mycoplasma hominis E. Trichomonas vaginalis 228. Which of the following histologic changes is most likely to be seen when examining a mucosal biopsy of the urinary bladder from an individual with acute cystitis due to infection with Escherichia coli? A. An infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells B. *An infiltrate of neutrophils C. Inflammation with eosinophils D. Noncaseating granulomas E. Sheets of macrophages with granular cytoplasm 229. A 49-year-old man who is a long-term smoker presents with frequency and hematuria. Histologic examination of sections taken from an exophytic lesion of the urinary bladder reveals groups of atypical cells with frequent mitoses forming finger-like projections that have thin, fibrovascular cores. These groups of atypical cells do not extend into the lamina propria and muscularis. No glands or keratin production are found. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Adenocarcinoma, noninvasive B. Inverted papilloma, noninvasive C. Transitional cell carcinoma in situ D. * Papillary transitional cell carcinoma, noninvasive E. Squamous cell carcinoma in situ TESTS FOR FIGURES 1. Name the diagnosis of disease of the heart layers, which is represented in Figure 2.57. A. Hemorrhagic pericarditis B. purulent pericarditis C. serous pericarditis D. fibrinous pancarditis E. fibrinous pericarditis* 2. At the heart of dermatomyositis observed dystrophy, cardiomyocytes mediate myocarditis, and the pathological process is completed (Figure 2.34): A. The partial regeneration of cardiomyocytes B. Complete regeneration of cardiomyocytes C. Pathological cardiomyocyte regeneration 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. D. Focal elastofibrosis E. Diffuse cardiosclerosis atrophy of cardiomyocytes* A characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2) is the deposition: A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks" B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops" E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"* What are the characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2): A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks" B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops" E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"* What is a characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2): A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks" B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops" E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"* The consequence of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2) is the development of: A. Wrinkled kidneys B. Cystic expansion of renal C. Hydronephrosis Kidney D. Motley kidney E. Utonshenie kidney* What are the characteristic feature of lupus glomerulonephritis (Fig. 2.31-2): A. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire sticks" B. Immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings C. Non-immune complexes and thickening of the capillaries in the form of " wire Rings D. Non-immune complexes and utonsheniem capillaries in the form of " wire loops" E. Immune complexes and thickening of capillaries in the form of " wire loops"* 8. In the heart (Fig. 2.32) patients on systemic lupus erythematosus develops: A. Sepsis B. Bacterial valvulitis C. Bacterial endocarditis D. Nebakterial endocarditis E. Nebakterial Libman-Sachs endocarditis* 9. What is characterized by a diffuse pleural interstitial myocarditis (Fig. 2.35): A. No significant infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-body B. Significant infiltration of lymphocytes in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-body C. Significant infiltration of lymphocytes D. No significant interstitial infiltration of neutrophils in the presence of single granulomas Ashof-body E. Significant infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes, neutrophils and eosinophils in the presence of solitary Ashof-body* 10.Focal exudative interstitial myocarditis manifested (Fig. 2.35): A. To a large focal interstitial infiltration by lymphocytes B. To a large focal interstitial infiltration eosinophils C. To a large focal interstitial infiltration of plasma cells D. Ashof- body E. The small focal interstitial infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes and neutrophils* 11.What is manifested focal interstitial myocarditis, exudative (Fig. 2.35): A. To a large focal interstitial infiltration by lymphocytes B. To a large focal interstitial infiltration eosinophils C. To a large focal interstitial infiltration of plasma cells D. Ashof- body E. The small focal interstitial infiltration of lymphocytes, histiocytes and neutrophils* 12.The development of sclerosis myocarditis completed (Fig. 2.34) at: A. Not a favorable flow of rheumatism B. The occurrence of rheumatic disease with frequent relapses C. The occurrence of rheumatic fever with high activity indices of blood D. Predominance of endocarditis E. Favorable course of rheumatism* 13.Cardiosclerosis a result of myocarditis (Fig. 2.34) at: A. Predominance of endocarditis B. Not the favorable development of rheumatic C. The occurrence of rheumatic disease with frequent relapses D. The occurrence of rheumatic fever with high activity indices of blood E. Favorable development of rheumatic* 14.Pericarditis rheumatism has character(Fig. 2.57): A. Mixed inflammation B. Purulent exudative inflammation C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation E. Serous exudative inflammation* 15.What are the nature of inflammation in the pericardium(Fig. 2.57) : A. Mixed inflammation B. Purulent exudative inflammation C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation E. Serous exudative inflammation* 16.What is the nature of inflammation in the pericardium (Fig. 2.57): A. Mixed inflammation B. Purulent exudative inflammation C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation E. Serous exudative inflammation* 17.Pericarditis rheumatism has character(Fig. 2.57): A. Mixed inflammation B. Purulent exudative inflammation C. Hemorrhagic exudative inflammation D. Catarrhal exudative inflammation E. Serous exudative inflammation* 18.Frequently rheumatic pericarditis completed education(Fig. 2.57): A. Suppuration pericardial cavity B. Papillary proliferation of the pericardium C. Inflammation D. Рapillary transformation of the epicardium E. Adhesions pericardial cavity* 19.The result of pericarditis(Fi.2.57) is education: A. Suppuration pericardial cavity B. Papillary proliferation of the pericardium C. Inflammation D. Рapillary transformation of the epicardium E. Adhesions pericardial cavity* 20.Most rheumatic pericarditis(Fig. 2.57) concludes obliteration of the cavity of the heart bags with calcification, formation of connective tissue in this case leads to the development: A. Cor Pulmonale B. Tiger Heart C. Hairy heart D. Bovine heart E. Stone heart* 21.Histological examination of kidney tissue revealed focal and diffuse thickening of the basal membrane with the formation of " wire loops " Fig. 2.31. Occurs appearance gematoksiliny body. What clinical and anatomical form of the disease. A. Cardiac B. Arthritic C. Mixed D. Cerebral E. Visceral* 22.Histological examination of kidney tissue revealed focal and diffuse thickening of the basal membrane with the formation of " wire loops " Fig. 2.31. Occurs appearance gematoksiliny body. What clinical and anatomical form of the disease. A. Cardiac B. Arthritic C. Mixed D. Cerebral E. Visceral* 23.What clinical and anatomical form of the disease on Fig. 2.31. Histologically in the study of kidney tissue revealed focal and diffuse thickening of the basal membrane with the formation of " wire loops”. Appear gematoksiliny calf A. Cardiac B. Arthritic C. Mixed D. Cerebral E. Visceral* 24.What pathological processes caused the name of spleen ("porphyry") in lymphogranulomatosis (Fig. 2.30)? A. Amyloidosis B. Hyalinosis C. Necrosis and amyloidosis D. Sclerosis and hyalinosis E. Necrosis and sclerosis* 25.The specific pathognomonic sign of this type of anaemia is atrophy of fundal mucus cells in stomach. Name disease. (Fig. 2.38) A. Acute posthemorrhagic B. Chronic posthemorrhagic C. Hemolytic D. Aplastic E. Pernicious (vit. B 12-deficiency)* 26.The sign of what pathological process is decrease of glands in the mucus layer of stomach (a number 1 on Fig. 2.38) at pernicious (vit. B 12-deficiency) anemia? A. Hyperplasia B. Hypertrophy C. Aplasia D. Sclerosis E. Atrophy* 27.At histological research of stomach (Fig. 2.38) patient with anaemia founded atrophy of glands and sclerosis (1), focal lymphocytes infiltration (2). Name the type of anaemia. A. Acute posthemorrhagic B. Chronic posthemorrhagic C. Hemolytic D. Aplastic E. Pernicious (vit. B 12-deficiency)* 28.At histological examination of lymph node revealed of Hodgkin's giant single nucleus cells (Fig. 2.29). What pathological process shown in the lymph node slide? A. Acute leukemia B. Ekstramedullar hemopoiesis C. Chronic erythromyelosis D. Chronic lympholeukosis E. Lymphogranulomatosis* 29.At histological examination of lymph node diagnosed lymphogranulomatosis (Fig. 2.29). Determine group of hemopoietic and lymphatic tissue diseases? A. Pretumor disease B. Immune inflammation C. Systemic disease hemopoietic tissue D. Malignant tumor of mesenhyma E. Regional tumor - lymphomas* 30.At histological examination of lymph node in patient with lymphogranulomatosis detected giant single - nucleus cells (Fig. 2.29). Name the cells marked by arrow on the lymph node slide. A. Pirogov-Langhans' giant cells B. Mykulich' cells C. Eosinophil D. Berezovsky-Sternberg' cells E. Hodgkin' cells* 31.In patients diagnosed lymphogranulomatosis. What specific cells founded in the lymph nodes (Fig. 2.29)? A. Pirogov-Langhans' giant cells B. Mykulich' cells C. Anichkov' cells D. Virchow' cells E. Hodgkin' cells* 32.Autopsy of a woman, who died from lymphogranulomatosis revealed enlarged spleen. On the section - multiple white-yellow areas of necrosis and sclerosis (Fig. 2.30). What is named of such spleen?. A. Sebaceous B. Sago-like spleen C. Glazed D. Hyperplastic E. Porphyry* 33.Autopsy of a woman, who died from lymphogranulomatosis revealed enlarged spleen. On the section - multiple white-yellow areas of necrosis and sclerosis (porphyry) (Fig. 2.30). Name the diseases which characterizing such spleen. A. Acute leukemia B. Ekstramedullar hemopoiesis C. Chronic miyeloleykosis D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia E. Lymphogranulomatosis* 34.At histological examination of the stomach (Fig. 2.38) patients with anemia founded glands atrophy and sclerosis (1), focal lymphocytic infiltration (2). Name the cause of this phenomen. A. Iron deficiency B. Excess vit. B12 C. Deficiency of folic acid D. Bone marrow aplasia E. Deficiency of vit. B12* 35.Hodgkin's disease (lymphoma) (Fig. 2.29) – is A. acute lymphoma B. Acute limphotcytoma C. Acute limphocytoblastoma D. chronic lymphocytic leukemia E. Chronic recurrent lymphoma* 36.Hodgkin's disease (lymphoma) (Fig. 2.29) is: A. episodic B. endemic C. pandemic D. sporadic E. isolated (local) and generalized* 37.In Hodgkin's disease often affects the spleen (Fig. 2.30) (necrotic foci whiteyellow color, multiple sclerosis, lymphocytic infiltration), so is called: A. sugar-coated spleen B. hyaline spleen C. fibrous spleen D. sago-like spleen E. porphyric spleen* 38.In the lymph nodes in lymphogranulomatosis revealed proliferation of lymphocytes, histiocytes, atypical small and large mononuclear cells (Fig. 2.29): A. Ponce B. Gaucher C. Pirogov D. Berezovsky E. Hodgkin's* 39.In the patient histologically diagnosed limphogranulomatous (Hodgkin's disease) (Fig. 29). Distinguish the following clinical and morphological form of the disease A. variant with monocytosis B. variant polycytosis C. variant geterocytosis D. version of the anemia E. variant with a predominance of lymphoid tissue* 40.In the patient histologically diagnosed limphogranulomatous (Hodgkin's disease) (Fig. 2.29). Distinguish the following clinical and morphological form of the disease: A. diffuse fibroblastocytosis B. knotty fibrosis C. multinodular cirrhosis D. focal fibrosis E. nodular sclerosis* 41.In the patient was histologically diagnosed limphogranulomatous (Hodgkin's disease) (Fig. 2.29). Distinguish the following clinical and morphological form of the disease: A. multinodular cirrhosis B. knotty fibrosis C. diffuse fibroblastocytosis D. single cell variant E. mixed-cell variant* 42.Hodgkin's giant cells (Fig. 2.29) contain: A. giant vacuoles B. giant fat inclusion C. giant phagosomes D. giant lysosomes E. large hyperchromic nucleus* 43.Pathomorphological manifestations of pernicious anemia in the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38) are: A. polyposis B. ulceration C. exacerbation of the inflammatory process D. development of chronic colitis E. atrophic and sclerotic changes* 44.The patient revealed atrophy and sclerosis of the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38) and hyperchromic anemia. Among the following hyperchromic anemia is A. Iron deficiency: B. Metaplastic C. Hemolytic D. Posthemorrhagic E. B12-deficient* 45.During the endoscopy the patient revealed atrophy and sclerosis of the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38), the laboratory - megaloblastic hyperplasia of the bone marrow, which is caused by hypovitaminosis: A. A B. B1 C. C D. PP E. B12* 46.The patient endoscopy revealed atrophy and sclerosis of the gastric mucosa (Fig. 2.38) and hyperchromic anemia. More typical blood cells and bone marrow with B12-deficiency anemia are: A. Anisocytes B. Microcytes C. Normoblasts D. Hypochromic red blood cells E. Megaloblasts* 47.What stage of Caries do you see on Fig. 2.56? A. superfacial B. middle C. Fig. shows traumatic tooth defect D. Fig. shows the erosion of tooth E. deep* 48.What is the pathology that is depicted on Fig. 2.56? A. tooth erosion B. fluorosis C. secondary caries D. pulpitisis E. deep caries* 49.What does the marker 1 (Fig. 2.56) show us? A. damaged tooth enamel B. caverns in carious dentin C. dental pulp D. destroyed pulp in the tooth cavity E. carious caverns in dentin and pulp* 50.Which stage of caries do you see on Fig. 2.15? A. stage spots (enamel structure is not changed) B. surface (enamel damaged) C. average (beginning of the dentin destruction) D. there is not tooth tissue E. medium or deep (dentine is damaged)* 51.What is marked by number 3 on Fig. 2.15? A. transparent dentin B. softening and destroying of dentin C. typical dentine D. reparative dentine E. extended irregular dentine tubules* 52.What is marked by number 1 on Fig. 2.15? A. transparent dentin B. extended irregular dentine tubules C. typical dentine D. reparative dentine E. softening and destroying of dentin* 53.What is marked by number 2 on Fig. 2.15? A. Extended irregular dentine tubules B. softening and destroying of dentin C. typical dentine D. reparative dentine E. transparent dentin* 54.What is marked by number 1 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication by pulpitis)? A. lymphocytes and histiocytes B. abscess formation in pulp C. sclerosis and fibrosis of pulp D. hydropic dystrophy of pulp E. hyperaemia and stasis in the capillaries of pulp* 55.What type of dystrophy marked by number 2 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication by pulpitis)? A. hyaline dystrophy of pulp B. leukoplakia of pulp C. hyalinosis of pulp D. sclerosis and fibrosis of pulp E. hydropic (vakuol) pulp dystrophy* 56.In which part of the tooth is placed number 3 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication by pulpitis)? A. superficial of the tooth B. enamel-dentine border C. deep divisions of a tooth cavity D. tooth enamel E. marginal portion of the tooth dentine* 57.What is marked by number 4 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication by pulpitis)? A. hyperaemia and stasis in the capillaries of pulp B. lymphocytes and histiocytes C. abscess formation in pulp D. hydropic dystrophy of pulp E. sclerosis and fibrosis of pulp* 58.What is marked by number 5 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication by pulpitis)? A. periodontal of tooth B. transparent dentine of the tooth C. tooth enamel D. tooth cement E. dentine with elements of destruction* 59.What is marked by number 6 on Fig. 2.5 (preparation of tooth with deep caries and complication by pulpitis)? A. central department of tooth crown B. transparent dentine of the tooth C. typical dentine D. tooth cement E. tooth enamel* 60.About what do the changes show us (indicated by number 1 on Fig. 2.8 (preparation of tooth with deep caries, chronic pulpitis))? A. formation of reparative dentin B. hydropic dystrophy of pulp C. formation of adipose tissue D. forming callus E. sclerotic and atrophic changes in pulp* 61.About what do the changes show us (indicated by number 3 on Fig. 2.8 (preparation of tooth with deep caries, chronic pulpitis))? A. sclerotic and atrophic changes in pulp B. hydropic dystrophy of pulp C. adipose tissue formation D. callus forming E. denticles and calcificates inside of the altered pulp* 62.What is markered by number 1 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)? A. formed dentycles B. sclerotic and atrophic changes in pulp C. necrosis of pulp D. forming of callus E. irregular dentine with extended tubules* 63.What is markered by number 2 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)? A. macrophages around the abscess B. pulp necrosis C. substitution dentine in the tooth cavity D. forming callus E. connective tissue of pulp with fibroblasts* 64.What part of tooth is markered by number 3 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)? A. external surface of the B. tooth enamel C. dentine of tooth D. cementum of tooth E. tooth cavity* 65.What is markered by number 4 on Fig. 2.13 (the tooth at acute purulent pulpitis)? A. grown up of pulp connective tissue with fibroblasts B. macrophages around the abscess C. granulemma formation D. forming of callus E. purulent melting pulp* 66.What pathology is the on Fig. 2.14? A. granulema B. fibromatosis C. papiloma D. sharp end condiloma E. dens-alveolar portion of jaw* 67.What is markered by number 1 on Fig. 2.14 (preparation of alveolar processus of jaw)? A. periodontal damage B. caries of dens neck C. circular caries D. bone resorption E. mucosal defect and formation of periodontal gum niche* 68.What is markered by number 2 on Fig. 2.14 (preparation of alveolar processus of jaw)? A. mucosal defect and formation of periodontal gum niche B. periodontal damage C. circular caries D. bone resorption E. dens stone formation* 69.At endoscopical research a doctor found the changes of mucus membrane of stomach (Fig. 2.28.B). What previous diagnosis did a doctor put? A. Acute gastritis B. Chronic gastritis with acuteening C. Chronic hyperplastycal gastritis (Menetrie) D. There are no visible changes mucus E. Chronic atrophy gastritis* 70.At pathoanatomical research a doctor noticed a pied picture of stomach mucus membrane (Fig. 2.28.C). What pathological process did a doctor see? A. Pigmental spots of stomach mucus. B. Catarrhal inflammation of stomach mucus. C. Perforation of stomach mucus. D. Abscesses of stomach. E. Haemorrhagic erosion.* 71.Pathoanatomical macroscopic research found pathology of stomach (Fig. 2.28.C). This pathology was confirmed by a microscopic method (Fig. 2.28.D). What pathology do you see? A. Pigmental spots of stomach mucus. B. Catarrhal inflammation of stomach mucus. C. Perforation of stomach mucus. D. Abscesses of stomach. E. Haemorrhagic erosion of stomach mucus.* 72.At posthumous research of 40-years-old man a pathologist found pathology of mucus membrane of stomach (Fig. 2.37.A). What did a doctor see? A. Acute fibrinous gastritis B. Chronic atrophic gastritis C. Chronic polypus gastritis D. Chronic gastric ulcer E. Acute gastric ulcer* 73.Pathoanatomical research of stomach found the pathology of mucus membrane in dying man (Fig. 2.37.B). Your diagnosis is.. A. Acute fibrinous gastritis B. Chronic atrophic gastritis C. Chronic polypus gastritis D. Acute gastric ulcer E. Chronic gastric ulcer* 74.At macroscopic research a pathologist found the pathology of stomach mucus (Fig. 2.37.B). What pathology do you see? A. Fibrinous inflammation of mucus membrane B. The acid burn of mucus membrane on a small curvature C. Hyperplastycal gastritis (Menetrie) D. Metaplasy of mucus membrane E. Atrophy and deformation of mucus membrane* 75.Pathoanatomical research of gastroenteric tract found the pathology of duodenum.. (Fig. 2.36.A) A. Acute gastric ulcer B. Chronic gastric ulcer C. Acute duodenitis D. Acute ulcer of duodenum E. chronic ulcer of duodenum* 76.In the pathoanatomical department was delivered a man which died in the cardiologic department. In the history of diseases was written that the man complained on pain in a stomach a long time. At research of internalss a pathologist discovered (Fig. 36.B) .. A. Acute bleeding from a gastric ulcer B. Erosion of mucus stomach C. traumatic destroing of duodenum D. Perforated ulcer of duodenum E. erosive vessels on the bottom of duodenum chronic ulcer* 77.The pathoanatomical macroscopic research of gastroenteric tract discovered (Fig. 2.36) A. Acute ulcer of duodenum B. Signs of repair of acute ulcer of duodenum C. Gastric ulcer with complication by bleeding D. Chronic gastric ulcer with arrosive vessels on a bottom E. chronic ulcer of duodenum with arrosive vessels on a bottom* 78.Macroscopic research of gastroenteric tract found pathology of mucus stomach (Fig. 2.26.A). It is .. A. Acute gastritis B. Chronic gastritis in the acute condition C. Gastric ulcer D. Haemorragic gastritis E. Scar of mucus* 79.Macroscopic research of gastroenteric tract of man, which died from acute peritonitis, discovered .. (Fig. 2.26.B) A. inflammation of stomach B. Pancreanecrosis C. Fatty hepatosis of liver («ancerine» liver) D. Muscat liver E. Perforated ulcer of duodenum* 80.Pathoanatomical research of stomach mucus discovered cicatrical tissue in the pylorus area. It became reason of .. (Fig. 2.26.B) A. Gastric ulcers B. Ulcers of a duodenum C. Perforations of stomach D. Perforations of a duodenum E. Dilatations of stomach* 81.After surgical operation in the abdominal cavity the ectomied organ was presented to the pathologist for research (Fig. 2.27.A.). Your diagnosis .. A. Acute phlegmonous appendicitis B. Acute fibrinous-festering appendicitis C. Acute destructively-necrotizing appendicitis D. Chronic appendicitis E. Acute catarrhal appendicitis* 82.After appendectomy the appendix was given to the pathologist for research (Fig. 2.27.B.). Your diagnosis .. A. Abscess of appendix B. Fibrinous appendicitis C. Phlegmonous appendicitis D. Chronic appendicitis E. Mucocele (mucocyst)* 83.The removed at the operation appendix became the object of pathoanatomical research. Name the diagnose using the original view of organ (Fig. 6.A.). A. Acute fibrinous-festering appendicitis B. Acute phlegmonous appendicitis C. Acute destructively-necrotizing appendicitis D. Chronic appendicitis E. Acute catarrhal fibrinous appendicitis* 84.Specify (Fig. 2.16) fibrinous exudate (lobar pneumonia): A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 1* 85.Specify leukocyte infiltration in lobar pneumonia (Fig. 2.16): A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 2* 86.Specify (Fig. 2.16) the thickened walls of the alveoli (lobar pneumonia): A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 3* 87.Specify leukocyte infiltration in lobar pneumonia (Fig. 2.16): A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 2* 88.Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.16): A. bronchopneumonia B. bronchitis C. pneumonia D. larengit E. lobar pneumonia* 89.Select the pus in the abscess cavity (Fig. 2.19): A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 1* 90.Select the wall abscess (Fig. 19): A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 2* 91.Select the dilated vessels in the lung abscess (Fig. 2.19): A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 3* 92.Select the neutrophilic infiltration in the lung abscess (Fig. 2.19): A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 E. 4* 93.What are the pathological process (Fig. 2.19): A. lobar pneumonia B. bronchitis C. cancer D. larengit E. abscess* 94.Specify (Fig. 2.20) the leucocyte infiltration (bronchopneumonia): A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 1* 95.Specify (Fig. 2.20) the exudate in the bronchial lumen (bronchopneumonia): A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 2* 96.Specify (Fig. 2.20) the advanced vessels (bronchopneumonia): A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 3* 97.Specify (Fig. 2.20) the thickened walls of the alveoli (bronchopneumonia): A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 E. 4* 98.What is the pathological process in this Figure (Fig. 2.20): A. lobar pneumonia B. bronchitis C. pneumonia D. larengit E. bronchopneumonia* 99.What are the pathological process (Fig. 2.21): A. bronchopneumonia B. bronchitis C. pneumonia D. larengit E. carnification* 100. Specify (Fig. 2.22) the leukocyte infiltration (intermediate pneumonia): A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 1* 101. Specify (Fig. 2.22) the extended alveolar walls (intermediate pneumonia): A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 2* 102. Specify (Fig. 2.22) the advanced vessels (intermediate pneumonia): A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 3* 103. What are the pathological process (Fig. 2.22): A. pneumonia in influenza B. viral bronchitis C. pneumonia D. Viral larengit E. intermediate pneumonia* 104. Specify (Fig. 2.23) the leukocyte infiltration (chronic bronchitis): A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 1* 105. Specify (Fig. 2.23) the advanced vessels (chronic bronchitis): A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 3* 106. Specify (Fig. 2.23) the exudate in the lumen of the bronchus (chronic bronchitis): A. 1 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 2* 107. Name (Fig. 2.23) the pathological process: A. bronchopneumonia B. intermediate pneumonia C. pneumonia D. larengit E. bronchitis* 108. Specify (Fig. 2.24) advanced lumen alveoli (emphysema): A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2 i 4 E. 1* 109. Specify (Fig. 2.24) thinning alveolar septum: A. 1 B. 3 C. 1 i 4 D. 1 i 2 E. 2 i 4* 110. Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.24): A. bronchopneumonia B. intermediate pneumonia C. pneumonia D. larengit E. emphysema* 111. Specify hyperchromic nuclei (Fig. 17): A. 2 and 3 B. 3 and 1 C. 3 D. 2 E. 1* 112. Specify the cancer cells (Fig. 2.17): A. 1 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 D. 3 and 1 E. 1 and 2* 113. What type of cell atypizm can be seen in the picture (Fig. 2.17): A. biochemical B. fabric C. intercellular D. interstices E. cell and tissue* 114. Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.17): A. bronchopneumonia B. intermediate pneumonia C. pneumonia D. larengit E. cancer* 115. What type of cell atypizm is numbered 1 (Fig. 2.25): A. hipohromii nuclei B. different size fibers C. atypical location of glands D. irregular shape of glands E. hyperchromic nuclei* 116. What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.17): A. cancer than in normal B. different size fibers C. Atypical location of glands D. irregular shape of glands E. polymorphism nuclei* 117. What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.17): A. cancer than in normal B. different size fibers C. Atypical location of glands D. irregular shape of glands E. different size nuclei* 118. Specify (Fig. 2.25) the cancer cells: A. 1 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 D. 3 and 1 E. 2* 119. What types of atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.25): A. biochemical B. fabric C. intercellular D. interstices E. cell and tissue* 120. Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.25): A. bronchopneumonia B. intermediate pneumonia C. pneumonia D. larengit E. lung* 121. What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.25): A. cancer than in normal B. different size fibers C. Atypical location of glands D. irregular shape of glands E. polymorphism nuclei* 122. What type of cell atypizm can be seen (Fig. 2.25): A. cancer than in normal B. different size fibers C. Atypical location of glands D. irregular shape of glands E. different size nuclei* 123. Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.20): A. lobar pneumonia B. tracheitis C. larengit D. lung E. bronchopneumonia* 124. Name the pathological process (Fig. 2.24): A. lobar pneumonia B. tracheitis C. larengit D. lung E. emphysema* 125. Specify (Fig. 2.25) the diagnosis: A. bronchitis B. tracheitis C. laryngitis D. pericarditis E. cancer of the lung* 126. Histological examination of lung tissue (Fig. 2.6) revealed dense protein masses, which are colored intensely with eosin, and are on the respiratory regions of the lungs. Hyaline membranes composed of fibrin. They block the exchange of gases in the lungs. What kind of pathology: A. Pathology of the placenta B. Fetopathy C. Blastopathy D. Antenatal Pathology E. Perinathal pathology* 127. Histological examination of lung tissue (Fig. 2.6) revealed dense protein masses, which are colored intensely with eosin, and are on the respiratory regions of the lungs. Hyaline membranes composed of fibrin. They block the exchange of gases in the lungs. What kind of pathology: A. Pathology of the placenta B. Fetopathy C. Blastopathy D. Antenatal Pathology E. Pneumopathy* 128. What is the pathology of lung tissue is on Fig. 2.6. Histology revealed dense protein masses, which are colored intensely with eosin, and firmly stick to the walls of respiratory regions of the lungs. Hyaline membranes are composed of fibrin and blocks gas exchange in the lungs. A. Pathology of the placenta B. Fetopathy C. Blastopathy D. Antenatal Pathology E. Pneumopathy* 129. What is the pathology of lung tissue in Fig. 2.6. Histology revealed dense protein masses, which are colored intensely with eosin, and firmly stick to the walls of respiratory regions of the lungs. Hyaline membranes are composed of fibrin and blocks gas exchange in the lungs. A. Pathology of the placenta B. Fetopathy C. Blastopathy D. Perinatal pathology E. Congenital malformations of the respiratory system* 130. Grossly the brain tissue preterm neonates revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles with the development of tamponade (Fig. 2.7). What are the causes of birth injury, embodied in the state of the fetus: A. Embriopathy - malformations, which are accompanied by venous congestion in the tissues of the fetus B. Fetopathy, which are accompanied by haemorrhagic syndrome C. Rigidity tissue birth canal D. All of the options E. Premature birth or fetal postmaturity* 131. Grossly the brain tissue preterm neonates revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles with the development of tamponade (Fig. 2.7). What are the causes of birth trauma rooted in the mother's birth canal: A. Distortion of the pelvis B. Tumors of the birth canal C. oligohydramnios and premature rupture of membranes D. Rigidity tissues birth canal E. All of these options correct* 132. What are the causes of birth injury, embodied in the mother's birth canal, which lead to the development of pathologic changes, shown in Fig. 2.7. Grossly the brain tissue in a premature newborn revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles with the development of tamponade. A. Distortion of the pelvis B. Tumors of the birth canal C. Oligohydramnios and premature rupture of membranes D. Rigidity tissues birth canal E. All of these options correct* 133. Grossly the brain tissue preterm neonates revealed a hematoma in the cavity of the ventricles with the development of tamponade (Fig. 2.7). What are the possible causes of birth trauma rooted in the dynamics of birth: A. fetal hypoxia B. oligohydramnios and premature rupture of membranes C. Rigidity tissues birth canal D. All of these options correct E. accelerated labor* 134. Grossly tissue of the abdominal cavity in a child who died at 2 days was found additional spleen( Fig. 2.58). What it is: A. Aplasia B. Hypoxia C. Ectopia D. All of the options E. Congenital hypertrophy* 135. Grossly tissue of the abdominal cavity in a child who died at 2 days was found additional spleen (Fig. 2.58). Specify in what time period are formed such changes A. Period blastogenesis B. Period fetogeneza C. Early fetal period D. postural fetal period E. Period embryogenesis* 136. Grossly tissue of the abdominal cavity of the child, who died at 2 days, found additional spleen (Fig. 2.58). Indicate to what pathology include these changes. A. Blastopathy B. Fetopathy C. Early fetal period D. Postural fetal period E. Embriopathy* 137. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological process: A. Polyhydramnios B. Blastopathy C. Embriopathy D. Fetopathy E. Overlay forceps* 138. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological process: A. Polyhydramnios B. Blastopathy C. Embriopathy D. Fetopathy E. Accelerated labor* 139. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological process: A. Polyhydramnios B. Blastopathy C. Embriopathy D. Fetopathy E. Prolonged labor* 140. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological process: A. Polyhydramnios B. Blastopathy C. Embriopathy D. Fetopathy E. State of prematurity or newborn postmaturity* 141. At Fig. 2.9 shows kefalogematoma newborn baby. What the reason for this pathological process: A. Polyhydramnios B. Blastopathy C. Embriopathy D. Fetopathy E. Oligohydramnios* 142. Women 32 years removed uterine tube. Histologically, it revealed chorionic villi, which are depicted on Fig. 2.11. Name the cause of intervention: A. Abdominal Pregnancy B. Ovarian Pregnancy C. Uterine pregnancy D. Vesicular mole E. Tubal pregnancy* 143. After removal of uterine tubes of women 32 years old, histologically revealed chorionic villi, which are depicted on Fig. 2.11. Name the cause of intervention: A. Abdominal Pregnancy B. Ovarian Pregnancy C. Uterine pregnancy D. Vesicular mole E. Tubal pregnancy* 144. The presence of decidual reaction and chorionic villi shown in Fig. 2.11 shows: A. Specific granulomatous inflammation B. Nonspecific granulomatous inflammation C. Аcute inflammation D. Chronic inflammation E. Pregnancy* 145. A young woman was operated on urgently rupture uterine tube . Gistological reaction revealed decidual and chorionic villi (Fig. 2.11).This is typical: A. Specific granulomatous inflammation B. Nonspecific granulomatous inflammation C. Acute inflammation D. Chronic inflammation E. Pregnancy* 146. What pathology is shown in Fig. 2.41 the number 3: A. uterine pregnancy B. tubal pregnancy C. teratoma D. Corpus luteum E. Ovarian Pregnancy* 147. Name the structure shown in Fig. 2.10. A. embryoblast B. trophoblast C. Embryon D. Chorion E. Fetus* 148. In what period of developing pathology shown on Fig. 2.12. A. Gametopathy B. Embriopathy C. Congenital D. bicuspid aortic E. Blastopathy* 149. Aentsefaly - agenesis of the brain, shown in Fig. 2.39 refers to: A. Gametopathy B. Blastopathy C. Afterbirth pathology D. Hypoplasia E. Embriopathy* 150. What pathology is shown in Fig. 2.2 A. Hypoplasia of muscle tissue B. Dysplasia C. chondrodysplasia D. Perverted Osteogenesis E. Congenital face-heyloshiz*