Download QUESTIONS Chapter 1 1. Define digital radiography. 2. What is

QUESTIONS
Chapter 1
1. Define digital radiography.
2.
What is DICOM?
3.
Explain the purpose of a DICOM conformance statement.
4.
What is the purpose of a PACS?
5. Jpeg and tiff images have equal resolution to DICOM images.
True or False
6. Define each of the following terms in relationship to a
display monitor:
Pixel
Dot Triad
Bit Depth
Matrix
Dot Pitch
Resolution
7.
The aspect ratio is determined by measuring the front of the
monitor display diagonally from one corner to the other.
True or False
8. What are the two main advantages of computed radiography?
9. Define spatial resolution.
10. Direct and indirect digital radiographic detectors have an
increased detective quantum efficiency (DQE) over computed
radiographic systems.
True or False
11. The effect of electronic and quantum noise is commonly
referred to as signal-to-noise ratio. A higher quality image
consists of more signal and more noise.
True or False
Chapter 2
1. What is a radiographic intensifying screen?
2.
Name the four basic layers of an intensifying screen.
3. Spectral emission refers to the color of light produced by a
particular intensifying screen. True or False
4. Define spectral sensitivity and spectral matching.
5. What is the effect of image noise in a film-screen receptor
system?
6. What are the main similarities between digital and filmscreen radiography. Name at least four.
Chapter 3
1. Name the four main components of a radiographic system.
2. What are the primary factors involved in producing an image?
3. The tungsten cathode is positively charged.
True or False
4. When is the small filament used in imaging?
5. Due to the anode heel effect, thicker body parts, like the
cranial abdomen, should be positioned on the anode side of
the x-ray tube. True or False
6. Who invented the fluoroscope?
7. Define fluoroscopy and name at least two imaging procedures
where it is particularly useful.
8. Name the two types of radiation responsible for exposing film
or a digital receptor.
9. What two devices can be used to reduce the effects of back
scatter radiation?
10. Kilovolt peak (kVp) controls the quality and penetrability of
the x-ray beam as well as contrast. True or False
Chapter 4
1. Film processing is as important as technique and positioning
in a making a quality radiograph. True or False
2. The darkroom, automatic or manual, should be wiped clean
weekly to minimize artifacts on film.
True or False
3. Film developing is a chemical process therefore the
developer, rinse, fixer, rinse, and wash temperatures should
be the same. True or False
4. What is the optimal developer temperature for manual
processing?
5. What causes reticulation?
6. Why are silver recovery cartridges required in automatic film
processing?
7. It is important to use the correct safelight filter in all
darkroom safelights based on the spectral sensitivity of the
film being processed. True or False
8. Radiographs are part of the patient’s medical record, giving
ownership and responsibility for those records to the
practice that produced them. True or False
9.
Describe the effect of poor film-screen contact and list the
most common causes.
10. Define screen lag and its cause.
Chapter 5
1. What is an imaging artifact?
2. When do film artifacts occur?
3. Fogging, quantum mottle or noise, and nonparallel collimation
are some of the more common artifacts seen in digital
radiography. True or False
4. What are the contributing factors for fogging in digital
radiography?
5. What particular artifact occurs in both film-screen and
digital radiography, producing a similar appearance on the
image? What is its cause and how is it decreased or
eliminated?
6. What causes the nonparallel collimation artifact?
Chapter 6
1. What are the three main advantages for using positioning
aids?
2. Care should be taken when using alternative restraint
techniques. Never leave a sedated restrained animal
unattended. True or False
3. Why is the sand in a sand bag divided to each side of a
patient’s neck as an alternative restraint technique?
Chapter 7
1. Who was the first American fatality of radiation exposure?
2. When were the first radiation dose limiting recommendations
made to protect radiation workers and the public?
3. With DR imaging, it takes 10-30% more radiation exposure to
produce a single DR image than a conventional film-screen
radiographic exposure. True or False
4. Safe operating procedures for a veterinary facility should
include:
a.
b.
c.
d.
protective lead apparel and radiation dosimetry badges
positioning aids
good technique chart
all of the above
5. What is the ALARA concept?
6. Lead aprons, gloves, and optional thyroid shields should be
0.5 mm thick lead equivalent. True or False
7. What is the occupational exposure limit a worker may receive
annually?
Chapter 8
1. To become proficient in radiography, one must learn basic
positioning views, correct positional terminology, required
patient preparation, and methods of restraint. True or False
2. When positioning a right or left lateral view of the thorax,
the right or left anatomic lead equivalent markers should be
placed within the collimated field
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
dorsally
ventrally
in the anatomy
in the axillary region
b & c
b & d
3. When positioning lateral view of the spine or pelvis, the
right or left anatomic lead equivalent markers should be
placed in the collimated field
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
dorsally
ventrally
in the anatomy
in the axillary region
a & c
4. When positioning DP, CdCr, or CrCd view of an extremity, the
right or left anatomic lead equivalent markers should be
placed in the collimated field
a.
b.
c.
d.
medially
laterally
in the anatomy
a & c
5. In some states, manually restraining a patient is against
state regulations. True or False
6. Describe the types of horizontal beam views.
Chapter 9
1. Two lateral projections of the scapula may be needed to
completely visualize the scapula, one for the body of the
scapula and a second lateral projection for the neck of the
scapula. True or False
2. For extremity views, the measurement should be taken
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mid long
Over the
Over the
Over the
bone above joint
joint most near the area of interest
middle of the area of interest
thickest part of the area of interest
3. What shoulder projection is used to visualize the
supraspinatus tendon for calcifications?
4. Hyper-flexed lateral projections of the elbow are taken when
an ununited anconeal process is suspected. True or False
5. What projections are required to evaluate the elbow joint by
OFA?
a.
b.
c.
d.
450 lateral, only
900 lateral and CrCd
Hyper-flexed lateral
b & c
Chapter 10
1. For the lateral view of the pelvis, the patient is placed in
a lateral recumbent position with the affected side down. The
down femur is
a. Super-imposed beneath the up femur
b. Pulled cranially and the up femur is pulled caudally to
separate the legs
c. Positioned in a neutral position which means it is
slightly pulled cranial with the stifle flexed, as if the
patient were standing. The upper femur is pulled caudally
to separate the legs
d. None of the above
2. TPLO views of the stifle require both the stifle and tarsal
joints to be flexed 900 and included in the field of view.
True or False
3. Most common routine views of the pelvis are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lateral, VD frog leg
Lateral, VD with legs extended
VD with legs extended, only
None of the above
4. OFA requires the following view(s)to be taken for evaluation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Lateral, VD frog leg
Lateral, VD with legs extended
VD with legs extended, only
None of the above
5. The PennHip imaging series to evaluate the hips is the most
accurate hip screening method available and can be safely
performed on dogs as young as 16 weeks of age by certified
PennHIP veterinarians and veterinary technicians, only.
True or False
Chapter 11
1. Spinal imaging requires careful positioning. The divergence
of the x-ray beam and the importance of imaging the
intervertebral disc spaces require the spine to be as
parallel to the table top as possible. True or False
2. Flexion and extension views of the cervical spine
a. Are taken only under the direct supervision of the
clinician
b. Do not require sedation
c. Are taken only when fracture or luxation is suspected.
d. None of the above
3. When positioning the patient for the lateral projection of
the cervical spine, the forelimbs are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pulled cranially and secured
Left in a neutral lateral position
Pulled caudally and secured
None of the above
4. Where should the measurement be taken for the lateral and VD
projections of the thoracic spine?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Over
Over
Over
None
the caudal ribs
the thickest part of the area of interest
the shoulders
of the above
5. For the lateral view of the lumbar or LS spine region, the
hind limbs should be
a. Pulled caudally
b. Left in a neutral position
c. Positioned with the down leg pulled cranially and the up
leg pulled caudally
d. None of the above
Chapter 12
1. When evaluating the heart, DV and right lateral projections
of the thorax are taken. True or False
2. If a patient is in respiratory distress or if a diaphragmatic
hernia is suspected, a VD projection is taken first.
True or False
3. The most common routine view(s) for a soft tissue neck
a. Lateral and VD views to include the area between the TMJs
and the thoracic inlet
b. Lateral view to include the area between the TMJs and the
thoracic inlet
c. Lateral, oblique, and VD views to include the area between
the TMJs and the thoracic inlet
d. None of the above
4. Views of the thorax are taken on inspiration and views of the
abdomen are taken on expiration. True or False
5. For abdominal imaging, a long scale of contrast is preferred.
True or False
6. Flexed Leg Lateral view of the abdomen is taken
a.
b.
c.
d.
To visualize the caudal abdomen
On inspiration
To visualize the urethra
None of the above
Chapter 13
1. General anesthesia or heavy sedation is preferred for most
imaging studies of the head. True or False
2. When positioning a patient for the lateral projections of the
skull, what positioning aid should be used to keep the head
in a true lateral position?
3. For oblique views of the mandible, the degree of angulation
is dependent upon the shape of the dog’s head. True or False
4. Both left and right lead anatomic markers should be used for
each oblique projection of the cranium for bullae, mandibular
and maxillary arcade imaging. Placement of the markers is
dependent upon the imaging exam being performed.
True or False
Chapter 14
1. Masking tape is the preferred tape for use in avian imaging.
True or False
2. Why do avian imaging exams require smaller exposure factors
than small mammals or reptiles?
3. What is an easy method of restraint when performing imaging
exams on nonpoisonous snakes?
4. Chemical restraint is preferred when imaging small mammals to
prevent injury to both the patient and the holder.
True or False
Chapter 15
1. To better visualize soft tissue structures or organs,
positive or negative contrast enhanced imaging exams are
performed to assist the small animal practitioner in
diagnosing and treating illnesses in the small animal
patient. True or False
2. What are the most common contrast imaging exams performed in
a small animal practice? Name at least three.
3. What are the two most common radiopaque contrast media agents
used to opacify low-contrast tissues in the body?
4. What are the advantages of non-ionic contrast agents over
ionic contrast agents?
a. Fewer side effects permit more concentrated and greater
volumes of contrast to be used which improves
visualization of a structure or organ
b. Dilutes more slowly and to a lesser extent resulting in
sharper contrast borders for an increased length of time
c. Safer than ionic contrast agents
d. All of the above
5. What types of side effects and reactions are caused by ionic
contrast agents?
6. What is the weight-volume barium sulfate suspension typically
used for stomach and small intestinal tract imaging?
Chapter 16
1. If an esophageal, gastric, or intestinal perforation is
suspected, an oral ionic or nonionic contrast media agent
should be used to opacify the structures. True or False
2. What oral contrast agent can cause pulmonary edema if
aspirated?
3. Fluoroscopic or dynamic imaging of the esophagus is
significantly helpful in evaluating
a.
b.
c.
d.
Esophageal and cricopharyngeal function
Strictures
Foreign bodies
None of the above
4. The excretory urogram, often called an intravenous urogram or
pyelogram, consists of two main phases. What are the two
phases?
5. Positive contrast cystography is used to provide mucosal
detail and to visualize calculi and wall masses.
True or False
6. Urethrography can be done antegrade or retrograde.
True or False
7. What is a retrograde vaginourethrogram?
8. Myelography is a contrast study used to examine the spinal
cord by injecting nonionic contrast media into the
subarachnoid space to identify:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Protruding disk material
Spinal cord compression
Vertebral abnormality or mass
All of the above
9. Define fistula.