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Biology 232 Winter 2005
Final Exam
Circle the letter that corresponds with the best response. (2pts each)
1) Neuroglia that form myelin in the CNS are the
a. oligodendrocytes
b. astrocytes
c. microglia
d. ependymal cells
2) The peripheral nervous system does NOT include the
a. spinal nerves
b. autonomic ganglia
c. spinal cord
d. nociceptors
3) Which is NOT true regarding axons of neurons?
a. they conduct action potentials via voltage-gated channels
b. they never regenerate if they are damaged
c. myelinated axons conduct most rapidly
d. bundles of axons running in the peripheral nervous system form nerves
4) Which neurotransmitter is released by motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions?
a. epinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. norepinephrine
d. muscarine
5) During the depolarization phase of an action potential, which of the following is
the primary activity?
a. potassium ions are flowing into the cell
b. potassium ions are flowing out of the cell
c. sodium ions are flowing into the cell
d. sodium ions are flowing out of the cell
6) The site of communication between two neurons is called a
a. Nissl body
b. synapse
c. neurolemma
d. Node of Ranvier
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7) The somatic nervous system does NOT innervate
a. thermal receptors
b. skeletal muscles
c. tactile receptors
d. the heart
8) Spinal nerves are considered mixed, which means that
a. they contain both cell bodies and tracts
b. they contain both gray and white matter
c. they contain both sensory and motor fibers
d. they arise from multiple segments of the spinal cord
9) The nerve that stimulates the diaphragm to contract arises from the
a. cervical plexus
b. lumbar plexus
c. brachial plexus
d. sacral plexus
10) The white matter of the spinal cord consists of
a. sensory nuclei
b. axon tracts
c. somatic motor nuclei
d. autonomic ganglia
11) From which space is cerebrospinal fluid collected during a spinal tap?
a. cerebral aqueduct
b. epidural space
c. subarachnoid space
d. third ventricle
12) The reflex that allows us to move a limb away from a painful stimulus is the
a. stretch reflex
b. tendon reflex
c. withdrawal reflex
d. patellar reflex
13) Which spinal tracts carry impulses to the brain?
a. motor tracts
b. descending tracts
c. efferent tracts
d. ascending tracts
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14) Coordination of body movements is a main function of the
a. cerebellum
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypothalamus
d. limbic system
15) The main relay center for conducting sensory information from the spinal cord
to the cerebrum is the
a. thalamus
b. corpus callosum
c. pons
d. tentorium cerebelli
16) Which of the following is NOT true for cerebrospinal fluid?
a. it acts as a shock absorber for the brain
b. it acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain
c. ependymal cells help produce and circulate CSF
d. it is produced by filtration in the choroid plexuses
17) The left side of the cerebrum controls skeletal muscles on the right side of the body
because motor axons cross from left to right in the
a. corpus callosum of the cerebrum
b. arbor vitae of the cerebellum
c. decussation of the pyramids
d. intermediate mass of the thalamus
18) You step on a sharp rock and automatically lift your foot away from the painful
stimulus. This is a/an
a. spinal reflex
b. autonomic reflex
c. learned reflex
d. conscious reflex
19) Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
a. regulates hormones of the anterior pituitary
b. regulates the autonomic nervous system
c. regulates body temperature
d. regulates voluntary movements
20) The primary somatosensory area is in the
a. corpus callosum
b. cerebral cortex
c. cerebellum
d. diencephalon
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21) The conscious awareness and interpretation of internal or external stimuli is
a. sensation
b. abduction
c. reception
d. perception
22) Sensory endings located in muscles, tendons, and joints are called
a. exteroceptors
b. osmoreceptors
c. proprioceptors
d. chemoreceptors
23) The vital centers that regulate heart rate and respiratory rate are in the
a. cerebellum
b. medulla oblongata
c. hypothalamus
d. thalamus
24) Most receptors for the tactile modality are
a. mechanoreceptors
b. photoreceptors
c. chemoreceptors
d. osmoreceptors
25) To say that most organs controlled by the ANS have “dual innervation” means
a. they release either acetylcholine or norepinephrine when stimulated
b. both preganglionic and postganglionic fibers are present
c. they are innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers
d. they have both alpha and beta receptors
26) Which of the following is NOT an example of an autonomic effector?
a. digestive gland
b. biceps brachii
c. sinoatrial node
d. smooth muscle of the intestines
27) The term craniosacral division refers to the origin of axons of
a. parasympathetic neurons
b. sympathetic neurons
c. somatic sensory neurons
d. somatic motor neurons
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28) Both the adrenal medulla and most sympathetic postganglionic neurons release
a. muscarine
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. cortisol
29) Which of the following responses is initiated by the sympathetic nervous system?
a. increased digestive functions
b. constriction of pupils
c. increased heart rate
d. constriction of the bronchioles
30) We are NOT usually aware of autonomic functions because the highest center of
ANS integration is the
a. cerebrum
b. pons
c. hypothalamus
d. medulla oblongata
31) Odorant and tastant molecules bind to what functional class of sensory receptors?
a. osmoreceptors
b. nociceptors
c. mechanoreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
32) Which is true regarding cones in the retina
a. cones function best in bright light
b. cones only detect black and white
c. dysfunctions of the cones cause night blindness
d. cones are more sensitive to low light than rods
33) Cranial nerve I passes through the cribriform plate and synapses in the
a. olfactory tracts
b. olfactory bulbs
c. temporal lobe
d. primary olfactory area
34) The structure that opens to equalize air pressure in the middle ear is the
a. external auditory meatus
b. Eustachian tube
c. round window
d. membranous labyrinth
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35) How many primary tastes do the taste buds detect?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
36) Dilation of the iris is caused by
a. bright light
b. parasympathetic stimulation
c. radial muscles
d. circular muscles
37) The structure involved in hearing is the
a. cochlea
b. vestibular nerve
c. otolithic membrane
d. semicircular duct
38) Which statement is true regarding glaucoma?
a. intraocular pressure is decreased
b. it is usually caused by increased vitreous humor production
c. it may be caused by increased production of aqueous humor
d. it may be caused by decreased production of aqueous humor
39) Tears drain away from the eyes through the
a. nasolacrimal ducts
b. anterior cavity
c. lacrimal glands
d. Eustachian tube
40) Which statement is true regarding the ear?
a. the auditory ossicles lie in the inner ear
b. the external ear funnels sound waves to the tympanic membrane
c. the inner ear is innervated by cranial nerve V
d. the middle ear is filled with perilymph
41) The endocrine gland that releases many tropic hormones that regulate other
endocrine tissues is the
a. anterior pituitary
b. thyroid
c. pancreas
d. parathyroid
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42) Target cell response to a hormone decreases due to
a. up-regulation of receptors
b. antagonistic hormones
c. increased hormone concentration
d. synergistic hormones
43) Which does NOT apply to water-soluble hormones?
a. their receptors are on the outer plasma membrane of target cells
b. they use second messengers inside the cell
c. enzyme cascades can amplify their effects
d. they circulate bound to transport proteins in blood
44) The hormone that increases blood calcium is
a. insulin
b. human growth hormone
c. parathyroid hormone
d. glucagon
45) Which of the following regulates hormone production and release due to emotions
and sensory stimuli it receives from the nervous system?
a. pancreatic islets
b. parathyroid
c. hypothalamus
d. thyroid
46) Which statement does NOT apply to regulation by the endocrine system?
a. endocrine hormones circulate throughout the body to most tissues
b. hormones produce effects in target cells with hormone receptors
c. hormones only cause very rapid, localized effects
d. hormones may act by altering gene expression in target cells
47) Hyposecretion of which hormone causes weakness, low body temperature, and
weight gain due to decreased metabolism?
a. thyroid hormone
b. glucagon
c. oxytocin
d. prolactin
48) Which of the following increases urine production?
a. antidiuretic hormone
b. aldosterone
c. fight-or-flight response
d. diabetes insipidus
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49) Prolonged stress causes muscle wasting, immunosuppression, and poor healing
due largely to the effects of
a. luteinizing hormone
b. epinephrine
c. mineralocorticoids
d. glucocorticoids
50) Which is NOT true regarding type I diabetes mellitus?
a. results in polyuria and polydipsia
b. causes low blood glucose
c. insulin production is decreased due to destruction of beta cells
d. insulin injections are required
51) Most of the plasma proteins are produced by the
a. liver
b. thymus
c. red marrow
d. spleen
52) Oxygen is transported by red blood cells by binding to
a. specific receptors on RBC membranes
b. specific receptors within the nucleus of the RBC
c. the polypeptide chains of hemoglobin
d. the heme portion of hemoglobin
53) Which is NOT true regarding platelets?
a. they adhere to damaged blood vessels
b. they release chemicals causing vasodilation
c. they are cell fragments
d. thrombopoietin stimulates their production
54) Injured tissues attract phagocytes by a phenomenon called
a. endocytosis
b. adhesion
c. chemotaxis
d. leukocytosis
55) Clot formation in an unbroken vessel is called
a. thrombosis
b. embolism
c. hemostasis
d. adhesion
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56) Blood Type O is considered the theoretical universal
a. recipient because there are no A or B antigens on RBCs
b. donor because there are no A or B antigens on RBCs
c. recipient because there are no anti-A of anti-B antibodies in plasma
d. donor because there are no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in plasma
57) The blood-clotting cascade results in
a. platelet activation
b. vascular spasm
c. platelet plug formation
d. production of fibrin
58) The space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium
is normally filled with
a. blood
b. lymph
c. serous fluid
d. air
59) The layer of the heart wall responsible for its pumping action is the
a. fibrous pericardium
b. epicardium
c. myocardium
d. endocardium
60) In mitral valve incompetence
a. the mitral valve doesn’t open fully
b. blood regurgitates into the right atrium
c. blood backs up into the pulmonary trunk
d. the mitral valve leaks during ventricular systole
61) Which is NOT a function of the fibrous skeleton of the heart?
a. supports the valves
b. electrically insulates the heart chambers
c. regulates heart rate
d. attachment site for cardiac muscle
62) The function of the chordae tendineae is to
a. pull the walls of the ventricles inward during contraction
b. open the semilunar valves
c. open the AV valves
d. prevent backflow through the AV valves
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63) Which is NOT true regarding cardiac muscle
a. a long refractory period prevents tetanus
b. the ANS produces the action potentials in cardiac muscle
c. slow Ca channels cause a depolarization plateau which prolongs contraction
d. autorhythmic fibers spontaneously depolarize, producing action potentials
64) The left ventricular wall is thicker than the right in order to
a. pump deoxygenated blood
b. pump more viscous blood
c. pump blood a greater distance
d. pump blood through a smaller valve
65) Which of the following lists the conduction pathway of the heart correctly?
a. SA node, AV node, bundle branches, AV bundle, Purkinje fibers
b. AV node, SA node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
c. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
d. SA node, AV bundle, AV node, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
66) Which of the following occurs during ventricular diastole?
a. blood flows out of the ventricles
b. AV valves close
c. semilunar valves open
d. the ventricles begin to fill
67) The reason that the resting heart rate is lower than the autorhythmic rate of the
SA node is that at rest,
a. the AV node is the pacemaker, the SA node operates in stress situations
b. calcium ion slow channels slow the heart rate
c. heart rate is regulated by ectopic pacemakers
d. parasympathetic signals slow the SA node’s rate of depolarization
68) The term afterload refers to
a. the pressure that must be overcome before the semilunar valves can open
b. the maximum possible cardiac output above resting cardiac output
c. the volume of blood in the heart at the end of systole
d. the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole
69) Which is true regarding cardiac output (CO)?
a. high blood pressure increases CO
b. increased preload increases CO
c. negative inotropic agents increase CO
d. a heart rate of 180 beats/min increases CO
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70) Which of the following produces a decreased heart rate?
a. low blood pressure
b. sympathetic stimulation
c. parasympathetic stimulation
d. epinephrine
71) The layer of a blood vessel wall that must be intact to prevent platelet adhesion
within a blood vessel is the
a. tunica externa
b. tunica interna
c. tunica media
d. vasa vasorum
72) Which capillary type found in red marrow allows new blood cells to enter the
bloodstream?
a. fenestrated capillaries
b. sinusoids
c. thoroughfare channels
d. continuous capillaries
73) Of the pressures involved in determining net filtration pressure, the highest pressure
at the arterial end of a capillary is usually
a. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
b. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
c. blood colloid osmotic pressure
d. blood hydrostatic pressure
74) Reabsorption at the venous end of capillaries is due mainly to
a. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
b. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
c. blood colloid osmotic pressure
d. blood hydrostatic pressure
75) Vascular resistance is regulated mainly by
a. cardiac output
b. length of blood vessels
c. rate of hemopoiesis
d. arteriole diameter
76) Intestinal infections causing severe diarrhea and vomiting may result in
a. obstructive shock
b. vascular shock
c. hypovolemic shock
d. cardiogenic shock
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77) The connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in fetal circulation is the
a. ductus venosus
b. ductus arteriosus
c. ligamentum venosum
d. foramen ovalis
78) The vasomotor region of the cardiovascular center directly controls
a. heart rate
b. total blood volume
c. diameter of blood vessels
d. blood viscosity
79) The function of baroreceptors is to monitor changes in
a. heart rate
b. stroke volume
c. blood osmolarity
d. blood pressure
80) Blood pressure decreases due to
a. hemorrhage
b. polycythemia
c. vasoconstriction
d. obesity
81) Which vessels serve as blood reservoirs?
a. capillaries in the brain
b. venules in the skin
c. arterioles in muscles
d. muscular arteries
82) Which of the following causes decreased blood pressure?
a. RAA system
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
c. sympathetic vasomotor stimulation
d. antidiuretic hormone
83) Which of the following helps prevent infarctions?
a. slow venous circulation
b. thrombus formation
c. embolus formation
d. collateral circulation
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84) The composition of lymph is most similar to
a. plasma
b. blood
c. cytosol
d. interstitial fluid
85) Which is NOT true regarding lymphatic circulation?
a. the thoracic duct collects lymph from the lower body
b. lymphatic capillaries filter and reabsorb fluid like blood capillaries
c. lymphatic ducts empty into the subclavian veins
d. lymphatic vessels have one-way valves like veins
86) Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
a. site of stem cell maturation into B and T cells
b. filters out blood-borne microbes
c. removal of worn-out blood cells
d. storage of platelet and RBC reserves
87) Which of the following is a nonspecific mechanism of resistance?
a. phagocytosis of bacteria by neutrophils
b. binding of an allergen to IgE molecules on mast cells
c. B cell proliferation in response to a measles vaccine
d. a transfusion reaction between incompatible blood types
88) Cell-mediated immunity involves the actions of
a. cytotoxic T cells
b. antibodies
c. B cells
d. plasma cells
89) Which of the following is an example of a specific immune response?
a. bacteria activate the complement cascade
b. fever caused by a viral infection
c. secretion of lysozyme in tears
d. opsonization of an antigen by IgG
90) Which of the following is NOT true regarding Major Histocompatability Complex
(MHC) antigens?
a. MHC antigens are required for antigen presentation
b. MHC antigens are not present on our own cells
c. MHC antigens are involved in recognition of self and non-self
d. MHC antigens are usually unique to individuals
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Matching: Choose the item below that best matches the description. (1pt each)
a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. fibrinogen
d. bilirubin
e. monocyte
f. anemia
g. fibrin
h. transferrin
i. lymphocyte
j. basophil
k. hematocrit
l. reticulocyte
m. thrombin
n. erythrocyte
o. heme
1) _____ most abundant leukocyte
2) _____ blood cell that releases histamine
3) _____ B cell or T cell
4) _____ percentage of RBCs in blood
5) _____ insoluble protein threads of a blood clot
6) _____ low erythrocyte count
7) _____ immature red blood cell
8) _____ differentiates into macrophage in tissues
9) _____ yellowish breakdown product of hemoglobin
10) _____ iron transport protein in plasma
Matching: Choose the item below that best matches the description. (1pt each)
a. natural killer cell
b. red bone marrow
c. IgG
d. interferon
e. lymph nodes
f. IgA
g. B lymphocyte
h. thymus
i. interleukin-2
j. tonsils
1) _____ lymphatic tissues in pharynx
2) _____ bean-shaped structures along a lymphatic vessel
3) _____ produces pre-T and B cells
4) _____ site of maturation of T cells
5) _____ found in sweat, tears, and breast milk
6) _____ crosses placenta in a developing fetus
7) _____ cell responsible for antibody-mediated immunity
8) _____ produced by helper T cells
9) _____ inhibits viral reproduction
10) _____ nonspecifically destroys foreign cells
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