Download Name - RHS Encore Academy

Name_______________________________________
The following are practice questions for your Chapters 1 – 5 Test. Try answering the questions without looking
at your notes first, and then go back and check the ones where you were unsure. Once you are finished, come
get the answer key from me and check your answers.
Your test will have 44 multiple choice questions from chapters 1 – 5 and FOUR free response questions
from chapters 2 – 5.
Chapter 1
1. Which of the following statements about youth participation in the U.S. is TRUE?
a. More than one-half of Americans under the age of 30 say that they rarely follow politics.
b. Young people score higher on political knowledge surveys than do older Americans.
c. Younger Americans are more likely to vote than are older Americans.
d. Young people today score better on political knowledge tests than did young people in the early
1970s.
e. All of these are true.
2. According to Michael Delli Carpini and Scott Keeter, all of the following are strong reasons for staying
informed about political affairs EXCEPT
a. fostering civic virtue.
b. helping citizens identify policies that will benefit them.
c. easing the burden placed on journalists and media organizations charged with educating the
public.
d. promoting active participation in politics.
e. helping citizens incorporate policy information into their voting behavior.
3. The most common form of political participation is
a. protest.
b. lobbying.
c. writing editorials.
d. voting.
e. running for political office.
4. Which of the following best describes a linkage institution?
a. A channel through which people’s concerns become a political agenda
b. A location to express a political opinion
c. Formation of a special interest group
d. An environment where one learns about the political process
e. A gathering of people to represent a public opinion
5. Linkage institutions are
a. political channels through which people’s concerns become political issues on the policy agenda.
b. issues that attract serious attention of public officials.
c. branches of government charged with taking action on political issues.
d. choices that governments make in response to political issues.
e. systems of selecting policymakers and of organizing government so that policy represents and
responds to the public’s preferences.
6. A law passed by Congress and the adoption of a regulation by an agency are both examples of
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
public policies.
interest groups.
red tape.
exercises in public opinion.
majoritarian politics.
7. The principle that, in a democracy, choosing among alternatives requires the majority’s desire to be
respected is called
a. majority rule.
b. minority rights.
c. representation.
d. pluralism.
e. enlightened understanding.
8. The theory that argues that group competition results in a rough approximation of the public interest in
public policy is
a. hyperpluralist theory.
b. balance-of-power theory.
c. elite-and-class theory.
d. pluralist theory.
e. bureaucratic theory.
9. The condition occurring when interests conflict and no coalition is strong enough to form a majority and
establish policy is called
a. divided government.
b. hyperpluralism.
c. policy gridlock.
d. separation of powers.
e. federalism.
10. A set of values widely shared within a society is referred to as
a. liberalism.
b. political culture.
c. public policy.
d. politics.
e. government.
11. That the U.S. government is more limited and smaller than other advanced industrialized countries is a
reflection of the strength of _________ economic policies.
a. populist
b. pluralist
c. laissez-faire
d. elitist
e. corporatist
12. The political philosophy supporting the rights of average citizens in their struggle against privileged elites
is known as
a. liberalism.
b.
c.
d.
e.
laissez-faire.
libertarianism.
populism.
pluralism.
13. Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that America may be experiencing a culture war, as
understood by Wayne Baker?
a. A loss over time of traditional values associated with religion
b. A loss over time of traditional values associated with family life
c. An unfavorable comparison with the citizens of other countries in terms of key values such as
patriotism
d. The division of society into opposed groups with irreconcilable moral differences
e. The growth of more centrist positions among the American population
14. The sum total of the value of all the goods and services produced in a year in a nation are collectively
referred to as
a. gross domestic product (GDP).
b. national debt.
c. national deficit.
d. laissez-faire economics.
e. national surplus.
15. Which of the following is true of the United States?
a. Social Security consumes a greater share of the national budget than does defense spending.
b. National defense consumes a greater share of the national budget than does Social Security
spending.
c. Medicare spending is the single largest item in the federal budget.
d. Aid to state and local governments consumes the largest share of the federal budget.
e. National defense spending consumes the largest share of the federal budget.
Chapter 2
1. Who wrote the Declaration of Independence?
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. Benjamin Franklin
c. Richard Henry Lee
d. Thomas Paine
e. John Adams
2. The foundation of Locke’s philosophy was that human beings
a. derive their rights from nature.
b. have rights that are granted them by government.
c. determine their own rights.
d. derive their rights from God.
e. are granted rights by their king.
3. Who authored The Second Treatise of Civil Government?
a. Thomas Jefferson
b. John Locke
c. Thomas Paine
d. James Madison
e. Peyton Randolph
4. Locke believed that government must be built
a. on the consent of the governed.
b. on the laws of the previous government.
c. on the morals of the rulers.
d. on laws given by the king.
e. on the continuity of government, thus all efforts to overthrow a government are treason.
5. Which of the following best describes the United States government under the Articles of
Confederation?
a. It was weak and ineffective.
b. It was frequently involved in foreign affairs.
c. It was very large and bureaucratic.
d. It was dictatorial.
e. It was a puppet for George Washington.
6. What was the significance of the Annapolis meeting?
a. It was the first national convention of women demanding the right to vote.
b. It issued the Declaration of Independence.
c. It dissolved the Continental Congress.
d. It selected George Washington as the first post-Revolutionary president.
e. It issued the first call for the Constitutional Convention, which would form in Philadelphia in
1787.
7. Which of the following characteristics do NOT apply to the 55 delegates who convened the
Constitutional Convention?
a. Most were residents of western frontiers.
b. They were all men.
c. A significant number were urbanites.
d. Many were college graduates.
e. They were mostly wealthy planters.
8. Which of the following comprised the core of agreement among the delegates to the Constitutional
Convention?
a. Beliefs about human nature
b. Beliefs about the causes of political conflict
c. Shared views regarding the objectives of government
d. Understanding about the nature of republican government
e. All of the above are true.
9. __________ was proposed by William Patterson, in which each state was to be equally represented in
the new Congress.
a. The New Jersey Plan
b. The Connecticut Compromise
c. The Virginia Plan
d. The Federalist Papers
e. The Articles of Confederation
10. A major purpose of the economic provisions in the Constitution was to
a. promote a more equal distribution of wealth in the country.
b. guarantee the states a significant economic role.
c. preserve and strengthen the farm economy to the disadvantage of manufacturing.
d. establish a comprehensive set of social welfare programs to assist people in times of need.
e. create a strong national government so as to bring stability out of economic chaos.
11. Which of the following was NOT one of the features of the Madisonian system that sought to limit
majority tyranny?
a. Separation of powers
b. Bicameral Congress
c. Federalism
d. Life term tenure for judges
e. Bill of Rights
12. Which of the following was favored by the Anti-Federalists?
a. Stronger state governments
b. Weaker state governments
c. Longer terms for elected officials
d. Indirect elections of elected officials
e. Weakened protections for individuals liberties
13. An amendment to the Constitution may be proposed by
a. a two-thirds vote in each house of Congress.
b. a national convention called by Congress at the request of two-thirds of the state legislatures.
c. the request of the president of the United States.
d. All of these are true.
e. None of these is true.
14. The case in which Chief Justice John Marshall first asserted the right of the Supreme Court to determine
the meaning of the U.S. Constitution was
a. Marbury v. Madison.
b. McCulloch v. Maryland.
c. United States v. Eichman.
d. Dred Scott v. Sandford.
e. None of the above is true.
15. Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution is FALSE?
a. One of the central themes of American history has been the gradual democratization of the
Constitution.
b. The original Constitution was characterized by numerous restrictions on direct voter
participation.
c. The original Constitution offers numerous guidelines on voter eligibility.
d. Five of the 17 constitutional amendments passed since the Bill of Rights have focused on the
expansion of the electorate.
e. Political change, such as the emergence of political parties, has contributed to the changing
nature of the Constitution.
Chapter 3
1.
Federalism is a way of organizing a nation so that
a. power is centralized in state and local government.
b. both national and state levels of government have some authority over the same land and people.
c. there is one federal government, and all regional governments are administrative subunits of it.
d. power is centralized in the national government.
e. there are three branches of government and a system of checks and balances.
2.
All of the following areas provide examples of how federalism decentralizes our policies EXCEPT
a. the federal income tax.
b. the regulation of abortion.
c. the death penalty.
d. the funding of education.
e. environmental protection.
3.
In our federal system, the powers of the state governments are ultimately granted by
a. their state’s Supreme Court.
b. the people of their state.
c. their state legislature.
d. the United States Constitution.
e. the United States government.
4.
The supremacy clause
a. establishes the Constitution, laws of the national government, and treaties as the supreme law of
the land.
b. establishes the Supreme Court as the final arbiter in all civil and criminal disputes.
c. declares that the national government is superior to the states in every concern.
d. states that powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by the
states, are reserved to the states.
e. states that the people are the supreme authority in the United States and that the government
shall be subservient to them.
5.
The Tenth Amendment is sometimes referred to as the _____________amendment.
a. states’ rights
b. implied powers
c. delegated powers
d. necessary and proper
e. Prohibition
6.
In McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), Chief Justice Marshall argued that
a. in cases of conflict between national and state law, the national law was supreme as long as
national law was in accordance with the Constitution.
b. the national government has implied powers that go beyond those explicitly enumerated in
Article I, Section 8.
c. Congress’ enumerated power to coin money, regulate its value, and impose taxes implied the
right of Congress to do whatever was necessary and proper for carrying out these powers,
including the power to create a bank.
d. Maryland could not tax the national bank.
e. All of the above were argued by Marshall.
7.
The Constitution states that Congress has the power to establish post offices. This is an example of
a. enumerated powers.
b. delegated powers.
c. implied powers.
d. reserved powers.
e. shared powers.
8.
A marriage license issued in one state is valid and honored in all states under the constitutional
provision of
a. separation of powers.
b. full faith and credit.
c. national supremacy.
d. national licensure.
e. privileges and immunities.
9.
Over time, there has been a gradual change from a dual federalism to a(n) ________ federalism.
a. unitary
b. single
c. tripartite
d. cooperative
e. fiscal
10.
Funding for the interstate highway system is an example of
a. dual federalism.
b. cooperative federalism.
c. tripartite federalism.
d. a unitary system of government.
e. national federalism.
11.
The set of interactions among national, state, and local governments is called
a. pluralism.
b. bicameralism.
c. hyperpluralism.
d. intergovernmental relations.
e. international relations.
12.
Since the mid-1990s, Republicans in Congress have taken a pragmatic approach to federalism
evidenced by
a. efforts to restrict state power while turning to the federal government in policy areas such as
environmental regulation, immigration, and health.
b. legislation removing class action lawsuits from state courts.
c. passage of the No Child Left Behind Act.
d. extending federal criminal penalties.
e. All of these are evidence of Republicans’ pragmatic approach.
13.
Fiscal federalism is
a. the pattern of spending, taxing, and providing grants in the federal system.
b. the distinct separation of national government spending versus state and local government
spending.
c. the federal government’s regulation of the money supply and interest rates.
d. the federal income tax.
e. a sharing of local and national resources practiced in other countries but not in the United States.
On the whole, federal grant distribution follows the principle of
a. universalism.
b. stinginess.
c. cronyism.
d. to the victors go the spoils.
e. needs testing.
14.
15.
According to Democracy in America, the rapid growth of the national government is largely due to the
fact that
a. the diversity of interests within and among the states requires a national focus.
b. states are constitutionally prohibited from maintaining independent defense forces and policies.
c. the states have failed to adequately represent their interests.
d. the Constitution requires that most programs be administered by the national government.
e. most problems and policies require the authority and resources of the national government.
16.
Which of the following is TRUE of fiscal federalism?
a. The proportion of the gross domestic product spent by state and local governments has grown
more rapidly than the proportion of the GDP spent by the national government
b. The proportion of the gross domestic product spent by state and local government has grown
less rapidly than the proportion of the GDP spent by the national government.
c. States and localities spent 7.4 percent of our GDP in 1929; today they spend even less.
d. Block grants are the main source of federal aid to state and local governments.
e. Unlike the federal government, federal courts do not have the ability to impose mandates on state
governments.
17.
Which of the following is one way that federalism may have a negative effect on democracy?
a. Federalism may increase inequities between and among states.
b. Federalism tends to increase conflict at the national level.
c. Federalism tends to decrease opportunities for citizens to participate in government.
d. Federalism may encourage electoral dissent.
e. None of these is an example of how federalism may have a negative effect on democracy.
Chapter 4
1. Civil liberties are legal and constitutional protections against
a. criminals.
b. government.
c. foreign invasions.
d. minority tyranny.
e. factions.
2. Freedom of religion is guaranteed by the ______ Amendment.
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
e. Tenth
3. The Supreme Court decision in Barron v. Baltimore (1833) maintained that the Bill of Rights intended to
prevent
a. both the national and state governments from violating civil rights.
b. cities from taking private property without due process.
c. only the national government from abridging civil liberties.
d. the states from infringing on individual rights.
e. the United States government from granting titles of royalty.
4. The legal concept through which the Supreme Court has nationalized the Bill of Rights is called the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
implied powers doctrine.
enumerated powers doctrine.
incorporation doctrine.
disincorporation doctrine.
due process doctrine.
5. The Supreme Court has ruled that government aid to church-related schools
a. is acceptable for things such as field trips and teacher salaries but not for textbooks or
transportation to school.
b. is permitted when the aid is for a nonreligious purpose.
c. is acceptable if the school is affiliated with a major religion but not for small, fringe religious
sects.
d. violates the establishment clause.
e. does not constitute an establishment of religion.
6. In what case did the Supreme Court rule that a newspaper, no matter how outrageous its opinions, must
be allowed to publish without prior restraint?
a. Wisconsin v. Yoder
b. Miranda v. Arizona
c. Near v. Minnesota
d. New York Times v. Sullivan
e. Mapp v. Ohio
7. The principle that “obscenity is not within the area of constitutionally protected speech or press” was
established in
a. Roth v. United States.
b. Osborne v. Ohio.
c. Miller v. California.
d. United States v. Snepp.
e. Ohio v. Pussycat Theater.
8. The publication of statements known to be false that are malicious and tend to damage a person’s
reputation is called
a. obscenity.
b. symbolic speech.
c. slander.
d. libel.
e. fraud.
9. In NAACP v. Alabama (1958), the Supreme Court ruled that forcing the NAACP to turn over its
membership list to the state of Alabama was an unconstitutional violation of the NAACP’s
a. freedom of association.
b. freedom of expression.
c. freedom of religion.
d. freedom of belief.
e. None of these are correct.
10. Which of the following is NOT a constitutionally permissible limitation on the Second Amendment right
to bear arms?
a. Background checks for gun buyers
b.
c.
d.
e.
Mandatory trigger locks
Prohibitions on concealed weapons
Limits on the possession of firearms by the mentally ill and by felons
Restrictions on dangerous and unusual weapons not typically used for self-defense
11. Obtaining evidence in a haphazard or random manner, in violation of the Fourth Amendment, is known as
a. bounty hunting.
b. unreasonable search and seizure.
c. a violation of privacy.
d. cruel and unusual punishment.
e. an Ariel search.
12. The ________ Amendment forbids forced self-incrimination, stating that no person “shall be compelled
to be a witness against himself.”
a. First
b. Twenty-sixth
c. Fifth
d. Fourth
e. Ninth
13. In what case did the Supreme Court rule that suspects must be told of their constitutional rights to
remain silent, that what they say can be used against them, and of their right to have an attorney present
during any questioning?
a. Gideon v. Wainwright
b. Near v. Minnesota
c. Plucennik v. United States
d. Miranda v. Arizona
e. Mapp v. Ohio
14. In 2008 in Boumediene v. Bush, the Supreme Court ruled that
a. foreign terrorism suspects held at Guantanamo Bay do not have any constitutional right to
challenge their detention in U.S. courts.
b. foreign terrorism suspects held at Guantanamo Bay have constitutional rights to challenge their
detention in U.S. courts.
c. National Security Agency domestic spying and wiretapping of international telephone calls
without court-approved warrants were unconstitutional.
d. National Security Agency domestic spying and wiretapping of international telephone calls
without court-approved warrants were constitutional.
e. The USA PATRIOT Act was unconstitutional.
15. In Griswold v. Connecticut (1965), the Supreme Court
a. ruled that various portions of the Bill of Rights cast “penumbras” protecting a right to privacy,
including a right to family planning.
b. overturned a woman’s legal right to abortion.
c. ruled that the state of Connecticut could legally ban the sale of contraceptives under state police
powers of the Tenth Amendment.
d. held that abortion was a woman’s legal right.
e. overturned a Connecticut state sodomy law.
Chapter 5
1. When it comes to classifications on the basis of race, the Supreme Court applies the __________ standard
of review.
a. inherently suspect
b. intermediate scrutiny
c. reasonableness
d. strict scrutiny
e. stare decisis
2. The Dred Scott v. Sandford ruling was handed down by the Supreme Court
a. a few years after the Civil War.
b. in 1896.
c. during the Civil War.
d. in the 1950s.
e. a few years prior to the Civil War.
3. The Thirteenth Amendment
a. forbade slavery and involuntary servitude.
b. gave African Americans the right to vote.
c. repealed the Twelfth Amendment.
d. established the principle of separate but equal.
e. repealed Prohibition.
4. Which Supreme Court justice wrote the opinion for Brown v. Board of Education (1954)?
a. Richard Taney
b. Earl Warren
c. William Rehnquist
d. John Marshall
e. John Roberts
5. Which amendment extended suffrage to African American men?
a. Thirteenth
b. Fourteenth
c. Fifteenth
d. Sixteenth
e. Nineteenth
6. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
a. made racial discrimination illegal in places of public accommodation.
b. prohibited gender discrimination in the workplace.
c. prohibited discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation in the workplace and in educational
settings.
d. All of these are true.
e. None of these is true.
7. The Voting Rights Act of 1982
a. insisted that minorities be able to “elect representatives of their choice.”
b. upheld states’ practices of racial gerrymandering to increase the numbers of racial minorities
elected to office.
c. required that the redrawing of district boundaries avoid discriminatory intent but not necessarily
discriminatory results.
d. required that the redrawing of district boundaries avoid both discriminatory intent and results.
e. ruled that district lines could not be redrawn.
8. Which is responsible for enforcing the Voting Rights Act?
a. Congress
b. County Boards of Elections
c. State governments
d. The U.S. Justice Department
e. The Equal Opportunity Commission
9. The 1954 Supreme Court case that extended protection against discrimination to Hispanics was
a. Santa Clara Pueblo v. Martinez.
b. Hernandez v. Texas.
c. Thornburg v. Gingles.
d. Miller v. Johnson.
e. Hunt v. Cromartie.
10. The largest minority group in the United States is
a. Native Americans.
b. African Americans.
c. Japanese Americans.
d. Hispanic Americans.
e. Asian Americans.
11. Title IX of the Education Act of 1972
a. requires gender parity in public school enrollments.
b. forbids gender discrimination in federally subsidized education programs, including athletics.
c. prohibits single-sex educational institutions and schools.
d. requires public school institutions to demonstrate equal average scores among male and female
students on standardized tests.
e. allows gender discrimination in education if it can be demonstrated to be an “educational
necessity.”
12. ______ requires employers to make “reasonable accommodations” and prohibits employment
discrimination against people with disabilities.
a. The Education of All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
b. The Rehabilitation Act of 1973
c. The Civil Rights Act of 1964
d. The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
e. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act
13. In its 1995 ruling in Adarand Constructors v. Pena, the Supreme Court
a. changed direction and began to curtail federal use of affirmative action programs.
b. outlawed discrimination against women in the construction industry.
c. mandated an expansion of federal affirmative action programs.
d. upheld federal affirmative action programs as constitutional.
e. broadened the scope of state and local affirmative action programs that it considers
constitutional.
14. In which case did the Supreme Court decide that a compelling interest for promoting diversity on campus
existed?
a. Grutter v. Bollinger
b. Johnson v. Transportation Agency, Santa Clara County
c. Regents of the University of California v. Bakke
d. Reed v. Reed
e. Brown v. Board of Education
15. In Parents Involved in Community Schools v. Seattle School District No. 1 (2007), the Supreme Court
a. held that the school district’s use of race in voluntary integration plans violated the Fourteenth
Amendment’s guarantee of equal protection.
b. held that the school district’s use of race in voluntary integration plans was constitutional.
c. held that school districts inherently possessed an inherent interest in remedying the effects of past
segregation and, thus, could consider race in their strategies toward integration.
d. ruled that school districts could consider race as a primary factor in preventing resegregation of
public schools.
e. overturned previous rulings that prohibited the consideration of race in determining the
boundaries of public school districts.