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Chapter 19 – Consumer Concerns about Foods and Water
Multiple Choice
01.
The potential of a substance to harm someone is known as a
a. hazard.
b. toxicity.
c. risk level.
d. safety level.
02.
What term describes the possibility of harm from normal use of a substance?
a. Hazard
b. Toxicity
c. Bioinsecurity
d. Food insecurity
03.
What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm?
a. Risk
b. Safety
c. Hazard
d. Toxicity
04.
What government agency is charged with protecting agriculture and the food supply?
a. The Food Safety and Security Agency
b. The Agricultural and Biosecurity Agency
c. The Antiterrorism Subcommittee on Food Security
d. The FDA subcommittee on Food Safety and Hazards Agency
05.
Among food-borne infections, what organisms are the: chief cause of illness/chief cause of
death?
a. Listeria/Yersinia
b. Salmonella/Listeria
c. Giardia/Campylobacter
d. Campylobacter/Salmonella
06.
What is the leading cause of food contamination in the United States?
a. Naturally occurring toxicants
b. Food poisoning from microbes
c. Pesticide residues from farmers
d. Food additives from the food industry
07.
According to the FDA, what is the leading food safety concern?
a. Food additives
b. Pesticide residues
c. Foodborne illnesses
d. Environmental contaminants
08.
Common symptoms of foodborne illness caused by the Salmonella organism include all of the
following except
a. diarrhea.
b. vomiting.
c. abdominal cramps.
d. low body temperature.
09.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people in the United
States experience foodborne illness every year?
a. 0.5 million
b. 12 million
c. 76 million
d. 150 million
10.
What branch of the Department of Health and Human Services is responsible for monitoring
foodborne illness?
a. EPA
b. FAO
c. CDC
d. WHO
11.
What is the international agency that has adopted standards to regulate the use of pesticides?
a. FAO
b. FDA
c. CDC
d. USDA
12.
Which of the following is the most common pathogenic microorganism in U.S. foods?
a. Salmonella
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Clostridium perfringens
13.
The most common symptoms of foodborne infection include all of the following except
a. fever.
b. cramps.
c. diarrhea.
d. double vision.
14.
Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella?
a. Raw vegetables
b. Pickled vegetables
c. Home-canned vegetables
d. Raw meats, poultry, and eggs
15.
Which of the following is the major food source for transmission of Campylobacter jejuni?
a. Raw poultry
b. Uncooked seafood
c. Imported soft cheeses
d. Undercooked beef hot dogs
A patient with a high temperature complains of headache, stomach ache, fever, and vomiting.
Upon questioning, he admits to eating several raw eggs the day before. The most likely
organism causing these symptoms is
a. E. coli.
b. Salmonella.
c. Perfringens.
d. Campylobacter jejuni.
16.
17.
Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with
a. nitrosamines.
b. rotting vegetables.
c. undercooked poultry.
d. improperly canned vegetables.
18.
A child is brought into the emergency room with breathing difficulties. He also has difficulty
swallowing and speaking. The mother mentions that he ate some home-canned beans
yesterday. You suspect microbiological food poisoning. The most likely toxin is
a. botulinum toxin.
b. giardiasis toxin.
c. salmonella toxin.
d. campylobacteria toxin.
19.
What organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Vibrio vulnificus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Lactobacillis acidophilus
20.
Approximately how many people each year are affected by Staphylococcus aureus food-borne
illness?
a. 250,000
b. 500,000
c. 750,000
d. One million
21.
Which of the following is an example of food intoxication?
a. Addition of alkaline and acidic agents to foods
b. Illness produced by acute overconsumption of high-fat foods
c. Addition of alcohol-containing beverages in the cooking of foods
d. Illness produced from ingestion of food contaminated with natural toxins
22.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism illness?
a. It is rarely fatal and victims usually recover completely
b. It is caused by a toxic compound rather than by invasion of pathogenic bacteria
c. It is caused by ingestion of food contaminated with a combination of aflatoxin and
mold
d. It most often occurs from eating foods that were stored under aerobic conditions of
high pH
23.
Which of the following is a characteristic of botulism?
a. A chief symptom is diarrhea
b. A full recovery may take years
c. It is caused by the organism Staphylococcus aureus
d. It is a toxicant produced in foods stored under aerobic conditions
What fraction of reported foodborne illnesses can be attributed to the food industry?
a. 1/10
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 4/5
24.
25.
The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly
known as
a. sanitization.
b. sterilization.
c. pasteurization.
d. depathogenation.
26.
Of the millions of imported shipments of raw foods arriving in U.S. ports each year,
approximately what percentage is not inspected by the FDA?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Less than 5
Less than 20
50
98
27.
What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help
identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease?
a. The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule
b. Safe Handling Certification Program
c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
d. North American Residue Monitoring Program
28.
Which of the following would most likely result from placing cooked hamburger patties on
the same plate that held the uncooked patties?
a. Flavor declination
b. Meat juice retention
c. Fat drippings exudation
d. Microbial cross-contamination
29.
A few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain.
After dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the
restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items
such as lettuce. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees’
neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill?
a. Contamination
b. Cross-contamination
c. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
d. Inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures
30.
What country accounts for most of the reported causes of mad cow disease?
a. China
b. Hong Kong
c. United States
d. United Kingdom
31.
In cows infected with mad cow disease, which of the following tissues is generally free of the
infectious agents?
a. Brain
b. Muscle
c. Intestines
d. Central nervous system
32.
What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and
soap before preparing or eating food?
a. 5-10 Seconds
b. 20 Seconds
c. ½-1 Minute
d. 3 Minutes
33.
Why is ground meat more susceptible to microbial contamination than unground meat?
a. It has more surface area
b. It is usually undercooked
c. It has a higher fat content
d. It is not inspected as often
34.
Which of the following is a characteristic of meat contamination?
a.
b.
c.
d.
A USDA seal of inspection insures the absence of most harmful bacteria
Consumers are not able to detect the presence of harmful bacteria by odor or taste
The presence of naturally occurring antibodies in meats slows the growth of harmful
organisms
Ground meat is very resistant to contamination because of the high heat released by
the grinding machines
35.
All of the following are properties associated with the cooking of hamburgers except
a. color alone is usually indicative of “doneness.”
b. burgers should be cooked to an internal temperature of 160° F.
c. some burgers will retain some pink color even when cooked to 175° F.
d. some burgers will turn brown before reaching the recommended temperature.
36.
Which of the following is a feature of avian influenza?
a. It can be transmitted by eating infected poultry
b. It is considered a mildly contagious viral infection
c. The risk of bird flu is quite high in some parts of the world
d. Most cases of bird flu result from direct contact with infected birds
37.
The seal “Graded by USDA” that appears on packaged meat and poultry means that the
product is
a. uncooked.
b. not hazardous.
c. free of bacteria.
d. assessed for tenderness.
38.
You work part-time at a local diner and have noticed that there are a few questionable
practices going on behind closed doors. An older employee tells you that the worst of
these oversights is the workers’ disregard for the “danger” zone. Which of the following
applies to this employee’s warning?
a. Keeping the freezer at 35° F
b. Serving raw seafood without proper cooking techniques
c. Keeping beef patties on a warm grill (135° F) for up to 3 hours
d. Not disposing of egg shells immediately after use and allowing them to sit on
countertops
39.
What unintended benefit is derived from the freezing of fish by the food industry?
a. The fish becomes tenderized
b. Mature parasitic worms are killed
c. Botulinum toxin becomes inactivated
d. The toxins from hepatitis A and B are destroyed
40.
To minimize the possibility of foodborne illness, hamburger should be cooked to an internal
temperature (°F) of at least
a. 125.
b. 140.
c. 160.
d. 195.
41.
Consumption of raw oysters is known to cause hepatitis type
a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
42.
All of the following are characteristics of raw oyster consumption except
a.
b.
c.
d.
hot sauces can kill the viruses found in them.
some hot sauces can kill the bacteria found in them.
some people who drink alcohol are protected from oyster-borne illness.
people with weakened immune systems are especially vulnerable to oyster-borne
illness.
43.
What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers?
a. 140
b. 152
c. 165
d. 180
44.
Which of the following foods is best known to transmit hepatitis?
a. Poultry
b. Seafood
c. Legumes
d. Raw vegetables
45.
All of the following are rules to help prevent foodborne illness except
a. use hands to mix foods.
b. thaw meats in the refrigerator.
c. use a meat thermometer to avoid undercooking.
d. use hot, soapy water to wash hands, utensils, and countertops.
46.
Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared
foods?
a. Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapors
b. Restrict the food’s exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4-6 hours
c. Restrict the food’s exposure at between 40° F and 140° F to a maximum of 2 hours
d. Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 32° F for a maximum of 1
month
47.
All of the following are characteristics of oysters in the diet except
a. they are the primary factor in traveler’s diarrhea.
b. eating them raw is a risk factor for some bacterial infections.
c. some oyster-borne microbes are destroyed when the consumer drinks alcohol.
d. many oyster-borne bacteria, but not viruses, are destroyed by some hot sauces.
48.
What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened
packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad?
a. 1-2 days
b. 3-5 days
c. 1 week
d. 2-4 weeks
49.
Which of the following methods of thawing meats or poultry increases health risk?
a. In the refrigerator
b. At room temperature
c. In a microwave oven
d. Under cool running water
50.
Which of the following is the most appropriate method to thaw turkey?
a. In the refrigerator
b. At room temperature
c. On top of a warm oven
d. Under very low heat in the oven
51.
If you suspect that you are suffering from a foodborne illness, appropriate actions to take
include all of the following except
a. refrain from eating or drinking any more of the tainted product.
b. drink clear liquids to help combat diarrhea and vomiting, and call a physician.
c. find a portion of the remaining suspected food and ask someone else to taste it to
detect any off flavors.
d. find the remainder of the suspected food and store it in the refrigerator for possible
inspection by health authorities.
52.
You are presenting a general seminar at a food safety convention. At the end of your talk, an
audience member barrages you with questions about irradiation of foods causing people
to be exposed to radioactive food. How should you respond?
a. Irradiation techniques do not in any way produce radioactive foods
b. There is only cause for concern when treating foods such as milk, grapefruits, eggs,
and high-fat meats
c. Radioactive foods have been approved for consumption by the American Medical
Association, the FAO and the WHO
d. Cold pasteurization is the only technique that results in radioactive foods and as long
as they are avoided, there is no cause for concern
53.
Common foods approved for irradiation include all of the following except
a. eggs.
b. milk.
c. wheat.
d. strawberries.
54.
What are the chances of contracting diarrhea from travel to other countries?
a. 1 in 2
b. 1 in 10
c. 1 in 100
d. 1 in 1000
55.
Which of the following is an example of a food preservation technique?
a. Irradiation used to sterilize spices
b. Carotenoids used to retard formation of nitrosamines
c. Sulfites used to retard growth of pathogenic organisms
d. Nitrites used to form unique radiolytic particles when the food is overheated
56.
What processing method allows for cartons of milk to be shelved in grocery stores at room
temperature?
a. Prolonged pasteurization
b. Boiling for exactly 10 minutes
c. Ultrahigh temperature treatment
d. Combination irradiation/pasteurization
57.
A patient reports that since returning from overseas travel to a developing country, she has
been experiencing stomach cramps and diarrhea. Which of the following foodborne
organisms is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
a. E. coli
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Listeria monocytogenes
58.
Among the following organisms, which is primarily responsible for causing “traveler’s”
diarrhea?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vibrio
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium botulinum
59.
What is the chief reason for not using irradiation for preserving dairy products?
a. It imparts off flavors
b. It coalesces the fat particles
c. It is inefficient at killing microorganisms
d. It results in high amounts of food radioactive particles
60.
A common term to describe the process of irradiation is
a. UHT treatment.
b. radura treatment.
c. cold pasteurization.
d. pulsed electron beam.
61.
Which of the following is inappropriate advice on sanitation for someone traveling to another
country?
a. Drink all beverages without ice
b. Drink bottled carbonated beverages
c. Boil the local water before use to kill microbes
d. Eat fruits and vegetables raw with their skins to decrease risk from wash-water
contamination
62.
Which of the following is a feature of irradiated foods?
a. The World Health Organization has not approved food irradiation
b. The labels of all foods must indicate treatment by irradiation except for meats
c. Irradiation of foods such as strawberries and mangoes hastens their ripening
d. The irradiation label is not required on commercially prepared foods that contain
irradiated ingredients
63.
All of the following describe associations between vegetable preparation and vitamin
preservation except
a. vegetables should be washed before cutting to reduce vitamin losses.
b. after a vegetable is picked, vitamin synthesis stops but vitamin degradation
continues.
c. vegetables should be cooked in water rather than by steaming to minimize vitamin
losses.
d. vegetables should be stored in the refrigerator until used to preserve vitamin content.
64.
What nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation?
a. Trace minerals
b. Fat-soluble vitamins
c. Polyunsaturated fats
d. Water-soluble vitamins
65.
Which of the following are examples of heavy metals?
a. Mercury and lead
b. Iron and chromium
c. Carbon and nitrogen
d. Molybdenum and fluoride
66.
Which of the following is an example of heavy metal exposure from foods?
a. Cooking foods for prolonged periods in iron skillets
b. Ingestion of food containing high amounts of mercury
c.
d.
Ingestion of food supplements containing high levels of calcium and sodium salts
Cooking foods over superheated charcoal containing high levels of copper and iron
67.
The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food
chain is termed
a. bioaccumulation.
b. hyperconcentration.
c. evolutionary containment.
d. functional high level accumulation.
68.
Which of the following is a feature of an organic halogen?
a. Heavy metal
b. Safe additive
c. Toxic chemical
d. Component of most proteins
What is the primary source of dietary mercury?
a. Seafood
b. Legumes
c. Unfiltered water
d. Undercooked poultry
69.
70.
Of the following types of seafood, which should be consumed in least amount by pregnant
and lactating women?
a. Shrimp
b. Canned light tuna
c. Pollack and catfish
d. White albacore tuna
71.
All of the following are characteristics of mercury in nutrition except
a. mercury toxicity damages the developing brain.
b. farm-raised fish typically have less mercury than wild-caught fish.
c. larger fish have less muscle mercury due to the dilutional effect of size.
d. the EPA regulates commercial fishing to monitor mercury levels in fish.
72.
Which of the following is a characteristic of heavy metals in the U.S. food supply?
a. Virtually all fish contain mercury
b. Mercury contamination of fish is most severe in tuna
c. Toxicity is most severe in the elderly population group
d. Contamination is usually greater in farm-raised fish than in ocean fish
73.
What was the toxic substance that accidentally found its way into the food chain in the early
1970s and to which almost all of Michigan’s residents became exposed?
a. Lead acetate
b. Methylmercury
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Polybrominated biphenyl
74.
Your friend Mark is an avid organic food consumer. He believes that natural foods are the
only way to avoid the chemicals that farmers “poison” their crops with. You warn Mark
that not all natural foods are free from toxins; indeed, that many foods contain naturally
occurring toxic substances. The example you provide could be the solanine commonly
found in
a. beets.
b. broccoli.
c. potatoes.
d. anchovies.
75.
What is the principal factor related to solanine concentration in potatoes?
a. Contamination
b. Irradiation malfunction
c. Soil heavy metal content
d. Improper storage conditions
76.
Which of the following is a characteristic of solanine?
a. It is not destroyed by cooking
b. It enhances absorption of lead
c. It antagonizes the thyroid gland
d. It is destroyed when potatoes start to sprout
77.
Which of the following is a feature of naturally occurring food toxicants?
a. Lima beans contain deadly cyanide compounds
b. The toxic solanine in potatoes is inactivated by cooking
c. The toxic laetrile in certain fruit seeds is a moderately effective cancer cure
d. Mustard greens and radishes contain compounds that are known to worsen a
cholesterol problem
78.
Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed’s
content of
a. cyanide.
b. solanine.
c. goitrogens.
d. hallucinogens.
79.
All of the following represent matches between a naturally occurring toxin and its food
except
a. solanine in potatoes.
b. goitrogens in cabbage.
c. cyanogens in lima beans.
d. acrylamides in tomatoes.
80.
Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods
commonly eaten in large quantities by
a. children.
b. adolescents.
c. adults.
d. elderly.
81.
What term is used to describe the highest level of a pesticide that is allowed in a food when
the pesticide is used according to label directions?
a. Toxicity level
b. Tolerance level
c. Risk concentration
d. Optimum concentration
82.
What organization is responsible for setting tolerance guidelines for the use of a pesticide on
food?
a. EPA
b. FDA
c. WHO
d. DDT
83.
What organization is responsible for enforcing the tolerances that are set for a pesticide on
food?
a. EPA
b. FDA
c. WHO
d. DDT
84.
The FDA considers the amount of pesticide intake to be acceptable if the daily intake ingested
over a lifetime appears to be
a. without appreciable risk.
b. 100% risk-free for everyone.
c. safe for about 98% of the population.
d. 100% risk-free for infants and children.
The FDA monitors pesticides by sampling
a. all food shipments for all pesticides.
b. all food shipments for some pesticides.
c. some food shipments for all pesticides.
d. some food shipments for some pesticides.
85.
86.
What is the name of the program that reports on the dietary intakes of pesticides from our
food supply?
a. Total Diet Study
b. Toxicant Monitoring Program
c. Food Safety and Health Program
d. Diet and Market Analysis Report
87.
What is meant when the FDA invokes a certification requirement?
a. The suppliers must show proof that the foods were produced and processed in the
United States
b. A new food is being introduced on the U.S. market and the processing method must
first be approved by the FDA
c. The food manufacturer must have its products tested to guarantee that certain
chemicals do not exceed legal limits
d. The FDA laboratories have tested a new food product and approved all remaining
pesticide residues as falling within agency guidelines
88.
Of the amount of pesticides considered acceptable (safe) for human consumption,
approximately what percent is actually ingested by people in the United States?
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 100
89.
All of the following practices are known to minimize exposure to food pesticide residues
except
a. throwing away the outer leaves of leafy vegetables.
b. using a knife to peel citrus fruits rather than biting into the peel.
c. throwing away the fats and oils in broths and pan drippings from cooked meats.
d. washing waxed fruits and vegetables in water to remove the wax-impregnated
pesticides.
90.
Food producers are allowed to label a food product as organic if it
a. has been irradiated.
b. contains genetically engineered ingredients.
c. was made with at least 95% organic ingredients.
d. was grown with fertilizer made from sewer sludge.
91.
Which of the following is a characteristic of pesticides on foods?
a. Pesticide residues on organic foods are similar to those on conventionally grown
foods
b. Pesticides are easier to remove from organic foods because of their greater watersolubility
c. Pesticide residues are substantially reduced by the use of unprocessed animal
manures used to grow leafy vegetables
d. Pesticide chemicals in the urine of children given an organic foods diet for 5 days
were dramatically lower than before the diet
92.
Most food additives are classified as
a. emulsifiers.
b. preservatives.
c. color enhancers.
d. bleaching agents.
93.
What organization regulates and monitors the use of chemical additives?
a. FDA
b. HRS
c. WHO
d. USDA
94.
What is the name of the rule that modifies the original meaning of the Delaney Clause?
a. GRAS list
b. Bonnie Clause
c. De minimis rule
d. No-risk standard
95.
What list is composed of substances widely used for many years without apparent ill effects?
a. FDA
b. GRAS
c. Delaney
d. Additive Safety
96.
Caffeine is permitted as a food additive because it is part of the
a. GRAS list.
b. Delaney Clause.
c. WHO Mandate of 1985.
d. USDA Bulletin of 1962.
97.
Which of the following dictates that an additive must not have been found to be a carcinogen
in any test on animals or human beings?
a. Additive Rules
b. Delaney Clause
c. FDA GRAS List
d. Contaminant Law
98.
What is the origin of the quotation “No additive shall be deemed to be safe if it is found to
induce cancer when ingested by man or animal”?
a. GRAS list
b. Delaney Clause
c. WHO Mandate of 1985
d. USDA Bulletin of 1962
99.
What level of cancer risk to human beings from a food additive is accepted by the FDA?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
1 in 1,000
1 in 1,000,000
1 in 100,000,000
100.
What defines the FDA’s de minimis rule?
a. A requirement that the least toxic food additive be used on foods
b. The minimum amount of a food particle that can be detected
c. The minimum amount of nitrite that can be added to foods to prevent spoilage over a
certain time frame
d. The amount of a food additive that causes no more than a one-in-a-million risk of
cancer to human beings
101.
If the lowest level of a food additive that causes a harmful effect is 100 micrograms, what
amount would be allowed by the FDA’s margin of safety?
a. 1 microgram
b. 50 micrograms
c. 100 micrograms
d. 1 milligram
102.
What is the term that describes the allowance of most additives in foods at levels 100 times
below the lowest level known to cause any harmful effects?
a. Toxicity range
b. Zone of hazard
c. Acceptable area
d. Margin of safety
103.
What is the chief reason that nitrites are allowed to be added to certain meat products?
a. Nitrites improve the consistency
b. The vitamin content of meat is stabilized
c. The flavor of meat is enhanced significantly
d. Nitrites inhibit the formation of botulinum toxin
104.
What is the classification given to a substance put into food to give a certain color?
a. Indirect additive
b. Incidental additive
c. Peripheral additive
d. Intentional additive
105.
Which of the following substances in the diet would typically have the lowest margin of
safety?
a. Table salt
b. Pesticides
c. Preservatives
d. Color additives
106.
What category is assigned to additives put in foods after a rational decision-making process?
a. Indirect
b. Incidental
c. Intentional
d. Contaminants
107.
All of the following are among the characteristics of antimicrobial food additives except
a. nitrates also preserve the color of hot dogs.
b. ordinary baking powder is one of the most common.
c. sodium propionate is used in cheeses and margarine.
d.
nitrites can be converted to cancer-causing substances in the stomach.
108.
Sugar and salt are used as antimicrobial agents in foods because they prevent microbial use of
the food’s
a. fat.
b. water.
c. protein.
d. carbohydrate.
109.
In searching for a recipe for homemade jelly, you come across a recipe by a notable food
scientist, who emphasizes the importance of the correct amount of sugar in the jelly as it
serves as the product’s antimicrobial agent. What is the rationale behind this statement?
a. Sugar is not a sustainable food source for most microbes
b. Sugar phagocytizes the microbes that are present in the jelly
c. Sugar captures water and makes it unavailable for microbes
d. Sugar wards off offending bacterial agents present in the jelly
110.
Of the following, which is used most widely as an antimicrobial agent?
a. Sugar
b. Saccharin
c. Sodium nitrite
d. Sodium propionate
111.
All of the following are among antioxidant agents used by food processors except
a. BHA.
b. BHT.
c. solanine.
d. vitamin E.
112.
Which of the following properties are shared by vitamins C and E, BHA and BHT, and
sulfites?
a. Flavor enhancers
b. Antimicrobial agents
c. Antioxidant activities
d. Incidental food additives
113.
Which of the following is a feature of the substance BHT?
a. It is a food antimicrobial
b. It is a common food colorant
c. It contributes significantly to the total additive intake from the diet
d. It decreases cancer formation when given in large amounts to animals exposed to
carcinogens
114.
When a slice of fresh apple turns a brown color, this is most likely the result of
a. oxidation.
b. dehydration.
c. microbial contamination.
d. ethylene oxide treatment in the ripening process.
115.
Which of the following substances added to foods inhibits formation of botulinum toxin?
a. BHA
b. Nitrites
c. Table salt
d. Sodium ascorbate
116.
Which of the following activities would result in the least exposure to nitrosamine-related
compounds?
a. Eating bacon
b. Drinking beer
c. Driving a new car
d. Smoking cigarettes
117.
Which of the following activities would result in the highest exposure to nitrosamine-related
compounds?
a. Eating bacon
b. Drinking beer
c. Driving a new car
d. Smoking cigarettes
118.
Which of the following is not among the features of nitrites?
a. Preserve color
b. Impart off-flavors
c. Present naturally in foods
d. Protect against bacterial growth
119.
Which of the following is not one of the features of sulfites?
a. Improve flavor
b. Prevent oxidation
c. Destroy appreciable amounts of thiamin
d. Cause adverse reactions in some people
120.
What vitamin undergoes the most destruction in foods preserved with sulfites?
a. Folate
b. Thiamin
c. Vitamin D
d. Ascorbic acid
121.
A feature of sulfite food additives is that they
a. are frequently used in wines.
b. inhibit growth of most microbes.
c. interact with folate to inhibit its absorption.
d. are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects.
122.
What is the only food intended to be consumed raw in which the FDA allows the use of
sulfite additives?
a. Grapes
b. Lettuce
c. Carrots
d. Strawberries
123.
Sulfites are a prohibited additive for refined grain products in the United States because they
a. destroy thiamin.
b. impart off colors.
c. impart off flavors.
d. shorten the shelf-life.
124.
The flavor enhancer MSG represents a dietary source of
a. sulfite.
b. sodium.
c. acrylamide.
d. bicarbonate.
125.
What is the largest single group of food additives?
a. Flavoring agents
b. Artificial sweeteners
c. Antimicrobial agents
d. Artificial coloring agents
126.
Which of the following is a flavor-enhancing food additive?
a. BHT
b. Beta-carotene
c. Sodium propionate
d. Monosodium glutamate
127.
All of the following are features of monosodium glutamate in foods except
a. it is a GRAS ingredient.
b. it is not allowed in infant foods.
c. it enhances the tastes of sweet, salty, bitter, and sour.
d. it induces adverse reactions primarily in people with diabetes.
128.
Which of the following conditions is known to make people more sensitive to experiencing
the MSG symptom complex?
a. Obesity
b. Asthma
c. Diabetes
d. Hypertension
129.
What additive common to Asian foods is thought to be associated with acute, temporary
intolerance reactions?
a. Nitrites
b. Carotenoids
c. Monosodium glutamate
d. Polybrominated biphenyl
130.
Which of the following is an example of an indirect food additive?
a. Nitrites
b. Vitamin E
c. Irradiation
d. Tin from the can
131.
What classification is given to a substance that leaches from the inside lining of a can into the
fruit, resulting in an off-flavor?
a. Direct additive
b. Indirect additive
c. Migratory contamination
d. Peripheral contamination
132.
Which of the following is a characteristic of acrylamide in foods?
a. At low doses, acrylamide inhibits cancer formation in animals
b. Raw potatoes are free of acrylamide but french fries contain it
c. At low doses, acrylamide causes nerve damage and cancer in animals
d. Cooking high-fat foods at moderate temperatures for prolonged periods generates
acrylamide
133.
Which of the following is a feature of food colors?
a. Caramel is an approved natural food color
b. Most food color additives are artificial colors
c.
d.
Carotenoids are used to color foods blue and green
Natural food colors have lower standards of purity and safety than artificial colors
134.
Which of the following is the most common use for adding carotenoids to foods?
a. To color the food
b. To extend shelflife
c. To inhibit microbial growth
d. To inhibit nitrosamine formation
135.
Which of the following foods represents a common source of acrylamide intake in the United
States?
a. Raw fruits
b. French fries
c. Raw vegetables
d. Grilled seafood
136.
What carcinogen is known to be produced when high-carbohydrate foods are cooked at high
temperatures?
a. Dioxins
b. Acrylamides
c. Carrageenan
d. Nitrosamines
137.
To determine quickly if a particular glass or ceramic vessel is safe for use in a microwave
oven, the empty container should be placed in the microwave for one minute and the
container should feel
a. cool.
b. lukewarm.
c. warm.
d. hot.
138.
Why should consumers use only specialized glass or ceramic containers rather than common
packaging materials to heat foods in microwave ovens?
a. Several types of common packaging materials may catch on fire
b. Many common packaging materials contain traces of PCBs which are released into
the food
c. There are substances in common packaging materials that can migrate into the food
and present a health hazard
d. Many substances in common packaging materials interact with flavor components in
food and impart off-flavors
139.
Which of the following toxic substances are formed from production of paper products used
in food packaging?
a. PBBs
b. URPs
c. Dioxins
d. BHT and BHA
140.
Which of the following is a food contaminant formed during chlorine treatment of wood used
in the manufacture of paper?
a. Dioxin
b. Alginate
c. Acrylamide
d. Hydrochloride
141.
What is the standard chemical used to remove caffeine from coffee beans?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nitric acid
Sodium propionate
Methylene chloride
Polybrominated biphenyl
142.
Which of the following is a characteristic of antibiotic use in animals raised for human
consumption?
a. Antibiotics are used in animal feed to enhance growth
b. Antibiotic use in dairy cows often gives the milk off-flavors
c. The antibiotic levels are essentially zero by the time the food reaches consumers
d. Although some antibiotics may be present in the food, the level is too low to induce
adverse side effects even in sensitive people
143.
Which of the following is a feature of hormones used in food production?
a. Hormone-treated cattle results in leaner meats
b. The cost of using hormones usually results in higher-priced but better quality
products
c. Bovine growth hormone given to cattle does not show residues in the meat or milk
d. They are naturally occurring substances and therefore require only minimal
regulation by the FDA and USDA
144.
Which of the following is a feature of bovine growth hormone use in the United States?
a. It decreases udder infections in cows
b. None can be detected in meat or milk of cows receiving it
c. If consumed from foods, it is denatured by enzymes in the GI tract
d. If consumed from foods, it could potentially stimulate receptors for human growth
hormone
145.
Minerals most associated with unpleasant characteristics of potable water include all of the
following except
a. iron.
b. calcium.
c. manganese.
d. phosphorus.
146.
Which of the following is a property of chlorination of the public water system?
a. It has a high cost to benefit ratio
b. It imparts a pleasant taste to the water
c. It reduces dental caries formation in children
d. It is associated with a slight increase in bladder and rectal cancer
Which of the following is a feature affecting the public water supply?
a. Surface water is derived primarily from underground aquifers
b. Contaminants break down more slowly in groundwater than in surface water
c. Groundwater sources are most susceptible to contamination by runoff of pesticides
and wastes from highways
d. Contaminants such as gasoline from leaking underground storage tanks are likely to
primarily affect the quality of surface water
147.
148.
What is meant by potable water?
a. Water fit for drinking
b. Water that must be boiled before drinking
c. Water that must be chlorinated before drinking
d. Water suitable only for use on lawns and gardens
149.
What substance is commonly added to public water supplies to disinfect the water?
a. Ozone
b.
c.
d.
Fluoride
Chlorine
Penicillin
150.
Which of the following is a characteristic of home water treatments?
a. Activated carbon filters are effective in removing chlorine
b. Most home filtration systems are highly efficient at removing virtually all types of
contaminants
c. Boiling the water is effective at removing all organic chemicals as well as killing
microorganisms
d. Most home filtration systems combine the processes of heavy metal removal, killing
of microorganisms, softening of the water, and addition of enhancers
151.
Water that has the odor of “rotten eggs” is most likely contaminated with
a. sulfur.
b. dioxins.
c. Giardia.
d. Cryptosporidium.
152.
What is the chief purpose of using ozone as a commercial water treatment?
a. It kills microorganisms
b. It complexes with heavy metals
c. It stabilizes the carbon filtration process
d. It promotes chlorine dissipation and thus enhances taste
153.
What is the average yearly intake (gallons) per person of bottled water in the United States?
a. 1
b. 5
c. 20
d. 45
154.
What is the process by which water is purified by pressurizing it and forcing it across a
membrane?
a. Ozonation
b. Distillation
c. Reverse osmosis
d. Activated carbon filtration
155.
What is the most common source of bottled water?
a. Glacier run-off
b. Springs and wells
c. Rivers in the wilderness
d. Municipal water supplies
156.
Which of the following is a feature of bottled waters that are sold to consumers?
a. Bottled water is classified as a food and is regulated by the FDA
b. Cost and stability are the two main reasons for choosing to use bottled water
c. Bottled water is classified as an indirect additive to the diet and is regulated by the
EPA
d. Government regulations mandate that labels on bottled water reveal sources and
heavy metal content
157.
Improvements in nutrient composition, such as when corn is genetically modified to contain
higher amounts of its limiting amino acids, is a strategy known as
a. biofortification.
b. reverse DNA enrichment.
c.
d.
USDA approved enrichment.
frankenfood transdevelopment.
158.
Currently, what is the chief source of rennin, an enzyme used by the food industry for the
production of cheese?
a. Calf stomach
b. Pig intestines
c. Genetically-engineered viruses
d. Genetically-engineered bacteria
159.
Genetic engineering of broccoli to increase the selenium content has inadvertently lowered
the content of
a. fiber.
b. vitamin C.
c. sulforaphane, an anticancer phytochemical.
d. chlorophyll, a magnesium-containing substance.
Matching
01.
02.
03.
04.
05.
06.
07.
08.
09.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
BGH
BHT
EPA
FDA
MSG
GRAS
Safe
Term that designates the ability of a substance to harm living organisms if enough is
consumed
Term designating that a substance is possibly toxic under normal use conditions
Typical foodborne infection that results from eating undercooked or raw shellfish
The act of concentrating contaminants within the flesh of animals high on the food chain
Toxic compound common in cabbage, turnips, and radishes
Poisonous narcotic-like substance present in potato sprouts
Term that describes the maximum amount of a pesticide residue permitted on a food when the
chemical is used according to directions
Term that judges that the risks for consumption of pesticides on foods are acceptable
Acronym for a list of food additives long believed to be safe
Zone between the normal concentration used and that in which a hazard exists
Class of substances that are purposely added to foods
Substance added to cured meats to preserve color
Carcinogenic substances formed within the stomach
Organization that is responsible for certifying food colors
A food additive known to destroy thiamin
A preservative commonly used in snack foods to slow the development of off-flavors, odors,
and color changes
Flavor enhancer
Hormone that promotes growth and milk production in cows
Substance used to remove caffeine from coffee
Organization that is responsible for ensuring that public water systems meet minimum health
standards
H.
I.
J.
K.
L.
M.
N.
Sulfite
Hazard
Nitrite
Toxicity
Solanine
Hepatitis
Goitrogen
O.
P.
Q.
R.
S.
T.
Nitrosamines
Bioaccumulation
Margin of Safety
Tolerance Level
Methylene chloride
Intentional additives