Download Childrens infectious diseases

Children infectious diseases
Tests
1. What groups of lymph nodes will be damaged more frequent at
pseudotuberculosis?
A. Inguinal, axillar, mesenteric
B. *mesenteric
C. anterior and posterior cervical
D. submandibular, anterior cervical
E. posterior cervical, occipital
2. What changes in a peripheral blood are typical for Rubella?
A. *leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis
B. leucopenia, lymphomonocytosis
C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, appearance of atypical mononuclear cells
D. leucocytosis, neutrophilia
E. leucopenia, plasmocytosis, anemia
3. What is the criterion of exanthema period beginning at Rubella?
A. Appearance of the enanthem
B. *Appearance of rashes
C. Repeated rise of body temperature
D. Strengthening of catarrhal signs
E. Increase and tenderness of lymphatic nodes
4. Choose one of the main diagnostic signs at infectious mononucleosis:
A. *Syndrome of acute tonsillitis
B. short fever
C. Catarrhal syndrome
D. exanthema
E. toxic syndrome
5. The course of diphtheria could be:
A. mild
B. severe
C. *with complication
D. toxic
E. spread
6. To atypical form of infectious mononucleosis belongs:
A. *asymptomatic
B. clinical
C. mild
D. moderate
E. severe
7. Indicate the term of patient's contagiousness at acquired Rubella.
A. Till 5th day from the disease beginning
B. *Till 5th day after appearance of rashes
C. Till 5th day after appearance of the last rash
D. Till 9th day after the disease beginning
E. Till 10th day after appearance of rashes
8. What is the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission:
A. *air-droplet
B. transmissive
C. Water
D. Vertical
E. Food
9. Name the mechanism of the pseudotuberculosis agent transmission.
A. droplet
B. contact
C. *fecal-oral
D. alimentary
E. by water
10.Indicate the possible mechanism of infectious mononucleosis transmission:
A. Fecaly-oral
B. Water
C. air-dust
D. *Contact
E. Food
11.What immunity will develop after pseudotuberculosis?
A. species specific, stabile
B. *type specific, stabile
C. species specific, unsteady
D. type specific, unsteady
E. species specific, for all the life
12.To atypical form of infectious mononucleosis belongs:
A. clinical
B. mild
C. moderate
D. severe
E. *Effaced
13.Choose the main diagnostic sign of the infectious mononucleosis.
A. short fever
B.
C.
D.
E.
Catarrhal syndrome
exanthema
toxic syndrome
*lymphadenopathy
14.Name the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission:
A. fecaly-oral
B. Water
C. air-dust
D. *Contact-domestic
E. Food
15.Choose the main diagnostic sign of infectious mononucleosis:
A. short fever
B. *hepatosplenomegaly
C. Catarrhal syndrome
D. exanthema
E. purulent lymphadenitis
16.What etiological therapy is used for the infectious mononucleosis treatment?
A. Antibiotics
B. antihistamines
C. glucocorticoids
D. *Preparations of recombined interferon
E. Vitamins
17.What diet is prescribed to the patient with infectious mononucleosis?
A. № 2
B. № 3
C. *№ 5
D. № 8
E. № 10
18.What is the seasonality of diphtheria?
A. Summer
B. Spring-summer
C. *Autumn-winter
D. Summer-autumn
E. Spring
19.What changes in the blood analysis at Rubella will be different from the
changes at measles?
A. monocytosis
B. Appearance of atypical mononuclears
C. leucopenia
D.
E.
*Increased number of plasmatic cells
leucocytosis
20.How will differ rashes at scarlet fever from rashes at pseudotuberculosis?
A. More large elements of rashes, concentration of rashes round joints,
hyperemia and edema of the face, hands, feet
B. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appear in
several pushes
C. The rashes are maculo-papulous, bright, spread all over the body during
3-4 days, then pigmented
D. *Absence concentration of rashes round joints, hyperemia and edema of
the face, hands, feet
E. rashes are rose, small spots, during a day covers all the body, are
disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks
21.Describe morphology of rashes at measles.
A. pin-point, on a red background
B. small maculae, rose, on the unchanged background
C. Polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles), on the unchanged background
D. maculo-papulous, farther appear hemorrhagic elements star-like form
with necrosis in a center.
E. *maculo-papulous, bright, sometimes hemorrhagic, on the unchanged
background
22.What is the duration of exanthema period at measles?
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. *3-4 days
D. 4-5 days
E. 5-6 days
23.Name the clinical periods of pseudotuberculosis.
A. Incubation, height, recovery
B. Incubation, initial, height, recovery
C. *Initial, height, recovery
D. Initial, height, exacerbation, recovery
E. Initial, height, recovery, relapses
24.For what age group pseudotuberculosis is not typical for?
A. *Newborns
B. Early age
C. Under-fives
D. Junior school
E. Senior school
25.Name the properties of the measles virus.
A. *complement binding, hemagglutination, hemolytic, symplast forming
activity
B. hemolytic, symplast forming activity
C. complement binding, hemagglutination, hemolytic activity
D. complement binding, symplast forming activity
E. hemagglutination, hemolytic, symplast forming activity
26.Enumerate atypical forms of measles.
A. *Abortive, hemorrhagic, hypertoxic, subclinical
B. fulminant, asymptomatic
C. With complications
D. With the secondary infection
E. With exacerbation of chronic diseases
27.What is the incubation period in measles?
A. *9-17 days
B. 11-21 day
C. till 14 days
D. 13- 14 days
E. 17-21 day
28.What is the term of patient's isolation in case of measles, which is complicated
by pneumonia?
A. On all catarrhal period
B. Till 5 day from the beginning of rashes
C. 5 days from the beginning of illness
D. 9 days from the beginning of illness
E. *On 10 days from the beginning of rashes
29.What is the term of Measles patient contagiousness?
A. Catarrhal period, period of exanthema
B. last 2 days of catarrhal period, period of exanthema, 3-4 days period of
pigmentation
C. *last 2 days of incubation period, catarrhal period, 3-4 days of exanthema
period
D. Period of pigmentation and exanthema
E. Last week of the incubation period, catarrhal period, period of exanthema
30.What is the term of patient isolation at acquired Rubella?
A. On 4 days from the beginning of rashes
B. Not less than 5 days from the beginning of disease
C. *Not less than 5 days from the beginning of rashes
D. Not less than 5 days from the beginning of last rashes
E. Not less than 9 days from the beginning of disease
31.When does the body temperature at the uncomplicated measles become normal?
A. At the end of catarrhal period
B. At the beginning of exanthema period
C. At the end of exanthema period
D. *In the period of pigmentation
E. In the period of recovery
32.Indicate the features of measles pigmentation spreading.
A. Begins from lower extremities, staging spreads farther
B. At the same time appears all over the body
C. Begins from a trunk, spreads staging on the face, extremities
D. A rash turns pale, disappears without trace
E. *Begins from a face, passes staging, in that order, that pouring out
33.Indicate the term of patient's isolation in uncomplicated measles.
A. 5 days from the beginning of illness
B. 9 days from the beginning of illness
C. *Till 5th day from the beginning of rashes
D. 10 days from the beginning of rashes
E. On all catarrhal period
34.How will differ rashes at measles from rashes at Rubella?
A. rashes are rose, small spots, during a day covers all the body, are
disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks
B. Rashes are pin point, bright, on a hyperemied background, concentrated
in skin folds, during a day covers all the body
C. Rashes are papulous, situated on shins, and then hemorrhagic elements of
star-form with necrosis in a center appear
D. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appear in
several pushes
E. *The rashes are maculo-papulous, bright, spread all over the body during
3-4 days, then pigmented
35.When will the catarrhal signs at measles disappear?
A. At the end of catarrhal period
B. At the beginning of exanthema period
C. At the end of exanthema period
D. *In the period of pigmentation
E. In the period of recovery
36.Name the illness severity in case of diphtheria of the pharynx, localized insular
form:
A. severe
B. moderate
C.
D.
E.
*mild
Combined
0 degree
37.How differs an exacerbation of pseudotuberculosis from the relapse?
Exacerbation is...
A. *Growth of clinical symptoms after the period of improvement
B. Appearance of clinical symptoms after normalization of clinic-laboratory
indexes
C. Growth of clinical symptoms without the improvement of the patient's
state
D. Stable severe state of the patient
E. Gradual improvement of the patient's state up to the convalescence
38.What changes in the pharynx at pseudotuberculosis are different from scarlet
fever, typical form?
A. Absence of «strawberry» tongue
B. *Absence of purulent tonsillitis
C. Presence of aphthous stomatitis
D. Presence of herpangina
E. «blazing pharynx», necrotizing tonsillitis
39.How rashes at infectious mononucleosis differ from rashes at measles?
A. Absence of concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of face,
hands, feet
B. *Occurs after treatment by amoxacillin. Absent stages, more frequent is
localized on a trunk, less on face, extremities, is kept for 1-2 weeks
C. More large elements of rashes, concentration of rashes round joints,
hyperemia and edema of face, hands, feet
D. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appears in
pushes
E. rashes are rose, small spots, during days covers all the body, is disposed
mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks
40.What diet (by Pevsner) is used for a patient with pseudotuberculosis, abdominal
form?
A. *Diet № 4
B. Diet № 5
C. Diet № 5 п
D. Diet № 10
E. Diet № 15
41.What changes in the urine analysis prove the toxic damage of kidneys in case of
pseudotuberculosis?
A. proteinuria, leucocyturia, bacteriuria
B.
C.
D.
E.
crystaluria, leucocyturia, epitelium (flat epithelium) in the urine
crystaluria, erythrocyturia (unchanged red cells)
proteinuria, leucocyturia, epitelium in the urine
*proteinuria, casts, erythrocyturia, epitelium in the urine (kidney
epithelium)
42.What is the difference in rashes at Measles from rashes at scarlet fever?
A. Absence of rashes concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of
the face, hands, feet
B. More large elements of rashes, concentration round joints, hyperemia and
edema of the face, hands, feet
C. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appears in
pushes
D. *Time of appearance, morphology, localization, stages, propensity to
confluence, unchanged background of skin, pigmentation of rashes
E. rashes are rose, as small spots, during days covers all body, is disposed
mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks
43.In what organs and systems will be the changes at Rubella?
A. Skin, mucus of the upper respiratory tracts, mouth, conjunctiva
B. *Skin, mucus of the throat, conjunctiva, lymph nodes
C. Liver, spleen, lymph nodes
D. tonsils, lymph nodes, blood
E. tonsils, lymph nodes, skin
44.In what case a measles patient can be treated at home?
A. mild or moderate measles in any age
B. Early age of child, without complications
C. severe disease at the child of senior age
D. *Uncomplicated, mild illness at the child of senior age
E. Child of early age from the socially protected family
45.What etiological treatment is need at moderate pseudotuberculosis?
A. cefazoline
B. Benzylpenicillin
C. nithrofurans
D. gentamicin
E. *chloramphenicol
46.What etiological treatment is need at severe pseudotuberculosis?
A. chloramphenicol
B. *cefotaxim
C. cefazoline
D. nithrofurans
E. cefuroxim
47.What changes in the blood analysis at pseudotuberculosis will be different from
the changes at uncomplicated measles?
A. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, eosynopenia, normal ESR
B. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, aneosynophylia, increased ESR
C. *leucocytosis, neutrophylia, eosynophylia, increased ESR
D. leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, appearance of atypical mononuclear
cells, normal ESR
E. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis, normal ESR
48.What fluids of organism is it possible to select a measles virus from?
A. Bile, gastric juice, blood, urine, saliva
B. nasopharyngeal mucus, urine, saliva, sweat, conjunctiva secretion
C. cerebral-spinal fluid, excrements, gastric content, bile
D. *nasopharyngeal mucus, blood, urine, excrement, conjunctiva secretion
E. cerebral-spinal fluid, excrement, nasopharyngeal mucus, sweat
49.What complication is typical for pseudotuberculosis, abdominal form?
A. Perforation of the sygmoid colon
B. small-large intestinal invagination
C. *acute appendicitis
D. Pyelonephritis
E. glomerulonephritis
50.How rashes at pseudotuberculosis diffes from rashes at scarlet fever?
A. *The «hood», «gloves», «socks» symptoms, concentration of rashes
round joints
B. Pale perinasal triangle, localization of rashes on the unbend surfaces of
extremities
C. The «hood», «gloves», «socks» symptoms, rashes is not predisposed to
confluence
D. A rashes is smaller, on the pale background of skin
E. Rashes on the red background of skin, concentrated on the unbend
surfaces of extremities
51.Indicate the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission:
A. fecaly-oral
B. Water
C. *parenteral
D. air-dust
E. Food
52.What from this is characteristically for Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?
A. stabile to the high temperatures, quickly perishes at the ultraviolet
insolation, desinfection
B.
C.
D.
E.
*stabile to the low temperatures, quickly perishes at boiling, desinfection
stabile to the low temperatures, drying, boiling
Термолабільний, stabile to the ultraviolet insolation, desinfection
Термостабільний, stabile to the ultraviolet insolation, desinfection
53.Name typical forms of pseudotuberculosis.
A. Catarrhal, skin, abdominal
B. Catarrhal, mononucleosis like, arthralgic
C. Effaced, asymptomatic, abdominal
D. gastrointestinal, abdominal, catarrhal
E. *scarlet fever like, abdominal, jaundice,
54.Indicate the possible way of infectious mononucleosis transmission:
A. fecaly-oral
B. Water
C. air-dust
D. Food
E. *Sexual
55.What is the criterion of the Rubella severity?
A. Localization of rashes
B. severity of changes in a peripheral blood
C. Presence of exanthema
D. *severity of intoxication
E. Presence of catarrhal signs
56.Choose the main diagnostic signs of the infectious mononucleosis:
A. hepatomegaly
B. Catarrhal syndrome
C. exanthema
D. *High prolonged fever
E. toxic syndrome
57.From what complications of infectious mononucleosis children die more
frequently?
A. lymphadenitis
B. *stenosis of the larynx
C. hemolytic anemia
D. thrombocytopenia
E. Paresis of cranial nerves
58.What is the evolution of the skin changes at pseudotuberculosis?
A. A rashes pigmented, desquamation will appear
B. Spots grow into papules, vesicles, crusts
C. *Rashes go out, pigmented rarely, desquamation will appear
D.
E.
Formation of crusts, hyperpigmentation
A rashes disappears without trace
59.A high incidence of whooping cough in recent years is due to all of the
following reasons, except:
A. *Preferential allocation of whooping cough bacilli in paroxismal period
B. Low rate of routine immunization against whooping cough
C. Low postvaccination immunity
D. The relatively high frequency of abortive and light forms of whooping
cough
E. Late diagnosis of whooping cough
60.In what age does orchitis (in mumps) develop more frequent?
A. *At adults, teenagers
B. At teenagers
C. At under-fives and junior schoolboys
D. In junior and middle school age
E. At schoolboys
61.What is the entrance gate (atrium) of mumps?
A. *Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat
B. Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat, conjunctiva
C. Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat, tonsills
D. Mucous of the mouth, nose, throat, ducts of salivary glands
E. Ducts of salivary glands
62.What changes will be present in the complete blood count at mumps?
A. *Leucopenia (sometimes leucocytosis in the first days), lymphocytosis
B. Leucopenia, lymphocytosis, elevated or normal ESR
C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, increased or normal ESR
D. Leucopenia (sometimes leucocytosis in the first days), lymphocytosis,
plasmocytosis
E. leucocytosis, neutrophlia, eosynophylia, elevated ESR
63.A patient with chicken pox is isolated on:
A. 2 days after the last element of rash has appeared
B. *5 days after the last element of rash has appeared
C. 7 days after the last element of rash has appeared
D. 11 days after the last element of rash has appeared
E. 21 day after the last element of rash has appeared
64.A rare complication of whooping cough may include:
A. *All the listed
B. Spontaneous pneumothorax
C. Hernia
D.
E.
Brain hemorrhage
Rectal prolapse
65.A vaccine against the chicken pox is named as:
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. DTaP
D. *Varilrix
E. OPV
66.Abortive forms of whooping cough are characterized by:
A. *All the listed
B. Mild course of disease
C. The absence of the typical paroxismal cough
D. Shortened duration of illness
E. They occur in vaccinated
67.Acyclovir therapy at chicken pox is not given in case of:
A. cytostatic therapy
B. glucocorticoids therapy
C. HIV-infection
D. *inborn antibodies deficit
E. severe course of chicken pox
68.All of the blood indicators are typical for whooping cough in 1 year old child,
except:
A. *Eosinophilia
B. Normal ESR
C. Mild leukocytosis
D. Lymphocytosis
E. Monocytosis
69.All statements about the serological diagnosis of whooping cough are true,
except:
A. *Serological investigation is the most diagnostically significant
B. Used to identify postvaccinal and postinfection immunity
C. Can be used for retrospective confirmation of diagnosis in unvaccinated
children
D. Can be used for retrospective confirmation of the diagnosis in adults
E. Used in vaccinated children, in contact with whooping cough and in ill
patients
70.What age groups of children has mumps more frequently?
A. *Under-fives, junior schoolboys
B. Toddlers.
C.
D.
E.
Children of early age and under-fives
Teenagers and schoolboys of middle school age
Infants.
71.What is the evidence to interrupt the pregnancy after the contact with a Rubella
patient?
A. Contact with a patient with Rubella in any term of pregnancy
B. *Growth of titre of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research,
term of pregnancy up to 12 weeks
C. Stable title of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research, term
of pregnancy up to 12 weeks
D. Growth of title of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research,
term of pregnancy over 12 weeks
E. Stable title of rubella antibodies at the repeated serological research, term
of pregnancy over 12 weeks
72.Antibacterial therapy at chicken pox is given:
A. in case of cytostatic therapy
B. in case of glucocorticoids therapy
C. in case of meningoencephalitis
D. *in case of bacterial complications
E. in case of generalised form of chicken pox
73.Appearance of point white-grey elements on a red background of buccal
mucosa, gums is a typical sign of:
A. Rubella
B. adenoviral infection
C. Scarlet fever
D. *measles
E. enteroviral infection
74.Appearance of point white-grey elements on a red background of buccal
mucosa, gums is a typical sign of:
A. Rubella
B. adenoviral infection
C. Scarlet fever
D. *measles
E. enteroviral infection
75.What features of meningoencephalitis at measles?
A. *severe duration, high lethality
B. Defeat of cerebellum, convalescence without the remaining phenomena
C. Defeat of cerebellum, central paralyses
D. mild duration, without the remaining phenomena
E. Development of purulent meningitis
76.What changes in the lymphatic system organs are typical for Rubella?
A. hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy
B. Catarrhal, follicle or lacunar tonsillitis
C. adenoiditis, tonsillitis
D. enlargement and tenderness of the anterior and posterior cervical lymph
nodes
E. *enlargement and tenderness of the posterior cervical and occipital
lymph nodes
77.What duration of rashes presence at Rubella?
A. 1-2 days
B. *2-3 days
C. 3-4 days
D. 4-5 days
E. 5-6 days
78.What symptoms will differ infectious mononucleosis from Rubella?
A. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of
tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome
B. Morphology and localization of rashes, absence of tonsillitis, increase of
posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal
syndrome
C. *rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis
D. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other
organs and systems
E. Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital
lymph
nodes,
insignificant
catarrhal
signs,
absence
of
hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis
79.What changes in complete blod test will be typical for pseudotuberculosis?
A. leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynopenia, elevated ESR
B. leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, elevated ESR
C. *leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynophylia, elevated ESR
D. leucopenia, anaemia, lymphocytosis, elevated ESR
E. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis, normal ESR
80.What investigation should be used for the early diagnostics
pseudotuberculosis?
A. Bacteriological examination of excrements, urine, blood
B. *immune-enzyme analysis, immune-fluorescent test
C. aglutination reaction
D. indirect hemaglutination reaction
of
E.
indirect hemaglutination reaction with paired sera
81.In what age Rubella complication by meningoencephalitis is more frequent?
A. In new-born
B. At infants
C. At the children of early age
D. In preschoolers
E. *In teenagers
82.What part of the intestinum is damaged more frequent at the abdominal form of
pseudotuberculosis?
A. cecum, ascending and transversal colon
B. cecum, appendix
C. duodenum, small intestinum, cecum
D. *Terminal department of small intestinum, cecum, appendix
E. Descending colon, sygmoid colon
83.What changes on the tongue are typical for pseudotuberculosis?
A. *«strawberry» tongue
B. «nipple» tongue
C. «geographical» tongue
D. sour
E. aphthae
84.What, except the features of rashes, will differ scarlet fever from
pseudotuberculosis?
A. Stages of rashes, conjunctivitis, expressed catarrhal signs
B. Polymorphism of rashes, localization of it on hairy part of the head,
mucus membraines
C. hemorrhagic star-like rashes on shins, thighs, meningeal syndrome,
nasopharyngitis
D. *Presence of tonsillitis, increase of only tonsillar lymph nodes, absent:
arthritis, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems
E. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of
tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs
85.Which measles symptoms will be different from scarlet fever? Name them.
A. *Character, localization and stages of rashes, catarrhal syndrome,
presence of the Koplick's spots; absence of: tonsillitis, «strawberry»
tongue, lymphadenitis
B. Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital
lymph
nodes,
insignificant
catarrhal
signs,
absence
of
hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis
C. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis
D.
E.
Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of
tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs
Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other
organs and systems
86.What research will prove pseudotuberculosis at the patient?
A. Smears from a nose and throat on diphtheria
B. leucocytosis and neutrophilia, encreased ESR
C. agglutination reaction with pseudotubercular diagnostic test, titre of
antibodies 1:80
D. *indirect hemagglutination reaction with pseudotubercular diagnostic
test, titre of antibodies > 1: 200
E. Double growth of antibodies titre in paired sera
87.What pathognomonic sign of measles do you know?
A. Filatov's sign
B. Pastia's sign
C. *Koplick's spots
D. Murson's sign
E. Presence of enanthem on a soft palate
88.What is the reason of relative bradycardia in case of pseudotuberculosis?
A. *By activating of the parasympatic nervous system by toxins
B. By influence of bacteria on the vegetative nervous system
C. By development of myocarditis
D. By activating of the sympatic nervous system by toxins
E. By direct toxic influence on myocardium
89.Indicate the morphological features of Koplick's spots.
A. Red point elements surrounded by the red framing, on mucus of lips,
cheecks, gums
B. maculo-papulous elements on a soft palate
C. white-grey spots on the hard and soft palate
D. *white-grey point elements surrounded by the red framing, on mucus of
lips, cheecks, gums
E. white-grey islets on the tongue
90.What factor of C. diphtheria causes polyneuropathy?
A. exotoxin
B. *neuraminidase
C. hyalurinidase
D. necrotising diffuse factor
E. Cord-factor
91.What is the evidence to administer recombinant interferon in Rubella
treatment?
A. Complication by thrombocytopenic purpura
B. *CNS complications
C. severe typical forms of the disease
D. Arthritis, synovitis
E. innate Rubella without the active signs of process
92.Name complications of the acquired Rubella.
A. *Meningitis, encephalitis, arthritis
B. glomerulonephritis, arthritis, myocarditis
C. stomatitis, enterocolitis, pyelonephritis
D. Syndrome of croup, pneumonia
E. purulent meningitis, meningoencephalitis
93.Indicate the main ways of the pseudotuberculosis transmission.
A. fecal-oral, contact-domestic
B. *by food, water
C. contact, water
D. by food, contact
E. droplet, contact
94.At a child with mumps is exposed positive Fylatov's sign. Give its description.
A. edema and hyperemia of the external opening of the Stensen's duct
B. *pain behind and at the front of ear-lobes at talk, mastication
C. white point stratifications on cheeks mucous
D. dryness in the mouth, cracks on the tongue
E. tear of the tongue bridle
95.At a child with mumps was exposed positive Murson's sign. Give its
description.
A. *edema and hyperemia of the external opening of the Stensen's duct
B. pain behind and at the front of ear-lobes at talk, mastication
C. white point stratifications on cheeks mucous
D. dryness in the mouth, cracks on the tongue
E. tear of the tongue bridle
96.Indicate the probable time of the rashes appearance at Rubella.
A. *On 1-3rd day of disease
B. On 4-5th day of disease
C. On 6-7th day of disease
D. On 8-10th day of disease
E. More than 10th day from the beginning of illness
97.A pin-point rashes, mainly in skin folds, in the inguinal region, on the lateral
surfaces of trunk are characteristic for:
A. Rubella
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. *Scarlet fever
D. measles
E. enteroviral infections
98.Name the evidence to prescribe corticosteroids at pseudotuberculosis.
A. moderate degree of disease, polyartritis
B. severe degree of disease, exacerbations and relapses
C. *severe degree of disease, myocarditis
D. Toxic damage of kidneys, polyarthritis
E. Toxic damage of myocardium, arthritis
99.At what infectious exanthema rashes will have pigmentation stage, sculling of
the epidermis?
A. *Measles
B. Rubella
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Scarlet fever
E. Chicken pox
100. Enumerate clinical syndromes typical for the end of catarrhal period at
measles.
A. Abdominal, toxic, catarrhal
B. *toxic, catarrhal, enanthem on a soft palate, Koplick's spots
C. intestinal, toxic, catarrhal
D. enanthem on a soft palate, toxic, catarrhal
E. enanthem on a soft palate, toxic, catarrhal, increase of posterior cervical
and occipital lymph nodes
101. What is the average duration of catarrhal period at measles?
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. *3-4 days
D. 5-6 days
E. 7 days
102. What type of temperature is typical for uncomplicated measles?
A. remittent
B. intermittent
C. *two-humped type
D. hectic
E. subfebrile temperature
103. What is the latent period of pseudotuberculosis?
A. 25-30 days
B. *3-18 days
C. 9-21 day
D. 2-7 days
E. 11-17 days
104. What is the second phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis?
A. regional infection
B. *entheric
C. generalyzation
D. Infection
E. bacteremia
105. What phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis is the next after the
phase of regional infection.
A. parenchymal diffusion
B. entheric
C. Infection
D. *generalyzation
E. bacteremia
106. Describe morphology of the rashes at pseudotuberculosis.
A. maculo-papulous, weathering, bright, sometimes hemorrhagic, on the
unchanged background
B. pin-point, unweathering, on a red background
C. Polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles), on the unchanged background
D. small macules, rose, on the unchanged background
E. *pin-point, maculo-papulous, weathering round joints, on a red
background
107. In what cases the patient with pseudotuberculosis can be treated at home?
A. mild, moderate degree of disease, satisfactory financial and house
conditions
B. mild, moderatedegree of disease, child of senior age
C. mild degree of disease, child of early age
D. *mild degree of disease, satisfactory financial and house conditions
E. Effaced, atypical, mild, moderate forms of disease
108. What fluids and environments of the organism does it follow to examine to
confirm pseudotuberculosis?
A. Bile, urine, excrements, nasopharyngeal mucus
B. Saliva, blood, urine, excrements
C. CSF, blood, urine, excrements
D.
E.
*Blood, urine, excrements, nasopharyngeal mucus
CSF, blood, urine, excrement, nasopharyngeal mucus
109. What is the rashes evolution in Rubella?
A. pigmentation
B. macrosculling
C. *disappears without any changes
D. crusts, then pigmentation
E. pigmentation, then sculling
110. Indicate the typical changes in cerebro-spinal fluid in case of Rubella?
A. neutrophyl pleocytosis, normal level of sugar
B. neutrophyl pleocytosis, raised level of protein
C. *lymphocyte pleocytosis, normal level of protein
D. lymphocyte pleocytosis, raised level of sugar
E. lymphocyte pleocytosis, considerably decreased level of sugar
111. What changes on oral mucosa are typical for rubella?
A. enanthem on a soft palate, the Koplick's spots
B. Hyperemia of the external opening of the parotid salivary gland's channel
C. Catarrhal tonsillitis, rough back pharyngeal wall
D. maculous enanthem on a hard palate, herpangina
E. *maculous enanthem on a soft palate, hyperemia of the throat
112. Name the phase of the pseudotuberculosis pathogenesis following after
entheric phase.
A. parenchymal diffusion
B. *regional infection
C. generalyzation
D. Infection
E. bacteremia
113. Pseudotuberculosis belongs to the group of:
A. anthroponoses
B. anthropozoonoses
C. ornithoses
D. zooornithoses
E. *zoonoses
114. What will differ pseudotuberculosis, jaundice form from a hemolytic
jaundice?
A. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), normal level of
aminotransferases
B. High level of bilirubin (due to direct), normal level of aminotransferases
C. Splenomegaly, damage of other organs and systems
D.
E.
High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), splenomegaly, anaemia
*Damage of other organs and systems, raised level of bilirubin (due to
direct) and bilirubin
115. What will differ pseudotuberculosis, jaundice form from hepatitis A, mild
severity?
A. Considerably raised level of bilirubin and aminotransferases
B. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), normal level of
aminotransferases
C. High level of bilirubin (due to direct), normal level of aminotransferases
D. *Splenomegaly, damage of other organs and systems
E. High level of bilirubin (due to indirect), splenomegaly, anaemia
116. What are the pseudotuberculosis complications?
A. Toxic damage of kidneys, arthritis, myocarditis
B. Toxic damage of myocardium, arthritis, synovitis
C. *Appendicitis, encephalitis, myocarditis
D. Pneumonia, pharyngitis, tonsillitis
E. enterocolitis, perforation of the intestinum, intestinal impassability
117. Indicate localization of the rashes on the 1st day of exanthema period in
measles.
A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle
B. all over the body, hairy part of the head
C. *On face, behind the ears, neck
D. On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms
E. all over the body
118. Indicate localization of the measles rashes on the 2nd day of exanthema
period.
A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle
B. all over the body, hairy part of the head
C. On face, behind the ears, shoulders
D. *On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms
E. all over the body
119. Indicate localization of the measles rashes on the 3rd day of exanthema
period.
A. all over the body, anymore in skin folds, pale perioral triangle
B. all over the body, hairy part of the head
C. On face, behind the ears, shoulders
D. On face, trunk, proximal parts of arms
E. *all over the body
120. What is the most frequent reason of cardiac arrest on 3-5 day of diphtheria?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cardiomyocytes myolisis
parenchymatose dystrophy
*parasympatic influence
Fatty degeneration of myocardium
Destruction of myofibriles
121. What way of congenital Rubella transmission?
A. hemocontact
B. *transplacental
C. alimentary
D. droplet
E. Contact
122. What endotoxines products Yersinia pseudotuberculosis?
A. *thermolabile, thermostabile, enterotoxin
B. hemolysin, necrotoxin, cytotoxin
C. hemaglutinin, neuraminidase
D. hemolysin, necrotoxin, lypopolisacharidum
E. thermostabile, enterotoxin, neuraminidase
123. Name the agent of rubella.
A. paramyxovirus of the Pneumophilus family
B. paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus family
C. paramyxovirus of the Paramyxovirus family
D. orthomyxovirus
E. *togavirus family Rubivirus
124. At what age children can be ill with whooping cough?
A. *From the first days of life
B. From three months
C. From six months
D. From one year
E. From two years
125. Blazing throat with the expressly marked off hyperemia, fever, expressed
intoxication, tonsillitis, increase of submandibular lymph nodes are
characteristic for:
A. Initial period of pseudotuberculosis
B. prodromal period of measles
C. Diphtheria of the throat
D. *Initial period of scarlet fever
E. adenoviral infection
126. What way of the acquired Rubella transmission?
A. *air-droplet
B.
C.
D.
E.
hemocontact
alimentary
droplet
Contact
127. Enumerate the criteria of the acquired Rubella, typical form, smooth course.
A. isolated exanthema
B. isolated damage of lymph nodes
C. *mild or moderate severity of the disease
D. the secondary infection
E. exacerbation of chronic diseases
128. Indicate the properties of the Rubella agent.
A. thermostabile, dye at drying
B. thermolabile, stabile to the ultraviolet insolation
C. *Quickly dye at the ultraviolet insolation, disinfection
D. stabile to the low temperatures, disinfection
E. thermolabile, stabile to disinfection
129. Indicate the possible terms of the Rubella incubation period.
A. 7-10 days
B. 11-17 days
C. *11-23 days
D. 2-5 days
E. 21 day
130. Against what diseases the child of 12 months must be vaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Poliomyelitis, diphtheria, tetanus
C. *Measles, rubella, mumps
D. Measles, poliomyelitis, tetanus
E. Poliomyelitis, whooping cough, diphtheria
131. What vaccine is needed for the first revaccination against diphtheria, tetanus,
and whooping-cough?
A. DTP
B. *DTaP
C. DT
D. DTP-m
E. D-m
132. Against what diseases the child of 18 months must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Нів-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B
D.
E.
Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
*Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection
133. Choose the associated vaccines among enumerated:
A. BCG
B. *DTP
C. Hepatitis A
D. Influenza (A, B)
E. poliomyelitis (I, ІІ, ІІІ)
134. Against what disease the child of 5 months must be vaccinated?
A. Whooping cough
B. Tuberculosis
C. Measles
D. *Hepatitis B
E. Rubella
135. Choose a correct answer about the associated vaccines:
A. They contain antigens of bacteria and viruses
B. They contain different serotypes of one type of microorganism
C. *They contain antigens of microorganisms and toxins
D. They contain antigens of bacteria and antigens of viruses, got with the
help of recombined technologies
E. The antigens of different viruses are contained on adsorbents
136. What symptoms will differ Rubella from scarlet fever?
A. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of
tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome
B. *Morphology and localization of rashes, absence of tonsillitis, increase of
posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal
syndrome
C. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other
organs and systems
D. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis
E. Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and occipital
lymph
nodes,
insignificant
catarrhal
signs,
absence
of
hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis
137. What properties are typical for Rubella virus?
A. DNA-containing, contains hemagglutinin
B. *RNA-containing, contains neuraminidase
C. RNA-containing, contains hemagglutinin
D.
E.
RNA-containing, contains hyaluronidase
DNA-containing, contains hyaluronidase
138. What is the evidence to give immunoglobulin in uncomplicated measles?
A. Syndrome of croup
B. Measles pneumonia
C. Early age, moderate disease
D. Child from socially unprotected family
E. *Early age, severe disease
139. What day of measles exanthema period will the Koplick's spots disappear?
A. on the1-2th
B. *on the 2-3th
C. on the 3-4th
D. will be absent generally
E. will be remained for all period
140. What groups of lymph nodes will be enlarged in case of Rubella in compare
with infectious mononucleosis?
A. *Only posterior cervical and occipital
B. Only posterior cervical and anterior cervical
C. anterior, posterior cervical and occipital
D. submandibular
E. Inguinal and axillar
141. What changes on mucus membranes in Rubella at the end of catarrhal period
will be different from measles?
A. *Absence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate
B. Presence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate
C. Presence of the Koplick's spots, bright maculous enanthem on palate
D. Absence of the Koplick's spots, catarrhal tonsillitis
E. Absence of the Koplick's spots, herpangina
142. Indicate the duration of measles pigmentation period.
A. 1-2 days
B. 3-4 days
C. 5-7 days
D. *7-14 days
E. 2-3 weeks
143. What seasonality is characteristic for pseudotuberculosis?
A. Winter
B. Spring
C. *Winter-spring
D. autmn-winter
E.
No
144. What symptoms will differ Rubella from pseudotuberculosis?
A. Morphology and localization of rashes, presence of tonsillitis, increase of
submandibular lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal syndrome
B. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of
tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome
C. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other
organs and systems
D. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis
E. *Morphology and localization of rashes, increased only posterior cervical
and occipital lymph nodes, absence of the intestinal problems, damage of
the other organs
145. What changes in a mouth will differ Rubella from scarlet fever?
A. Presence of the Koplick's spots that smaller enanthem on palate
B. *Absence of tonsillitis, «strawberry» tongue, «blazing pharynx»
C. Presence of the Koplick's spots, bright maculous enanthem on palate
D. Presence of herpangina, absence of «blazing pharynx»
E. Catarrhal tonsillitis, absence of «strawberry» tongue
146. What immunity will be formed after diphtheria?
A. Immunity is stabile, long-life
B. Immunity is unsteady, unsterile
C. Immunity is unsteady, typospecific
D. *Immunity is unsteady
E. Immunity is prolonged, typospecific
147. What is an entrance gate (atrium) for diphtheria?
A. *Mucus membranes
B. Middle ear
C. Heart
D. Liver
E. Spleen
148. Indicate the possible way of the diphtheria transmission:
A. air-dust
B. transmissive
C. Water
D. Vertical
E. *Food
149. Indicate the possible way of the diphtheria transmission:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
air-dust
transmissive
Water
*Contact-domestic
Vertical
150. What is the possible mechanism of the diphtheria transmission:
A. hemo-contact
B. fecal- oral
C. *droplet
D. air-dust
E. Food
151. Indicate the possible way of the diphtheria transmission:
A. *air-droplet
B. transmissive
C. water
D. vertical
E. air-dust
152. Choose septic complications of scarlet fever:
A. encephalitis, otitis, myocarditis
B. *otitis, purulent lymphadenitis, necrotizsng tonsillitis, sinusitis
C. myocarditis, nephritis, arthritis, rheumatism
D. synovitis, encephalitis, otitis
E. myocarditis, nephritis, necrotizing tonsillitis
153. CMV has the lowest tropism for:
A. *Skin
B. CNS
C. Liver
D. Lung
E. Lymphatic tissue
154. Complications of whooping cough could be:
A. *All the listed
B. Atelectasis
C. Pneumonia
D. Encephalopathy with seizures
E. Massive subconjunctival hemorrhages
155. Constrictive laryngitis (croup) may be a complication of the following
diseases except:
A. *Mumps
B. Diphtheria
C.
D.
E.
Influenza
Measles
Parainfluenza
156. What age groups of population have measles more frequent nowadays?
A. *Teenagers, adults
B. infants, toddlers
C. Under-fives, junior schoolboys
D. Junior schoolboys, children of middle school ages
E. toddlers, under-fives
157. What is the earliest complication of diphtheria?
A. *Nephrotic syndrome
B. Myocarditis
C. Palatoplegia
D. Polyradiculitis
E. Pneumonia
158. Etiology of chicken pox is:
A. *Varicella-Zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. Rubella
D. Parvovirus
E. group A B-hemolytic streptococcus
159. Etiology of herpes zoster is:
A. *Varicella-Zoster
B. Herpes simplex
C. Epstain-Barr
D. Parvovirus
E. group A B-hemolytic streptococcus
160. Everything listed below is typical for mumps, except:
A. *Koplik’s sign
B. Retromandibular swelling and edema
C. Pain while chewing
D. Body Temperature 38,0-39,0 0C
E. Abdominal pain
161. Expressed catarrhal signs, photophobia, intoxication, maculous enanthem on
the palate, pinpoint white elements on the red background on buccal mucosa are
typical for:
A. prodromal period of measles on a 1st day
B. *prodromal period of measles on a 3rd day
C. enteroviral infection
D.
E.
prodromal period of Rubella
Scarlet fever
162. Fever, stomach-aches, disorders of emptying, hyperemia of the throat, pains
in joints, appearance of point, maculous, maculo-papulous rashes, anymore
round joints, in skin folds are characteristic for:
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. measles
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. *Pseudotuberculosis
163. For a typical chicken pox is characteristically:
A. tonsillitis precedes the rash
B. Koplick's spots appear before the rashes
C. rashes are provoken by the use of semisynthetic penicillins
D. *appearance of new elements is accompanied by the increase of body
temperature
E. sculling of skin on the second week after rashes
164. For chicken pox is typical:
A. presence of „strawberry" tongue
B. *presence of rashes on the mucus membranes of mouth, eye, sexual
organs
C. presence of the expressed catarrhal sign
D. increase of cervical lymphatic nodes
E. presence of „goose skin" symptom
165. For what disease are characteristic pin-point, maculous, maculo-papulous
rashes more in skin folds, round joints, on a hyperemied background, large
elements confluence; cyanotic hyperemia of the face, hands, feet?
A. Scarlet fever
B. *Pseudotuberculosis
C. Rubella
D. measles
E. Infectious mononucleosis
166. What fraction of diphtheria exotoxin in the culture of tissues causes
cytotoxic effect?
A. *thermolabile (toxin A)
B. thermostabile (toxin B)
C. Cord-factor
D. Tox + phage
E. Gwarnieri corpuscles
167. How many fractions of diphtheria toxin are identified now?
A. 1
B. *2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
168. What is the etiology of pseudotuberculosis?
A. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Yersinia intermedia
C. *Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D. Yersinia frederiksenia
E. Yersinia pestis
169. How will differ rashes at Rubella from rashes at measles?
A. *rashes are rose, small spots, during a day covers all the body, are
disposed mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks
B. rashes are pin point, bright, on a hyperemied background, concentrated in
skin folds, during a day cover all the body
C. rashes are papulous, situated on shins, then hemorrhagic elements of starform with necrosis in a center appear
D. rashes are pin point, bright, on a hyperemied background, concentrated in
skin folds, round joints, hyperemia of the face, hands, feet
E. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appear in
several pushes
170. Enumerate the criteria of Rubella, typical form, non-smooth course.
A. severe degree of disease
B. *secondary infection, presence of complications
C. asymptomatic form of the disease
D. effaced form of the disease
E. isolated damage of lymph nodes
171. What is the mechanism of the acqiured Rubella transmission?
A. hemocontact
B. through damaged epidermis
C. alimentary
D. *droplet
E. Contact
172. What changes in a mouth will differ Measles from scarlet fever?
A. Absence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate
B. Presence of the Koplick's spots, smaller enanthem on palate
C. *Presence of the Koplick's spots, absence of tonsillitis, «raspberry»
tongue, marked hyperemia of the pharynx
D.
E.
Presence of herpangina, absence of «blazing pharynx»
Catarrhal tonsillitis, absence of «strawberry» tongue
173. Herpetic infection caused by herpes simplex virus, may be present in
different clinical forms, except:
A. *Kaposi Sarcoma
B. Skin lesions (herpes labialis, herpes nasalis, eczema, Kaposi's)
C. Encephalitis and meningoencephalitis
D. Eye (keratoconjunctivitis)
E. Lesions of the mucous membranes of the oral cavity (stomatitis)
174. How long can be isolated Epstein-Barr virus from nasopharyngeal smear,
after acute infectious mononucleosis?
A. *More than 2 months
B. 1-3 days
C. 1-2 weeks
D. 1 month
E. Not isolated at all
175. How long children at scarlet fever are contagious?
A. 7 days
B. *10 days
C. 21 day
D. 30 days
E. 40 days
176. How long the monitoring of contacts is recommended in the focus of
infectious mononucleosis?
A. *40-45 days
B. 5-10 days
C. 11-19 days
D. 20-29 days
E. 30-39 days
177. How long the symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart vagus-phase are stored?
A. 2 days
B. 5-6 days
C. 10 days
D. 2 weeks
E. *3-4 weeks
178. How often the limited hyperemia and infiltration of the cheek mucosa round
the salivary gland excretory duct (Moorson symptom) is present in mumps?
A. *More than 50%
B. Less than 1%
C.
D.
E.
1-9%
10-35%
35-50%
179. What is the localization of swelling in parotitis?
A. *Anteriorly, downward and backward from the ear lobe
B. In the occipital region
C. At the angle of the mandible
D. On the back edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
E. On the front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
180. Indicate the morphological features of the Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.
A. grampositive oval stick with a few plaits, does not form spores
B. gramnegative oval stick with perytrichia, does not form spores and
capsule
C. gramnegative stick with dumbbells form plaits, contains the corns of
volutin
D. *gramnegative oval stick with a few plaits, does not form spores
E. grampositive oval stick with perytrichia, does not form spores and
capsule
181. What could be the factor of the pseudotuberculosis transmission?
A. Meat and vegetable can foods
B. Dry fish
C. Fresh unboiled milk
D. *Vegetables, milk products which were not boiled
E. Fish can foods, mushrooms
182. In lacunary tonsillitis are observed all of the following symptoms except:
A. *Membranes are difficulty removed with a spatula, and the mucosa
bleeding
B. Bright diffuse hyperemia of the throat
C. Exedates in the gaps are yellowish-white
D. Increasing the temperature to 39-40 oC for 2-3 days
E. In severe cases, almost always vomiting is repeated
183. In the 40-50 years of the last century scarlet fever patients were isolated for
40 days. At the present time period of isolation was reduced to 10-12 days
because of:
A. *Mandatory antibiotic therapy in all patients regardless of severity
B. Significant prevalence of mild forms of the disease now
C. Availability of the abortive forms
D. Less pronounced lamellar desquamation
E. Evolution of the bacterial agent
184. What Epidemic measures should be done in the focus of whooping cough?
A. *All of the above
B. Isolation of coughing children
C. Injection of the whooping cough immunoglobulin to contacted children
D. Throat culture of contacts for B.pertussis
E. Disinfection
185. What is the latent period of mumps?
A. *In 11-21 day
B. In 9-21 day
C. In 9-17 days
D. In 11-25 days
E. In 14-21 day
186. Indicate the term of children medical examination in kindergarten in case of
Rubella.
A. 9-17 days
B. 17 days
C. 11-17 days
D. 11-21 day
E. *up to 23 days
187. In the group of preschool (kindergarten) is quarantine because of measles.
When is it possible to select a measles virus at children that are infected?
A. *In the end of incubation period, catarrhal period, first days of exanthema
period
B. In an incubation period, catarrhal period
C. In a catarrhal period, period of exanthema, pigmentation
D. In the period of exanthema, pigmentation
E. In an incubation, catarrhal period and period of exanthema
188. Indicate the possible source of Rubella.
A. Individuals which contacted with patients with the acquired Rubella
B. Individuals which contacted with patients with innate Rubella
C. carriers and individuals which contacted with patients with the acquired
Rubella
D. carriers and individuals which contacted with patients with innate
Rubella
E. *patients with the acquired Rubella, innate Rubella
189. How long children with Whooping cough should be isolated?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days;
C. 21 days;
D. 10 days;
E.
*30 days.
190. In the last decade, mumps occurs more often in adults due to:
A. *Mass vaccination of children
B. Environmental degradation in many countries
C. The ability of mumps virus to persist in dormant form for years
D. Growth in the number of adults with secondary immunodeficiency (use
of cytostatics, immunosuppressants, HIV infection, etc.)
E. Late diagnosis of this disease by physicians ("mumps" is a children's
infection)
191. Indicate duration of the quarantine for contacts in case of Whooping cough.
A. 3 days
B. 5 days;
C. 9 days;
D. *14 days;
E. 21 days.
192. Name the source of measles.
A. carriers of the virus
B. *sick people with typical and atypical forms of measles
C. people in recovery period
D. people which contacted with ill patients
E. sick birds
193. Name the mechanism of measles transmission.
A. air-droplet
B. fecal-oral
C. *droplet
D. alimentary
E. Contact
194. Name the way of measles transmission.
A. *air-droplet
B. fecal-oral
C. droplet
D. alimentary
E. Contact
195. In what age the child should be revaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
poliomyelitis, mumps, measles and rubella (according the Ukrainian
vaccination schedule)?
A. *6 years
B. 18 months
C. 3 years
D.
E.
14 years
15 years
196. In what period of the disease sympatic-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever"
heart usually appear?
A. in prodromal period
B. *first two days of exanthema period
C. after 3-4 days of exanthema period
D. from the second week of the disease
E. only in the recovery period
197. In what period of the disease vagus-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever" heart
usually appear?
A. in prodromal period
B. first two days of exanthema period
C. *after 3-4 days of exanthema period
D. from the second week of the disease
E. only in the recovery period
198. In which of the following diseases mainly posterior neck lymph nodes are
increased?
A. *Infectious mononucleosis
B. Adenovirus infection
C. Toxic tonsillar diphtheria
D. "Cat’s scratches" disease
E. Rubella
199. Indicate the daily dose of amikacin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough"
treatment:
A. 1-2;
B. 2-4;
C. 6-8;
D. 10-12;
E. *15-20.
200. Indicate the daily dose of aminazin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough"
treatment:
A. *0.1-0.2;
B. 0.25-0.5;
C. С. 0.5-1.0;
D. 1.0-3.0;
E. 3.0-5.0.
201. Indicate the daily dose of ampicillin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough"
treatment:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
25;
50;
*100;
150;
200.
202. Indicate the daily dose of erythromycin (mg/kg) for "Whooping cough"
treatment:
A. 10-15;
B. 15-20;
C. 20-30;
D. *30-50;
E. 50-100.
203. Indicate the etiological therapy of chicken pox:
A. benzylpenicillin
B. levomycetin
C. *zovirax
D. human immune globulin
E. vaccine „Varilrix"
204. Indicate the etiological therapy of herpes zoster.
A. benzylpenicillin
B. levomycetin
C. *zovirax
D. human immune globulin
E. vaccine „Varilrix"
205. Indicate the source of infection at scarlet fever:
A. Wild animals
B. Insects
C. *sick man
D. domestic animals
E. patient with an acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
206. Indicate the source of infection in case of chicken pox:
A. Wild and domestic animals
B. Insects
C. *sick man
D. carrier
E. a person in the recovery period
207. Indicate the typical changes in CBC at scarlet fever:
A. *Leucocytosis with neutrophilia, increased ESR, eosynophilia;
B. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis, increased ESR;
C.
D.
E.
Leucocytosis with lymphocytosis, normal ESR;
Leucocytosis with lymphopenia, increased ESR;
Leucopenia with neutropenia, eosynophilia, thrombocytopenia;
208. Who is not the source of streptococcus infection?
A. patient with acute tonsillitis
B. patient with streptodemia
C. patient with scarlet fever
D. patient with erysipelas
E. *patient with an acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
209. What is characteristically for the congenital Rubella?
A. Microcephaly, calcinates in a brain
B. granulomatous inflammation
C. *Cataract, deafness, congenital heart defects
D. hydrocephaly, retinopathy
E. exanthema, the CNS damage
210. It is known that the same pathogen can cause scarlet fever, sore throat,
lymphadenitis, otitis media, and other diseases. Which of the following is
crucial for the occurrence of scarlet fever, and not other diseases the same
etiology?
A. Agent’s serotype
B. Pathogenity of bacteria
C. *Lack of antitoxic immunity
D. Lack of antibacterial immunity
E. Localization of the infection atrium
211. How many days the patient with mumps parotitis should be isolated?
A. *9 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 day
D. 25 days
E. 30 days
212. Moderate intoxication and catarrhal signs, maculous enanthem on a soft
palate, increase and tenderness of the posterior cervical and occipital lymph
nodes are typical for:
A. measles, period of exanthema
B. prodromal period of measles
C. *prodromal period of Rubella
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Pseudotuberculosis
213. Mumps virus from the upper respiratory tract spreads by:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Hematogenous way
Lymphogenous way
Ascending through a Stensen’s duct
Combination of ascending and haematogenous way
Neither one of the above
214. Name medicine for etiological therapy of scarlet fever.
A. *benzylpenicillin
B. chloramphenicol
C. acyclovir
D. human immune globulin
E. ciprofloxacin
215. Name the sympatic-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever heart":
A. *tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure
B. tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative
borders
C. tachycardia, weakening of the heart tones, rough systolic murmur
D. bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative
borders, systolic murmur
E. bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure
216. Name the vagus-phase symptoms of „scarlet fever heart":
A. tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure
B. tachycardia, increase of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative
borders
C. tachycardia, weakening of the heart tones, rough systolic murmur
D. *bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure, dilation of the heart relative
borders, systolic murmur
E. bradycardia, decrease of arterial pressure
217. Neurological complications of chicken pox usually appear in:
A. prodromal period
B. period of exanthema
C. *period of crusts
D. period of shelling
E. period of hyperpigmentation
218. Of all the nucleotide analogues, whose mechanism of action is inhibition of
viral replication by competitive inhibition of DNA polymerase of the virus is
only a single drug that can permanently interrupt the chain of viral DNA
synthesis. What is the name of this drug?
A. *Acyclovir
B. Famcyclovir
C. Pencyclovir
D.
E.
Gancyclovir
Foscarnet
219. Passive immunization by a high title Varicella-Zoster immune globulin is
done:
A. not later than 24 hours from a contact moment
B. *not later than 72 hours from a contact moment
C. not later than 11 day from a contact moment
D. in a period with 11 for 21 day from a contact moment
E. only after 11th day from a contact moment
220. What medicine is better to use to decrease the number of cough paroxysms
at Whooping cough?
A. *Aminazin;
B. Anaprilin;
C. Salbuthamol;
D. Berotec;
E. Libexin.
221. What antibiotic should be ineffective for the whooping cough treatment?
A. Ampicillin;
B. *Benzylpenicillin;
C. Amoxacillin;
D. Gentamicin;
E. Cefotaxim.
222. What morphological changes are typical for Pseudotuberculosis unlike
scarlet fever?
A. serous inflammation, granulomas
B. abscesses, necroses
C. *granulomas, micro abscesses
D. fibrinous inflammation, granulomas
E. hemorrhagic inflammation, necroses
223. What clinical signs will differ Pseudotuberculosis, mononucleosis-like form
from the infectious mononucleosis?
A. Absence of splenomegaly, rashes
B. *diarrhea, «strawberry» tongue, arthritis
C. leucocytosis with lymphomonocytosis, absence of atypical mononuclear
cells
D. Tonsillitis, «strawberry» tongue, regional lymphadenitis
E. jaundice, hepatitis, insignificant increase of aminotranspherase level
224. Relapsed scarlet fever is now possible because of:
A. *Obvious antibacterial therapy in all patients with scarlet fever
B.
C.
D.
E.
Evolution of the agent
Shortening of isolation from 20-21 days to 10-12
Preferential treatment at home
Reduce of severe forms frequency
225. What symptoms will differ rubella from infectious mononucleosis?
A. Morphology and stages of rashes, time of its appearance, absence of
tonsillitis, expressed catarrhal syndrome
B. *Obligatory presence of rashes, increase of posterior cervical and
occipital lymph nodes, insignificant catarrhal signs, absence of
hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, adenoiditis
C. rashes are not obvious, increase of posterior and anterior cervical lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, tonsillitis, and adenoiditis
D. Morphology and localization of rashes, increase of all groups of lymph
nodes, hepatosplenomegaly, intestinal problems, damage of the other
organs and systems
E. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of
tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs
226. Scarlet fever is characterized by all except:
A. *Large maculous exanthema
B. "Strawberry" tongue
C. Enanthema
D. Pale nasolabial triangle
E. Tonsillitis
227. Shingles is caused by:
A. *Herpes virus type III
B. Mycoplasma
C. Chlamydia
D. Fungi
E. Herpes simplex virus
228. Specific prophylaxis of chicken pox in Ukraine (in obedience to the
vaccination calendar) is:
A. in 12 months with the next revaccination in 6 years
B. in 5 months with next revaccination in 12 years
C. in the first days after birth
D. necessarily to 15-monthly age child
E. *not obligatory
229. Specific prophylaxis of scarlet fever in Ukraine (in obedience to the
calendar of inoculations) is:
A. in 12 months with the next revaccination in 6 years
B. in 5 months with next revaccination in 12 years
C.
D.
E.
in the first days after birth
necessarily to 15-monthly age child
*is not performed
230. The agent of chicken pox belongs to:
A. Adenoviridae
B. Rhinoviridae
C. *Herpes virus family
D. Hepadnaviridae
E. Paramyxovirus family
231. Indicate the seasonality of mumps.
A. *Winter-spring
B. Winter
C. Autumn-winter
D. Summer-autumn
E. Spring-summer
232. The causative agent of mumps belongs to:
A. *Myxoviruses
B. Adenoviruses
C. Enteroviruses
D. Rotaviruses
E. Cytomegalovirus
233. What vaccines does it follow to give to the 1 year child?
A. *MMR
B. BCG, MMR
C. Hepatitis B, Hib
D. DTP, IPV
E. IPV, Hib
234. What immunity will be formed after the acquired Rubella?
A. Unsteady, short
B. Unspecific, short
C. Unspecific, long duration
D. Specific, short
E. *stabile, during all the life
235. What is duration of quarantine in a group of kindergarten in case of
Chickenpox?
A. From 17 to 21 day.
B. From 5 to 25 day.
C. For 14 day.
D. For 35 day.
E.
*From 9 to 21 day.
236. The result of mumps could be everything except:
A. *Salivary-stone disease
B. Infertility
C. CSF Hypertensive syndrome
D. Deafness
E. Epilepsy
237. The epidemiology of mumps is characterized by everything enumerated,
except:
A. *The high incidence among children under one year
B. Contagious index 0,7
C. Most affected males
D. After this illness remains a long and strong immunity
E. Incidence increasing every 4-5 years
238. Indicate the etiology of measles.
A. paramyxovirus of the Pneumophilus family
B. togavirus family Rubivirus
C. *paramyxovirus of the Morbillivirus family
D. paramyxovirus of the Paramyxovirus family
E. orthomyxovirus
239. The generalized form of chicken pox is characterized by:
A. a presence of not numerous vesicles on a skin, subfebrile temperature
B. rashes on a skin does not turn to vesicles (only maculo-papulous rashes
are present), normal body temperature
C. *neurotoxicosis with a convulsive syndrome, hyperpyrexia, continuous
vesicles, quite often with bloody content, defeat of internal organs
D. plenty of rashes, on the stage of vesicles on a skin and mucus
membranes, febrile temperature
E. except typical rashes, appear large bubbles (up to 2-4 сm in diameter)
with turbid content, which burst and abandon moist surfaces
240. The increase of which lymph nodes has the greatest diagnostic value in
infectious mononucleosis?
A. *Posterior neck
B. Supraclavicular
C. Occipital
D. Tonsillar
E. Axillary
241. The most common herpes virus infection are all except:
A. *Herpetic encephalitis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Herpes of the lips
Herpes of the skin
Ophthalmic herpes
Genital herpes
242. What immunity develops after infectious mononucleosis?
A. Immunity is unsteady, unsterile
B. Immunity is unsteady, typospecific
C. Immunity is unsteady
D. Immunity is prolonged, typospecific
E. *Immunity is stabile, long life
243. The pathogenesis of mumps is characterized by everything except:
A. *The virus enters through a Stensen’s duct
B. Mucous membranes of the mouth, pharynx, nose are the input gates
C. Virus is trail to the glandular tissue
D. Virus is trail to the nervous system
E. Virusemia - one of the major pathogenetic mechanisms of the disease
244. What laboratory investigation is the best for early diagnostic of whooping
cough?
A. "cough plates" method;
B. Serological method;
C. The reaction of the complement binding;
D. *Immune-enzyme method;
E. DNA polymerase reaction.
245. The specific prophylaxis of chicken pox is:
A. *vaccination
B. isolation of patient up to 5 days since the last rashes appear
C. isolation of contact person
D. ventilation and moist cleaning
E. acyclovir in the first 5 days after the contact
246. The Varicella-Zoster Virus belongs to:
A. Adenoviridae
B. Rhinoviridae
C. *Herpes virus family
D. Hepadnaviridae
E. Paramyxovirus family
247. Which from laboratory animals can be infected and become ill with
measles?
A. Dogs
B. *Monkeys
C.
D.
E.
Rabbits
Mice
Chickens
248. What is epidemiological peculiarity of infectious mononucleosis?
A. Sporadic cases in summer
B. *Flashes in families
C. Epidemia
D. Epidemia in cold time of year
E. Epidemia in spring-summer time of year
249. Indicate the possible source of diphtheria.
A. *carriers of toxigenic strains
B. domestic animals
C. carriers of nontoxigenic strains
D. carriers of C.xerosis
E. carriers of C.enzimaticum
250. Indicate the possible source of diphtheria.
A. viral carriers
B. domestic animals
C. *patients with diphtheria
D. rodents
E. poultry
251. Indicate the possible source of infectious mononucleosis:
A. Domestic animals
B. Poultry
C. Wild animals
D. Cattle
E. *viral carriers
252. What changes in blood analysis are typical for Whooping cough?
A. Leucocytosis with neutrophilia;
B. Leucopenia with lymphocytosis;
C. *Leucocytosis with lymphocytosis;
D. Leucocytosis with lymphopenia;
E. Leucopenia with neutropenia.
253. What age does it follow to perform the vaccination and re-vaccination
against measles?
A. At 3, 4, 5 months
B. *In 1 year, 6 years
C. In 1 year, 11 years
D. In 1 year, 6, 11 years
E.
In 1 year, 6, 15 years
254. What titer of antibodies in Complement Binding Reaction will be diagnostic
on a 2nd week of mumps?
A. *1 : 40
B. 1 : 10
C. 1 : 20
D. 1 : 32
E. 1 : 16
255. When is it possible to select a virus of mumps from an organism?
A. *Last 1-3 days of latent period and 3-4 days from the beginning of illness
B. Last 1-3 days of latent period and 7-9 days from the beginning of illness
C. 3-4 days from the beginning of illness
D. 7-9 days from the beginning of illness
E. Last 1-3 days of the acute period
256. What fluids of organism will contain the virus of mumps?
A. *Saliva, blood, spinal fluid
B. Urine, excrement, bile
C. Urine, blood, spinal fluid
D. Urine, excrement, blood
E. Saliva, excrement, bile
257. What is the mechanism of congenital Rubella transmission?
A. air-droplet
B. alimentary
C. *hemocontact
D. droplet
E. Contact
258. What agent is diphtheria caused by?
A. Corynebacterium enzimaticum
B. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Corynebacterium pyogenes
D. Corynebacterium haemoliticus
E. Corynebacterium xerosis
259. What results of complete blood analysis in pseudotuberculosis will be
different from scarlet fever?
A. Increased number of plasmatic cells, normal ESR
B. monocytosis, normal ESR
C. Appearance of atypical mononuclear cells, increased ESR
D. leucocytosis, increased ESR
E. *No one
260. Indicate the duration of the agent secretion in case of congenital Rubella.
A. *1.5-2 years
B. 1.5-2 weeks
C. 1.5-2 months
D. Till 5 days from the beginning of disease
E. Till 5 days after appearance of exanthema
261. What age does it follow to vaccinate the child against Rubella?
A. *In 1 year
B. At 1.5 years
C. In 3 years
D. In 6 years
E. In 11 years
262. What is characteristically for the congenital Rubella?
A. Murson's Symptom
B. Filatov's Symptom
C. Pastia's Symptom
D. *Greg's Triad
E. Koplick's Symptom
263. What with is a Rubella virus secreted to the environment in case of
congenital Rubella?
A. With a blood, saliva, sweat
B. With a blood, urine, sweat
C. With sweat, nasopharyngeal mucus
D. *With excrements, urine, nasopharyngeal mucus
E. With saliva, urine, blood
264. Tonsillitis may be a manifestation of any of the following diseases, except:
A. *Respiratory syncitial infection
B. Enteroviral infection (Coxsackie)
C. Fuzospirillous infection
D. Candida infection
E. Infectious mononucleosis
265. Typical mechanism of chicken pox transmission is:
A. *droplet
B. alimentary
C. parentheral
D. contact
E. transplacental
266. Vincent's tonsillitis is characterized by all except:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Violations of the general condition
Not significant pain syndrome
Unilateral defeat
Ulcer-necrotic changes
The lack of regional lymph nodes reaction
267. Viral pneumonia, as complication of chicken pox develops in:
A. *first 3-4 days of exanthema period
B. last 3-4 days of exanthema period
C. period of crusts
D. period of sculling
E. period of hyperpigmentation
268. What antibacterial drug is better for 1 month infant with whooping cough?
A. *Azithromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Streptomycin
D. Bactrim
E. Gentamicin
269. What antibiotic should be used for the whooping cough treatment?
A. Cephasolin;
B. Benzylpenicillin;
C. *Ampicillin;
D. Tetracyclin;
E. Nifuroxasid.
270. What antibiotic should be used for the whooping cough treatment?
A. Cephasolin;
B. Benzylpenicillin;
C. *Erythromycin;
D. Ciprofloxacin;
E. Nifuroxasid.
271. What antibiotic should not be used for the whooping cough treatment?
A. Ampicillin;
B. *Cefazoline;
C. Amoxacillin;
D. Gentamicin;
E. Cefotaxim.
272. What are the features of whooping cough in infants?
A. *All the listed
B. Shortening of the incubation and catarrhal period
C. The prevalence of severe forms in the course of disease
D.
E.
Frequent complications
The absence of typical coughing paroxysms
273. What changes does it follow to expect in the blood test of patients with
chicken pox?
A. Leucocytosis with neutrophilia;
B. *Leucopenia with lymphocytosis;
C. Leucocytosis with lymphocytosis;
D. Leucocytosis with lymphopenia;
E. Leucopenia with neutropenia
274. What changes in the peripheral blood can confirm a diagnosis of tonsillitis?
A. *Neutrophilic leucocytosis with a left shift
B. Leukopenia in with lymphocytosis
C. Slightly elevated ESR
D. Reduced hemoglobin levels and low color index
E. The number of atypical mononuclear cells in a smear more than 10%
275. What complication is the most likely in the patient with perytonsillitis?
A. *Lymphadenitis
B. Paresis of soft palate
C. Myocarditis
D. Polyneuritis
E. Pneumonia
276. What differs the pathogenesis of herpes zoster from varicella?
A. *Reactivation of varicella zoster virus in the immune organism
B. The manifestation of primary infection in the organism susceptible to
varicella zoster virus
C. Reactivation of herpes simplex virus in the immune organism
D. Reactivation of the Epstein-Barr virus in the immune organism
E. None of the above
277. What does not belong to allergic complications of scarlet fever?
A. rheumatic fever
B. myocarditis
C. arthritis
D. *myositis
E. nephritis
278. What does not belong to infectious complications of scarlet fever?
A. purulent lymphadenitis
B. necrotizing tonsillitis
C. *keratitis
D. otitis
E.
sinusitis
279. What does not belong to specific complications of chicken pox?
A. encephalitis
B. croup
C. keratitis
D. pneumonia
E. *myositis
280. What does not belong to the atypical forms of chicken pox?
A. hemorrhagic
B. bullous
C. gangrenous
D. *ulcerative
E. generalized
281. What does not belong to the atypical forms of scarlet fever?
A. hemorrhagic form
B. hypertoxic form
C. extrabuccal form
D. *necrotizing form
E. scarlet fever without rashes
282. What from enumerated is not the sign of scarlet fever?
A. skin shelling from the second week of illness
B. *pigmentation after rashes
C. „strawberry" tongue
D. „scarlet fever" heart
E. white dermographism
283. What from enumerated is not the sign of scarlet fever?
A. *conjunctivitis
B. changes of the tongue
C. tonsillitis
D. „blazing" pharynx
E. rashes
284. What from enumerated is not the sign of scarlet fever?
A. intoxication
B. *cold
C. tonsillitis
D. regional lymphadenitis
E. rashes
285. What from the following is used for the treatment of uncomplicated
moderate infectious mononucleosis?
A. *None of the above
B. Antidiphtheritic serum
C. Steroid hormones
D. Local antifungal treatment
E. Antibiotics
286. What is characteristically for a typical form of scarlet fever?
A. Prolong fever before rashes
B. Koplick's spots appear before the rashes
C. rashes are provoked by the use of semisynthetic penicillins
D. appearance of new elements is accompanied by the increase of body
temperature
E. *exfoliation of epidermis on the second week after rashes
287. What is not characterized for herpes zoster?
A. It is more common in elderly
B. Varicella-zoster virus can not penetrate through the placental barrier
C. Infectivity is low (10-20%)
D. An airborne way of transmission
E. *Varicella-zoster viruses have affinity for herpes simplex virus
288. What is not recommended for the secondary bacterial infection (in a mouth)
prophylaxis to patient with a chicken pox:
A. gargle of the mouth cavity by 5 % boric acid solution
B. gargle of mouth cavity by weak potassium permanganate solution
C. gargle of mouth cavity by weak furacillin solution
D. gargle of mouth cavity by the boiled water
E. *antibiotics (a half of the usual dose)
289. What is not typical for the blood picture in case of "Sixth disease"?
A. *Eosinophilia
B. Pronounced leukopenia
C. Granulocytopenia
D. Lymphocytosis
E. Thrombocytopenia
290. What is not typical for the epidemiology of varicella?
A. *It is transmitted through a third person, care facilities
B. The source of infection can be patient with herpes zoster
C. The infection can spread through the keyhole, door gaps
D. Pathogen die when exposed to ultraviolet rays
E. An airborne way of transmission
291. What is not typical for the varicella rash?
A. *The formation of scars on the soles and palms
B. The first elements appear on the face and scalp
C. Duration of rash 2-8 days
D. Polymorphism
E. Itching
292. What is not typical for the varicella rash?
A. *Skin sores
B. Each new eruption is accompanied by a new rise in body temperature
C. All stages of the rash elements can be seen simultaneously
D. Rash is located superficially
E. Involvement of the scalp skin and mucous membranes
293. What is the whooping cough contagiousness?
A. *70-80%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 95%
E. 100%
294. What is the dose of erythromycin at scarlet fever?
A. 10-15 mg/kg/day
B. *30-50 mg/kg/day
C. 50-100 mg/kg/day
D. 100-150 mg/kg/day
E. 20-30 mg/kg/day
295. What is the dose of penicillin at scarlet fever?
A. 30-50 mg/kg/day
B. 50-100 mg/kg/day
C. 100-150 mg/kg/day
D. *50-100 thousand IU/kg/day
E. 100-200 thousand IU/kg/day
296. What is the duration of scarlet fever latent period?
A. 1-2 hours
B. *till 7 days
C. 1-2 days
D. 11-21 day
E. 30 days
297. What is the etiology of scarlet fever?
A. Varicella-Zoster
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C.
D.
E.
Staphylococcus aureus
Parvovirus
*group A B-hemolytic streptococcus
298. What is the main cause of asphyxia in diphtheria croup?
A. *Trachea blockage by fibrinous membrane
B. The presence of a viscous secretion
C. Edema of the mucous membrane
D. Reflex spasm of laryngeal muscles
E. Necrosis of mucosa
299. What is the main cause of low mumps virus distribution in the environment?
A. *No patients with catarrhal symptoms, and virus isolation from large
drops of saliva
B. The virus is transmitted from person to person primarily through
contaminated saliva
C. The relatively high percentage (30-40) of atypical forms of mumps
D. Virus is not stable to the effects of physical and chemical factors
E. Lack of virus transmission via third parties
300. What is the reason of the scarlet fever antibacterial therapy?
A. *Streptococcal etiology of disease
B. Age of the patient
C. Disease severity
D. The course of angina
E. The presence of complications
301. What is typical for the varicella rash?
A. *Unilocular vesicle with a transparent content on the not infiltrated basis
B. Nodules, towering above the surface of the skin
C. Multilocular vesicle with a transparent content
D. Unilocular vesicle on the infiltrated basis
E. Vesicle with a yellowish pus (pustule)
302. What kind of research will verify the diagnosis of fungal tonsillitis?
A. *Smear microscopy
B. Throat culture
C. Analysis of peripheral blood
D. The agglutination reaction with horses erythrocytes
E. The increased antibody titer to streptococcal antigens
303. What laboratory method will confirm the diagnosis of chicken pox?
A. blood culture
B. throat smear
C. *immune-fluorescence method
D.
E.
„thick drop"
vesicles content culture
304. What laboratory method will confirm the diagnosis of Herpes Zoster?
A. blood culture
B. throat smear
C. *immune-fluorescence method
D. „thick drop"
E. vesicles content culture
305. What laboratory method of investigation will confirm the diagnosis of
scarlet fever?
A. blood culture
B. *throat culture
C. immune-enzyme method
D. „thick drop"
E. nasopharyngeal swab
306. What is the latent period duration at chicken pox?
A. a few hours
B. 1-2 days
C. 3-7 days
D. *11-21 day
E. 30 days
307. What is the single dose of acyclovir at chicken pox?
A. *10-15 mg/kg
B. 100 mg/kg
C. 1000 IU/kg
D. 10-30 mg/kg
E. 10 mcg/kg
308. What percentage of the world's population is infected with the virus of
infectious mononucleosis?
A. *80-100%
B. Less than 10%
C. 10-30%
D. 40-50%
E. 60-70%
309. What prognosis is the most likely in a patient with Simanovsky Vincent
tonsillitis?
A. *Recovery
B. The development of sepsis
C. Bleeding from the tonsils
D.
E.
The development of polyneuritis, myocarditis
The development of glomerulonephritis
310. What result of pharyngeal mucus laboratory examination is the most likely
in a patient with Simanovsky Vincent tonsillitis?
A. *Fuzo-spirochetes
B. Toxigenic diphtheria bacteria
C. Diphtheroid
D. Coccal bacteria
E. Fungi
311. What statement is not correct for scarlet fever?
A. *The rash appears on 3rd-4th days of illness
B. Index of contagiousness is 0,4
C. The household route of infection is possible
D. Desquamation has a lamellar character
E. Complications can be bacterial and allergic
312. What statement is not correct for scarlet fever?
A. *The source of infection is only patient with scarlet fever
B. The incubation period is less than 7 days
C. The disease occurs more often in mild form
D. Complications are relatively rare
E. Immunity after previous infection is now often unstable
313. What symptom is not typical for scarlet fever?
A. „goose skin" symptom
B. Filatov's symptom
C. „strawberry" tongue
D. Pastia's symptom
E. *„socks" and „gloves" symptom
314. What external conditions will the virus of measles be stable?
A. High temperature
B. Sunlight
C. Ultraviolet irradiation
D. Drying
E. *Freezing
315. What the radiological changes in the lungs are typical for whooping cough?
A. *Emphysema, segmental or lobar atelectasis
B. Emphysema, infiltrative changes
C. Migratory eosinophilic infiltrates
D. Increased vascular pattern
E. Dilated roots
316. What swelling consistency is typical for mumps?
A. *Doughy
B. Cartilaginous
C. Firm
D. Fluctuating
E. Nodular
317. What is the treatment in case of varicella keratoconjunctivitis?
A. 2% chloramphenicol ointment
B. 1% tetracycline ointment
C. drops „Tobradex"
D. *ointment „Zovirax" and 20% solution of Na sulfacilici
E. 20% of Na sulfacilici solution and 1% tetracycline ointment
318. What treatment should be start to a patient with perytonsillitis first of all?
A. *Surgery
B. Corticosteroids
C. Antibiotics penicillins
D. Antidiphtheritic serum
E. Local treatment
319. What treatment should be start without delay to a patient with diphtheria?
A. *Antidiphtheritic serum
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. Antifungal drugs
D. Corticosteroids
E. Surgical intervention
320. When is it possible to visit the organized child's establishment after scarlet
fever?
A. on 6th day from the disease beginning
B. on 10th day from the from the disease beginning
C. on 15th day from the disease beginning
D. *on 22nd day from the disease beginning
E. on 30th day from the disease beginning
321. Which of the following complications is the least possible in scarlet fever?
A. *Pyelonephritis
B. Sinusitis
C. Otitis
D. Lymphadenitis
E. Arthritis
322. Which of the following determines the development of "scarlet fever heart"
second phase?
A. *Vagotony
B. Toxic damage of cardiomyocytes
C. Dysfunction of the chordal apparatus
D. Inflammatory changes in the myocardium
E. Sympathicotony
323. Which of the following diseases is most likely accompanied by lesions of
the pancreas?
A. *Mumps
B. Influenza A
C. Colibacteriosis
D. Dysentery
E. Infectious mononucleosis
324. Which of the following does not apply to the manifestation of mumps?
A. *Neuritis of the auditory nerve
B. Pancreatitis
C. Orchitis
D. Meningitis
E. Meningoencephalitis
325. Which of the following is appropriate for treatment of Simanovsky Vincent
tonsillitis?
A. *Local treatment
B. Antidiphtheritic serum
C. Oral wide spectrum antibiotics
D. Intramuscular penicillin
E. Antifungal drugs
326. Which of the following is appropriate to a patient with tonsillar diphtheria
(toxic, II degree), complicated by myocarditis?
A. *Strict bed rest, corticosteroids
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Oral rehydration
D. Surgery
E. Diet № 5
327. Which of the following is best to do in a presumptive diagnosis of toxic
tonsillar diphtheria?
A. *Hospitalization without the prior laboratory examination
B. Pharynx and nose swab bacteriologic test for the diphtheria bacillus
C. Microscopy of material from the pharynx
D. Serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis
E.
ENT-doctor consultation
328. Which of the following is not typical for chickenpox?
A. Specific immunoglobulin is injected to prevent the disease for all
children up to 3 months
B. Possible complications are associated with the CNS lesions - Encephalitis
C. Pyoderma is the most frequent complication in children
D. The disease may have an adverse outcome in a child with leukemia,
particularly during chemotherapy
E. *Generalized form of neonatal varicella is rare
329. Which of the following is the leading in asymptomatic mumps diagnosis?
A. *Immunosorbent assay (ELISA) of specific antibodies of IgM detection
B. ELISA specific antibodies IgG detection
C. Complete blood count
D. Hemagglutination test in paired sera
E. None of the above
330. Which of the following is the most expedient to appoint for a child with
Lacunar tonsillitis?
A. *Antibiotics penicillins
B. Sulfonamide
C. Antidiphtheritic serum
D. Local treatment
E. Antifungal medication
331. Which of the following must be done for the toxigenic diphtheria carriers?
A. *antibiotic therapy (macrolides)
B. antidiphtheritic serum injection
C. unscheduled vaccination against diphtheria
D. immunostimulants orally
E. Repeat bacteriological examination in 7-10 days without any treatment
332. Which of the following should be considered first of all when choosing a
method of a chicken pox patient isolation?
A. *The causative agent is distributed with an air in adjacent rooms
B. The patient is contagious for 8 days
C. The causative agent is quickly perish in the environment
D. It is not transmitted through a third person
E. Infection is not transmitted through toys and care facilities
333. Which of the following is a symptom of mumps (together with increased
parotid glands)?
A. *Pain while chewing
B. Cough
C.
D.
E.
Conjunctivitis
Enanthema on the soft palate
Maculopapular rash
334. Why the isolated diphtheria croup has no toxic forms?
A. *Fibrinous membrane is easily separated from the mucosa that is covered
with single-layered columnar epithelium
B. In the development of diphtheritic croup, mainly nontoxigenic diphtheria
bacilli play the role
C. Diphtheria croup is more common in vaccinated children of 1-5 years,
when still antitoxic immunity is high
D. Croup is caused by a specific type of pathogen that does not cause toxic
forms of diphtheria
E. Croup, unlike tonsillar diphtheria, develops usually in children with a
mature immune system
335. Indicate preventive measures in the focus of enteroviral infection:
A. *Hospitalization of patients, isolation of contacts to 14 days, current
disinfection
B. Supervision after patients and contacts, final disinfection
C. Hospitalization of sick and contacts to 10 days, current disinfection
D. The supervision after patients, isolation of contacts on 7 days, final
disinfection
E. Supervision after patients and contacts, giving them interferon
336. What is the agent of acute poliomyelitis?
A. *Virus of Poliovirus hominis
B. The ECHO virus
C. The Polimixovirus
D. Bacteria
E. Mixed infection
337. What is the most frequent form of encephalitic reaction at a child of 5 years
are:
A. Cramps
B. *Delirium
C. Violation of consciousness
D. Violation of CSF dynamics
E. Sopor
338. Characteristic features of head ache at meningococcal meningitis are
A. *Head ache has spread character, increases at the sound and light
irritations, head movements
B. Head ache has local character, increases at the tactile irritations
C. Head ache has spread character, increases at the turns of head
D.
E.
Head ache has local character, increases at the turns of head
Head ache has local character, does not depend on position of body
339. Characteristic features of muscle pain at epidemic myalgia (enteroviral
infection) are:
A. *Pain is sharp, paroxysmal, arises up by the attacks, increases at a cough,
motions
B. Pain is permanent, aching, is localized mainly in extremities
C. Pain is periodic, paroxysmal, arise up spontaneously
D. Pain is permanent, not intensive; diminish after the easy physical loading
E. Pain is permanent, holding apart character, increases at the change of
position
340. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. *Asymmetrical.
B. Distal.
C. Hypertension of muscles.
D. Hyperrephlexia.
E. Violation of sensitivity.
341. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. *Absence of rephlexes.
B. Symmetrical
C. Distal.
D. Hypertension of muscles.
E. Violation of sensitivity.
342. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. *Hypotonia of muscles.
B. Hyperrephlexia.
C. Symmetrical.
D. Distal.
E. Violation of sensitivity.
343. Choose the most characteristic features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. *Sensitivity is normal.
B. Distal.
C. Symmetrical.
D. Hypertension muscles.
E. Hyperrephlexia.
344. Clinical signs of paralytic form of enteroviral infection are:
A. *The common state is satisfactory; a temperature is normal, languid
monoparesis of extremities, weakness of muscles of buttocks, thigh, and
mimic muscles
B.
C.
D.
E.
The common state is broken, febrile temperature, monoparesis of
extremities, weakness of mimic muscles
The common state is satisfactory, subfebrile temperature, languid
tetraparesis. Muscular tone and reflexes are increased.
The common state is broken, subfebrile temperature, languid tetraparesis.
Muscular tone and reflexes are increased.
Common state is satisfactory, febrile temperature, languid monoparesis.
Muscular tone and reflexes are reduced.
345. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. *Bulging fontanel.
B. Kerning’s Symptom.
C. Single vomiting.
D. Paralysis.
E. Confusion.
346. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. *Cramps.
B. Kerning’s Symptom.
C. Nausea.
D. Paralysis.
E. Loss of consciousness.
347. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. *Repeated vomiting.
B. Kerning’s Symptom.
C. Sunken fontanel.
D. Paresis.
E. Hallucinations.
348. Define the meningitis criteria in infants:
A. *All the enumerated
B. Convulsions.
C. Bulging fontanel.
D. Repeated vomiting.
E. Tilting the head.
349. Diagnostic value for acute poliomyelitis have different methods of
investigation, except:
A. *Electroencephalography
B. Virologic
C. Serological
D. CSF Investigations
E. Electromyography
350. Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of
unknown etiology:
A. *Penicillin.
B. Chloramphenicol.
C. Cefotaxim.
D. Kanamycin.
E. Azithromycin.
351. Enter the starting antibiotic that should be given for purulent meningitis of
unknown etiology:
A. *Ampicillin.
B. Chloramphenicol.
C. Ceftriaxon.
D. Ciprofloxacin.
E. Streptomycin.
352. Etiologic diagnostics of purulent meningitis is based on:
A. Features of clinical picture
B. *CSF culture
C. CSF clinical test
D. Features of clinical duration
E. Computer tomogram
353. For confirmation of enteroviral infection it is needed to do:
A. *Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, CSF and
complement binding reaction with paired sera
B. Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, urine, CSF and complement
binding reaction with paired sera
C. Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, CSF and indirect
hemagglutination reaction
D. Virology research of urine, feces, CSF and bacteriological research of
feces
E. Virology research of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, urine and reaction of
indirect fluorescence
354. For serous meningitis at mumps is typical all, except:
A. Expressed headache
B. Frequent vomit
C. High CSF pressure
D. *Neutrophilic pleocytosis in CSF
E. Raised level of protein
355. For terminal period of tubercular meningitis is typical:
A. Expressed meningeal symptoms
B. Marasmus
C.
D.
E.
Paralyses of extremities
Infants have hydrocephalus
*All enumerated is right
356. For ventriculitis at purulent meningitis is characteristically all, except for:
A. Occurs in the period of convalescence
B. Tonic-clonic cramps
C. Unbending poses of extremities
D. Nuchal rigidity
E. *Hypotonia
357. For which viral infection meningeal syndrome is the most typical?
A. *Enteroviral infection.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Adenovirus infection.
D. Rhinovirus infection.
E. Rotavirus
358. For which viral infection meningeal syndrome is the most typical?
A. *Influenza.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Reovirus infection
D. Rhinovirus infection.
E. Astrovirus infection
359. Give definition of poliomyelitis.
A. *Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and
CNS damage by the type of languid paralyses.
B. Acute viral disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and the
damage of the nervous system
C. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the common signs and
CNS damage by the type of spastic paralyses.
D. Acute viral-bacterial disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and
CNS damage
E. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the heart and CNS
damage by the type of languid paralyses.
360. Herpangina in children (agent - Coxsackie B viruses) is characterized by the
appearance of small vesicles surrounded by a red circle on the mucous
membranes with subsequent formation of fast healing erosions. Usually the
vesicles appear in all sites, except:
A. *Cheek mucosa
B. Soft palate
C. Uvula
D. Palatal arches
E.
Posterior pharyngeal wall
361. In acute paralytic poliomyelitis virus mainly affects:
A. *The anterior horns of the spinal cord
B. Cortex
C. Cerebellum
D. Pia mater
E. Posterior horns of the spinal cord
362. Indicate an express method of Meningococcemia diagnostics.
A. *bacterioscopy of the "thick drop" of blood
B. blood culture
C. immune-fluorescent method
D. serological investigation of paired sera
E. indirect hemagglutination reaction
363. Indicate antibacterial medicine for treatment of Meningococcal
nasopharyngitis.
A. *rifampicin or macrolides
B. semisynthetic penicillins
C. gentamicin or offloading
D. macrolides or azithromycin
E. azithromycin or gentamicin
364. Indicate multiplicity of benzylpenicillin introduction per day to the child of 3
months with meningococcal meningitis.
A. 4 times
B. 6 times
C. *8 times
D. 10 times
E. 12 times
365. Indicate multiplicity of benzylpenicillin introduction per day to the child of
10 months with meningococcal meningitis.
A. 4 times
B. *6 times
C. 8 times
D. 10 times
E. 12 times
366. Indicate multiplicity of cefotaxim introduction per day to the child of 6
months with meningococcal meningitis.
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. *4 times
D.
E.
6 times
8 times
367. Indicate multiplicity of ceftriaxon introduction per day to the child of 1 year
with meningococcal meningitis.
A. 1 time
B. *2 times
C. 3 times
D. 4 times
E. 5 times
368. Indicate multiplicity of chloramphenicol introduction per day to the child of
6 years with meningococcal meningitis.
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. *4 times
D. 5 times
E. 6 times
369. Indicate the clinical diagnostic criteria of poliomyelitis:
A. *Languid paralyses of especially lower extremities that had appeared
after the period of hyperthermia
B. Presence of hemiparesis and hyperpyrexia
C. Appearance of spastic palsies after a catarrhal period
D. Spontaneous appearance of languid paralyses
E. Appearance of tetraparesis after the protracted fever
370. Indicate the daily dose of benzylpenicillin to the child of 2 months with
meningococcal meningitis:
A. 100 000 IU/kg
B. 150 000 IU/kg
C. 300 000 IU/kg
D. *500 000 IU/kg
E. 600 000 IU/kg
371. Indicate the daily dose of benzylpenicillin to the child of 9 months with
meningococcal meningitis:
A. 100 000 IU/kg
B. 150 000 IU/kg
C. *300 000 IU/kg
D. 500 000 IU/kg
E. 600 000 IU/kg
372. Indicate the daily dose of benzylpenicillin to the child of 3 years with
meningococcal meningitis:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
100 000 IU/kg
*200 000 IU/kg
300 000 IU/kg
500 000 IU/kg
600 000 IU/kg
373. Indicate the daily dose of cefotaxim to the child of 2 years with
meningococcal meningitis:
A. 50 mg/kg
B. 100 mg/kg
C. 150 mg/kg
D. *200 mg/kg
E. 250 mg/kg
374. Indicate the daily dose of ceftriaxon to the child of 5 years with
meningococcal meningitis:
A. 50 mg/kg
B. *100 mg/kg
C. 150 mg/kg
D. 200 mg/kg
E. 250 mg/kg
375. Indicate the daily dose of chloramphenicol to the child of 2 years with
meningococcal meningitis:
A. 10 mg/kg
B. 20 mg/kg
C. 30 mg/kg
D. 50 mg/kg
E. *100 mg/kg
376. Indicate the specific signs of respiratory-catarrhal form of enteroviral
infection («summer flu»)
A. *Cold, dry cough, hyperemia of the face, pharynx, and conjunctivitis.
Duration of disease is 1-3 days.
B. Cold, dry cough, conjunctivitis, expressed pallor of skin. Duration of
disease is 1-3 days.
C. Febrile temperature, barking cough, hyperemia of pharynx,
conjunctivitis. Duration of disease is 5-7 days.
D. Hyperthermia to 39-40 С, paroxysmal dry cough, hyperemia of the face,
pharynx. Duration of disease is 6-10 days.
E. Cold, intensive moist cough, hyperemia of pharynx, otitis. Duration of
disease is for 2 weeks
377. Indicate the typical features of enteroviral diarrhea.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Absence of considerable intoxication, diarrhea is on the background of
the catarrhal phenomena, positive epidemiology data
Intoxication, watery diarrhea with green admixtures on a background of
subfebrile temperature
Presence of the catarrhal phenomena, emptying frequent, liquid, yellow
with the admixtures of mucus
Absence of intoxication, diarrhea, stomach-aches, febrile temperature
The displays of intoxication are not considerable, emptying of green
color, is accompanied by tenesms and severe stomach-aches
378. Indicate the way of polio-vaccine introduction at the third vaccination and
next revaccinations.
A. *Through a mouth
B. Subcutaneously
C. Intracutaneously
D. Intramuscularly
E. Endonasaly
379. In which illness myositis could develop?
A. *Enteroviral infections.
B. Influenza.
C. Herpetic infection.
D. Salmonellosis.
E. Typhoid fever.
380. Lumbar puncture is indicated in case of:
A. Comma of 3rd degree
B. Collapse
C. *Presence of meningeal symptoms
D. Hyperthermia of unknown origin
381. Medical tactic at enteroviral infection is:
A. *The changes of diet are not needed. Gamma-globulin and RNA-element
is specific treatment.
B. Diet. Only pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment.
C. Specific treatment is not present. Antibiotics and symptomatic treatment.
D. Diet. Purpose of antiviral and pathogenetic therapy.
E. A diet is not appointed. Antibiotics and dehydration treatment.
382. More frequent entrance gate (atrium) at Enteroviral infection is:
A. *Mucus membranes of the pharynx and intestine
B. Wound surface
C. Mucus membranes of the upper respiratory tracts and stomach
D. Mucus membranes of the intestine
E. Lymphatic and blood circulatory system
383. More frequent purulent meningitis occurs at:
A. *new-born
B. infants
C. 1-3 years old children
D. elder children
E. out of dependence on age
384. Name the dose of sodium oxybutirati for treatment of convulsive syndrome:
A. 40-60 mg/kg
B. 50-70 mg/kg
C. *50-100 mg/kg
D. 70-100 mg/kg
E. 100-120 mg/kg
385. Name the evidence to abolish antibiotics at purulent meningitis:
A. *after decrease of pleocytosis to 50 cells
B. after complete liquor sanation
C. after normalization of temperature and acute phase indexes of blood
D. after disappearance of meningeal symptoms
E. after negative CSF culture
386. Name the incorrect assertion about the epidemiology of poliomyelitis:
A. *More likely older children are infected
B. The only source of infection is a sick person or a virus carrier
C. The virus is excreted from the nasopharyngeal or intestinal contents
D. In nasopharynx virus stay not more than 1-2 weeks
E. Virus secretion with faces may take several weeks
387. Pathogenesis of Meningococcemia:
A. *entering of Meningococcus with the flow of blood in different organs
and tissues
B. entering of Meningococcus through lymphatic vessels in different organs
and tissues
C. Penetration of Meningococcus in the mucus membrane of nasopharynx
D. Penetration of Meningococcus over the blood-brain barrier
E. Penetration of Meningococcus in the mucus membrane of respiratory
tract
388. Patients by what form of Meningococcal infection are the most dangerous in
the epidemiology relation?
A. *Meningococcal nasopharyngitis
B. Meningococcal carrying
C. Meningococcal meningitis
D. Meningococcemia
E.
Meningococcal encephalitis
389. Prescribe an antibiotic to the child with meningococcal meningitis in case of
his allergy on penicillin:
A. erythromycin
B. cefasolin
C. ampicillin
D. *chloramphenicol
E. gentamicin
390. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectioustoxic shock:
A. *Pale skin.
B. Acrocyanosis.
C. Venous stasis.
D. Violation of consciousness.
E. Bradycardia.
391. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectioustoxic shock:
A. *Excitation.
B. Acrocyanosis.
C. Total cyanosis.
D. Bradycardia.
E. Reduction of blood pressure.
392. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectioustoxic shock:
A. *Hyperthermia.
B. Acrocyanosis.
C. Total cyanosis.
D. Venous stasis.
E. Violation of consciousness.
393. Select a symptom that is not characteristic for decompensated infectioustoxic shock:
A. *Tachycardia
B. Venous stasis.
C. Violation of consciousness.
D. Bradycardia.
E. Reduction of blood pressure.
394. Select the most typical features of paralysis in poliomyelitis:
A. *Proximal.
B. Symmetrical
C.
D.
E.
Hypertension of muscles.
Hyperrephlexia.
Violation of sensitivity.
395. The basic difference of encephalitis from the encephalitic reaction is:
A. Brief loss of consciousness
B. Brief clonic-tonic cramps
C. *Output without organic cerebral defect
D. Instable paralysis or paresis
E. Violation of consciousness
396. The children of what age most often have poliomyelitis?
A. *before 7 years
B. in the first months of life
C. in the first year of life
D. in school age
E. in 15-17 years
397. The damage of the motoneurons in the spinal form of acute poliomyelitis is
characterized by all, except:
A. *Signs of muscle atrophy appear in the first days of illness
B. Acute paralysis, roughly, the period of their growth takes from several
hours to 1-2 days
C. Paralysis develops asymmetrically
D. Characteristic pain (spontaneous pain in the extremities and back, the
positive symptoms of tension)
E. Sensory disturbances, pelvic disorders, pyramidal signs are absent
398. The differential diagnosis of polio acute paralytic form must be done with
the following diseases except:
A. *Rabies
B. Encephalitis
C. Infection polyradiculoneuritis
D. Myopathy
E. Myelitis
399. The enterovirus genus includes various representatives, except:
A. *Hepatitis E Virus
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Coxsackie viruses group A and B
D. The ECHO viruses
E. Hepatitis A Virus
400. What is the entrance gate (atrium) for poliomyelitis virus?
A. *Through a mouth
B.
C.
D.
E.
Through the mucus surfaces of eyes
Through a wound surface
Through mother's milk
Through placenta
401. The most frequent form of encephalitic reaction in children of early age is:
A. *Cramps
B. Delirium
C. Violation of consciousness
D. Violation of CSF dynamics
E. Sopor
402. The most frequent form of encephalitic reaction in children of senior age is:
A. Cramps
B. *Delirium
C. Violation of consciousness
D. Violation of CSF dynamics
E. Sopor
403. The source of infection at Enteroviral infection is:
A. *Sick man or virus carrier
B. Rodents
C. Flies and mosquitoes
D. Food
E. Articles of care
404. The source of Meningococcal infection is:
A. *Sick man and healthy transmitter
B. Sick people and animals
C. Sick people
D. Healthy transmitters of infection
E. Sick animals
405. Name the way of agent transmission at Meningococcal infection.
A. *Air-droplet
B. orally-fecal
C. Contact-domestic
D. Water and domestic
E. transmissive
406. What agent most often causes meningitis at the children of early age?
A. *meningococcus
B. pneumococcus
C. Haemophilus influenza
D. Staphylococcus
E.
Streptococcus
407. What antibiotic is applied in case of infectious-toxic shock in
Meningococcal meningitis?
A. *chloramphenicol
B. ampicillini thryhidratis
C. benzylpenicillin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. cefotaxim
408. What antibiotic must be applied on the prehospital stage of Meningococcal
meningitis treatment without the infectious-toxic shock?
A. *chloramphenicol
B. ampicillini thryhidratis
C. rifampicin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. benzylpenicillin
409. What anticonvulsive preparation has the most suppressive action on the
respiratory center?
A. seduxen
B. *sodium oxybutirati
C. hexenal
D. droperydol
E. magnesium sulfate
410. What are the most typical places of rash localization at meningococcemia?
A. *Legs.
B. Face.
C. Neck.
D. Chest.
E. Hands.
411. What are the most typical places of rash localization at meningococcemia?
A. *Buttocks.
B. Face.
C. Head.
D. Chest.
E. Hands.
412. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock?
A. *Pale skin.
B. Oliguria.
C. Hypothermia.
D. Loss of consciousness.
E.
Reduction of blood pressure.
413. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock?
A. *Hyperthermia.
B. Oliguria.
C. Hypothermia.
D. Loss of consciousness.
E. Reduction of blood pressure.
414. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock?
A. *Tachycardia.
B. Oliguria.
C. Hypothermia.
D. Loss of consciousness.
E. Reduction of blood pressure.
415. What are the symptoms of compensated infectious-toxic shock:
A. *Excitation.
B. Oliguria.
C. Hypothermia.
D. Unconsciousness.
E. Reduction of blood pressure.
416. What are the typical clinical signs of Enteroviral infection?
A. *Hyperemia the face and neck, sometimes with appearance of the
maculo-papulous rashes
B. Sings of conjunctivitis and rhinitis
C. Presence of papulous rashes and itch
D. Hectic temperature and signs of intoxication
E. Meningeal signs
417. What clinical signs are not typical for ependymatitis?
A. Increasing disorders of consciousness
B. Violation of muscular tone by the type of decerebration rigidity
C. Tonic cramps
D. Marasmus, that progresses
E. *stabile hyperthermia
418. What complication is characteristic for staphylococcal meningitis?
A. Damage of auditory nerve
B. Neuritis of facial nerve
C. *Abscess of brain
D. Hydrocephalus
E. Paresis of soft palate
419. What complication is the most characteristic for meningococcal meningitis?
A. Damage of auditory nerve
B. Neuritis of facial nerve
C. Abscess of brain
D. *Hydrocephalus
E. Paresis of soft palate
420. What does not belong to criteria of the vaccine associated paralytic polio?
A. *Vaccine associated paralytic polio (after oral vaccine) is most often
associated with type I polio virus
B. The onset of illness later than 4th and no later than 30th day after
receiving the vaccine. To contacts with vaccinated this period is extended
to 60-day.
C. Development of flaccid paresis and paralysis without violating sensitivity
with persistent (after 2 months) residual effects
D. Lack of the disease progression
E. Isolation of vaccine strain polio virus and a 4-fold increase of typespecific antibodies
421. What does the decrease of sugar in CSF in case of meningococcal meningitis
point on?
A. The etiology of disease
B. Presence of bacteria in a blood
C. *Protracted course of disease
D. Development of ventriculitis
E. Presence of complications
422. What dose of penicillin is used in meningococcemia treatment in children?
A. *300 thousand units / kg
B. 50 thousand units / kg
C. 100 thousand units / kg
D. 1 million IU / kg
E. 200 thousand units / kg
423. What dose of penicillin is used in meningococcemia treatment in children?
A. *400 thousand units / kg
B. 150 thousand units / kg
C. 100 thousand units / kg
D. 600 thousand units / kg
E. 200 thousand units / kg
424. What dose of prednisolone is entered at Meningococcemia without the sings
of infectious-toxic shock?
A. *5 mg/kg
B. 10 mg/kg
C.
D.
E.
15 mg/ kg
20 mg/kg
25 mg/kg
425. What dose of prednisolone is entered at Meningococcemia with the sings of
infectious-toxic shock?
A. *10 - 20 mg/kg
B. 5 - 10 mg/kg
C. 15 - 20 mg/kg
D. 20 - 25 mg/kg
E. 2 - 5 mg/kg
426. What epidemiology information confirm the diagnosis of enteroviral
infection
A. *Presence of group diseases or flashes, the sick children have herpangina,
myalgia, and meningitis
B. Presence of group diseases, the sick children have diarrhea, fever,
meningitis
C. Presence of flashes, the sick children have herpangina, carditis, and
diarrhea
D. Presence of group diseases or flashes, the sick children have severe toxic
syndrome, meningitis
E. Presence of periodic flashes, the sick children have herpangina, arthritis,
and diarrhea
427. What from enumerated is not characteristically for purulent meningitis at
infants?
A. Cramps
B. Repeated vomit
C. *Expressed meningeal symptoms
D. Hyperesthesia
E. Bulging of large fontanel
428. What from enumerated is not characteristically for subdural effusion?
A. Hectic temperature
B. Location behind the large fontanel
C. Symptoms of intracranial hypertension
D. *Worsening of CSF indexes
E. All enumerated is incorrect
429. What from this indicates on the «central» origin of vomiting?
A. *Vomits without nausea
B. Vomits, that repeats oneself
C. Vomits which brings facilitation
D. Vomits on a background of a high temperature
E.
Vomits, that is accompanied by head ache
430. What from this is correct?
A. *Enterovirus damage muscles, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and
nervous system
B. Enterovirus damage lungs, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and liver
C. Enterovirus damage muscles, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and
nervous system
D. Enterovirus damage lungs, heart, mucus membrane of intestine and liver
E. Enterovirus damage muscles, heart, bone fabric and lights
431. What from vegetative violations is not typical for tubercular meningitis?
A. Increased sweating
B. The Trousseau’s spots
C. Stable red dermographism
D. *White dermographism
E. Changes of cardiac rhythm
432. What does include prophylactic orthopedic regime for a patient with
poliomyelitis?
A. *bed regime, thermal procedures, dosed massage of the damaged muscles
B. bed regime, physical therapy procedures, massage of the damaged
muscles
C. half bed regime, electro- and thermal procedures, massage of the
damaged muscles
D. half bed regime, electro- and thermal procedures, medical physical
education
E. half bed regime, physical therapy procedures, medical physical education
433. What is the characteristic pose of children who has poliomyelitis?
A. *A symptom of tripods
B. The Lasseg symptom
C. Orthopnoe
D. Pose of ballet-dancer
E. Pose of frog
434. What is the main investigation for laboratory confirmation of
Meningococcal infection?
A. *Selection of agent from nasopharynx, blood, CSF
B. Biochemical analysis of CSF
C. Immunological tests
D. Express methods
E. Latex agglutination of blood
435. What is the main investigation for laboratory confirmation of
Meningococcal meningitis?
A. *CSF culture
B. Biochemical research of CSF
C. Latex agglutination of blood
D. immune-fluorescent method
E. indirect hemagglutination reaction
436. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema?
A. *Violation of consciousness.
B. Hyperthermia.
C. Oliguria.
D. Increased blood pressure.
E. Bulging fontanel.
437. What is the most characteristic sign of brain edema?
A. *Convulsions.
B. Hypothermia.
C. Oliguria.
D. Venous stasis.
E. Bulging fontanel.
438. What is the most typical version of the primary rash in meningococcemia?
A. *Papulous.
B. Erythematous
C. Excoriated.
D. Roseolous.
E. Vesiculous.
439. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia?
A. *Haemorrhagic.
B. Excoriated.
C. Roseolous.
D. Vesicular.
E. Pustular.
440. What is the most typical version of the rash in meningococcemia, typical
form?
A. *Petechial.
B. Erythematous.
C. Bullous.
D. Vesiculous.
E. Pustulous.
441. What is the specific prophylaxis of enteroviral infection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*A specific prophylaxis is absent
Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 1 year.
Vaccination by inactivated cultures in age of 3 and 9 years.
Introduction of specific Ig is conducted in age of 3 months.
Introduction of specific Ig is conducted in age 15 months.
442. What is the way of poliomyelitis virus distribution in the organism of child?
A. *hematogenous
B. transplacental
C. transcutaneal
D. descending
E. ascending
443. What muscles more frequent are damaged at poliomyelitis?
A. *Muscles of lower extremities
B. Muscles of upper extremities
C. Muscles of neck
D. Muscles of face
E. Muscles of thorax and abdomen
444. What parts of the nervous system are the most damaged at poliomyelitis?
A. *Spinal cord
B. Trunk of cerebrum
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Facial nerve
E. Kernels of cranial nerves
445. What medicines are given to children in the focus of enteroviral infection?
A. *Gamma-globulin and interferon for 14-15 days
B. Anaferon for 10 days
C. Antibiotics for 5 days
D. Specific Ig for 3 days
E. Specific antitoxin is injected for the first 2 days
446. What sign is not characteristic for tubercular meningitis?
A. *Acute beginning
B. Presence of prodromal period
C. Fever
D. Head ache
E. Meningeal symptoms
447. What system is the most sensible to the polio-virus?
A. *Nervous system
B. Cardio-vascular system
C. Lymphatic system
D.
E.
Bone-muscular system
System of blood
448. What tissues are the most sensible to action of Meningococcal endotoxin?
A. *endothelium of blood vessels
B. heart
C. suprarenal glands
D. brain
E. cerebellum
449. What type of immunity is formed after poliomyelitis?
A. *stable immunity
B. unsteady immunity
C. typospecific immunity
D. family specific immunity
E. absent immunity
450. What typical features of muscles damage by the virus of poliomyelitis?
A. *Atony, arephlexia, «mosaic» of damaged muscles, atrophy, shakiness of
joints
B. Hypotonia, hyporephlexia, atrophy, tetraparesis, osteoporosis
C. Hypertonia, and hyperrephlexia, «mosaic» of damaged muscles,
osteoporosis
D. Hypertonia, and hyperrephlexia, joints' ankylosis
E. Atony, arephlexia, hemiparesis, deformation of spine
451. What vaccination is done for the prophylaxis of poliomyelitis?
A. *Specific active prophylaxis by the living loosened vaccine
B. Specific active prophylaxis by antitoxin
C. Unspecific active prophylaxis
D. By specific Ig
E. By gamma globulin
452. When vaccination against poliomyelitis is performed?
A. *From 3 months triply with an interval 1 month
B. From 3 months triply with an interval 1 week
C. In 1 year, 3 and 6 years
D. Only by an epidemic testimony
E. It is not conducted
453. Which prevention is crucial in the eradication of polio?
A. *Routine vaccination not less than 96 percent of inhabitants
B. Observation of contact at the source of infection for three weeks
C. The current and final disinfection in the focus
D. Emergency vaccination of those who were not vaccinated before
E.
Emergency introduction of the donor immunoglobulin to all contacts
454. Which statement about the rash in enterovirus infection is wrong?
A. *Leaves pigmentation and scaling
B. Pink, small maculous-papulous and pin-point
C. A skin background is not changed
D. Appears simultaneously on the face and trunk
E. It is saved for a few days
455. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of
meningococcemia treatment?
A. *Chloramphenicol succinate.
B. Cephalosporin Antibiotics.
C. Diphenhydramine.
D. Dicarboxylic.
E. Penicillin.
456. Which of the following drugs should be used on prehospital stage of
meningococcemia treatment?
A. *Prednisolone.
B. Diphenhydramine.
C. Dicarboxylic.
D. Penicillin.
E. Verospiron
457. Which of the following is not characteristic for enteroviral meningitis?
A. It starts badly with a severe headache, vomiting, hyperthermia
B. Meningitis symptoms usually persist up to 5 days
C. *In the cerebrospinal fluid: cytosis is mixed as lymphocytic, neutrophilic
character; sugar and protein is not elevated
D. Sanation of CSF occurs at 3-4th week of illness
E. Often, meningeal syndrome is weak or incomplete
458. Which symptom is not typical for neurotoxicosis?
A. *Sunken fontanel.
B. Convulsions.
C. Violation of consciousness.
D. Hyperthermia.
E. Acrocyanosis.
459. Which symptom is not typical for neurotoxicosis?
A. *Sunken fontanel.
B. Hyperthermia.
C. Acrocyanosis.
D. Oliguria.
E.
Hyperpnoe.
460. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome?
A. *Poliomyelitis.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Adenovirus infection.
D. Rhinovirus infection.
E. Respiratory syncitial infection
461. Which viral infections are characterized by meningeal syndrome?
A. *Herpesvius infection.
B. Respiratory syncitial infection
C. Adenovirus infection.
D. Rotavirus infection
E. Reovirus infection
462. Who is the source of infection at poliomyelitis?
A. *Patients with poliomyelitis and virus carriers
B. Only patients with poliomyelitis
C. Patients with poliomyelitis and virus carriers
D. Polio people and animals
E. Patients with poliomyelitis and reconvalescents
463. Choose the most likely indicators of CSF in case of Polio.
A. *Transparent, cell count is 100 cells, 80% lymphocytes, protein is 0.45
g/l
B. Turbid, milky, cell count is 1200, 92% neutrophils, protein is 1.2 g/l
C. Transparent, yellowish, cell count 200, lymphocytes 72%, glucose 1.2
mmol/l
D. Red, cell count is 150 (erythrocytes)
E. Transparent, cell count is 5, 100% lymphocytes, protein 0.045 g/l
464. Choose the most likely indicators of CSF in case of Enterovirus infection.
A. *mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation
B. changes are not characteristic (indicators are standard)
C. marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation
D. the neutrophilic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation
E. moderate neutrophilic pleocytosis, protein and cell dissociation
465. Which study will confirm Enterovirus infection in its’ early stage?
A. *the virusological swab from the pharynx by ELISA
B. serological method of paired sera
C. bacteriological smear from the oropharynx
D. detection of specific antibodies (Ig G) for enterovirus
E. blood smear (thick film)
466. For the specific prophylaxis of influenza is used:
A.
antitoxin
B.
*living or killed vaccines
C.
associated vaccines
D.
anti-influenza serum
E.
interferon
467. A typical inspection sign in a patient with lobar pneumonia is:
A.
*color, usually on the side of lesion
B.
jaundiced skin
C.
butterfly rash
D.
gray color
E.
everything is correct
468. A typical percussion sign of acute bronchitis is:
A.
*clear lung sound, often with bandbox
B.
clear lung sound
C.
shortening of pulmonary sound in the lower parts of the lungs
D.
shortening of the lung sound all over the lungs
E.
everything is correct
469. Acute stenotic laryngotracheobronchitis of the 1st degree - is:
A.
*compensated croup
B.
subcompensated croup
C.
decompensated croup
D.
asphyxia
E.
everything is correct
470. What antigens do the flu viruses have?
A.
Н- and О-antigens
B.
only О antigen
C.
S antigen
D.
Vi antigen
E.
*S- and Vi- antigens
471. What reaction is it better to use for establishment of influenza virus' type?
A.
hemagglutination braking reaction
B.
hemadsorption braking reaction
C.
immunofluorescense reaction
D.
*complement binding reaction
E.
neutralization reaction on the culture of cells
472. Among the viruses that cause croup, the first place has:
A.
*Parainfluenza virus
B.
C.
D.
E.
Adenovirus
Influenza virus
RS- virus
Everything is wrong
473. An influenza is passed by such way:
A.
air-dust.
B.
*air-droplet.
C.
contact.
D.
through a crockery.
E.
through the articles of common use.
474. What catarrhal sign is the most probable in respiratory-syncitial infection?
A.
rhinitis.
B.
pharyngitis.
C.
laryngitis.
D.
bronchitis.
E.
*bronchiolitis.
475. What environments can be used for the selection of adenovirus?
A.
Blood, spinal fluid, urine.
B.
Blood, urine, feces.
C.
*Nasopharyngeal smears, feces, urine.
D.
Saliva, urine, spinal fluid.
E.
Blood, nasopharyngeal smears, feces.
476. Through what time the repeated case of parainfluenza is possible in one
child?
A.
In a year.
B.
*In few months.
C.
In few weeks.
D.
In few days.
E.
The repeated disease is impossible.
477. What investigation is used for express diagnosis of parainfluenza.
A.
complement binding reaction
B.
Passive hemagglutination reaction
C.
neutralization reaction
D.
*Immune-enzyme analysis
E.
Polymerase chain reaction
478. Interferon is the important factor of protection against viral infections. How
does it act?
A.
It is present in the serum of healthy person, acting part of supervision
after viruses
B.
C.
D.
E.
It covers viral particles and blocks their attachment to the cells
It protects the infected cells, which produce it, from death
It lyses infected cells
*It induces the synthesis of one or a few cellular proteins which depress
the translation or transcription of virus
479. At RS-infection the maximal pathological changes are localized in:
A.
Nasopharynx
B.
Pharynx.
C.
Larynx.
D.
Trachea.
E.
*Small and middle bronchi.
480. The source of adenoviral infection is:
A.
Patients with the typical and atypical forms of adenoviral infection.
B.
People and birds with adenoviral infection.
C.
*Patients with adenoviral infection and transmitters of adenovirus.
D.
People and small mammals with adenoviral infection.
E.
People and animals with adenoviral infection.
481. Blood oxygen saturation more than 90% is typical for:
A.
*Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree.
B.
Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree.
C.
Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree.
D.
Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree.
E.
everything is wrong
482. Bradipnoe is characteristic for:
A.
*Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree.
B.
Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree.
C.
Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree.
D.
Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree.
E.
everything is correct
483. Clinical analysis of blood in patients with acute bronchitis are:
A.
*leukopenia, lymphocytosis
B.
significant leukopenia
C.
moderate leucocytosis, anemia
D.
significant leucocytosis, accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
E.
everything is wrong
484. Duration of acute pneumonia is:
A.
*to 8 - weeks
B.
to 6 - weeks
C.
to 10 - weeks
D.
E.
to 12 - weeks
up to 3 months
485. Enumerate diseases, what are necessary to differentiate with flu first of all:
A.
escherichiosis;
B.
chicken-pox;
C.
*meningococcal infection;
D.
rhinoviral infection;
E.
rotaviral infection.
486. What is the source of infection at parainfluenza?
A.
*Patient with parainfluenza.
B.
Patient with parainfluenza and carrier.
C.
People and animals sick with parainfluenza.
D.
Sick animals and birds.
E.
Sick people and birds.
487. Etiotropic therapy of viral infection in the acute bronchitis is more effective
when it is given:
A.
*in the first 2 days of illness
B.
no effective
C.
for 5-7 days
D.
throughout the disease
E.
everything is correct
488. For the specific prophylaxis of influenza is used:
A.
remantadin.
B.
antibiotics.
C.
chemotherapy.
D.
*vaccines.
E.
influenza immuneglobulin.
489. How long does immunity to the influenza A Н1N1 last?
A.
14 - 21 day
B.
1 - 2 months
C.
*1 - 2 years
D.
3 - 5 years
E.
during all the life
490. How long does immunity to the influenza С last?
A.
*during all the life
B.
3 - 5 years
C.
1 - 2 years
D.
2 - 4 weeks
E.
10 - 21 day
491. How long will last the immunity to the influenza B virus?
A.
14 - 21 day
B.
1 - 2 months
C.
1 - 2 years
D.
*3 - 5 years
E.
during all the life
492. How many times must the titre of antibodies with paired sera grow, to prove
the previous result?
A.
2 times
B.
2.5 times
C.
3 times
D.
3.5 times
E.
*4 times and more
493. What serological method could be used for influenza diagnostic?
A.
*Braked hemagglutination reaction
B.
Binding complement reaction
C.
Indirect hemagglutination reaction
D.
Neutralization reaction
E.
Direct hemagglutination reaction
494. The type of influenza virus could be determined by:
A.
agglutination reaction
B.
indirect hemagglutination reaction
C.
precipitation reaction
D.
*complement binding reaction
E.
hemagglutination reaction
495. In acute obstructive bronchitis, auscultation reveals:
A.
*dry rales, medium bubbling rales on inspiration, expiration is
lengthened
B.
weakened breathing
C.
prolonged expiration
D.
small bubbling rales diffusely
E.
everything is correct
496. In the treatment of acute bronchitis postural drainage is better to use:
A.
*after awakening
B.
after breakfast
C.
in the afternoon
D.
at bedtime
E.
everything is wrong
497. In what age group bronchitis is more frequent?
A.
*preschoolers
B.
infants
C.
newborns
D.
toddlers
E.
everything is correct
498. What medicine has etiological action on the flu virus:
A.
cocarboxylasa;
B.
interferon;
C.
ascorutin;
D.
*rhemantadin;
E.
DNA-asum.
499. Indicate the criteria of the compensated croup:
A.
*dyspnea occurs at the physical exertion
B.
aphonia;
C.
subnormal body temperature;
D.
stable tachycardia, arrhythmia;
E.
perioral cyanosis.
500. Indicate the criteria of the subcompensated croup:
A.
dyspnea at the physical exertion;
B.
*tachycardia, fall of pulse wave on inspiration;
C.
absence of intercostal spaces frictions;
D.
skin pallor;
E.
high body temperature
501. Indicate the main clinical features of flu in infants:
A.
subfebrile body temperature
B.
croup syndrome;
C.
*hyperthermia;
D.
heart damage;
E.
expressed catarrhal signs.
502. A community-acquired pneumonia in children from 6 months to 6 years is
mostly caused by:
A.
*Pneumococcus
B.
Mycoplasma
C.
Chlamydia
D.
Staphylococcus
E.
E.coli
503. Viral croup is mostly developed:
A.
*at night
B.
C.
D.
E.
in the afternoon
in the evening
in the morning
everything is correct
504. Name a leading syndrome at patients with the RS-infection (for children of
early age):
A.
Toxic.
B.
Catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract.
C.
*Obstructive.
D.
Asthenia.
E.
Dyspepsia.
505. Name favorable conditions for massive flu distribution:
A.
steady typospecific immunity;
B.
long latent period;
C.
*droplet mechanism of transmission;
D.
low receptivity to the flu
E.
electoral receptivity to the flu
506. Name indications to administer antibiotics in case of the false croup:
A.
concomitant catarrhal syndrome;
B.
*stenosis of the ІІІ-ІV degree;
C.
high fever;
D.
for the prophylaxis of bacterial complications
E.
antibiotic is not appointed.
507. Name the flu main signs
A.
*expressed intoxication syndrome with the CNS, cardio-vascular system
damage;
B.
low fever;
C.
expressed catarrhal symptom;
D.
laryngitis;
E.
obstructive bronchitis.
508. Name the main route of infection penetration in pneumonia:
A.
*bronchogenous
B.
hematogenous
C.
lymphogenous
D.
mixed
E.
everything is correct
509. Name the most common cause of bronchitis.
A.
*viruses
B.
fungi
C.
D.
E.
bacteria
vermin
everything is correct
510. Neuraminidase activity is absent in:
A.
Virus of influenza A
B.
Virus of influenza B
C.
*Virus of influenza С
D.
All of these viruses
E.
None of these viruses
511. Instable perioral cyanosis is characteristic for:
A.
*Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree.
B.
Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree.
C.
Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree.
D.
Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree.
E.
everything is wrong
512. Obstructive respiratory failure is caused by:
A.
*development of the respiratory tract mucous edema
B.
alveolar lesion
C.
violation of the breathing neuromuscular control
D.
capillary pulmonary circulation lesion
E.
everything is correct
513. Parenchymatous respiratory failure is caused by:
A.
*lesion of the alveoli and capillary pulmonary circulation
B.
changes in respiratory muscle
C.
compression of the airway from the outside
D.
impairment of the respiratory center
E.
everything is correct
514. Pneumococcus is completely resistant to:
A.
*aminoglycosides
B.
penicillins
C.
macrolides
D.
cephalosporins
E.
fluoroquinolones
515. Radiological signs of acute bronchitis are:
A.
*symmetrical intensification of lung pattern
B.
symmetrical attenuation of lung pattern
C.
symmetrical intensification of lung pattern with small focal hilar
infiltration
D.
E.
symmetrical intensification of lung pattern in hilar and lower medial
zones
everything is wrong
516. Rhinoviruses belong to the family of:
A.
paramyxoviruses.
B.
*picornaviruses.
C.
poxviruses.
D.
orthomyxoviruses.
E.
adenoviruses.
517. Rhinoviruses cause at people:
A.
*common cold
B.
obstructive bronchitis
C.
bronchiolitis
D.
pneumonia
E.
tracheitis
518. RS-infection often causes bronchiolitis in:
A.
*infants
B.
preschoolers
C.
toddlers
D.
adolescents
E.
everything is correct
519. Shortening of the percussion sounds in infants with focal pneumonia occurs:
A.
*in 5 - 10 days of illness
B.
in 3 - 5 days of illness
C.
in the first day of illness
D.
in 10 - 15 days of illness
E.
in 2 - 3 day of illness
520. Staphylococcal pneumonia develops mainly in:
A.
*schoolchildren
B.
adolescents
C.
preschoolers
D.
infants
E.
everything is correct
521. The absence of respiratory sounds during inspiration is characteristic for:
A.
*Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree.
B.
Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree.
C.
Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree.
D.
Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree.
E.
everything is correct
522. How long bed regimen must be prescribed in case of influenza, severe
degree?
A.
3 days
B.
5 days
C.
*7 days
D.
14 days
E.
18 days
523. The characteristic auscultation sign of acute bronchitis is:
A.
*harsh breathing
B.
weakened vesicular breathing
C.
puerile breathing
D.
everything is wrong
E.
everything is correct
524. What etiothropic medicine should be used for infant that has severe
influenza?
A.
Rhemantadine
B.
Amantadine
C.
Interferon
D.
Laferon
E.
*Influenza immune globulin
525. To what day of the disease RS-virus could be found in the organism?
A.
Till 5th day from the disease beginning
B.
Till 10th day from the disease beginning
C.
*Till 17th day from the disease beginning
D.
Till 28th day from the disease beginning
E.
Till 2 month from the disease beginning
526. The drugs of choice for typical community-acquired pneumonia are:
A.
*amino penicillins
B.
carbapenems
C.
fluoroquinolones
D.
aminoglycosides
E.
preparations of other groups
527. The effectiveness of expectorants in acute bronchitis depends on:
A.
*sufficient drinking
B.
appointment of antiviral drugs
C.
appointment of antihistamines
D.
appointment of vitamins
E.
everything is correct
528. The etiology of pneumonia is dominated by:
A.
*pneumococcus
B.
klebsiella
C.
pathogenic fungi
D.
staphylococci
E.
viruses
529. The hospital pneumonia is that pneumonia which developed:
A.
*within 48 hours of hospitalization
B.
within 12 hours of hospitalization
C.
within 24 hours of hospitalization
D.
within 6 hours of hospitalization
E.
everything is correct
530. The main cause of croup is:
A.
*viral infections
B.
bacterial infections
C.
fungal infections
D.
parasitic lesions
E.
everything is correct
531. The main symptoms of acute bronchitis are:
A.
*cough
B.
sore throat
C.
running nose
D.
dyspnea
E.
everything is wrong
532. What is the parainfluenza latent period?
A.
1-2 days.
B.
*2-7 days.
C.
3-4 days.
D.
4-7 days.
E.
7-10 days.
533. The reservoir of influenza is:
A.
birds.
B.
cattle.
C.
man that had influenza.
D.
*sick man.
E.
vaccinated by a living vaccine.
534. What medicine is inadvisable to use for rheoviral infection treatment?
A.
Laferon
B.
nasal drops
C.
D.
E.
Paracethamol
*Tetracycline
Ascorbic acid
535. The early methods of influenza diagnostic determine:
A.
presence of antibodies against the viruses of influenza
B.
growth of antibodies titre in the patient's serum
C.
toxins of viruses
D.
*presence of viruses
E.
All answers are correct
536. The early methods of influenza diagnostic determine:
A.
presence of antibodies
B.
*family and variety of viruses
C.
toxin production
D.
growth of antibodies titre in the patient's serum
E.
All answers are correct
537. To the late methods of laboratory diagnostics of influenza belongs:
A.
neutralization reaction, colored test
B.
hemagglutination reaction with paired sera
C.
*complement binding reaction with paired sera
D.
hemadsorption reaction
E.
indirect hemagglutination reaction, hemagglutination braking reaction
538. What living system is better to use for the influenza virus selection?
A.
*chicken embryos
B.
culture of the НеLа cells
C.
culture of monkey's embryo kidneys cells
D.
white mice
E.
guinea-pigs
539. What material for virology research does it follow to take for influenza
confirmation?
A.
*smears from nasopharynx
B.
sputum
C.
Blood
D.
Urine
E.
Feces
540. For the respiratory failure treatment oxygen is used, its concentration must
not exceed:
A.
*60%
B.
80%
C.
70%
D.
E.
90%
everything is correct
541. Typical radiological sign of pneumonia is:
A.
*the presence of infiltrative shadows
B.
increased lung pattern
C.
emphysematous lung distension
D.
expansion of the lungs' roots
E.
everything is correct
542. Typical physical data for pneumonia are:
A.
weakened breathing
B.
*local fine moist rales
C.
diffuse small moist rales
D.
diffuse dry wheezing
E.
everything is correct
543. Value of pulse and respiration 2 - 1.5: 1 is characteristic to:
A.
Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree.
B.
Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree.
C.
*Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree.
D.
Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree.
E.
everything is wrong
544. Value of pulse to the breathing 3,0 - 2,5: 1 is characteristic for:
A.
Respiratory insufficiency 2 degree.
B.
*Respiratory insufficiency 1 degree.
C.
Respiratory insufficiency 0 degree.
D.
Respiratory insufficiency 3 degree.
E.
everything is correct
545. Ventilator respiratory failure is caused by:
A.
*violation of the breathing neuromuscular control
B.
the presence of bronchospasm
C.
aspirated foreign body
D.
inflammatory lung diseases
E.
everything is correct
546. Ventilator - associated pneumonia up to four days stay on the ventilator,
usually is caused by:
A.
*Pneumococcus
B.
Enterobacteria
C.
Streptococci
D.
Klebsiella
E.
everything is wrong
547. What age category of children is the most vulnerable to parainfluenza?
A.
*Children of the first two years of life.
B.
Under-fives.
C.
Children of junior school age.
D.
Schoolboys.
E.
Teenagers.
548. What are the main signs of adenoviral infection?
A.
laryngitis;
B.
*conjunctivitis;
C.
predominance of intoxication by the catarrhal phenomena;
D.
subfebrile temperature;
E.
bronchiolitis.
549. What are the main signs of rhinoviral infection?
A.
fever;
B.
tracheitis;
C.
*severe rhinitis;
D.
obstructive bronchitis;
E.
bronchiolitis.
550. When is it necessary to prescribe antibacterial therapy in case of URT viral
infection?
A.
to the children which are bottle feed;
B.
to the children with the malnutrition, rickets;
C.
to the children of the first two years of life;
D.
*at presence of bacterial complications
E.
for the prophylaxis of bacterial complications
551. What dose of aminophylline (euphylline) is used for intraorganic
electrophoresis?
A.
*5 - 7 mg / kg
B.
3 - 5 mg / kg
C.
2 - 3 mg / kg
D.
10- 12 mg / kg
E.
15 - 20 mg / kg
552. What from the next anti-influenza vaccines stimulate the IgA synthesis in
children?
A.
inactivated vaccine
B.
*Living attenuated vaccine
C.
Both
D.
None of adopted
E.
All enumerated
553. What from the next medicine is possible to use for an influenza A
chemoprophylaxis at children?
A.
*Rhemantadine
B.
Acyclovir
C.
5-fluorocytosine
D.
None of them
E.
All enumerated
554. What immunity will be formed in most patients after the RS-infection?
A.
stabile antitoxic.
B.
stabile antimicrobial.
C.
long life specific.
D.
*unstable specific.
E.
extremely short.
555. What is the average duration of the flu latent period?
A.
*a few hours - 1-2 days;
B.
a few hours - 3-5 days;
C.
2-6 days;
D.
7-10 days;
E.
10-14 days.
556. What is the dose of semisynthetic penicillins in children with mild
pneumonia?
A.
*50 - 80 mg / kg / day
B.
30 - 50 mg / kg / day
C.
80 - 100 mg / kg per day
D.
100 - 150 mg / kg / day
E.
150 - 200 mg / kg / day
557. What is the dose of semisynthetic penicillins in children with moderate
pneumonia?
A.
*80 - 100 mg / kg / day
B.
50 - 80 mg / kg / day
C.
30 - 50 mg / kg / day
D.
100 - 150 mg / kg / day
E.
150 - 200 mg / kg / day
558. What is the dose of semisynthetic penicillins in children with severe
pneumonia?
A.
*100 - 150 mg / kg / day
B.
50 - 80 mg / kg / day
C.
80 - 100 mg / kg / day
D.
30 - 50 mg / kg / day
E.
150 - 200 mg / kg / day
559. What is the duration of antibacterial therapy in children with mild
pneumonia?
A.
*7 - 10 days
B.
3 - 5 days
C.
5 - 7 days
D.
10 - 14 days
E.
1 - 3 days
560. What is the duration of antibacterial therapy in children with moderate
pneumonia?
A.
*10 - 14 days
B.
7 - 10 days
C.
5 - 7 days
D.
14 - 20 days
E.
20 - 25 days
561. What is the duration of antibacterial therapy in children with severe
pneumonia?
A.
*14 - 21 days
B.
10- 14 days
C.
7- 10 days
D.
21 - 28 days
E.
everything is correct
562. What is the most common cause of necrotizing (destructive) pneumonia:
A.
*staphylococcus
B.
pneumococcus
C.
klebsiella
D.
proteus
E.
everything is correct
563. What is the most effective route of antibacterial drugs administration in
patients with respiratory pathology?
A.
*intraorganic electrophoresis
B.
intravenous
C.
endobronchial
D.
intramuscular
E.
everything is wrong
564. What is the most often respiratory failure severity in acute bronchitis?
A.
*0 degree
B.
1st degree
C.
2nd degree
D.
E.
3rd degree
everything is correct
565. What is the requirement to inhalator antibiotics, which are used for children
with bronchopulmonary pathology?
A.
*good dissolving in water
B.
minimal sensitization of children
C.
wide spectrum of activity
D.
selective effect on Gram-positive flora
E.
everything is wrong
566. What is the typical X-ray sign in the necrotizing (destructive) pneumonia in
case of abscess formation?
A.
*the appearance of a round high degree infiltration with the level of
liquid on the base of the lung infiltration
B.
the appearance of a round air formations on the base of the lung
infiltration
C.
parietal and sinuses infiltration near the pulmonary infiltration
D.
homogeneous total infiltration
E.
displacement of the mediastinal organs to the opposite
567. What percussion data are characteristic for the focal pneumonia?
A.
bandbox sound over the entire surface of the lungs
B.
*clear lung sounds over the entire surface of the lungs
C.
shortening of the percussion sounds at an angle of scapula
D.
shortening percussion sound in axillar region
E.
everything is correct
568. What protein above all things helps the influenza virus attachment to the
sensible epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract?
A.
*hemagglutinin
B.
neuraminidase
C.
Matrix protein
D.
nucleoprotein
E.
protein of confluence
569. What syndrome is a leading one in the clinical picture of flu?
A.
respiratory insufficiency;
B.
meningeal;
C.
catarrhal;
D.
*intoxication;
E.
dyspepsia;
570. What body temperature is in case of mild flu?
A.
36.6-37 °C ;
B.
C.
D.
E.
*36.6-38 °C ;
38-39 °C;
39-40 °C.
40-41 °C
571. What body temperature is in case of moderate flu?
A.
36.6-38 °C;
B.
*38-39 °C;
C.
39-40 °C;
D.
40-41 °C.
E.
41-42 °C
572. What body temperature is in case of severe flu?
A.
36.6-38 °C;
B.
38-39 °C;
C.
38.5-39 °C;
D.
*39-41 °C.
E.
41-42 °C
573. What does the inspection reveal in patient with lobar pneumonia:
A. *"sick" part of the chest lag in the breathing
B. synchronous movement of both chest parts
C. "healthy" part of the chest lag in the breathing
D. spasmodic twitching of hands and feet
E. everything is wrong
574. What type of oxygen therapy is the best for the child with Respiratory
insufficiency 3 degree?
A. *the flow of oxygen through the endotracheal tube
B. the flow of oxygen in an oxygen tent
C. flow of oxygen through the intranasal catheter
D. the flow of oxygen through the oxygen bag
E. everything is wrong
575. What type of oxygen therapy is the best for the child with Respiratory
insufficiency 2 degree?
A. *the flow of oxygen in an oxygen tent
B. the flow of oxygen through the oxygen bag
C. flow of oxygen through the intranasal catheter
D. the flow of oxygen through the endotracheal tube
E. everything is wrong
576. What type of pneumonia develops more often in infants?
A. *focal
B. croupose
C.
D.
E.
interstitial
segmentary
lobar
577. What vaccine for the influenza prophylaxis is the most effective?
A. living one from high-virulent viruses
B. living one from attenuated viruses
C. killed with complete virion
D. *sub unit
E. from split virion
578. What is the duration of shigellosis incubation period?
A. *a few hours -7 days;
B. 1-3 days;
C. 1-5 days;
D. 1-10 days;
E. 5-30 days.
579. What part of large intestine is damaged at shigellosis?
A. blind and ascending colon
B. ascending and transversal colon;
C. transversal and descending colon;
D. descending and sigmoid colon;
E. *sigmoid colon and rectum
580. What course of dysentery if it lasts for 4 weeks?
A. Protracted
B. *Acute
C. Chronic continuous
D. Chronic relapsing
E. Protracted carrying
581. What is the duration of dysentery Sonnei treatment by furazolidone?
A. 3 days.
B. 5 days.
C. 7 days.
D. *10 days.
E. 14 days.
582. What type of immunity will develop after an acute dysentery?
A. *Short type specific.
B. Prolonged specific.
C. Prolonged type specific.
D. Short nonspecific.
E. Prolonged nonspecific.
583. What does play the main role in pathogenesis of dysentery chronization?
A. endotoxin component.
B. Infectious dose of agent.
C. bacteremia.
D. *Lowering of immunological reactivity.
E. Allergic component.
584. What course of the shigellosis is typical for the children of early age?
A. *Protracted with slow reparation of intestine.
B. mild with minimum expressed toxic syndrome.
C. Moderate with predominance of colitis syndrome.
D. Not sever, but complicated by vaginitis.
E. With the brief damage of intestine.
585. When the duration of dysentery is chronic?
A. The disease lasts till 3 weeks.
B. The disease lasts till 1 month.
C. The disease lasts from 1.5 till 3 months.
D. The disease lasts till 3 months.
E. *The disease lasts more than 3 months.
586. Till what time the duration of dysentery will be noted as protracted?
A. Till 1 month.
B. Till 3 weeks.
C. *From 1.5 to 3 months.
D. Till 3 months.
E. More than 3 months.
587. How long the duration of dysentery is noted as an acute?
A. till 3 weeks.
B. *till 1 month.
C. from 1.5 till 3 months.
D. till 3 months.
E. More than 3 months.
588. Indicate, that will influence on dysentery severity and duration of incubation
period.
A. Secretion of toxins.
B. Presence of bacteremia.
C. Infectious phase.
D. *Way of infection.
E. Age of the child.
589. Choose the most expedient treatment for an acute dysentery, mild degree in
preschooler?
A. ciprofloxacin
B. ceftriaxon
C. *bacteriophage
D. probiotics
E. intestinal enzymes
590. What phases of typhoid fever pathogenesis develop in its latent period?
A. bacteremia
B. septicemia
C. parenchyma diffusion
D. allergic
E. *digestive, invasion
591. What week of illness in case of the typhoid fever intoxication appear?
A. on 1st
B. *on 2nd
C. on 3rd
D. on 4th
E. on 5th
592. Where in the organism the S.typhi will store longer?
A. in spleen
B. in kidneys
C. *in goal bladder
D. in duodenum
E. in liver
593. The agent of typhoid fever is:
A. Salmonella enterica serovar paratyphi.
B. Salmonella enterica serovar charity.
C. Salmonella enterica serovar schotmuelleri.
D. *Salmonella enterica serovar typhi.
E. Salmonella enterica serovar anatum.
594. Indicate the terms of final negative answer at hemoculture test?
A. On 2nd day
B. On 5th day
C. On 6th day
D. On 8th day
E. *On 11th day
595. What is the evidence to do hemoculture test on typhoid agent?
A. *With the purpose of early diagnostics
B.
C.
D.
E.
With the purpose of prophylaxis
With the purpose of atypical forms of agent diagnostic
For the serological diagnostic
With the purpose of determination of source of infection
596. Hemoculture test is expedient for confirmation of typhoid fever because on
the first week of disease is observed:
A. toxemia.
B. *bacteremia
C. septicemia
D. septicopyemia
E. viremia
597. What terms does Salmonella typhi appear in the urine of patients?
A. Does not present in the urine
B. *In the end of the first up to the beginning of the second week
C. In the end of the second up to the beginning of the third week
D. on the third week of the disease
E. on the fourth week of the disease
598. Choose from enumerated a virus which most often causes watery diarrhea
without blood in child’s age:
A. Coхakie virus
B. *rotavirus
C. poliovirus
D. rhinovirus
E. echovirus
599. The main reason of diarrhea at rotaviral infection is:
A. Damage of the intestinal epithelium
B. *increased concentration of sugar in the small intestine
C. increased concentration of electrolytes in the small intestine
D. intracellular presence of virus
E. Activating of adenylatcyclase
600. Agent of viral hepatitis A belongs to:
A. *enterovirus
B. orthomyxovirus
C. picornavirus
D. adenovirus
E. retrovirus
601. Name the disease that is caused by enteropathogenic E.coli?
A. Intestinal yersiniosis
B. Rheumatism
C.
D.
E.
*Intestinal Escherichiosis
Scarlet fever
Shigellosis
602. What methods of laboratory diagnostics can be used for confirmation of
Rotaviral gastroenteritis?
A. indirect hemagglutination reaction
B. method of molecular hybridization
C. method of immune electronic microscopy
D. *immune enzyme analysis
E. All answers are correct
603. Which early laboratory test will prove the etiology of an acute intestinal
infection?
A. Serological
B. Biological
C. Allergic
D. Microscopic
E. *Bacteriological
604. What test is it necessary to do for diagnostics of entheric escherichiosis?
A. *Bacteriological
B. Serological
C. Biological
D. Allergic
E. Microscopic
605. Choose the optimal etiological medicine for severe acute dysentery.
A. *cephalosporins of 3rd generation.
B. nithrofurans.
C. trimetoprim/sulfomethoxasolum.
D. nalydixic acid.
E. aminoglycosides of 2nd generation.
606. Indicate the leading clinical syndrome of dysentery at the children of senior
age:
A. atonic
B. respirator
C. dyspepsia
D. cardio-vascular
E. *distal colitis
607. Which complication is the most frequent at shigellosis?
A. Meningitis.
B. Encephalitis.
C.
D.
E.
Hepatitis.
Nephrite.
*prolapsed rectum.
608. What serovar of Shigella is the most probably cause of food toxic infection?
A. Sh. Flexneri.
B. *Sh. Sonnei.
C. Sh. Boydii.
D. Sh. Dysenteriaе.
E. Аntamоeba histolytica.
609. Choose the most optimum etiologic medicine for typical form of acute
dysentery, moderate degree in preschooler.
A. ampicillin.
B. ceftriaxon.
C. *nithrofurans.
D. gentamicin.
E. ofloxacin.
610. Indicate the mechanism of bacterial dysentery transmission:
A. by food
B. by water
C. *fecal-oral
D. contact-domestic
E. air-droplet
611. Name the Shigella dysenteriae property.
A. *Immobile bacilli.
B. is sensitive to low temperatures.
C. Secrets exotoxin.
D. gram-positive cocci.
E. Forms capsule.
612. What pathogenetical changes are the first in case of shigellosis?
A. Intestinal dysbiosis.
B. Dysfunction of bowels.
C. Formation of hemorrhages.
D. *Damage of colon epiteliocytes.
E. Damage of the vegetative nervous system.
613. What serovar of Shigella is the most pathogenic?
A. Shtutser-Shmits;
B. Larg-Sax;
C. Newcastle;
D. *Grigor’ev-Shiga;
E.
Flexner.
614. What is recommended as a basic treatment for mild Shigellosis in
adolescent?
A. fluoroquinolones
B. pancreatic enzymes
C. *probiotics
D. aminoglycosides
E. cephalosporins
615. Indicate the day from the disease beginning, when it is better to do
bacteriological test of feces in case of escherichiosis:
A. 7th day
B. 5th day
C. 3rd day
D. 2nd day
E. *1st day
616. What diseases, with the most probability, can be caused by enterotoxigenic
E.coli?
A. *cholera-like
B. Dysentery-like
C. Infections of urinary tract
D. Peritonitis
E. Toxic shock
617. At what form of viral hepatitis A is it need to give corticosteroids?
A. Mild form
B. Moderate with the signs of cholestasis
C. Severe form
D. *Fulminant form
E. A right answer is not present
618. Atypical viral hepatitis A forms are:
A. *notjaundice, effaced, subclinical
B. fulminant, hypertoxic, effaced
C. asymptomatic, hemorrhagic, notjaundice
D. generalized, effaced, asymptomatic
E. There is no right answer
619. Bed regime at viral hepatitis A lasts:
A. 3-4 days
B. 1 week
C. *2-3 weeks
D. 1 month
E.
Is not need
620. Clinical periods of hepatitis A:
A. Catarrhal, jaundice, restoration
B. Cholestatic, catarrhal, recovery
C. *Pre-jaundice, jaundice, recovery
D. Catarrhal, height, remaining phenomena
E. There is no right answer
621. Complications of what intestinal infection are: intestinal bleeding,
perforation of the rectum, and rectal prolapse, anal fissures and gaping?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Typhoid fever
C. Yersiniosis
D. *Shigellosis
E. Cholera
622. Describe sensitivity of hepatitis B virus to the terms of external environment.
A. *stable to boiling during 30 min, ether, formalin
B. Quickly perishes at high temperatures
C. Sensible to disinfectant solutions (alcohol, ether, formalin)
D. stable to freezing and drying
E. Quickly perishes at boiling, stable to ether, formalin
623. Protracted hepatitis B is diagnosed if its duration is:
A. 2-4 months
B. *3-6 months
C. 6-9 months
D. 6-12 months
E. 9-12 months
624. For the acute hepatitis B the following clinical periods are typical:
A. Incubation, prodromal, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery
B. *prodromal, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery
C. Catarrhal, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery
D. Incubation, jaundice, postjaundice, recovery
E. Incubation, prodromal, jaundice, recovery
625. What will be the recommend dose of nithrofurans for dysentery treatment?
A. *5-10 mg/kg per day.
B. 2-4 mg/kg per day.
C. 15-20 mg/kg per day.
D. 30-50 mg/kg per day.
E. 75-100 mg/kg per day.
626. What serological test will help to identify the bacillus antigen structure?
A. precipitation
B. complement binding
C. neutralization.
D. *agglutination.
E. opsonization
627. Average duration of hepatitis A pre-jaundice period is:
A. *3-5 days
B. 10-12 days
C. 14-20 days
D. 20-30 days
E. 1 month
628. What type of shigella more frequent is transmitted by the contact-domestic
way?
A. Sh. Flexneri.
B. Sh. dysenteriaе Larg-Sax.
C. Sh. boydiі.
D. *Sh. dysenteriaе Grigor'ev-Shiga.
E. Sh. Sonnei.
629. In a pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A differential diagnostic should be
done with:
A. salmonellosis
B. food poisoning
C. shigellosis
D. *URT infection
E. Escherichiosis
630. The source of typhoid fever is:
A. sick man and animal
B. *sick man, carrier
C. ducks
D. domestic animals
E. infected food products, water.
631. In case of hepatitis B infection chronic form develops in:
A. *3-5 %
B. 10-20 %
C. 20-50 %
D. 50-70 %
E. 50-100 %
632. In case of hepatitis С infection chronic form develops in:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2-5 %
10-20 %
*20-50 %
50-70 %
50-100 %
633. What shigella most often has the water-way of transmission?
A. *Sh. Flexneri.
B. Sh. Sonnei
C. Sh. dysenteriaе
D. Sh. boydii
E. Аntamоeba histolytica
634. `Indicate the disease etiology of cholera:
A. DNA-containing virus
B. RNA-containing virus
C. Gram-negative diplococcus
D. *arcuated Gram-negative sticks with a plait
E. stick of a dumbbells-similar shape
635. In typical cases of dysentery at the children of early age emptying are:
A. *Turbid, green, in small amount, with mucus and blood
B. liquid, green with undigested oddments of meal;
C. liquid, green without mucus;
D. liquid, green with mucus;
E. liquid, orange with mucus.
636. Incubation period at viral hepatitis A lasts:
A. 3-7 days
B. 8-10 days
C. 7-14 days
D. 7-21 days
E. *10-45 days
637. Indicate a dose, number and duration of corticosteroids administration at
fulminant hepatitis B.
A. *Prednisolone 10-15 mg/kg daily in 4 equal doses
B. Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily in 2 equal doses for 3-5 days with sharp
abolition
C. Prednisolone 1 mg/kg daily during a month, according to organism's
rhythm, with gradual abolition
D. Prednisolone 5 mg/kg daily for 5 days in a 1 reception
E. Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily, in 4 equal doses for 7-10 days;
638. Indicate a dose, number and duration of corticosteroids administration at
severe hepatitis B.
A. Prednisolone 10-15 mg/kg daily in 4 equal doses
B. Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily in 2 equal doses for 3-5 days with sharp
abolition
C. Prednisolone 1 mg/kg daily during a month, according to organism's
rhythm, with gradual abolition
D. Prednisolone 5 mg/kg daily for 5 days in a 1 reception
E. *Prednisolone 2-3 mg/kg daily, in 4 equal doses for 7-10 days;
639. Jaundice at viral hepatitis A lasts:
A. 3-5 days
B. 8-10 days
C. *10-12 days
D. 7-14 days
E. 1 month
640. Lack of body weight in malnutrition of 2nd degree is:
A. Up to 5%
B. 5-10%
C. 11-20%
D. *21-30%
E. Over 30%
641. Level of bilirubin at the viral hepatitis A mild form is:
A. 10-15 mcmol/l
B. *Not higher 82 mcmol/l
C. 100-120 mcmol/l
D. 150-200 mcmol/l
E. more than 200 mcmol/l
642. Most epidemiology and clinical value among serological varieties on our
territory have the following types of shigella:
A. Grigor'ev-Shiga;
B. *Sonnei and Flexneri
C. Newcastle and Larg-Sax;
D. Sonnei and Grigor'ev-Shiga;
E. Boydii and Shtutser-Shmits
643. Name clinical diagnostic criteria of hepatitis B jaundice period:
A. hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, maximal activity of hepatic-cellular
enzymes, bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, discoloration of excrements
B. toxic, dyspepsia, catarrhal, astheno-vegetative syndromes, hepatomegaly,
pain syndrome, high activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, presence of
viral antigens in a blood
C.
D.
E.
*jaundice, hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, rashes on a skin, hemorrhagic
syndrome, splenomegaly, discoloration of excrements
High activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs,
presence of viral antigens in a blood
Rashes on a skin, hemorrhagic syndrome, splenomegaly, maximal
activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes
644. Name hepatitis B markers:
A. anti HAV IgМ and anti HAV IgG
B. anti HCV IgМ, viral RNA
C. anti HЕV IgМ, viral RNA
D. anti HВV IgМ and HВV IgG
E. *HBsAg, HbeAg, HbcAg, anti НBе, anti НВс IgM, IgG, viral DNA,
DNA-polymerase
645. Name hepatitis C markers:
A. anti HAV IgМ and anti HAV IgG
B. *anti HCV IgМ, viral RNA
C. anti HЕV IgМ, viral RNA
D. anti HВV IgМ and HВV IgG
E. HBsAg, HbeAg, HbcAg, anti НВс IgM, IgG
646. Name the clinical criteria of the congenital hepatitis B:
A. Presence of prodromal period, unexpressed jaundice, expressed cytolysis
syndrome
B. jaundice increases quickly, catarrhal, dyspepsia syndrome,
C. jaundice is insignificant, satisfactory state, spleen is not enlarged, quick
recovery
D. *jaundice from the first days of life, hepatosplenomegaly, hemorrhagic
syndrome, malaise, severe disease
E. hepatosplenomegaly, delay of intrauterine development
647. Name the diagnostic criteria of hepatitis B incubation period:
A. *High activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs,
presence of viral antigens in a blood
B. toxic, dyspepsia, catarrhal, astheno-vegetative syndromes
C. hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, high activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes
D. bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, discoloration of excrements
E. Maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs,
presence of viral antigens in a blood
648. Name the diagnostic criteria of hepatitis B prejaundice period:
A. Maximal activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs,
presence of viral antigens in a blood
B.
C.
D.
E.
High activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes, absence of clinical signs,
presence of viral antigens in a blood
*toxic, dyspepsia, catarrhal, astheno-vegetative syndromes,
hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, high activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes,
presence of viral antigens in a blood
Rashes on a skin, hemorrhagic syndrome, splenomegaly, maximal
activity of hepatic-cellular enzymes
hepatomegaly, pain syndrome, maximal activity of hepatic-cellular
enzymes, bilirubinuria, urobilinuria, discoloration of excrements
649. Name the laboratory criteria of hepatitis B moderate degree:
A. *bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l) ,
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %, normal sulemic test
B. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %
C. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
D. bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index
less than 60 %, sulemic test is normal
E. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index
60-70 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
650. Name the laboratory criteria of hepatitis С mild severity:
A. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index
60-70 %
B. *bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %
C. bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
D. bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index
less than 60 %, sulemic test is normal
E. bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index
60-70 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
651. Name the laboratory criteria of severe hepatitis B:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %, normal sulemic test
bilirubin up to 85 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 25 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 5-10 times more than norm, prothrombin index
70-80 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
bilirubin 85-200 mcmol/l (indirect is up to 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 10-15 times more than norm, prothrombin index
60-70 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index
less than 60 %, sulemic test is normal
*bilirubin is over 200 mcmol/l (indirect is over 50 mcmol/l),
aminotranspherase level 15-30 times more than norm, prothrombin index
less than 60 %, sulemic test is considerably reduced
652. Name the terms of hepatitis B active prophylaxis according the Ukrainian
vaccination schedule.
A. First 12 hours of life, 1, 3, 5 months
B. *First 12 hours of life, 1, 6 months
C. First 12 hours of life, 1, 6, 12 months
D. 3-5 days, 7, 14 years
E. 3, 4, 5 months, revaccination in 18 months
653. Name the ways of hepatitis B virus transmission.
A. parenteral, transmissive, domestic
B. Food, water, domestic, sexual
C. *parenteral, vertical, sexual, domestic
D. parenteral, transplacental, domestic
E. parenteral, transplacental, transmissive
654. Name the ways of hepatitis C virus transmission.
A. Food, water, domestic, sexual
B. parenteral, transmissive, domestic
C. parenteral, transplacental, domestic
D. *parenteral, vertical, sexual, domestic
E. parenteral, transplacental, transmissive
655. The immunity against Rotaviruses is mainly conditioned by:
A. Ig M and Ig G
B. *Ig A and interferon
C. Ig G and interferon
D. Ig E and interferon
E. Ig D and Ig G
656. The main value in acute intestinal infection verifying has:
A. complete blood test
B. coprological method
C. serological test
D. blood culture
E. *fecal culture
657. The deficit of body weight in 3rd degree malnutrition is:
A. Up to 5%
B. 5-10%
C. 11-20%
D. 21-30%
E. *Over 30%
658. The deficit of body weight in malnutrition of 1st degree is:
A. Up to 5%
B. 5-10%
C. *11-20%
D. 21-30%
E. Over 30%
659. The diagnosis of chronic hepatitis С is established if the disease's duration
is:
A. More than 2 months
B. More than 3 months
C. More than 4 months
D. More than 5 months
E. *More than 6 months
660. The malnutrition degree in infant can be measured by the thickness of skin
fold:
A. *at umbilical level
B. subscapularly
C. on the inner surface of the thigh
D. on the outer surface of the thigh
E. on the outer surface of the shoulder
661. The what is typical for the unicteric form of viral hepatitis A?
A. absence of changes of excrements, urine, bilirubin level
B. Level of aminotranspherase is normal, increase of bilirubin level
C. *the increase of aminotranspherase activity, absence of jaundice
D. jaundice, increase of enzymes activity
E. There is no right answer
662. The pre-jaundice period of viral hepatitis A is characterized by the increase
of:
A. Indirect bilirubin, tymol test
B. Cholesterol, ALAT
C. tymol test, alkaline phosphatase
D. cholesterol, beta-lipoproteins, indirect bilirubin
E. *ALAT, ASAT, direct bilirubin
663. Name the source of dysentery infection.
A. Patients with dysentery;
B. Patients and carriers;
C. *Carriers;
D. Small rodents.
E. Insects.
664. When does it follow to expect clinical signs of disease at contacts in the
focus of shigellosis (latent period course)?
A. Through 1-2 hours.
B. From 1 to 2 days.
C. *From 1 to 7 days.
D. Till 1 month.
E. From 1 to 3 months.
665. The source of infection at viral hepatitis A is:
A. patient and animal
B. *ill person
C. man, carrier and patient
D. animal and carrier
E. insects
666. The subclinical viral hepatitis A form is characterized by:
A. Insignificant jaundice of skin, the base phosphatase increased
B. subfebrile temperature, dark urine, colorless excrements
C. Brief jaundice, increase of tymol test
D. hemorrhagic syndrome
E. *clinical displays are absent, ALAT, ASAT are raised
667. The thickness of skin fold at the navel is 0,2 cm, that is typical for:
A. *3rd degree malnutrition
B. 2nd degree malnutrition
C. 1st degree malnutrition
D. eutrophya
E. paratrophya
668. The thickness of skin fold at the navel is 0,6 cm, that is typical for:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
3rd degree malnutrition
*2nd degree malnutrition
1st degree malnutrition
eutrophya
paratrophya
669. The thickness of skin fold at the navel is 1 cm, that is typical for:
A. 3rd degree malnutrition
B. 2nd degree malnutrition
C. *1st degree malnutrition
D. eutrophya
E. paratrophya
670. At the children of what age group dysentery occurs more frequent?
A. 0-12 months
B. 1-2 years
C. *2-7 years
D. 7-10 years
E. 10-14 years
671. What from the enumerated serological tests should be done to reveal
antibodies to typhoid fever?
A. brake of hemagglutination
B. precipitation
C. complement binding
D. *passive hemagglutination
E. agglutination
672. To what family does Escherichia belong?
A. Micrococcaceae
B. *Enterobacteriaceae
C. Neisseriaceae
D. Vibrionaceae
E. Korynebacteriaceae
673. Variants of prodromal period at viral hepatitis A:
A. Convulsive, dyspepsia
B. *Dyspepsia, astenic, catarrhal
C. Catarrhal, hemorrhagic
D. hepatolienal, convulsive
E. There is no right answer
674. Virus of hepatitis A in the human organism is contained in:
A. Feces
B. Blood and urine
C.
D.
E.
Blood and bile
Tears and saliva
*Blood, feces, urine
675. Way of viral hepatitis A transmission is:
A. Contact-domestic
B. air-droplet
C. *fecal-oral
D. All answers are correct
E. There is no right answer
676. What antigens does the E. coli have?
A. *O-, K- and H-antigens.
B. O-, Vi-antigens.
C. O-, H-antigens.
D. O-, K-antigens.
E. O-antigens.
677. What is the average duration of hepatitis B incubation period?
A. 3-6 weeks
B. 2-3 months
C. 6-26 weeks
D. *13-16 weeks
E. 20-22 weeks
678. What is the average duration of hepatitis C incubation period?
A. 3-6 weeks
B. 2-3 months
C. 6-26 weeks
D. 13-16 weeks
E. *20-22 weeks
679. What is basis therapy at viral hepatitis A?
A. *Regime and diet
B. Regime and enterosorption
C. glucocorticoids
D. detoxication therapy
E. vitamin therapy
680. What conditions are unfavorable for choleric vibrio:
A. Drying
B. Heat
C. *Disinfectants
D. Soil water
E. Stay in the soil
681. What diet is appointed at viral hepatitis A?
A. 3
B. *5-5а
C. 9
D. 10
E. 15
682. What disease severity is characteristic for hepatitis С in an acute period?
A. *mild, asymptomatic
B. moderate
C. moderate, severe
D. severe, fulminant
E. fulminant
683. What diseases does it follow to differentiate the congenital hepatitis С with?
(1) Hepatitis A, Е, biliary dyskinesia
B. *sepsis, biliary atresia, TORCH-infections, massive hemorrhages
C. sepsis, pseudotuberculosis, infectious mononucleosis
D. Gilbert syndrome, leptospirosis, hemolytic anemia
E. hemolytic disease of new-born, hepatitis Delta, cholecystitis.
684. What does the character of hepatitis B duration depend on?
A. From mechanism and way of virus transmission
B. From character of genetically definite immune answer
C. *From a dose and infectiousness of virus, character of the organism
immune answer
D. From duration of latent period
E. From duration of prejaundice period
685. What dose of prednisone is appointed to the infants with unfavorable
premorbid background in case of viral hepatitis A?
A. *2-3 mg/kg
B. 4-5 mg/kg
C. 5-10 mg/kg
D. 0.5-1 mg/kg
E. 1-2 mg/kg
686. What is the duration of patient's dispensarization in case of severe hepatitis
B?
A. 6 months with examination and laboratory investigation in 7 days, 1, 3, 6
months
B. 9 months with examination and laboratory investigation in1, 3, 6, 9
months
C.
D.
E.
*12 months with examination and laboratory investigation in 1, 3, 6, 9,
12 months
2 years with examination and laboratory investigation in 1, 3, 6, 9, 12,
18, 24 months
3 years with examination and laboratory investigation in 1, 3, 6, 9, 12,
18, 24, 36 months
687. What is the duration of severe hepatitis B base therapy?
A. 10 days
B. 14 days
C. 21 day
D. *30 days
E. 45 days
688. What is the duration of the bed regime at moderate hepatitis B?
A. *1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
E. 6 weeks
689. What features of acute dysentery are typical for infants?
A. Continuously relapsed course.
B. Absence of inflammation signs at sigmoscopy.
C. Watery stools.
D. Repeated vomits.
E. *Metheorysm and absence of tenesms.
690. What from the pointed representatives of the E.coli usually cause the disease
in infants?
A. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine
B. *enteropathogenic E.coli
C. enteroaggregative E.coli
D. enteroinvasive E.coli
E. enterohemolytic E.coli
691. What hepatitis С typical consequences do you know?
A. liver fibrosis, chronic hepatitis
B. recovery with complete renewal of liver structure and function
C. damage of biliary system and liver
D. recovery with a defect (remaining fibrosis)
E. *Chronic hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma
692. What seasonality is typical for viral hepatitis A?
A. spring-summer
B.
C.
D.
E.
*summer-autumn
winter-spring
autumn-winter
seasonality is not typical
693. What features are typical for the hepatitis B virus?
A. *DNA-containing virus from hepadnavirus family, 42-52 nm;
B. RNA-containing virus from enterovirus family, 27-30 nm;
C. Virus from flavivirus family, 22-60 nm;
D. virus 35-37 nm with small RNA and shell of the HB virus;
E. virus-like particle of spherical form, 27 nm.
694. What specific method of diagnostics is needed to prove viral hepatitis A?
A. *presence of anti HAV ІgM and anti HAV IgG in the blood
B. Increase of aminotranspherase level
C. Increase of bilious pigments in the urine
D. Increase of tymol test
E. hyperbilirubinemia
695. What treatment is appointed at the moderate form of viral hepatitis A?
A. Base therapy
B. *Base therapy, detoxication therapy
C. diet + enterosorption
D. glucocorticoids
E. hepatoprotectors
696. What is the volume of desiccation therapy at the moderate form of viral
hepatitis A?
A. *40-50 ml/kg per day
B. 50-100 ml/kg per day
C. 150-200 ml/kg per day
D. 200-300 ml/kg per day
E. 300-350 ml/kg per day
697. What is the volume of detoxication therapy at the severe form of viral
hepatitis A?
A. *50-100 ml/kg per day
B. 150-200 ml/kg per day
C. 200-300 ml/kg per day
D. All answers are correct
E. A right answer is not present
698. When does it follow to give choleretics at hepatitis B, moderate degree?
A. From the 1st day of jaundice period
B. From the 2nd week of jaundice period
C.
D.
E.
*From the 3rd week of jaundice period
From the 4th week of jaundice period
Does not need to give
699. Which state is the most convenient to measure malnutrition in infant?
A. Trophic Index
B. Mass-growth coefficient
C. The thickness of skin folds at the navel level
D. *Lack of body weight (%)
E. The distribution of subcutaneous fat in body areas
700. Who is the source of the hepatitis B infection?
A. patients with acute and chronic forms of disease
B. transmitters of superficial antigen
C. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of core
antigen
D. *patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of superficial
antigen
E. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of
infectiousness antigen
701. Who is the source of the hepatitis С infection?
A. patients with acute and chronic forms of disease
B. transmitters of superficial antigen
C. *carriers, patients with acute and chronic forms
D. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of core
antigen
E. patients with acute and chronic forms, healthy transmitters of
infectiousness antigen
702. With appearance of jaundice at patients with viral hepatitis A:
A. their condition worsened
B. *their condition becomes better
C. the sizes of liver diminish
D. the temperature of body rises
E. hemorrhagic rash appears
703. Indicate age, when revaccination against tuberculosis is made:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. *7 years
D. 11 years
E. 18 years
704. Indicate age, when revaccination against tuberculosis is made:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1 year
2 years
6 years
11 years
*14 years
705. Indicate age, when revaccination against tuberculosis is made:
A. 1 year, 5 years
B. 2 years, 6 years
C. 6 years, 14 years
D. *7 years, 14 years
E. 11 years, 18 years
706. According to WHO criteria vaccine associated polio is not characterized by:
A. *Sensitivity violation
B. The onset of illness in the period from 4 to 30 days after receiving the
vaccine
C. The onset of illness in the period from 4 to 60 days of contact with
vaccinated against polio
D. Development of flaccid paralysis
E. In serological surveys presence of vaccine virus
707. Active immunization in Ukraine is used to prevent all of these infectious
diseases, except:
A. *Varicella
B. Measles
C. Polio
D. Diphtheria
E. Tuberculosis
708. After the introduction of which of the following vaccines are not typical
severe general reaction in the form of hyperthermia, and severe local reactions
in the form of hyperemia with swelling of the soft tissues at the injection site?
A. *All listed
B. IPV
C. MMR
D. OPV
E. Hepatitis B
709. Against which diseases (in accordance with Ukrainian vaccination calendar)
vaccination is not obligatory?
A. *All listed
B. Meningococcal infection
C. Varicella
D. Hepatitis A
E.
Encephalitis
710. AIDS is a medical contraindication to vaccination by:
A. *All live vaccines
B. Inactivated polio vaccine
C. Measles
D. BCG
E. Mumps vaccine
711. All provisions of live vaccines are true, except:
A. *They can be used to vaccinate children together with killed vaccines
B. They are obtained from the strains of microbes with a weakened
virulence
C. They are obtained from the strains of microbes with normal
immunogenity
D. Their use is contraindicated in children with immunodeficiency
E. They are not applied in children aged up to 3 months
712. All provisions concerning DTP pertussis component, are true, except:
A. *Represents neutralized microbes’ exotoxin
B. More stable than live vaccines
C. Are used to prevent whooping cough in toddlers
D. Are used in children, starting from 3-month age
E. Promotes the development of less persistent immunity than transferred
pertussis
713. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides are medical contraindications to
vaccination by:
A. *Measles
B. DTP
C. BCG
D. All vaccines and toxoids
E. All live vaccines
714. Allergy to any component of the vaccine is a medical contraindication to
vaccination by:
A. *All vaccines and toxoids
B. All live vaccines
C. DTP
D. OPV
E. MMR
715. Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein is a medical contraindication to
vaccination by:
A. *Rubella vaccine
B.
C.
D.
E.
DTP
BCG
All vaccines and toxoids
OPV
716. At what age is recommended BCG vaccination and revaccination in
accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. *3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after
complete vaccination
C. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years,
14 years single dose
D. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
E. 2 months, 6 years
717. At what age is recommended DPT vaccination and booster in accordance
with Ukrainian vaccination schedule?
A. *since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after
complete vaccination
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years,
14 years single dose
C. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
D. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
E. 12months, 6 years
718. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against measles,
mumps, rubella, in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. *12 months, 6 years
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years,
14 years single dose
C. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
D. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after
complete vaccination
E. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
719. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against hepatitis
B in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. *The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years,
14 years single dose
C. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
D. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after
complete vaccination
E. 12months, 6 years
720. At what age is recommended vaccination and revaccination against
poliomyelitis in accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. *since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years,
14 years single dose
B. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
C. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after
complete vaccination
D. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
E. 12 months, 6 years
721. At what age is recommended Ніb vaccination and booster vaccine in
accordance with Ukrainian immunization schedule?
A. *since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 12-18 months after
complete vaccination
B. since 3 months thrice with an interval of 30 days, in 18 months, 6 years,
14 years single dose
C. The first dose after birth, the second - 1 month., third - 6 months.
D. 3-7 day of life, 7, 14 years
E. 12 months, 6 years
722. At what age does the human body begin the immunological activity
(producing its own antibodies in sufficient quantity)?
A. *From 6 months
B. In uteri
C. From birth
D. From 1 month
E. From 3 months
723. Indicate for what vaccination against poliomyelitis inactivated vaccine is
used:
A. Only for the first
B. *First two
C. Third
D. Fourth
E. For all
724. What vaccine is used for the first two vaccinations against poliomyelitis?
A. *IPV
B. OPV
C. IPV and OPV
D. DP
E. P
725. Which vaccinations against polio should be done by oral polio-vaccine?
A. 1st
B.
C.
D.
E.
2nd
1st-2nd
2nd -6th
*3rd-6th
726. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. IPV
B. *BCG
C. DT
D. Ніb
E. Hepatitis B
727. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. *OPV
B. IPV
C. DT
D. Ніb
E. Hepatitis B
728. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. IPV
B. DT
C. Ніb
D. *Measles
E. Hepatitis B
729. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. IPV
B. Hepatitis B
C. DT
D. Ніb
E. *mumps
730. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. IPV
B. Hepatitis B
C. DT
D. Ніb
E. *Rubella
731. What vaccines is it impossible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. IPV
B. DT
C. *MMR
D. Ніb
E. Hepatitis B
732. What vaccines is it possible to use for vaccination before clarification of
HIV-status?
A. *IPV
B. BCG
C. rubella
D. MMR
E. mumps
733. What vaccines or anatoxins is it possible to use for vaccination before
clarification of HIV-status?
A. MMR
B. BCG
C. rubella
D. *DT
E. Measles
734. Complication of BCG vaccination is everything except:
A. *infiltration 8 mm in diameter at 6 weeks after vaccination
B. infiltration more than 10 mm in diameter with kazeozis in 5 months after
vaccination
C. Kelloid scar 12 mm at the site of vaccination
D. Osteomyelitis
E. The increase of regional lymph nodes in 4 months
735. Complications after the previous vaccination (cold abscess, lymphadenitis,
kelloid scars, osteomyelitis) are medical contraindications to vaccination by:
A. *BCG
B. OPV
C. DTP
D. Measles
E. Mumps vaccine
736. Congenital combined immunodeficiency is a medical contraindication to
vaccination by:
A. *All live vaccines
B. All vaccines and toxoids
C. BCG
D.
E.
OPV
MMR
737. Cramps in the past history are a medical contraindication to vaccination by:
A. *DTP
B. BCG
C. OPV
D. MMR
E. All live vaccines
738. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used
inactivated vaccine:
A. *Haemophilus influenza infection
B. Measles
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rubella
E. Mumps infection
739. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used
inactivated vaccine:
A. *Hepatitis B
B. Measles
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rubella
E. Mumps infection
740. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used
inactivated vaccine:
A. *Whooping cough
B. Rubella
C. Measles
D. Tuberculosis
E. Mumps infection
741. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used
inactivated vaccine:
A. *Tetanus
B. Measles
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rubella
E. Mumps infection
742. Name the disease, against which for the active immunization is used
inactivated vaccine:
A. *Diphtheria
B.
C.
D.
E.
Measles
Tuberculosis
Polio
Mumps infection
743. Name medical contraindications for BCG vaccination:
A. *Congenital combined immunodeficiency
B. Convulsions history
C. Anaphylactic reactions to egg white in history
D. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides
E. The introduction of blood
744. Name medical contraindications for BCG vaccination:
A. *all listed
B. cold abscess after a previous vaccine
C. adenopathy after a previous vaccine
D. kelloid scar after a previous vaccine
E. osteomyelitis after a previous vaccine
745. Name medical contraindications for BCG vaccination:
A. *All the enumerated
B. AIDS
C. Congenital combined immunodeficiency
D. Malignancies
E. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia
746. Name medical contraindications for DPT vaccination:
A. *epilepsy
B. mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
C. defects in phagocytosis
D. introduction of blood
E. allergy to aminoglycosides
747. Name medical contraindications for DPT vaccination:
A. *All the enumerated
B. Convulsions history
C. Severe complications (anaphylactic shock) with the previous dose
injection
D. Allergy to any component of the vaccine
E. Progressive diseases of the nervous system
748. Name medical contraindications for OPV vaccination:
A. *All the enumerated
B. AIDS
C. Congenital combined immunodeficiency
D.
E.
Malignancies
Primary hypogammaglobulinemia
749. Name medical contraindications for vaccination by measles vaccine:
A. *All the enumerated
B. Anaphylactic reactions to egg white in history
C. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides
D. Introduction of immunoglobulin in the previous 3 months
E. Implementation of immunosuppressive therapies
750. Name medical contraindications for vaccination by mumps vaccine:
A. *All the enumerated
B. Progressive disease of the nervous system
C. Acute infectious disease
D. Chronic disease in the active phase
E. Transitory hypogammaglobulinemia
751. Name medical contraindications for vaccination by rubella vaccine:
A. *decompensated hydrocephalic syndrome
B. birth weight less than 2000 g
C. lymphadenitis after a previous vaccine
D. kelloid scar after a previous vaccine
E. convulsions in history
752. Name the medical contraindications for DPT vaccination:
A. *Cramps in the history
B. Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein in history
C. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides
D. Malignancies
E. The introduction of blood
753. Name medical contraindications for MMR vaccination:
A. *All the enumerated
B. AIDS
C. Congenital combined immunodeficiency
D. Malignancies
E. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia
754. Name medical contraindications for OPV vaccination:
A. *Malignancies
B. Convulsions history
C. Anaphylactic reactions to egg protein in history
D. Allergic reactions to aminoglycosides
E. The introduction of blood
755. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be
vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except:
A. *Influenza
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio
D. Hib
E. Rubella, measles, mumps infection
756. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be
vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except:
A. *Hepatitis A
B. Tuberculosis
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hib
E. Rubella, measles, mumps
757. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be
vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except:
A. *Varicella
B. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hib
E. Rubella, measles, mumps
758. In accordance with the Ukrainian vaccination calendar the child should be
vaccinated against all of the following diseases, except:
A. *Meningococcal infection
B. Poliomyelitis
C. Hepatitis B
D. Hib
E. Rubella, measles, mumps
759. Malignant neoplasms are medical contraindications to vaccination by:
A. *All live vaccines
B. All vaccines and toxoids
C. Measles
D. Rubella vaccine
E. Mumps vaccine
760. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia is a medical contraindication to
vaccination by:
A. *All live vaccines
B. All vaccines and toxoids
C. BCG
D. IPV
E.
DTP
761. Progressive disease of the nervous system is a medical contraindication to
vaccination by:
A. *All vaccines
B. BCG
C. DTP
D. OPV
E. MMR
762. Anaphylactic shock at previous vaccination is a medical contraindication to
vaccination by:
A. *All vaccines and toxoids
B. All live vaccines
C. DTP
D. OPV
E. BCG
763. Name live vaccines that are used for routine immunization:
A. *BCG
B. Against Hepatitis B
C. IPV
D. DTP
E. Against Haemophilus influenza
764. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization:
A. *Rubella
B. Against Hepatitis B
C. DTP
D. BCG
E. Against Haemophilus influenza
765. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization:
A. *Mumps
B. Against Hepatitis B
C. DTP
D. BCG
E. Against Haemophilus influenza
766. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization:
A. *Against Polio
B. Against Hepatitis B
C. DTP
D. BCG
E. Against Haemophilus influenza
767. Name live virus vaccines that are used for routine immunization:
A. *Measles
B. Against Hepatitis B
C. DTP
D. BCG
E. Against Haemophilus influenza
768. In what minimum term after intravenous cytomegalovirus immunoglobulin
infusion a patient can be vaccinated against chickenpox?
A. *6 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 month
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
769. In what minimum term after intravenous immunoglobulin infusion septic
patients can be vaccinated against measles?
A. *8 months
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
770. In what minimum term after intravenous immunoglobulin infusion a patient
with thrombocytopenia can be vaccinated against rubella?
A. *10 months
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
771. In what minimum term after intravenous immunoglobulin infusion a patient
with Kawasaki disease patients can be vaccinated against mumps infection?
A. *11 months
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. 1 month
E. 2 months
772. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of blood plasma a patient
can be vaccinated against measles?
A. *7 months
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D.
E.
2 months
1 year
773. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of platelets a patient can
be vaccinated against chickenpox?
A. *7 months
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
774. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of erythrocytes a patient
can be vaccinated against rubella?
A. *6 months
B. 9 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
775. In what minimum term after intravenous injection of washed red cells a
patient can be vaccinated against mumps infection?
A. *He can be vaccinated without interruption
B. 6 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
776. In what minimum term after the administration of tetanus immunoglobulin,
the patient can be vaccinated against measles?
A. *3 months
B. 1 month
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
E. 1 year
777. In what minimum term after the introduction of normal human
immunoglobulin (for post-exposure prophylaxis of measles) healthy patients
can receive the vaccine against mumps infection?
A. *5 months
B. 3 months
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
E. 1 year
778. In what minimum term after the introduction of normal human
immunoglobulin (for post-exposure prophylaxis of measles),
immunocompromised patients can be vaccinated against chickenpox?
A. *6 months
B. 5 months
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 1 year
779. In what minimum term after the introduction to the patient blood products,
which contain specific antibodies he can be vaccinated against chickenpox?
A. *3 months
B. 1 month
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
E. 1 year
780. In what minimum term after passive hepatitis A immunization the patient
can be vaccinated against rubella?
A. *3 months
B. 1 month
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
E. 1 year
781. In what minimum term after specific passive Hepatitis B immunization
patients can be vaccinated against mumps?
A. *3 months
B. 1 month
C. 2 months
D. 6 months
E. 1 year
782. What is not used for active immunization?
A. *Antitoxic serum
B. Live vaccines
C. Toxoids
D. Inactivated Vaccines
E. Acellular vaccine
783. What is not used for active immunization?
A. *Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
B. Live vaccines
C. Toxoids
D. Inactivated Vaccines
E.
Acellular vaccine
784. What is not used for active immunization?
A. *Human specific immunoglobulin
B. Live vaccines
C. Toxoids
D. Inactivated Vaccines
E. Acellular vaccine
785. What is not used for passive immunization?
A. *Toxoids
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Immunoglobulin
786. What is not used for passive immunization?
A. *Acellular vaccine
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Immunoglobulin
787. What is not used for passive immunization?
A. *Inactivated Vaccines
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Immunoglobulin
788. What is not used for passive immunoprophylaxis?
A. *Live vaccines
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Immunoglobulin
789. What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against hepatitis B?
A. *Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
790. What is the recommended method to enter a vaccine against Haemophilus
influenza?
A. *Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
791. What is the recommended method to enter DPT vaccine?
A. *Intramuscular
B. Intravenously
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
792. What is the recommended method to enter polio vaccine (live vaccine)?
A. *Intradermal
B. Intravenous
C. Intramuscular
D. Subcutaneous
E. Through mouth
793. What is the recommended method to enter the vaccine against measles?
A. *Subcutaneously
B. Intravenously
C. Intramuscular
D. Intradermally
E. Through a mouth
794. What is used for active immunization?
A. *Acellular vaccine
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Polyvalent bacteriophage
795. What is used for active immunization?
A. *Inactivated Vaccines
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Polyvalent bacteriophage
796. What is used for active immunization?
A. *Live vaccines
B.
C.
D.
E.
Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
Human specific immunoglobulin
Antitoxic serum
Polyvalent bacteriophage
797. What is used for active immunization?
A. *Toxoids
B. Polyvalent human immunoglobulin
C. Human specific immunoglobulin
D. Antitoxic serum
E. Polyvalent bacteriophage
798. What terms must have the ideal vaccine?
A. *Have all these terms
B. Call lifelong immunity in 100% vaccinated by a single dose
C. To be polyvalent
D. Be safe
E. Be oral vaccine
799. When the first revaccination against whooping cough should be done?
A. *Through 1 year after finished vaccination;
B. Through 1.5-2 years after finished vaccination;
C. Through 2.5 years after finished vaccination;
D. Through 3 years after finished vaccination
E. In 4 years
800. When the first vaccination against whooping cough should be done?
A. In 1 month
B. In 2 months
C. *In 3 months
D. In 4 months
E. In 5 months
801. When the second vaccination against whooping cough should be done?
A. In 1 month
B. In 2 months
C. In 3 months
D. *In 4 months
E. In 5 months
802. When the third vaccination against whooping cough should be done?
A. In 3 month
B. In 4 months
C. *In 5 months
D. In 6 months
E.
In 7 months
803. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity?
A. *All listed
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
804. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity?
A. *Antitoxic serum
B. Toxoid
C. Acellular vaccine
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Live vaccines
805. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity?
A. *Plasma
B. Toxoid
C. Acellular vaccine
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Live vaccines
806. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity?
A. *Whole blood
B. Toxoid
C. Acellular vaccine
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Live vaccines
807. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial passive immunity?
A. *Immunoglobulin
B. Toxoid
C. Acellular vaccine
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Live vaccines
808. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity?
A. *All listed
B. Toxoid
C. Acellular vaccine
D. Inactivated vaccine
E. Live vaccines
809. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Toxoid
Antitoxic serum
Plasma
Whole blood
Immunoglobulin
810. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity?
A. *Acellular vaccine
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
811. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity?
A. *Inactivated vaccine
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
812. Which medicine causes the development of an artificial active immunity?
A. *Live vaccines
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
813. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive
immunity?
A. *Toxoid
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
814. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive
immunity?
A. *Acellular vaccine
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
815. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive
immunity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Inactivated vaccine
Antitoxic serum
Plasma
Whole blood
Immunoglobulin
816. Which medicine does not cause the development of an artificial passive
immunity?
A. *Live vaccines
B. Antitoxic serum
C. Plasma
D. Whole blood
E. Immunoglobulin
817. Which of the following is a direct contraindication for prophylactic
vaccinations?
A. *Pathologically strong reaction to the earlier introduction of this vaccine
B. Acute infectious disease at the time of routine vaccination
C. Local reaction to previous administration of this vaccine
D. Frequent respiratory infections (more than 6 times per year)
E. All of the above
818. Which of the following vaccines more often cause severe general reaction in
the form of hyperthermia (40 oC or higher), allergic reactions, and severe local
reactions in the form of a hyperemia with swelling of the soft tissues at the
injection site?
A. *DTP
B. Mumps
C. Measles
D. IPV
E. Hepatitis B
819. Which of the following vaccines more often cause severe local reaction in
the form of severe hyperemia with edema of the soft tissues at the injection
site?
A. *BCG
B. MMR
C. Rubella
D. IPV
E. Hepatitis B
820. Which of the following vaccines more often cause severe general reaction in
the form of hyperthermia (40 oC or higher), allergic reactions, and severe local
reactions in the form of a hyperemia with swelling of the soft tissues at the
injection site?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Hib
MMR
Rubella
IPV
Hepatitis B
821. Why do some children vaccinated against diphtheria and having a high level
of specific antibodies in the blood have localized form of the disease, but never
toxic after close contact with diphtheria patient?
A. *Immunity after vaccination is only antitoxic
B. Active immunization of these children began after one year of life
C. These children are not subjected to vaccinations in the past 3 years
D. At vaccination they have post-vaccination complications
E. Vaccination was performed in 2 weeks after recovery from the
respiratory viral infection
822. Why is it not recommend to enter the vaccine into the buttock area for
babies, but it is recommend to enter the vaccine into the frontal part of their
thighs?
A. *All of the above is true
B. With this introduction tissue damage is rarer
C. When you enter vaccine into the buttock there is the high risk of sciatic
nerve damage
D. Infants gluteal region consists mainly of adipose tissue
E. Other injection is the most saved from vascular injury
Situation tasks
1. 2 children from family are hospitalized in the infectious department,
pseudotuberculosis is suspected. What measures, does it follow to perform
concerning contact persons (except for prohibition to use raw products)?
A. Supervision during 2 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying
B. *Supervision during 3 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying
C. Supervision during 3 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying,
urine, throat mucus
D. Supervision during 3 weeks, 2 bacteriological researches of emptying
E. Supervision during 3 weeks, 1 bacteriological research of emptying,
urine
2. 5 years old boy had scarlet fever. What investigations are obvious on the 2021st day from the disease beginning?
A. *CBC, urinanalysis, ECG
B. nasopharyngeal swab
C. Blood culture
D. Echo-cardioscopy, ECG, ultrasound of abdomen
E.
nasal and pharyngeal swab for Corynebacteria diphtheriae
3. A 10 years old girl today has chickenpox. How many days she should not
attend school (in the no complicated course of the disease)?
A. *9-10 days
B. 2-4 days
C. 5-7 days
D. 10-14 days
E. 15-20 days
4. A 14 y.o. female presents with prolonged fever, nocturnal sweating. She's lost
weight for 7 kg during the last 3 months. She had irregular menses. On
examination: enlargement of all lymph groups, hepatosplenomegaly. In blood:
WBC — 2.2*10^9/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. *HIV-infection
C. Lymphogranulomathosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Chroniosepsis
5. A 14 years patient complains about general weakness, dizziness, body
temperature rise up to 37.5 °C, sore throat, neck edema, enlargement of submaxillary lymph nodes. Diphtheria was diagnosed. What is the leading
mechanism of this illness' development?
A. *Action of bacterial exotoxin
B. Accumulation of suboxidated products
C. Action of bacterial endotoxin
D. Allergic
E. Bacteriemia
6. A 14 years patient was admitted to a hospital with complaints on headache,
weakness, high temperature, sore throat. Objectively: enlargement of all groups
of lymph nodes was revealed. The liver is enlarged by 3 cm, spleen - by 1 cm.
In blood: leucocytosis, atypical lymphocytes - 15%. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Angina
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Diphtheria
D. Acute lymphoid leukemia
E. *Infectious mononucleosis
7. A 15 years female complained of edema on her face and legs, rise of blood
pressure up to 160/100 mm Hg and weakness. She fell ill 3 weeks after
recovering from angina. Urinalysis data: protein of 0.5 g/l, erythrocytes of 17-
20/field, leukocytes of 2-3/field, erythrocyte casts. What treatment should be
initiated after specifying the diagnosis?
A. Ceftriaxon
B. *Penicillin
C. Dipyridamol
D. Heparin
E. Ciprofloxacin
8. A 15-year-old patient complains of pain in the right half of face, headache, and
raised body temperature. He is sick for 3 days, due to being in cold. On physical
exam: in the right half of forehead there is inflammatory hyperemia, edema,
erosions with necrotic coating on vesicles. There are groups of vesicles with
inflammatory hyperemia around them. What pathology is present in this case?
A. *Herpes zoster
B. Eczema
C. Lichen planus erythematosus
D. Dermatitis
E. Erysipelas
9. A 16 y.o. female presents with prolonged fever, nocturnal sweating. She's lost
weight for 7 kg during the last 3 months. HIV-infection was diagnosed. What
preparations are used for prevention of fungal infection?
A. *Fluconazol, Orungal, Nisoral
B. Cytosar, Cormyctin, Lomycitin
C. Rubomycin, Bleomycin, Mytomycin С
D. Captopril, Enalapril
E. Isoniazid, Ftivazid, Pyrazinamid
10.A 2 years old girl has been ill for 3 days. Today she has low grade fever, mild
catarrhal signs, pink maculopapular rash on her buttocks and enlarged occipital
lymph nodes. What is the diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Scarlet fever
D. *Rubella
E. Pseudotuberculosis
11.A 3 year old child has been suffering from fever, cough, corryza, conjunctivitis
for 4 days. Today he has fever up to 39 °C and maculopapular rash on his face.
Except of rash the child's skin has no changes. What is your diagnosis?
A. Scarlet fever
B. Rubella
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. *Measles
E. Allergic rash
12.A 36-year-old woman is on the 12-th week of her first pregnancy. In the past
history she received treatment for infertility. Recently she visited guests and
contacted a child who developed rubella in 2 days after meeting. The woman
doesn't remember whether she had rubella or not. What is the adequate tactics?
A. *Monitoring of the specific Ig G, Ig M
B. Acyclovir administration
C. Immune globulin injection
D. Interruption of the pregnancy
E. Interferon administration
13.A 4-year-old child on the 5th day of illness complains of cough, rash on the
skin. Temperature is 38.2 °C, face is puffy, photophobia, conjunctivitis. There
is a bright papulomacular rash on the face, neck, upper half of the thorax.
Pharynx is hyperemic. There is serous and purulent discharge from the nose,
dry rales in the lungs. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Measles
B. German measles
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Adenovirus infection
E. Scarlet fever
14.A 7 year old girl has mild form of varicella. Headache, weakness, vertigo,
tremor of her limbs, ataxia, then mental confusion appeared on the 5th day of
illness. Meningeal signs are negative. Cerebrospinal fluid examination is
normal. How can you explain these signs?
A. Meningitis
B. Myelitis
C. Neurotoxic syndrome
D. Meningoencephalitis
E. *Encephalitis
15.A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose. The boy suffers with
alimentary allergy. He applied to doctor due to purulent and bloody discharge
from nose, maceration of nostrils and upper lip. Rhinoscopy results: whitishgrayish areas at nasal septum. Mucous membrane of pharynx is not changed.
What is the most probable disease?
A. *Diphtheria of the nose
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Sinusitis (maxillar sinus)
D. Rhinovirus
E. Adenovirus
16.A 7-year-old girl suddenly fell ill with fever, headache, severe sore throat,
vomiting. Tiny bright red rash had appeared on her reddened skin 3 hours later.
It is more intensive in axillas and groins. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is
hyperemied, on tonsils there are grayish patches. Submaxillary glands are
enlarged and painful. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Scarlet fever
B. Enteroviral infection
C. Rubella
D. Pseudotuberculosis
E. Measles
17.A 9-year-old child is ill for 5 days. Physical examination: Conscious, inert.
Puffy face. Catarrhal conjunctivitis, scleritis. Bright-red papulous middlespotted skin rash on face and behind ears. Somewhere elements confluence.
Diffuse hyperemia in pharynx. Soft palate shows enanthema. The child is not
vaccinated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Measles
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Scarlet fever
E. Rubella
18.A boy of 12 years is treated in the infectious department because of moderate
form of scarlet fever. How many days a quarantine for his class will continue?
A. 7 days
B. 15 days
C. 21 day
D. 30 days
E. *it is not needed to impose a quarantine, only to do medical inspection of
schoolboys
19.A boy had the catarrhal signs, intoxication, on 5th day has appeared maculopapulous exanthema behind the ears, on face, during a day it spreads on a neck,
shoulders. Put your diagnosis.
A. Rubella
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. meningococcal infection
D. *Measles
E. Infectious mononucleosis
20.A boy has pseudotuberculosis for 3 weeks. Today, after the improvement, a
temperature rose repeatedly, pain in joints and stomach appeared. Name the
course of the disease in this case.
A. Prolonged, unsmooth with exacerbation
B. Subacute, unsmooth with exacerbation
C. acute, unsmooth with the relapse
D. *acute, unsmooth with exacerbation
E.
Prolonged, unsmooth with the relapse
21.A boy of 2 years is ill by infectious mononucleosis, severe form, unsmooth
course, is treated in the hospital. What medicine is appointed in such case?
A. *glucocorticoids
B. antihistamines
C. Antibiotics
D. disaggregates
E. cytostatics
22.A boy of 8 years is ill by infectious mononucleosis, severe form, unsmooth
course, is treated in the hospital. What daily dose of prednisolone is given in
such case?
A. 0.5 - 0.8 mg/kg
B. 0.8 - 1.0 mg/kg
C. 1 - 1.5 mg/kg
D. *2.0- 2.5 mg/kg
E. 2.5 - 5.0 mg/kg
23.A boy, 15 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, is treated in the
hospital. A mother worries from what complications children die more
frequent:
A. lymphadenitis
B. hemolytic anemia
C. *Break of spleen
D. thrombocytopenia
E. Paresis of cranial nerves
24.A boy, 15 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, complicated by
thrombocytopenia. His mother very worries, is interested in frequency of lethal
consequences. What doctor answers for her?
A. Lethality is high
B. *Lethality is low, only single cases
C. Lethality is absent
D. Lethality is high only among new-born
E. Lethality is high only in preschool age
25.A boy, 15 years, is treated in the hospital because of infectious mononucleosis.
A doctor diagnosed a concomitant bacterial infection. What from antibiotics is
impossible to use for treatment in this case?
A. azythromicin
B. roxythromycin
C. amikacin
D. *Ampicillin
E. cefasolin
26.A boy, 2 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, complicated, is
treated in the hospital. A mother worries from what complications children die
more frequent:
A. *The CNS damage
B. lymphadenitis
C. hemolytic anemia
D. thrombocytopenia
E. Paresis of cranial nerves
27.A boy, 2 years, is in the infectious department with the diagnosis of infectious
mononucleosis. Indicate the possible mechanism of this disease transmission:
A. Fecaly-oral
B. *hemo-contact
C. Water
D. air-dust
E. Food
28.A boy, 2years, not vaccinated, 2 weeks ago contacted with a patient with
Rubella. Today his temperature rose to subfebrile. Indicate other signs of
Rubella in prodromal period.
A. *Moderate intoxication and catarrhal signs, enanthem, increase of
posterior cervical and occipital lymph nodes
B. Moderate intoxication and catarrhal sings, rashes on a skin
C. Expressed catarrhal signs, intoxication, enanthem, Koplick's spots
D. Moderate catarrhal signs, enanthem, rashes on a skin
E. Expressed intoxication, difficulty of the nasal breathing, increase of
anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes
29.A boy, 3 years, with infectious mononucleosis, is treated in the hospital. What
from the serological laboratory investigations will confirm the diagnosis in the
late period?
A. Determination of the Ig M against viral capsid antigen (immune enzyme
analysis)
B. *Determination of the Ig G against viral capsid and nuclear antigens
(immune enzyme analysis)
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Reaction of hetero agglutination
E. Complete blood analysis
30.A boy, 3 years, with infectious mononucleosis, is treated in the hospital. What
from the serological laboratory investigations will confirm the diagnosis in the
acute period?
A. *Determination of the Ig M against viral capsid antigen (immune enzyme
analysis)
B.
C.
D.
E.
Determination of the Ig G against viral capsid and nuclear antigens
(immune enzyme analysis)
Polymerase chain reaction
Reaction of hetero agglutination
Complete blood analysis
31.A boy, 9 years, contacted with a brother, patient with Rubella. How many time
after the contact a child cannot go to the rest camp?
A. 11 days
B. 14 days
C. 17 days
D. *21 day
E. 25 days
32.A boy, aged of 9 years entered a clinic with a barking cough, hoarse voice, subfebrile body temperature. During laryngoscopy the edema and hyperemia of
epiglottis was noted. During latex-agglutination reaction a diphtheria toxin is
exposed in serum. Diagnose is:
A. primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx
C. *localized diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period
D. localized diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period
E. spread diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period
33.A child of 5 years complains of pain in his throat, fever. When examined at the
2nd day of illness, a rash was revealed. A scarlet fever was suspected. What
morphology of the rash will be typical for scarlet fever?
A. *Pinpoint
B. Hemorrhagic ("Starry")
C. Vesiculous
D. Maculopapular
E. Nodular
34.A child of 5 years on 2-day being in the surgical hospital has chickenpox. The
day before he had appendectomy. Which of the following is correct as
epidemiological measures?
A. *Place patient in Meltzer’s box
B. Urgent discharge
C. Isolate in a separate ward
D. Held in a room with children who previously suffered from chickenpox
E. Isolate by the glass screen up to 5 days from the onset of the last eruption
35.A child of five years two weeks ago was in contact with the patient that had
shingles (herpes zoster). The child became ill yesterday acutely. The body
temperature is 38.7 ˚C, weakness, headache. The body has many, slightly
pruritic papular rash elements, vesicles, isolated pustules, vesicles on the oral
mucosa, conjunctiva. What is the diagnosis?
A. *Chickenpox
B. Strophulus
C. Impetigo
D. The tuberculosis skin lesions
E. Shingles (herpes zoster)
36.A child of seven years had sore throat, fever up to 38.6 ˚C, single vomiting. The
next day the body temperature is 37.2-38.5 °C. The doctor found pinpoint rash
and diagnosed scarlet fever. Which of the following has been crucial for the
diagnosis of scarlet fever?
A. *The prevalence of rash in the natural skin folds
B. White nasolabial triangle
C. Xerosis
D. White dermographism
E. Positive "pinch" symptom
37.A child, 14 years, is treated in the infectious department from diphtheria. With
the purpose of serological diagnostics the reaction of passive hemagglutination
with paired sera in 2 weeks was done. What growth of specific antibodies titre
has the diagnostic importance?
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 6 times
E. 8 times
38.A child of 2 years has measles. Name the evidence to administer antibiotics in
this case.
A. Viral complications, presence of concomitant pathology
B. *Bacterial complications, severe disease
C. severe disease, croup syndrome with 1st degree stenosis.
D. severe, moderate disease
E. often ill, with decreased immunity child
39.A complement binding reaction with measles diagnostic test is done to a child
for confirmation of diagnosis. Indicate the diagnostic titer of antibodies.
A. 1:40
B. 1:80
C. 1:160
D. There is the stable titre of antibodies in paired sera
E. *Growth 4 and more times in 2 weeks
40.A child, 8 years, is treated in the infectious department from diphtheria. At
examination the child is faded, adynamic. A skin is pale, gray, general cyanosis,
hypotonic muscles. Consciousness is absent. Breathing is frequent, superficial,
arrhythmic. Diagnose is:
A. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period
B. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree
C. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree
D. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 3rd degree
E. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 4th degree
41.To a child, 8 years, that for 2 weeks was treated in the hospital,
pseudotuberculosis, non-smooth course, is diagnosed. What distinguishes
exacerbation of the disease from the relapses?
A. *Growth of clinical symptoms after the period of improvement
B. Appearance of clinical symptoms after normalization of clinic-laboratory
indexes
C. Growth of clinical symptoms without the improvement of the patient's
state
D. Stable severe state of the patient
E. Gradual improvement of the patient's state up to the convalescence
42.A child, aged 5, is ill with fever, vesicular rash mainly on the trunk and head
skin. On the 8th day there appeared severe headache, ataxia, lethargy,
movement discoordination, tremor of the extremities. On the second wave of
the fever encephalitis is diagnosed. Complication of what decease can be
encephalitis in this case?
A. *Chicken pox
B. Herpetic infection
C. Enterovirus infection
D. Measles
E. Rubella
43.A fellow, 17 years, is treated because of pseudotuberculosis, that has acute
smooth courser. Name, what is characteristically in this case?
A. Duration of the disease up to 1 month, presence of exacerbations,
relapses, absence of complications
B. *Duration of the disease up to 1 month, absence of exacerbations,
relapses, complications
C. Duration of the disease up to 1.5 months, absence of exacerbations,
relapses, complications
D. Duration of the disease up to 1.5 months, presence of exacerbations,
relapses, absence of complications
E. Duration of disease up to 3 months, absence of exacerbations, relapses,
complications
44.A girl 5 years is ill for 5 days. On a background of the catarrhal phenomena
rashes have appeared today. Measles is suspected. What will differ rashes at
this child from rashes at scarlet fever?
A. Absence of rashes concentration round joints, hyperemia and edema of
the face, hands, feet
B. More large elements of rashes, concentration round joints, hyperemia and
edema of the face, hands, feet
C. rashes are polymorphic (spots, papules, vesicles, crusts), appears in
pushes
D. *Time of appearance, morphology, localization, stages, propensity to
confluence, unchanged background of skin, pigmentation of rashes
E. rashes are rose, as small spots, during days covers all body, is disposed
mainly on the unbend surfaces of extremities, back, buttocks
45.A girl aged 10 years had infectious mononucleosis, two days ago she was
discharged from the hospital. Indicate how long she must be on the dispensary
observation:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
E. *12 months
46.A girl has pseudotuberculosis. Clinically: febrile temperature, moderate
intoxication, enteritis, stomach-ache, rash all over the body. Liver +4 cm.
Indicate the severity of the disease.
A. mild
B. *moderate
C. severe
D. Septic
E. Toxic
47.A girl has pseudotuberculosis. Clinically: hyperpyrexia, expressed intoxication,
meningeal syndrome, stomach-ache, hemorrhagic rash all over the body,
polyarthritus, hepatitis. Indicate the severity of the disease.
A. mild
B. moderate
C. *severe
D. Toxic
E. Hypertoxic
48.A girl has pseudotuberculosis. Clinically: subfebrile temperature, insignificant
intoxication, rashes round the joints, in skin folds. Indicate the severity of
disease.
A. Effaced
B.
C.
D.
E.
Subclinical
*mild
moderate
severe
49.A girl of seven years had sore throat, fever up to 38.6 ˚C, single vomiting. The
next day the body temperature is 37.2-38.5 °C. The doctor found pinpoint rash
and diagnosed scarlet fever. The apartment is separate. There are no more
children in the family. Where this girl could be treated?
A. *Treat at home
B. Hospitalized for 10-12 days
C. Hospitalized at least for 22 days
D. Hospitalized till the negative throat culture (b-hemolytic streptococcus)
E. Treat in hospital until the cessation of desquamation
50.A girl of seven years has been ill chickenpox. Indicate the most likely source of
infection:
A. *Grandpa, that had shingles (herpes zoster)
B. A neighbor, who had chicken pox a month ago
C. Mother with ARVI, herpes simplex
D. Toy from the varicella focus
E. A classmate, who ills chickenpox for 2 days
51.A girl, 10 months, contacted with a brother who had measles. A passive
prophylaxis was not done. What is the possibility of future disease in this child?
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 95%
E. *100%
52.A girl, 10 years, has pseudotuberculosis, typical form, that has smooth course.
What auscultative changes from the heart are possible at the patient?
A. tachycardia, extrasystols
B. tachycardia, dullness of tones, systolic murmur in all points, is spread
outside a heart
C. tachycardia, accent of ІІ tone, systolic murmur above an aorta
D. *bradycardia, sinus arrhythmia, dull tones, systolic murmur of functional
character
E. bradycardia, systolic murmur that is conducted in all points of
auscultation
53.A girl, 2 years old, for four nights has paroxysms of cough, which ended by the
whoop. What probable duration of the disease:
A. 4 days;
B.
C.
D.
E.
5 days;
7 days;
25 days;
*14 days.
54.A girl, 2 years old, for four nights has paroxysms of cough, which ended by the
whoop. The small quantity of the transparent phlegm appeared after cough; one
vomiting was noted. What is the probable diagnosis in this case?
A. Bronchiolitis;
B. Obstructive bronchitis;
C. *Whooping cough;
D. Pneumonia with obstructive syndrome;
E. Croup syndrome.
55.A girl, 2 years, contacted with a brother who had measles. She with the purpose
of measles prophylaxis has received immunoglobulin. A child visits preschool
(kindergarten). What is term of quarantine for this girl?
A. 9-17 days
B. 11-17 days
C. 14 days
D. 17 days
E. *up to 21 day
56.A girl, 5 years, is treated in the hematological department, received preparations
of blood, contacted with a patient who had measles. Indicate duration of
measles incubation period in this case.
A. Till 17 days
B. *Till 21 day
C. 9-17 days
D. 14 days
E. 11-16 days
57.A girl, aged 16 years, appealed to the policlinic for determination of the
immune defense against diphtheria. What level of specific antibodies in a blood
is protective?
A. 0.02-0.03 IU/ml
B. 0.03-0.05 IU/ml
C. 0.05-0.07 IU/ml
D. 0.07-0.09 IU/ml
E. *0.1-0.15 IU/ml
58.A boy presents to physician with cramping pain in left side of the chest, general
weakness, fever and headache that have appeared 2 days ago. In the morning
skin rash on chest was noted. Physical examination: multiple aggregated
vesicles filled with transparent fluid, 2-4 mm in diameter. Vesicles are situated
on the erythematous and edematous base along 4-5 intercostals. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. *Herpes zoster varicellosus
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Streptococcal (Fox's) impetigo
D. Allergic dermatitis
E. Herpes simplex
59.A month ago a child received second vaccination by DTP-vaccine and against
poliomyelitis. When this boy should be revaccinated against whooping cough?
A. *Through 1 year after finished vaccination;
B. Through 1.5-2 years after finished vaccination;
C. Through 2.5 years after finished vaccination;
D. Through 3 years after finished vaccination
E. In 4 years
60.A mother has addressed to physician with the girl, 5 years old. The mother
complains of raised temperature in child and multiple vomiting. The disease has
begun suddenly. During examination: dry lips, sclera injection, hyperemia of
the pharynx, the tongue is covered by white coat, small point-like rash on neck,
upper part of the trunk, in skin folds. The pulse is small, heart tones are deaf.
The scarlet fever was diagnosed. What form of the scarlet fever has this child?
A. The mild form.
B. *The severe toxic form.
C. The moderate form.
D. The severe septic form.
E. Atypical form
61.A new-born boy during examination is irresponsible to the light and sound. A
skin and mucus membranes are cyanotic, rough systolic murmur in all points is
spread outside the heart borders. What congenital infection is this typical for?
A. herpes simplex infection
B. *Rubella
C. chicken pox
D. mycoplasmosis
E. cytomegalovirus infection
62.A patient complained about general weakness, fever, painful rash on his trunk
skin. He has been suffering from this for 3 days. Objectively: lateral surface of
the trunk on the left is hyperemic and edematic; there are some groups of
vesicles with serous and hemorrhagic contents. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. *Herpes zoster
B. Herpetiform Duhring's dermatosis
C. Contact allergic dermatitis
D.
E.
Microbial eczema
Contact dermatitis simplex
63.A patient complains of intense pressing pain in the pharynx, mainly to the right
impossibility to swallow even liquid food. The patient is sick for 5 days. His
condition is severe. Body temperature is 38.9 °C, it is difficult to talk, voice is
constrained, it is difficult to open the mouth. Submaxillary glands on the right
are painful, enlarged. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Peritonsillar abscess
B. Diphtheria
C. Vincent's disease
D. Pharyngeal tumor
E. Phlegmonous tonsillitis
64.A schoolboy of 8 years for 25 days is treated in the hepatitis department. Today
he has chicken pox. One of the patients in this ward had zoster 2 weeks before.
It is also known that last month there have been cases of chickenpox in the
school. Name the source of infection for varicella in this case.
A. *Patient with herpes zoster
B. Neighbors in the department
C. Classmates
D. Staff of the admission office
E. Medical personnel of the hepatitis department
65.A teenager, 15 years, entered to infectious department. Diphtheria of the
pharynx was diagnosed. At examination - there is the insignificant increase of
tonsils with separate exudates as points, lines. Indicate the form of diphtheria:
A. Spread
B. Isolated
C. Combined
D. *Localized focal
E. Localized tonsillar
66.A girl complains of high temperature to 38°C, mild pain in the throat during 3
days. On examination: lymphatic nodes of the jaw angle are 3 cm enlarged;
palatial tonsils are enlarged and coated with grey plaques which spreads to the
uvula and frontal palatial arches. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Vincent's angina
C. Oropharyngeal candidiasis
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. *Pharynx diphtheria
67.At a boy of 10 years Rubella was complicated by arthritis of wrists. What
pathogenetic treatment does it follow to administer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
corticosteroids
protease inhibitors
*NSAIDs
Antibiotics of wide spectrum
recombinant interferon
68.At a boy, 10 years, a scarlet fever, typical form, smooth course is diagnosed.
What, except the rashes, will differ the disease at a child from
pseudotuberculosis?
A. Stages of rashes, conjunctivitis, expressed catarrhal signs
B. Polymorphism of rashes, localization of it on hairy part of the head,
mucus membranes
C. hemorrhagic star-like rashes on shins, thighs, meningeal syndrome,
nasopharyngitis
D. *Presence of tonsillitis, increase of only tonsillar lymph nodes, absent:
arthritis, intestinal problems, damage of the other organs and systems
E. Small elements of rashes, their concentration in skin folds, presence of
tonsillitis, absent catarrhal signs
69.At a boy, 14 years, Rubella was complicated by encephalitis. What is the
duration of neurologist supervision after the patient's convalescence?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. Not less than1 year
D. 1-2 years
E. *not less than 2 years
70.At a boy, 9 years, which has diphtheria for 4 days, the permanent noisy
breathing has appeared. Auxiliary muscles take part in breathing. Present noted
pallor of skin, perioral cyanosis, and tachycardia. Diagnose is:
A. primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period
C. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree
D. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree
E. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 3rd degree
71.At a boy, 9 years, which has diphtheria for 4 days, has permanent very noisy
breathing, which is heard in the distance, expiration is prolonged. All auxiliary
muscles take part in breathing. The phenomena of oxygen insufficiency
increase. Diagnose is:
A. primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period
C. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree
D. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree
E. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 3rd degree
72.At a child of 5 months, which came for vaccination according the calendar, in
anamnesis was postvaccinal complication in 4 months age. Indicate what
vaccine it follows to use for vaccination:
A. *DTaP
B. DTP
C. DT
D. DT-M
E. D-M
73.At a child on the background of catarrhal signs, conjunctivitis, exanthema has
appeared on 4th day of the disease that spread downward during 3 days. This is
characteristically for:
A. Pseudotuberculosis
B. Scarlet fever
C. Chicken pox
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. *Measles
74.At a child passive hemagglutination reaction with pseudotubercular
diagnosticum was done. Titre of antibodies is 1: 200. Name the first phase of
the disease pathogenesis.
A. entheric
B. regional infection
C. generalization
D. *Infection
E. bacteremia
75.At a child passive hemagglutination reaction with pseudotubercular
diagnosticum was done. Pseudotuberculosis, atypical form, is diagnosed.
Indicate the probable atypical forms of the disease.
A. Effaced, asymptomatic, mononucleosis like
B. Catarrhal, combined, asymptomatic
C. Effaced, septic, catarrhal
D. Catarrhal, combined, mononucleosis like
E. *Effaced, asymptomatic, catarrhal
76.At a child rashes had appeared on face, for 2 days they spread on a trunk, arms,
proximal parts of thighs. This is characteristically for:
A. Pseudotuberculosis
B. Scarlet fever
C. *measles
D. Chicken pox
E. Infectious mononucleosis
77.At a child with the moderate intoxication and catarrhal signs, small maculous
exanthema, enlargement and tenderness of posterior cervical and occipital
lymph nodes was revealed, that is typically for:
A. measles
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. *Rubella
D. chicken pox
E. Infectious mononucleosis
78.At a child with tonsillitis there are pin-point rashes, mainly in skin folds, in the
inguinal region, on the lateral surfaces of trunk. Such localization of rashes is
characteristic for:
A. Rubella
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. *Scarlet fever
D. measles
E. enteroviral infections
79.At a child, 1 month, with congenital heart-disease was revealed cataract of both
eyes. A child is irresponsible to the light and sound. Indicate the probable
diagnosis.
A. *Rubella
B. herpes simplex infection
C. toxoplasmosis
D. lysteriosis
E. cytomegalovirus infection
80.At a child, 11 years, with exanthema, catarrhal syndrome rashes in a dynamics
of pigmented staging, exfoliation of epidermis has appeared. Put your
diagnosis.
A. *Measles
B. Rubella
C. Pseudotuberculosis
D. Scarlet fever
E. Chicken pox
81.At a child, aged 12 years, diphtheria of larynx is diagnosed. In other organs and
systems the changes are absent. Diagnose is:
A. *primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx
C. combined diphtheria of the larynx
D. nontoxic diphtheria of the larynx
E. diphtheria of the larynx
82.At a child, aged 12 years, diphtheria of larynx, laryngitis, dysphonia period, is
diagnosed. In other organs and systems the changes are absent. Diagnose is:
A. primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx
C. combined diphtheria of the larynx
D. *localized diphtheria of the larynx
E. toxic diphtheria of the larynx
83.At a child, aged 12 years, diphtheria of larynx, laryngotracheitis, stenotic
period, the 1st degree stenosis, is diagnosed. In other organs and systems the
changes are absent. Diagnose is:
A. primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx
C. combined diphtheria of the larynx
D. *spread diphtheria of the larynx
E. untoxic diphtheria of the larynx
84.At a child, that became ill acutely: disorders of emptying, fever; a rash on a
body has appeared today. Pseudotuberculosis is suspected. Name probable
duration of the disease.
A. 1-2 days
B. *2-4 days
C. 3-6 days
D. 5-7 days
E. 1-1,5 weeks
85.At a child, who 2 weeks is treated because of pseudotuberculosis, leucocyturia
and proteinuria is revealed in the analysis of urine. The child has chronic
pyelonephritis. Name the course of the disease in this case.
A. acute, unsmooth with complication (pyelonephritis)
B. acute, unsmooth with exacerbation
C. *acute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis
D. acute, smooth
E. Subacute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis
86.At a fellow, 16 years, Rubella was complicated by meningoencephalitis. What
from corticosteroids follows to give an advantage in treatment of this patient?
A. *dexasone
B. hydrocortisone
C. prednisolone
D. methylprednisolone
E. cortisoli
87.At a girl on a background of the catarrhal signs, conjunctivitis, subfebrile
temperature rashes had appeared on face, than spread downward and for 3 days
covered all the body. This is characteristically for:
A. enteroviral infection
B. *measles
C. Rubella
D. chicken pox
E. meningococcal infection
88.At a girl, 15 years, Rubella was complicated by encephalitis. What specialists
must perform the clinical supervision after the convalescence of child?
A. Neurologist, family pediatrician
B. *Neurologist, pediatrician-infectionist
C. Neurologist, ophthalmologist
D. Neurologist, family doctor
E. Neurologist, ophthalmologist, district pediatrician
89.At a girl, 17 years, Rubella was complicated by meningitis. What preparation
from diuretics follows to give an advantage in treatment of this patient?
A. 40% of glucose solution
B. lasix
C. *mannitol
D. verospiron
E. diacarb
90.At a girl, 7 years, pseudotuberculosis was complicated by a pyelonephritis.
What changes in the analysis of urine will be present?
A. *proteinuria, leucocyturia, bacteriuria
B. crystaluria, leucocyturia, epitelium (flat epithelium) in the urine
C. crystaluria, erythrocyturia (unchanged red cells)
D. proteinuria, leucocyturia, epitelium in the urine
E. proteinuria, casts, erythrocyturia, epitelium in the urine (kidney
epithelium)
91.At previous healthy child, that 2 weeks is treated because of
pseudotuberculosis, leucocyturia, proteinuria is revealed in the analysis of
urine. Indicate the course of the disease in this case.
A. *acute, unsmooth with complication (pyelonephritis)
B. acute, unsmooth with exacerbation
C. acute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis
D. acute, smooth
E. Subacute, unsmooth with exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis
92.Boy 11 years, has recovered from pseudotuberculosis, moderate severity, with
smooth course of disease. Indicate the evidence to discharge the patient from
the hospital.
A. Not early than a 14th day from the beginning of disease, clinical
recovery.
B. Not early than a 14th day from the beginning of disease, clinical
recovery, normal laboratory indexes
C. Not early than a 21st day from the beginning of disease, clinical recovery
D. *Not early than a 21st day from the beginning of disease, clinical
recovery, normal laboratory indexes
E. Not early than a 28th day from the beginning of disease, clinical
recovery, normal laboratory indexes
93.Boy, 13 years, is hospitalized with previous diagnosis «pseudotuberculosis».
Indicate the most meaningful natural reservoir of infection.
A. *synanthrope mice-like rodents
B. Wild mice-like rodents
C. Wild dogs
D. Wild cats
E. Domestic animals
94.Boy, aged 9 years, which is ill for 4 days, entered a clinic with soundless cough,
aphonia, subfebrile temperature, dyspnea only at the physical exertion. At rest
breathing is free. During laryngoscopy were seen the edema and hyperemia of
epiglottis, fibrinous exudates on it. During reaction of latex-agglutination a
diphtheria toxin is revealed in the serum. Diagnose is:
A. primary diphtheria of the larynx
B. secondary diphtheria of the larynx
C. diphtheria of the larynx, dysphonia period
D. *diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 1st degree
E. diphtheria of the larynx, stenotic period, stenosis of the 2nd degree
95.Child of 2 years old fell ill acutely: increased body temperature to 39.5 ˚C,
refuses to eat. He had drunk hot milk before. At the oral mucosa have appeared
thin-walled vesicles with a red rim than quickly develop characteristic surface
ulcers. Oral mucosa is edematous and hyperemic. Gums are inflamed and
edematous. What diagnosis is the most likely in a child?
A. *Herpes of oral mucosa (thrush)
B. Burn of oral mucosa
C. Thrush (oral candidiasis)
D. Chickenpox
E. An allergic reaction to cow's milk
96.Child of 3 months comes for vaccination against whooping-cough, diphtheria,
tetanus. It is known from anamnesis, that in postnatal period and in 1.5 months
a child had cramps. Indicate is it possible to vaccinate this child?
A. vaccination is contra-indicated
B. *vaccination by DT-antitoxin
C. vaccinate according to the calendar after a neurologist consultation
D. vaccinate according to the calendar after an immunologist consultation
E. vaccinate according to the calendar in the hospital
97.Child, 2 years, that is ill for 3 days, is hospitalized in the infectious department
with diagnosis: upper respiratory tract viral infection, laryngotracheitis.
Parainfluenza is suspected. What symptoms will be different from measles,
prodromal period?
A. Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, enanthem on a soft palate
B. Absence of croup syndrome
C. Presence of laryngeal stenosis of the 1st or 2nd degree
D. *Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, the Koplick's spots,
enanthem on a soft palate
E. Presence of hyperemia of the pharynx, enanthem on a soft palate
98.Child, 2 years, was not vaccinated against measles, contacted with a patient
who had measles. What is the evidence to the specific passive prophylaxis of
measles in this case?
A. Age of child
B. *Absence of vaccination
C. Term of contact more than 1 week
D. Absence of vaccination and the child's age
E. Age of child, term of contact up to 4-6 days
99.During inspection of the 6-year old patient on the skin in the VI intercostal
space along the anterior and posterior axillary lines doctor has found closely
situated vesicles of 0.3-0.5 cm, filled with transparent content, with a tendency
to merge, the body temperature is 37.5 ˚C. What disease is the most likely in
this situation?
A. *Herpes zoster
B. Measles
C. Chickenpox
D. Herpes simplex
E. Allergic rash
100. During paroxysmal cough, which disturbs the child during 3 weeks, the
paroxysm has ended by discharge of transparent phlegm and vomiting. Name
the diagnosis:
A. Bronchiolitis;
B. Obstructive bronchitis;
C.
D.
E.
*Whooping cough;
Allergic bronchitis;
Bronchial asthma.
101. Examining a child of six years on the second day of illness a doctor saw
multiple, very small rash predominantly on the flexor surfaces of hands and
feet. The body temperature is 38.4 ˚C. The child complains of sore throat. A
scarlet fever was suspected. Which form of scarlet fever is the most likely in
this case?
A. *Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinical
E. Rudimentary
102. For the prophylaxis of whooping-cough, diphtheria and tetanus children are
vaccinated by DTP vaccine. How such vaccine is named, which contains the
killed bacterial cells of one agent and antitoxins of other agents?
A. *Associated
B. Gene-engineering
C. Chemical
D. autovaccine
E. antyidiotype
103. From a sick child Corynebacterium diphtheriae is selected. What fraction of
diphtheria exotoxin has receptor-binding part, which helps in toxin penetration
to a cell?
A. thermolabile (toxin A)
B. *thermostabile (toxin B)
C. Cord-factor
D. Tox + phage
E. Gwarnieri corpuscles
104. In 12 years child on a slightly swollen skin of palms has appeared linear
arrangement of separated nodules and tense vesicles filled with clear liquid.
Rashes at other sites were absent. The body temperature of a child is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
A. *Herpes of the palms
B. Allergic dermatitis
C. Chickenpox
D. Erysipelas
E. Bulous impetigo
105. In a boy on the 2nd day of disease on a background of the subfebrile
temperature and rhinitis, has appeared rose small maculous rashes on a body,
mainly on the external surfaces of extremities, buttocks, back. Your previous
diagnosis is:
A. *Rubella
B. Pseudotuberculosis
C. Scarlet fever
D. Measles
E. chicken pox
106. In a boy, 8 years old, pediatrician has suspect pseudotuberculosis. For the
detachment of specific antibodies on the second week of the disease was
performed serologic reaction. Indicate the diagnostic titer of this reaction:
A. 1:50.
B. 1:80.
C. 1:100.
D. *1:200.
E. 1:360.
107. In a child 5 years of age (on the third day of chickenpox) body temperature
is 39.3 ˚C, remains a rash as macula, vesicles, crusts without a definite
localization; has appeared rough barking paroxysmal cough. How to interpret
the changes in the child's condition on the third day of illness?
A. *Croup syndrome in varicella
B. Pertussis
C. Joining of ARVI with symptoms of croup
D. Acute pneumonia
E. Aphthous stomatitis
108. In a child, 4 years old, with polymorphic rash on skin (spots, papules,
vesicles, crusts), subfebrile body temperature, was diagnosed Chickenpox.
What changes in complete blood analyses are most probable?
A. Leucocytosis, lymphopenia.
B. *Leucopenia, lymphocytosis.
C. Leucocytosis, neutrophilia.
D. Leucopenia, monocytosis.
E. Leucocytosis, monocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells.
109. In a child, 6 years old, who has Chickenpox, on the 6 day of the disease has
increased body temperature, appeared the headache, vomiting. During
examination stiff neck was fined. Meningitis was diagnosed. What change in
spinal fluid is the most probable?
A. *Lymphocytic pleocytosis.
B. Neutrophilic pleocytosis.
C. Protein more than 1 g/l.
D. Normocytosis.
E. Glucose level is increased.
110. In a child, 9 years old, who has Chickenpox, on 7th day of the disease again
has increased body temperature to 39.2 ºС, has appeared headache, vomiting,
shaky gait, declaimed speech. During examination was noted remaining
elements of the rash (crusts), nuchal rigidity; the child is falling in Romberg
pose. What complication is possible?
A. Polyneuropathy.
B. Meningitis.
C. *Meningoencephalitis.
D. Encephalomyelitis.
E. Ventriculitis.
111. In a girl, 10 years old, pediatrician has diagnosed "Pseudotuberculosis". It is
known that 1.5 months ago she had maculous rash on lateral surface of the
trunk, lower part of the abdominal wall, pain in the throat, increased the body
temperature to 38,5 ºC. The girl was treated at home. At the moment she
complains of the rash around knees and on feet, severe joint pain, with the
joints' immobility. Name the severity of the disease:
A. Mild.
B. *Moderate.
C. Severe.
D. Acute.
E. Prolonged.
112. In a girl, 12 years old, who has entered to infectious department with
diagnosis "Pseudotuberculosis", present toxic syndrome, hyperemied and rough
back pharyngeal wall, increased cervical, submandibular, axillary lymph nodes,
painful during palpation. The liver is increased, painful during palpation. Name
the syndrome, which is present in this case:
A. Combined.
B. Hepatitis.
C. *Mononucleosis-like.
D. Abdominal.
E. Gastrointestinal.
113. In a second grade student was diagnosed chickenpox moderate form. What
anti-epidemic measures are the most correct?
A. *Isolate the patient at home to 5-th day after the last vesicles appear
B. Hospitalize a patient in Meltzer’s boxing
C. Isolate the patient at home before crusts disappear
D. Isolate the patient at home to the normalization of temperature
E. Hospitalize patient in a specialized department
114. In orphanage the case of measles is registered in 7 years old child. Name the
first evidence of hospitalization in this case.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
severe disease
concomitant diseases
*child from the closed child's establishment
viral complications
second bacterial infection
115. To children's infectious department has entered a girl, 6 years old, with
diagnosis "Pseudotuberculosis". Choose the antibacterial medicine for
etiological therapy:
A. Penicillin.
B. Ampiox.
C. Cefazoline.
D. *Cefotaxim.
E. Tetracycline.
116. In preschool in a junior group three children became ill by infectious
mononucleosis. Indicate what cases are typical for this disease.
A. Epidemics
B. Sporadic only in cold time of year
C. Epidemics in cold time of year
D. Epidemics in autumn time of year
E. *Flashes in the organized collectives
117. In preschool in a junior group three children became ill by infectious
mononucleosis. Indicate at whom of children, in obedience to statistics, the
disease is more frequent registered?
A. *At boys
B. At girls
C. At new-born children
D. At teenagers
E. At senior children
118. In preschool in a junior group three children became ill by infectious
mononucleosis. Indicate at what period of year, in obedience to statistics, more
frequent is the disease registered?
A. In summer
B. In summer-autumn
C. In autumn-winter
D. *In winter-spring
E. In a spring
119. In preschool in a senior group two children became ill by infectious
mononucleosis. Does it follow to perform nonspecific prevention in the focus of
infection?
A. contacts receive normal human immune globulin
B.
C.
D.
E.
contacts receive specific immune globulin
in the focus of infection is performed final disinfection
look after contacts during 7 days
*preventive measures in the focus of infection are not performed
120. In the child, 5 years old, the disease has began sharply from high body
temperature, vomiting, increased anterior neck lymphatic nodes. The cheeks are
red, circumoral surface is pale. In the pharynx is present separated bright
hyperemia, purulent exudates on tonsils. What disease is possible in this case?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Measles.
C. Enteroviral infection.
D. Rubella.
E. *Scarlet fever.
121. In the group of preschool (kindergarten) the case of measles is registered.
What term of isolation of contact children whom a specific prophylaxis was not
performed?
A. 11 days
B. 14 days
C. *17 days
D. 21 day
E. 11-21 day
122. In the inhabited locality there is an increase of diphtheria morbidity during
the last 3 years with separate flashes in families. What measure can effectively
influence on the diphtheria epidemic process and decrease the morbidity to
single cases?
A. *Immunization of the population
B. Disinfection in disease focus
C. Revelation of carriers
D. Early diagnostics
E. Hospitalization of patients
123. In the middle group of the kindergarten two children have "Whooping
cough". Indicate duration of the quarantine for contacts since moment of ill
children isolation.
A. 3 days
B. 5 days;
C. 9 days;
D. *14 days;
E. 21 days.
124. In the ward of infectious department 3 children are hospitalized with
measles, the period of exanthema, complicated by the croup syndrome, stenosis
1st degree. Can they be there together?
A. Yes, patients in the identical period of disease
B. Yes, patients have identical complication
C. No, it follows to place them separately
D. *Yes, the cultures of virus of measles are identical by the antigen
properties
E. No, because possible development of other complications
125. Morbidity by diphtheria in our country substantially went down due to
vaccination. Since what year massive immunization of population against
diphtheria is performed?
A. 1917
B. 1924
C. *1940
D. 1960
E. 1965
126. Mother with the boy of 1 year visited a policlinic for taking the planned
vaccination. When does a child follow to take revaccination against Rubella?
A. In 1 year
B. At 1.5 year
C. In 3, 6 years
D. *In 6 years
E. In 6, 15 years
127. Teenager, 16 years, entered to infectious department, diphtheria of the
pharynx was diagnosed. On 2nd day the fibrinous membrane was leaked with a
blood. On the skin - hemorrhages, bleeding from a nose was noted. Indicate the
form of diphtheria:
A. Hypertoxic
B. *Hemorrhagic
C. Toxic 1st degree
D. Toxic 2nd degree
E. Toxic 3rd degree
128. The Boy is 6 years old. He is study at school. 2 days ago suddenly the body
temperature rose to 38 ºС, the general condition become worse; the pain during
swallowing has appeared. The patient was examined by family doctor. The
scarlet fever was diagnosed. When the child could visit the school?
A. On 10th day after the disease has begun.
B. On 15th day after the disease has begun.
C. On 20th day after the disease has begun.
D. *on 22nd day after the disease has begun.
E.
on 30th day after the disease has begun.
129. The boy, 11 years old, who was treated from pseudotuberculosis in the
hospital during the month, complains of the periodic pain in knees and feet. The
duration of the disease is 1.5 months. Name the course of pseudotuberculosis in
this case:
A. Typical.
B. Moderate.
C. Acute.
D. *Prolonged.
E. Chronic.
130. The boy, 13 years old, came to pediatrician in a week after discharge from
infectious department, where he was treated from pseudotuberculosis. The
physician has noticed erythema of 2.5-5 cm by diameter on front surface of the
legs and around the knees. During palpation painful, deeply located, limited
nodes were found. Body temperature is 37.2 ºC. On palms and soles
desquamation of the skin. Name the course of the pseudotuberculosis:
A. Typical.
B. Moderate.
C. Acute.
D. Prolonged.
E. *Relapsed.
131. The boy, 2 years old, became ill acutely. The disease has began from
increasing of the temperature to 37.9º С, skin rash. On the third day physician
has noted the rash on the face, hair part of the head, trunk, hands, legs in the
manner of spots, papules, vesicles with transparent contents, crusts. What is the
probable diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex.
B. Herpes zoster.
C. Natural pox.
D. *Chickenpox.
E. Lyell syndrome.
132. The boy, 4 years old, became ill acutely: sub-febrile temperature, small
catarrhal phenomena, rash on the skin. The rash has appeared during following
4 days, has polymorphic structure. Chickenpox was diagnosed. For what period
must be isolated ill person?
A. For 4 days.
B. For 5 days.
C. For 16 days.
D. *For the whole rash period + 5 days since the last element of the rash has
appeared.
E. For 21 days.
133. The boy, 4 years old, is treated in infectious department because of the
scarlet fever, moderate form. He complains of increasing body temperature to
39 ºС, multiple vomiting, poor sleeping, and headache. Objectively: bright
point rashes on flexible surfaces of the limbs, lateral surface of the trunk,
internal and back surfaces of the thighs. The regional lymphatic nodes are
increased, painful. The scarlet fever was diagnosed. What etiological therapy is
better to use in this case?
A. Oxacillin
B. *Benzylpenicillin
C. Furazolidone
D. Gentamicin
E. Cefotaxim
134. The boy of three years awoke at night from paroxysmal convulsive cough:
one for another existed the short cough pushes, which were interrupted by
whoops. Name the disease period:
A. Incubation;
B. Prodromal;
C. Catarrhal;
D. *Paroxysmal;
E. Permition.
135. The Child is 3 years old. He is ill for 5 days, became ill sharply: the body
temperature has increased to 38.5 ºС, the general condition become worse, the
pain in throat had appeared. In 2 days has appeared small point-like rash. The
Scarlet fever was diagnosed. What changes in the general blood test are typical
for this disease?
A. *Elevation of ESR, leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynophilia.
B. leucopenia, neutrophilia, reduction of ESR.
C. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis.
D. leucocytosis, aneosinophylia.
E. leukopenia, neutrophilia, atypical mononuclear cells.
136. The child of 1 year has visited a policlinic for the planned vaccination by the
MMR vaccine. When does it follow to do revaccination against the measles?
A. In 3 years
B. *In 6 years
C. In 7 years
D. In 11 years
E. In 15 years
137. The child, 3 years old, became ill acutely. Body temperature has increased to
37.8º С. On trunk, hair part of the head, face has appeared small spots, papules.
Next day has appeared fresh elements of the rash, old elements has changed in
vesicles, partly in crusts. It is known that two weeks ago child contacted with
sick person, who has a similar disease. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Rubella
B. *Chickenpox
C. Measles
D. Scarlet fever
E. Infectious mononucleosis
138. The child, 3 years old, has measles. He is treated in infectious department.
He visits kindergarten. On what period it is necessary to impose the quarantine
in the group of kindergarten, which visits this child?
A. Till 5th day
B. On 10 day
C. *On 17 day
D. For 21 days
E. Not, it is unnecessary
139. The child, 3 years old, has measles. On the 5th day has appeared the rash on
face, neck, and chest. On what period is necessary to isolate the sick child?
A. On 17 days.
B. On 10 days.
C. On 7 days.
D. *On 4 days.
E. Does not require isolation.
140. The child, 3 years old, is ill during 3 days. His mother complains that child
has high temperature (38 ºC), headache, cough. The child could not look at light
(appears tearing). Objectively: child is wilted, conjunctivas hyperemia and
edema are present. On cheeks and gums are present spots of gray-white color,
surrounded by red bordering, sized as poppy grain. On soft palate is enanthema
- in the manner of small rose-red spots. What diagnosis is most probable?
A. Influenza.
B. Parainfluenza.
C. Rubella.
D. Scarlet fever.
E. *Measles.
141. The child, 3.5 years old, has Chickenpox. He visits kindergarten. What is the
duration of quarantine in a group of kindergarten?
A. From 17 to 21 day.
B. From 5 to 25 day.
C. For 14 day.
D. For 35 day.
E. *From 9 to 21 day.
142. The child, 4 years old, is ill for 7 days. The body temperature is 36.8 ºС,
once in a while disturbs productive cough. On the face and upper half of the
trunk - pigmented rashes, on lower limbs spotted-papulous rashes. Measles was
diagnosed. What is period of measles is in this case?
A. Catarrhal
B. Exanthema
C. *Pigmentation
D. Complications
E. Recovery
143. The child, 4 years old, is ill for the 3rd day. On skin he has polymorphic
rash: spots, papules, vesicles, some of them have purulent content, crusts. Body
temperature has increased. Was diagnosed Chickenpox, complicated by
pyoderma. What from enumerated medicine should be prescribed to this child?
A. Gentamicin.
B. Nifuroxasid.
C. Gancyclovir.
D. *No one.
E. Laevomycetin.
144. The child, 5 years old, became ill sharply, 3 days ago. The body temperature
has increased to 38 ºС. He was treated by home methods. In 3 days his
condition was not better. The patient was examined by family doctor.
Pharyngeal and tonsillar hyperemia was found, small point-like enanthema on
soft palate. In skin folds, lateral surface of the trunk and neck - small maculous
rash. Increased front-cervical lymphatic nodes are palpated. What is the
probable diagnosis?
A. Rubella.
B. Chickenpox.
C. Pseudotuberculosis.
D. Hemorrhagic purpura.
E. *Scarlet fever.
145. The child, 5 years old, has measles, which on the 5th day has complicated by
bilateral bronchopneumonia. How long must be isolated sick person?
A. On 4 days after rashes have appeared.
B. On 5 days after rashes have appeared.
C. *On 10 days after rashes have appeared.
D. On 14 days after rashes has appeared.
E. On 21 days after rashes has appeared.
146. The child, 5 years old, is entering the infectious department. The complaints
are: increasing of the body temperature to 39º С, headache, pain in the throat,
vomiting. Objectively: in skin folds, lateral surface of the trunk and neck small maculous rash. Circumoral pallor is noted on the background of bright
colored cheeks. Anterior cervical lymphatic nodes are enlarged. The tongue is
covered by white coat, pharynx is hyperemied. What is the diagnosis?
A. Rubella.
B. Chickenpox.
C. Pseudotuberculosis.
D. *Scarlet fever.
E. Hemorrhagic purpura.
147. The child, 6 years old, is ill for 3 days. The disease has begun with
increasing of the body temperature to 38 ºС, cough. Objectively: eyelids with
edema, tearing, ocular slots are narrowed, oral mucosa is covered with white
punctures, which are encircled by red bordering. On soft palate enanthema is
present. Measles was diagnosed. What period of the disease has the child?
A. *Catarrhal
B. Exanthema
C. Incubation
D. Pigmentation
E. Recovery
148. The child, 7 years old, complains of increasing of the body temperature to 39
ºС, pain in throat, malaise. He is ill for 4 days. At examination of the pharynx:
hyperemia, small-maculous hemorrhagic rash on soft palate. Objectively:
increased, painful, thickened front-cervical lymphatic nodes, on flexible
surfaces of the limbs - bright point-like rash. What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Scarlet fever
B. Diphtheria
C. Lacunar angina
D. Measles
E. Chickenpox
149. The child, 7 years old, has measles for 10 days. He complains of increasing
of the body temperature to 39 ºС, general weakness, and periodic moist cough
with discharge of the mucous phlegm. Objectively: the general condition is
moderate; skin is pale with pigmented rashes. In lower parts of lungs – dull
sound, crepitation. What complication of the measles has appeared in this
child?
A. Tracheobronhitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. *Pneumonia
E. Pharyngitis
150. The child, 7 years old, is ill for 4 days. He complains of dry cough, head
ache, increasing of the body temperature to 38 ºС; is afraid of the light. At
examination: conjunctivas hyperemia, on gums white spots, surrounded by red
bordering, serous discharges from nose. On hard palate enanthema is present.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Enteroviral infection
B. Rubella
C. Stomatitis
D. *Measles
E. Scarlet fever
151. The child, 7 years old, is ill for 5th day. He complains of rashes that appear
on the nose back. He became ill sharply, when had increased the body
temperature to 38 ºС, appeared the liquid separations from nose. Objectively:
The face is puffy, conjunctional hyperemia and edema are noted. The back
pharyngeal wall is hyperemied. On soft palate - single small rose spots. On
cheeks - white spots with red corolla. The skin of the face and neck is covered
by big amount of small rose spots on no changed base. What diagnosis is the
most probable?
A. Measles, catarrhal period.
B. *Measles, rashes period.
C. Infectious mononucleosis.
D. Scarlet fever.
E. Meningococcemia.
152. The child, 7 years old, is ill for the second day. He complains of cough,
headache; the body temperature is 38 ºС. During examination: conjunctivas
hyperemia, tearing, on soft and hard palate - enanthema, on mucous membranes
of the cheeks against small scolded teeth - small white spots with hyperemia
around them. What disease is most probable in this case?
A. Stomatitis.
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Enteroviral infection.
D. *Measles.
E. Parainfluenza.
153. The child, 9 years old, is ill for 6 days. He complains of increasing body
temperature to 38 ºС, pain during swallowing, small maculous rash on neck,
upper part of the trunk, skin folds. Objectively: pharyngeal and tonsillar
hyperemia was founded, small point-like enanthema on soft palate. What
laboratory investigation will confirm the Scarlet fever?
A. Thick smear of the blood.
B. Smears from the pharynx on viral parts.
C. Blood culture.
D. *The agglutination reaction to reveal the antigen in material.
E. The swab from nose and pharynx on bacillus Lefleri.
154. The child, aged 3 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before
next vaccination against these diseases?
A. 2 weeks
B. *1 month
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
E. 12 months
155. The child, aged 4 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before
next vaccination against these diseases?
A. 2 weeks
B. *1 month
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
E. 12 months
156. The child, aged 5 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before
next vaccination against these diseases?
A. Not less than 3 months
B. Not less than 6 months
C. Not less than 9 months
D. *Not less than 12 months
E. Not less than 18 months
157. The district pediatrician visited 9-month-old baby who is suffering from
chicken pox, on the third day of illness. On examination were revealed vesicles
on the skin of the trunk, extremities and oral mucosa, as well as crusts on his
face, hyperemia of conjunctivas, and purulent discharge from the eyes. The
body temperature is 38.5 ˚C. What conclusion has made the doctor?
A. *Moderate form of varicella, complicated by the bacterial infection
B. Typical moderate form of varicella
C. Typical severe form of varicella
D. Generalized form of varicella
E. Hemorrhagic form of varicella
158. The girl, 7 years old, complains of pain in the throat, increasing of the body
temperature to febrile, headache, and sickness. During objective examination:
bright point-like rash on flexible surfaces of the limbs, lateral surface of the
trunk, internal and back surfaces of the thighs, increased front-cervical
lymphatic nodes, "blazing pharynx". The scarlet fever was diagnosed. What
bacteria cause this disease?
A. Staphylococci
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Betha-haemolytic streptococci
Escherichia coli
Bacillus cereus
Gram-positive diplococci
159. The home pediatrician during examination of the 14 years old girl, has
noticed maculous rash on lateral surface of the body and lower part of the
abdomen on hyperemied skin. The face is hyperemied with cyanosis, edema of
the hands and feet. Name the diagnosis:
A. *Pseudotuberculosis.
B. Scarlet fever.
C. Erysipelas.
D. Tularemia.
E. Brucellosis.
160. The home pediatrician during examination of the 9 years old boy put the
diagnosis of pseudotuberculosis. Name the method, which is used for early
diagnostic of the disease:
A. Bacteriological.
B. *Immune-enzyme.
C. Serological.
D. Cytological.
E. Cytochemical.
161. The Physician is called to the boy, 5 years old. Patient is ill during 4 days:
increased temperature to 38.2º С, rash has appeared on skin since the first day
of the disease. During examination is noted polymorphic rash (the papules,
vesicles, crusts) on the whole body, there are several vesicles with purulent
content and hyperemia around them. What complication is possible?
A. Phlegmona
B. Furunculosis
C. *Pustulosis
D. Paronychia
E. Eczema
162. Three weeks after acute tonsillitis the patient is still weak, inert, subfebrile,
his retromaxillary lymph nodes are enlarged. Tonsils are flabby, stick together
with arches, there are purulent plugs in lacunae. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Acute lacunar tonsillitis
B. *Chronic tonsillitis
C. Chronic pharyngitis
D. Tonsillar tumor
E. Perytonsillitis
163. To pediatrician has addressed a boy, 10 years old, with complains of
increased body temperature to 38.2 ºC, rash in the manner of red spots and
papules on the skin. The physician has noticed the rash on lateral surface of the
body and lower part of the abdomen. The face is hyperemied with cyanosis,
edema of the neck, higher part of the thorax. Name the diagnosis:
A. Chickenpox.
B. *Pseudotuberculosis.
C. Measles.
D. Rubella.
E. Scarlet fever.
164. To pediatrician has addressed a girl, 12 years old, who had increased body
temperature to 38.2-39.4 ºC. In 5 days rash had appeared around knees and feet,
and lower part of the abdomen, in skin folds. It looks like red spots and
papules. Mild jaundice of the skin had appeared. Name the diagnosis.
A. Chickenpox.
B. *Pseudotuberculosis.
C. Measles.
D. Rubella.
E. Scarlet fever.
165. To the 10 years old boy a tree-like keratitis is diagnosed. Unilateral
expressed vascular injection of the eyeball is revealed, almost in the center of
the cornea is fuzzy grayish turbidity, that takes the form of twigs with rough
surface. What infection can cause such changes?
A. *Herpetic
B. Adenovirus
C. Measles
D. Chlamydia
E. Staphylococcal
166. To the boy, patient with pseudotuberculosis, complete blood analysis is
done. How will differ its results from complete blood analysis at infectious
mononucleosis with the secondary tonsillitis?
A. leucopenia, lymphomonocytosis, appearance of atypical mononuclear
cells,
B. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, plasmocytosis
C. leucocytosis, neutrophilia, eosynophilia, increased ESR
D. leucopenia, lymphocytosis, absence of atypical mononuclear cells
E. *neutrophilia, absence of atypical mononuclear cells
167. To the child of 18 months re-vaccination against tetanus, diphtheria,
whooping-cough was done. What recommendation does it follow to give to the
parents in case the credible increase of temperature?
A. *paracethamol during 1 day
B.
C.
D.
E.
paracethamol during 3 days
Aspirin during 1 days
analgin during 1 day
analgin during 3 days
168. To the child with the purpose of congenital Rubella confirmation virology
research is performed. What environments and liquids need to be examined for
this test?
A. Blood, saliva, cerebral-spinal fluid
B. Blood, saliva, urine, sweat
C. Blood, cerebral-spinal fluid, urine
D. *Blood, nasopharyngeal mucus, excrements, urine
E. Urine, excrements, saliva, sweat
169. To the child with the purpose of Rubella confirmation hemagglutination
retardation reaction is done with the rubella diagnostic test. When does it follow
to repeat this research?
A. In 4 days
B. In 7 days
C. *In 10-14 days
D. In 3 weeks
E. In a month
170. To the child with the purpose of Rubella confirmation hemagglutination
retardation reaction is done with the rubella diagnostic test. Indicate the
diagnostic titer of antibodies.
A. 1:20
B. 1:40
C. 1:80
D. 1:160
E. *Increase of titre in 4 and more times in paired sera
171. To the child, 10 months old, with the purpose of measles' prophylaxis (he
contacted with a sick brother) was injected specific immunoglobulin. What type
of immunity has developed in this case?
A. *Specific, passive, with short duration
B. Specific, passive, with long duration
C. Specific, active, with long duration
D. Unspecific, passive, with short duration
E. Unspecific, passive, of long duration
172. To the girl, patient with pseudotuberculosis, moderate degree, complete
blood analysis is done. What results will be different from results in complete
blood analysis at scarlet fever?
A. Increased number of plasmatic cells, normal ESR
B.
C.
D.
E.
monocytosis, normal ESR
Appearance of atypical mononuclear cells, increased ESR
leucocytosis, increased ESR
*No one
173. To the healthy child, 1 year old, 3 days ago Mantoux test was performed.
The result is negative. Together with what vaccination should be done
vaccination against Chickenpox?
A. Against whooping cough, tetanus, diphtheria.
B. Against poliomyelitis.
C. *This vaccination is not obvious.
D. Against hepatitis В.
E. Against tuberculosis.
174. What medicine is better to use to decrease the number of cough paroxysms
in case of Whooping cough in 5 years old child?
A. *Buthamirat;
B. Glauvent;
C. Salbuthamol;
D. Instaril;
E. Libexin.
175. What treatment is necessary to a 5 years old child who is suffering with
uncomplicated whooping cough for 3 weeks?
A. *None of the above
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Glucocorticoid hormones
D. Erythromycin
E. Whooping cough immunoglobulin
176. Which of the following should be taken (with the purpose of the Epidemic
measures) in the rheumatologic department, where one child has chicken pox,
in relation to other children, that previously had not suffered from chicken pox?
A. *Discharge or translocate them to an infectious "box" in 8 days
B. Urgent discharge
C. Urgently translocate them to Meltzer’s box
D. Held in a room with children who previously suffered from chickenpox
E. Do nothing
177. A 1,5 y.o. child fell ill acutely with high temperature 38 °C, headache,
fatigue. The temperature declined on the fifth day, muscular pain in the right
leg occurred in the morning, there were no movements and tendon reflexes,
sensitivity was reserved. What is the initial diagnosis?
A. Viral encephalitis
B. Hip joint arthritis
C.
D.
E.
*Poliomyelitis
Polyartropathy
Osteomyelitis
178. A 14-year-old patient on the 5th day of acute respiratory disease with high
grade temperature complained of strong headache, systemic dizziness, sensation
of double vision, paresis of right mimic muscles, tickling at swallowing.
Diagnosis: Acute viral encephalitis. Determine the basic direction of the
emergent therapy.
A. *Acyclovir
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Hemodesis
D. Cephtriaxon
E. Lasix
179. A 15 years patient fell ill a week ago: body temperature rose up to 37.6 °C,
there appeared a slight swelling on his neck. His illness was diagnosed as
ARVI, cervical lymphadenitis. Treatment included erythromycin, hot compress
on the neck. Than body temperature raised up to 39 oC, appeared headache,
repeated vomiting, meningeal syndrome. What studies are necessary for the
final diagnosis?
A. Complete blood count
B. Puncture of cervical lymph node
C. *Cerebrospinal puncture
D. Sputum test for secondary flora
E. Roentgenological examination of lungs
180. A 3 year old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39 oC, weakness, vomiting.
Haemorrhagic rash of various size appeared on his lower limbs in 5 hours.
Meningococcemia with infectious - toxic shock of the 1st degree was
diagnosed. What medications should be administered?
A. *Chloramphenicol succinate and prednisone
B. Chloramphenicol succinate and interferon
C. Penicillin and prednisone
D. Ampicillin and immunoglobulin
E. Penicillin and immunoglobulin
181. A 3 year old child fell ill acutely, body temperature rose up to 39.5 °C, the
child became inert, there appeared recurrent vomiting, headache. Examination
revealed positive meningeal symptoms. CSF is turbid, with high pressure,
protein 1,8 g/l; Pandy reaction +++, sugar 2,2 mmole/l, chlorides - 123
mmole/l, cytosis is 2,35*10^9 (80% neutrophils, 20% lymphocytes). What is
the most probable diagnosis?
A. Serous tuberculosis meningitis
B. Brain tumor
C.
D.
E.
Serous viral meningitis
*Purulent meningitis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
182. A 5-year-old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39.8 °C, recurrent vomiting,
severe headache. Convulsions occur in 3 hours. Meningeal signs are positive.
Pleocytosis of 2500 mainly polymorphonuclear cells, elevated protein
concentration and normal glucose concentration were found in cerebrospinal
fluid. What is your diagnosis?
A. *Purulent meningitis
B. Tuberculosis meningitis
C. Serous meningitis
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
E. Encephalitis
183. A boy, 7 years old became ill 3 days ago: body temperature 39.6 °С,
repeated vomiting, headache, weakness. On the 3rd day he couldn't close left
eye, face asymmetry during speaking has appeared. The boy wasn't
vaccinated. What disease is suspected?
A. *Poliomyelitis, pontine form
B. Poliomyelitis, bulbar form
C. Poliomyelitis, meningeal form
D. Facial nerve peripheral palsy
E. Facial nerve central palsy
184. A child with meningococcus meningitis has been taking penicillin for 7
days. Last 4 days a body's temperature is normal. Meningeal signs are absent.
When is it possible to cancel antibiotic therapy?
A. *If liquor cytosis is 50 or less, mainly due to lymphocytes
B. If liquor cytosis is 150, mainly due to lymphocytes
C. Right now
D. If leucocytosis and left neutrophilic shift are absent
E. If liquor cytosis is 100 or less, mainly due to neutrophils
185. A girl 2 years became ill acutely from raising of temperature to 38.3 °С,
catarrhal phenomena. During three days cough and cold were present. Then a
temperature decreased, but the child could not stay. A doctor reveals limitation
of movements, lowering of muscular tone in lower extremities. Sensitiveness is
normal. Name previous diagnosis.
A. *Poliomyelitis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Enteroviral infection
D. Rotaviral infection
E. Flu
186. A girl, 4.5 years old, is treated in infectious department from meningococcal
infection (generalized form), meningococcemia. Name, what examination must
be done to determine specific antibody.
A. *Serological reaction.
B. The latex-agglutination reaction
C. The immune-electrophoresis reaction
D. The direct bacterioscopy of the blood.
E. Bacteriological examination of the blood.
187. A girl, aged 10 months, is treated from meningococcal infection (generalized
form). Choose the sign, which is not unfavorable at this disease:
A. Early age.
B. Early appearance and quick growth of the hemorrhagic rash.
C. Predominant localization of the rash on face and trunk.
D. Hypothermia.
E. *Presence of purulent meningitis.
188. At 14 years fellow measles was complicated by meningoencephalitis. What
features of this complication?
A. *Severe course, high lethality
B. Defeat of cerebellum, convalescence without the remaining phenomena
C. Defeat of cerebellum, central paralyses
D. Mild course, without the remaining phenomena
E. Development of purulent meningitis
189. At a boy Rubella was complicated by meningoencephalitis. In what age such
complication is more frequent?
A. In new-born
B. At infants
C. At the children of early age
D. In preschoolers
E. *In senior schoolers
190. At a child 4 years suddenly the temperature of body rose to 39.5 °C. Head
ache and repeated vomit appeared. In a hour a mother noticed the plural
hemorrhagic rashes on buttocks and shins, which spread quickly. What is the
previous diagnosis?
A. *Meningococcemia, fulminant form
B. Meningococcemia, infectious-toxic shock ІІ degree
C. Meningococcal meningitis
D. Meningococcal meningoencephalitis
E. Meningococcal meningitis and Meningococcemia
191. Child 1.5 years, not vaccinated is ill for 4 days. The disease had begun from
hyperthermia to 38.5 °C, weakness, mild catarrhal phenomena and liquid
emptying. On a 5th day a temperature normalized, pain appeared in the muscles
of feet with acute limitation of movements, lowering of tendon reflexes. Name
previous diagnosis.
A. *Poliomyelitis
B. Acute intestinal infection
C. Acute encephalitis
D. URT infection
E. Osteomyelitis
192. In entrance department of the infectious diseases hospital to the child, 5
years old, physician put diagnosis of meningococcal infection,
meningococcemia. Indicate the start dose of the penicillin for meningococcemia
treatment.
A. 100 thous. IU/kg/day.
B. *200-300 thous. IU/kg/day.
C. 500 thous. IU/kg/day.
D. 800 thous. IU/kg/day.
E. 1 mln. IU/kg/day.
193. In entrance department of the infectious hospital to the boy, at the age of 2
years, the diagnosis of meningococcal infection, mixed form with infectioustoxic shock I degree, was put. Choose the sign, which is not typical for this
case:
A. *Decrease of the arterial pressure below 80 mm.Hg.
B. Skin pallor.
C. Cool limbs.
D. Central hyperthermia.
E. Adequate urination.
194. In the child with meningococcal infection (typical meningococcemia) typical
hemorrhagic rash is localized especially on the skin of the buttocks, lower part
of the abdomen. What is the most probable time of the rash beginning?
A. Simultaneously with increasing of the temperature.
B. Through 2-3 hours after increasing of the temperature.
C. *Through 5-15 hours after increasing of the temperature.
D. At the beginning of the 2nd day.
E. After 2 days.
195. In a patient the disease has started acutely, with fever to 38 — 39 °C,
weakness, acute headache, nausea, vomiting, pain all over the body, sleep
disorders. On physical examination: hyperemia of face, neck, thorax.
Meningeal signs are positive. 12 days ago the patient returned from the Siberia,
from the forest. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Tick-borne encephalitis
B. Omsk hemorrhagic fever
C.
D.
E.
Pseudotuberculosis
Epidemic typhus
Influenza
196. The boy, aged 3 years, had meningococcemia, uncomplicated form. Before
the disease vaccination was performed outside of vaccination calendar. Indicate
through what time after the disease is possible to continue vaccinations.
A. *1 month.
B. 2 months.
C. 6 months.
D. 1 year.
E. Vaccination is impossible.
197. The child is 3 years old. Meningococcal infection, generalized form,
purulent meningitis was diagnosed. What changes in the general blood test are
typical for this disease?
A. leucocytosis, lymphocytosis.
B. Leucopenia, neutrophilia, reduction of ESR.
C. *Elevation of ESR, leucocytosis, neutrophilia.
D. leucocytosis, aneosinophylia.
E. leukopenia, neutrophilia, atypical mononuclear cells.
198. The child, 4 years old, is ill with meningococcal infection
(meningococcemia), complicated by infectious-toxic shock. Choose the
antibacterial medicine, which is reasonable to use for etiotrope therapy:
A. Penicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Gentamicin.
D. Karbenicillin.
E. *Laevomycetin.
199. The child, 5 years old, complains of: increasing of the body temperature to
39.5 ºС, shivering, headache, poor sleeping. What single dose of paracethamol
should be given?
A. *0.01 g/kg
B. 0.05 g/kg
C. 0.1 g/kg
D. 0.2 g/kg
E. 0.5 g/kg
200. The Child, aged 2 years, with meningococcal infection, is examined by the
group of students together with physician. Name, which sign is not present at
meningococcal rash:
A. Hemorrhagic nature.
B. The elements are mildly increased on the level of the skin.
C.
D.
E.
The necrosis in the centre.
*Disappears at pressure.
In scraper is possible to find meningococcus.
201. To the boy, 4 years old, was put the diagnosis of meningococcal infection
(generalized form). The child is treated in infectious department. What
generalized form of meningococcal infection is the most often one?
A. Meningitis.
B. Meningococcemia.
C. *Combined form (Meningococcemia + meningitis).
D. Meningoencephalitis.
E. Encephalitis.
202. To the girl, 8 months old, the physician has put the diagnosis of
meningococcal infection, mixed form with infectious-toxic shock II degree. The
child is treated in resuscitation department of the infectious hospital. Choose the
sign, which is not typical in this case:
A. Decrease of the arterial pressure.
B. *Bradycardia.
C. Pallor of the skin.
D. Acrocyanosis.
E. Small pulse.
203. Child is 1 year. What antibiotic is it necessary to give him on a hospital
stage of treatment in case of Meningococcal infection without the infectioustoxic shock?
A. *benzylpenicillin
B. ampicillini thryhidratis
C. rifampicin
D. ciprofloxacin
E. amoxyclav
204. The child is 3.5 years. Admitted to the infectious ward on the 5th day of the
disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, the absence of active movements
in the legs, inability to stand, walk. On examination: lower extremities are cold,
hypersensitivity, positive symptoms of tension, he sits in a «tripod" pose,
passive movements in the legs are complete, the sensitivity is normal. Name a
diagnosis according to the classification.
A.
*Polio, a typical spinal form
B.
Polio, a typical bulbar form
C.
Polio, a typical pontine form
D.
Polio, a typical meningeal form
E.
Polio, atypical abortive form
205. A child of 2 years has entered to the infectious ward on the 5th day of the
disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, the absence of active movements
in the legs, inability to stand, walk. On examination: lower extremities are cold,
hypersensitivity, positive symptoms of tension, he sits in a "tripod" pose,
passive movements in the legs are complete, the sensitivity is normal. Which
period of poliomyelitis does this child have?
A.
*Paralytic
B.
Preparalytic
C.
Recovery
D.
Residual
E.
Abortive
206. The child is 4 years old. Entered the infectious department on the 6th day of
the disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, marked weakness, lack of
active movements in the legs, inability to stand, walk. Polio, typical spinal
form, paralytic period of moderate severity was diagnosed. What changes in the
complete blood analysis are typical for this case?
A.
*lymphocytosis, ESR acceleration
B.
leucocytosis, accelerated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C.
lymphopenia, ESR acceleration
D.
neutrophilia, eosynophilia, ESR acceleration
E.
lymphocytosis, monocytosis, the appearance of atypical mononuclear
cells
207. Child is 6 years. Entered the infectious department on the 4th day of the
disease with complaints on fever to 37.9 °C, marked weakness, lack of active
movements in the legs, inability to stand, walk. Polio, typical spinal form was
diagnosed. What changes in the cerebrospinal fluid are typical for this case?
A.
*mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation
B.
changes are not characteristic (indicators are normal)
C.
marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation
D.
the neutrophilic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation
E.
moderate neutrophilic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation
208. A boy of 7 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.6 °C, repeated vomiting,
dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed
absence of the right eyelids closing, distorted face during speaking. The boy is
not immunized. What the family doctor has to do?
A.
*Obviously send the patient to the infectious ward with 40 days
isolation.
B.
Obvious admission to the neurological department
C.
Home treatment up to restore lost functions
D.
Home treatment for 21 days
E.
Hospitalization to the infectious ward, the introduction of specific serum
209. A boy of 10 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.2 °C, repeated
vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents
noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The
boy is not immunized. What is the diagnosis?
A.
*Polio, typical pontine form
B.
Polio, typical spinal form
C.
Polio, typical bulbar form
D.
Polio, typical meningeal form
E.
Polio, atypical abortive form
210. A boy of 6 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.4 °C, repeated vomiting,
dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed
absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is
not immunized. What period of poliomyelitis has the child?
A.
*Paralytic
B.
Preparalytic
C.
Recovery
D.
Residual
E.
Abortive
211. A boy of 8 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.4 °C, repeated vomiting,
dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed
absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is
not immunized. Which diseases of the following it should not be
differentiated?
A.
*meningococcal disease
B.
neuritis of the facial nerve
C.
volume processes in the brain
D.
viral encephalitis
E.
enterovirus infection, polio-like form
212. A boy of 5 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.8 °C, repeated vomiting,
dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents noticed
absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The boy is
not immunized. What is the severity of polio in this case?
A.
*severe
B.
mild
C.
moderate
D.
abortive form
E.
unapparent form
213. A child of 3.5 years is acutely ill: 3 days ago there was a fever 38,8 °C, and
repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the
body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas
hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft
palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present.
Put a preliminary diagnosis.
A.
*Enterovirus infection
B.
Adenovirus infection
C.
Flu
D.
Measles
E.
Rubella
214. A child of 4 years is acutely ill: 4 days ago there was a fever 38,5 °C, and
repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the
body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas
hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft
palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present.
Enterovirus infection is suspected. Indicate the form of the disease.
A.
*Combined form: rash, herpangina
B.
Combined form: rash, enteritis
C.
Typical form: herpangina
D.
Respiratory catarrhal form (summer flu)
E.
Typical form: epidemic myalgia
215. A child of 5 years is acutely ill: 4 days ago there was a fever 38,5 °C, and
repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the
body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas
hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft
palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present.
Enterovirus infection is suspected. Which study will confirm it in the early
stages of the disease?
A.
*the virusological swab from the pharynx by ELISA
B.
serological method of paired sera
C.
bacteriological smear from the oropharynx
D.
detection of specific antibodies (Ig G) for enterovirus
E.
blood smear (thick film)
216. A child of 3.5 years is acutely ill: 3 days ago there was a fever 38,8 °C, and
repeatedly vomiting, sore throat, on the third day there were rashes all over the
body. On examination: a maculopapular rash all over the body, conjunctivas
hyperemia, soft palate, the back of the throat, tonsils. On the mucosa of the soft
palate and tonsils small papules and vesicles with a clear content are present.
Enterovirus infection is suspected. What control measures should be
undertaken if the child attended kindergarten?
A.
*The patient should be isolated until recovery, contact persons are not
isolated, daily inspection of contacts with a thermometry.
B.
The patient should be isolated for 5 days, quarantine in the group for 21
days
C.
D.
E.
The patient should be isolated for 10 days, quarantine in the group for 7
days
The patient should be isolated for 30 days, quarantine in the group for 14
days
The patient should be isolated for 5 days from the time of the last
eruption, the contacts are not isolated
217. A girl of 11 years, fell ill acutely: fever up to 39 °C, complains of the lateral
chest pain attacks, and pain attacks in upper abdomen. The pain is intensified in
deep breathing. On examination: conjunctivas hyperemia, vascular injection of
the sclera, mild hyperemia of the soft palate and the posterior pharyngeal wall.
Heart sounds are loud, heart rate is 100 per min. Percussion: clear lung sound.
On auscultation - vesicular breathing, during the pain attack episode - the
superficial, the breathing rate - 20 per min. Stomach is available for palpation,
moderate muscular protection in the upper part, the symptoms of peritoneal
irritation are negative. Put a preliminary diagnosis.
A.
*epidemic myalgia
B.
pleuropneumonia
C.
dry pleurisy
D.
syndrome of "acute abdomen"
E.
leptospirosis
218. Enterovirus infection was diagnosed to 10 years old patient. Objectively:
general condition is satisfactory, the temperature is normal, paresis of the lower
extremities, muscular weakness of buttocks, thighs, and facial muscles. Specify
the form of the disease.
A.
*Paralytic form
B.
Epidemic myalgia
C.
Summer flu
D.
Serous meningitis
E.
Herpangina
219. Enterovirus infection was diagnosed to 6 years old patient. He complains of
acute paroxysmal pain in the chest, which become worse when coughing and
moving. Specify the form of the disease.
A.
*epidemic myalgia
B.
paralytic form
C.
encephalomyocarditis
D.
summer flu
E.
enterovirus exanthema
220. 7 years old child is sick for 2 days. He complains of fever, dry cough, red
face, sore throat, and conjunctivitis. His younger sister was hospitalized with
symptoms of diarrhea and herpangina a few days ago. Put a preliminary
diagnosis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Enterovirus infection, respiratory catarrhal form
Enterovirus infectious, herpangina
Measles prodrome
Herpes virus infection (stomatitis)
Adenovirus infection, pharyngoconjunctival fever
221. A child of 7 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.7 °C, repeated
vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. On the third day parents
noticed absence of the right eyelids closing, when speaking - distorted face. The
boy is not immunized. The child was hospitalized to neuroinfections
department with a preliminary diagnosis of polio. A lumbar puncture was
performed. Choose the most likely indicators of CSF.
A.
*Transparent, cell count is 100 cells, 80% lymphocytes, protein is 0.45
g/l
B.
Turbid, milky, cell count is 1200, 92% neutrophils, protein is 1.2 g/l
C.
Transparent, yellowish, cell count 200, lymphocytes 72%, glucose 1.2
mmol/l
D.
Red cell count is 150 (erythrocytes)
E.
Transparent, cell count is 5, 100% lymphocytes, protein 0.045 g/l
222. A child of 5 years is acutely ill: fever increased to 39.6 °C, repeated
vomiting, dizziness, muscular weakness are present. Small papules and vesicles
with a clear content are situated on the soft palate and tonsils. Meningeal signs
are positive. Which indicators of spinal fluid are characteristic in this case?
A.
*mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, protein-cell dissociation
B.
changes are not characteristic (indicators are standard)
C.
marked lymphocytic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation
D.
the neutrophilic pleocytosis, cell-protein dissociation
E.
moderate neutrophilic pleocytosis, protein and cell dissociation
223. 1.5 years child is ill for 1 week. Objectively: body temperature is 38.5º C,
often moist cough, dyspnea at rest. On X-ray: lungs’ roots are broad, infiltrated,
and in both sides are little shadows. What form of an acute pneumonia is this Xray typical for?
A. Interstitial
B. *Bronchopneumonia
C. Monosegmental
D. Polysegmental
E. Croupose
224. 10-years child is ill for 4 days. He complains of subfebrile temperature, dry
cough. Objectively: pallor of the skin, red cheeks, greater on right side.
Percussion of lungs: on right sight dull sound in lowest part, and in axillar
region. Auscultation: on right sight lower than angle of the scapula decrease of
breathing, crepitating. What form of an acute pneumonia is possible in this
case?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Monosegmental
C. Polysegmental
D. *Croupose
E. Interstitial
225. 15 y.o. female was admitted to thoracic surgery department with fever up to
40 °C, onset of pain in the side caused by deep breathing, cough with
considerable quantity of purulent sputum and blood, with bad smell. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Complication of liver echinococcosis
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. *Abscess of the lung
D. Actinomycosis of lungs
E. Bronchiectatic disease
226. 2 years old child has dry cough, dyspnea, body temperature is 37.5 °C.
Percussion: clear pulmonary sound without dullness. Auscultation: dry
whistling and different moist rales. In the peripheral blood: leucocytosis,
eosynophilia, increased ESR. What disease is possible?
A. Acute simple bronchitis
B. *Obstructive bronchitis
C. Whooping cough
D. Acute pneumonia
E. Bronchial asthma
227. 5-years' old child was hospitalized because of destructive pneumonia. The
bacteriological investigation from pleural cavity has found staphylococci. What
antibacterial medicine is better to prescribe?
A. Penicillin
B. Ampicillin
C. *Ceftriaxon
D. Erythromycin
E. Gentamicin
228. A 10-years boy complains of a headache, weakness, fever [temperature —
40 °C], vomiting. On physical examination: dyspnea, pale skin with a flush on a
right cheek, right hemithorax respiratory movement delays, dullness on
percussion of the lower lobe of the right lung, weakness respiration in this
region. The abdomen is painless and soft by palpation. What disease has caused
these symptoms and signs?
A. *Pneumonia croupose
B. Intestinal infection
C.
D.
E.
Acute appendicitis
Acute cholecystitis
Influenza
229. A 14-year-old adolescent on the second day of the disease complains of a
strong headache in temples and in the area of orbits, pain in the legs, dry painful
cough. His temperature is 39 °C. Adynamic. Mucous membrane of oropharynx
is “flaming”, rales are not auscultated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. *Influenza
B. Parainfluenza
C. Meningococcus infection
D. Pneumonia
E. Respiratory mycoplasmosis
230. A 14-year-old patient has been treated in a hospital. A fever of 39 °C, chest
pain which is worsened by breathing; cough, brownish sputum appeared on the
7th day of the treatment. Chest X-ray shows left lower lobe infiltrate. Which of
the following is the treatment of choice for this patient?
A. *Cephalosporins of the III generation
B. Erythromycin
C. Streptomycin
D. Penicillin
E. Tetracycline
231. A 16-year-old male was admitted to the hospital complaining of left-side
chest pain on inspiration and dyspnea. On exam, t – 37 °C, Ps 92/min, RR of
24/min, vesicular breath sounds. There is a dry, granting, low-pitched sound
heard in both expiration and inspiration in the left lower lateral part of the chest.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Acute fibrinous pleurisy
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Pneumothorax
E. Myocarditis
232. A 16-year-old male was discharged from the hospital after having a
community acquired pneumonia. He has no complaints. On physical exam: his
temperature is — 36,6 °C, RR-18/min, Ps — 78 bpm, BP — 120/80 mm Hg.
During auscultation there is harsh respiration in the lower part of the right lung.
Roentgenological: infiltrative changes are absent, intensification of the
pulmonary picture in the right lower lobe. How long should the doctor keep the
patient under observation?
A. *12 months
B. 1 month
C. 3 months
D.
E.
Permanently
6 months
233. A 3 month old infant is suffering from an acute segmental pneumonia. He
has dyspnea (respiration rate – 80 per minute), paradoxical breathing,
tachycardia, total cyanosis. Respiration / pulse ratio is 1:2. The heart dullness is
of the normal size. Such signs characterize:
A. Congenital heart malformation
B. Myocarditis
C. Respiratory failure of II degree
D. Respiratory failure of I degree
E. *Respiratory failure of III degree
234. A 5-year-old girl with the transitory T-system immunodeficiency has a rightsided pneumonia during 2 months. What course of pneumonia is in this case?
A. *Protracted
B. Acute
C. Reactivating
D. Chronic
E. Wavelike
235. A 6 year old girl has an acute onset of fever up to 39 °C with chills, cough,
and pain on respiration in the right side of her chest. On physical examination:
HR – 120/min, BP- 85/45 mm Hg, RR- 36/min. There is dullness over the right
lung on percussion. On X-ray: infiltrate in the right middle lobe of the lung.
What is the diagnosis?
A. *Community-acquired lobar pneumonia of moderate severity
B. Acute pleurisy
C. Community-acquired bronchopneumonia
D. Acute lung abscess
E. Nosocomeal lobar pneumonia
236. A 7-year-old boy has body temperature 39.4 °C, productive cough,
intoxication. If breathing the right side is behind, a voice fremitus is stronger,
short percussion sound, depressed breathing and bronhophonia over the right
lung. The X-ray: a homogeneous infiltration of the right lung lower lobe. What
is the diagnosis?
A. *Acute right-sided lobar pneumonia
B. Acute right-sided segmental pneumonia
C. Acute right-sided pleurisy
D. Acute right-sided pneumothorax
E. Acute right-sided interstitial pneumonia
237. To a 8-month-old child is diagnosed atypical community-acquired
Chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia. Select the best antibiotic.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Macrolides of 2nd generation
Macrolides of 1st generation
Aminopenicilline
Cephalosporin of 2nd generation
Aminoglycosides
238. A 9 month-old baby has fever, cough, dyspnea. She is sick for 5 days after
contact with ARVI patient. Condition of the child is severe. Temperature 38 °C,
nasolabial triangle is cyanotic. BR 54 per 1 min, nostrils flaring during
breathing. Percussion – a shortening of the sound below the right scapula angle,
over the other sites – tympanic sound. On auscultation – fine bubbling moist
rales on both sides, more on the right. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute bronchiolitis.
B. ARVI.
C. Acute laryngotracheitis.
D. Acute bronchitis.
E. *Acute pneumonia.
239. A boy, 8 years old, has addressed to pediatrician with complains of
increasing of the body temperature to 37.5 ºС, sore throat, cough, serous
discharge from nose, tearing. During examination mild hyperemia and edema of
the tonsils and back pharyngeal wall, conjunctives, narrowing of ocular slots
were revealed. The physician suspects adenoviral infection. Which method of
express-diagnostics is better to use for acknowledgement of the diagnosis?
A. The separation of the virus on tissue culture
B. *Immunofluorescense method
C. Serological investigation
D. bacteriological investigation
E. Bacterioscopy investigation of pharyngeal swab
240. A child of 10 months has acute bronchopneumonia with destruction of the
left lung. Which agent is most likely caused this disease?
A. Pneumococcus (S. pneumonia)
B. *Aurococcus (S. aureus)
C. Colibacillus (E. Coli)
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E. Proteus vulgaris
241. A patient with nosocomeal pneumonia presents signs of collapse. Which of
the following pneumonia complications is most likely to be accompanied by
collapse?
A. Exudative pleurisy
B. Bronchial obstruction
C. Toxic hepatitis
D. *Septic shock
E.
Emphysema
242. A patient, aged 16, complains of headache, mainly in the frontal and
temporal areas, superciliary arch, appearing of vomiting at the peak of
headache, pain during the eyeballs movement, joints pain. On examination:
excited, t° — 39°C, Ps – 110/min. Tonic and clones cramps. Uncertain
meningeal signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Influenza with cerebral edema manifestations
B. Parainfluenza
C. Adenovirus infection
D. Respiratory syncitial virus
E. Influenza, typical disease duration
243. Mild pneumonia characterized by a moist nonproductive cough has
developed at a previously healthy 13-year–old boy. Chose the medicine for
symptomatic treatment:
A. *mucolytics
B. cough suppressors
C. euphylline
D. prednisolone
E. salbuthamol
244. Among patients with the adenoviral infection in children the following forms
of disease are diagnosed: pneumonia, catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract,
pharyngoconjunctivitis, diarrhea. What variant of adenoviral infection is absent
in this list?
A. Meningitis.
B. Encephalitis.
C. Balanopostitis.
D. Carditis.
E. *Mesadenitis.
245. An 6-years-old child is taken to a hospital on the 4-th day of the disease. The
disease began acutely with temperature 39 °C, weakness, cough, restlessness.
He is pale, has cyanosis, febrile temperature for more than 3 days. There are
crepitative fine bubbling rales at the auscultation. Percussion sound is shortened
in right sub-scapular area. X-ray: inhomogeneous infiltration of 8-10 segments
on the right, the increased vascular picture, unstructured roots. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Interstitial pneumonia
D. Influenza
E. *Segmental pneumonia
246. An 18-month-old child is taken to hospital on the 4-th day of the disease.
The disease has began acutely with temperature 39 °C, weakness, cough,
restlessness. The child is pale has perioral cyanosis. There are crepitative fine
bubbling rales at auscultation. Percussion sound is not changed. X-ray picture:
focal infiltration bilaterally near the lung roots, the increase of vascular picture,
nonstructural roots. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Interstitial pneumonia
D. Influenza
E. *Focal bronchopneumonia
247. Inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice and barking cough had developed at night
on the third day of common cold in infant, aged 1 year. Physical examination
has revealed suprasternal and intercostal chest retractions. There is a bluish skin
discoloration mostly seen over the upper lip. The respiratory rate is 52 per min
and pulse — 122 bpm. The body temperature is 37,5°C. What disease does the
infant have?
A. Acute bronchiolitis with respiratory distress
B. Bronchopneumonia without complications
C. Acute epiglottitis
D. *Acute infectious croup due to viral laryngotracheitis
E. Acute laryngitis
248. Express diagnostic is performed in the focus of acute respiratory infection
with the purpose of diagnosis establishment. What test is used for this purpose?
A. *Reaction of immune fluorescence
B. Complement binding reaction
C. Reaction of agglutination
D. Reaction of precipitation
E. Reaction of opsonization
249. Child, 2 years, that is ill for 3 days, is hospitalized in the infectious
department with diagnosis: upper respiratory tract viral infection,
laryngotracheitis. Parainfluenza is suspected. What symptoms will be different
from measles, prodromal period?
A. Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, enanthem on a soft palate
B. Absence of croup syndrome
C. Presence of laryngeal stenosis of the 1st or 2nd degree
D. *Absence of the expressed catarrhal syndrome, the Koplick’s spots,
enanthem on a soft palate
E. Presence of hyperemia of the pharynx, enanthem on a soft palate
250. In a virology laboratory smears from nasopharynx of 4 years old boy with
the “influenza” were brought. Which test will prove, what variety of virus has
caused the disease in this child?
A. by rynocytoscopy
B. By virus CPD character
C. *indirect hemagglutination reaction with typospecific anti-virus sera
D. By hemagglutination reaction
E. By hemadsorption reaction
251. An amount of patients with respiratory-syncitial infection grew sharply in a
winter-spring period. What age-old category of children is most receptive to the
this infection?
A. Infants.
B. *Babies aged 4-5 months till 3 years.
C. Children of 3-6 years.
D. Schoolboys.
E. Teenagers.
252. Different variants of typical form of adenoviral infection are exposed in the
focus of this infection: pneumonia, catarrhal syndrome of UR-tract,
pharyngoconjunctivitis. Name another possible form of adenoviral infection.
A. *Diarrhea.
B. Nephritis.
C. Arthritis.
D. Carditis.
E. Otitis.
253. 5 years old girl with pharyngoconjunctivitis phenomena has admitted to the
infectious hospital. The physician has suspect adenoviral infection. What
method from express-diagnostics is reasonable to use to prove this diagnosis?
A. *The antibody fluorescence method
B. Binding complement reaction
C. Indirect hemagglutination reaction
D. Neutralization reaction
E. Direct hemagglutination reaction
254. A patient with parainfluenza is revealed in the nursery group of orphanage.
How long the patient is contagious for surrounders?
A. 2-3 days.
B. 3-5 days.
C. 5-7 days.
D. *7-10 days.
E. 10-14 days.
255. A child aged 1.3 years has entered to the hospital with complaints on a dry
paroxysmal cough, hoarse voice, cold with mucus excretions and increase of
temperature to 38,2 ˚С. After the examination of patient a doctor has put a
previous diagnosis: URT infection, acute stenotic laryngitis with larynx stenosis
2nd degree. What agent more frequent causes this disease.
A. virus of flu.
B. *virus of parainfluenza.
C. rhinovirus.
D. rheovirus.
E. adenovirus.
256. Pediatrician was called to the 2-years old child who has a subfebrile
temperature, rhinitis, dry cough. He is ill for 3 days. During percussion: a clear
pulmonary sound without dullness. During auscultation: puerile breathing.
Laboratory findings: leukopenia, lymphocytosis, increased ESR. What clinical
form of ARVI is possible in this case?
A. Acute obstructive bronchitis
B. *Acute rhinopharyngitis
C. Acute bronchopneumonia
D. Relapsed bronchitis
E. Acute bronchitis
257. The 2 years old child during feeding started to cough, become worrisome,
dyspnea has appeared. Objectively: cyanosis of mucus membranes distended
left half of the thorax. During percussion: on the left near top of the lung is
tympanic sound, from the 3rd rib down – dull sound. What diagnosis is the most
probable?
A. Left side pyopneumothorax
B. *Foreign body of the left bronchus
C. Acute cardiac failure
D. The lung abscess
E. Perycarditis
258. The 4-years old child was hospitalized with interstitial pneumonia. What
bacteria cause the disease?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus viridians
C. Klebsiella pneumonia
D. *Pneumocystis carinii
E. Pneumococcus
259. The 5 years old boy complains of headache, high temperature of the body,
dyspnea, nonproductive cough. During percussion: shortness of the sound
paraveretebrally. During auscultation: harsh breathing. On X-ray: mediobasal
pulmonary infiltration. What diagnosis is possible in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Upper respiratory tract viral infection
Interstitial pneumonia
Obstructive bronchitis
Miliar tuberculosis
*Focal bronchopneumonia
260. The 5-years child with an acute pneumonia was hospitalized. The clinical
blood analysis is: erythrocytes 2.86 х 10¹²/l, Нb – 86 g/l, CI – 0.8, leucocytes
11,2 х 10^9/l, eosynophils – 3 %, neutrophils: band forms – 2 %, segments – 30
% lymphocytes – 58 %, monocytes – 7 %, ESR – 8 mm/hour. Name
pathological changes.
A. Lymphopenia, anemia, shift to the left
B. *Leucocytosis, anemia, lymphocytosis
C. Leucopenia, increase of ESR
D. shift of the formula to the left, anemia
E. Lymphocytosis, monocytosis, eosynophilia
261. The 5-months old child has subfebrile temperature, paroxysmal cough, and
dyspnea. 3 days ago he contacted with sister ,who had acute upper respiratory
tract viral infection. Objectively: the condition is severe, skin is cyanotic,
considerable expiratory dyspnea, oral crepitation. Percussion: bandbox sound.
Auscultation: a plenty of wet rales in both lungs, respiratory rate is 80 per 1
minute. What disease is possible?
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Aspiration of a foreign body
C. Acute bronchitis
D. *Bronchiolitis
E. Acute pneumonia
262. The 7-months’ old child has body temperature 38.3 °C, cyanosis of perinasal
triangle, breathing rate is 54 per minute. During percussion: dullness of the
sound paravertebrally. During auscultation: big amount of small moist rales all
over the lungs. The most possible diagnosis is:
A. Upper respiratory tract viral infection
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Acute bronchiolitis
D. *Acute bronchopneumonia
E. Acute interstitial pneumonia
263. The 7-years’ old child was hospitalized with complaints on wet cough. His
condition has worsened 10 days ago. He is ill during last 4 years: viral
infections 3-4 times per year are accompanied by bronchitis. Objectively: cough
with sputum. Percussion: a clear pulmonary sound. Auscultation: rough
breathing, non-constant single diffuse moist rales. X-ray: lung pattern is
intensified, roots are nonstructural. What disease is possible in this case?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Viral infection
Acute bronchitis
*Relapsed bronchitis.
Acute pneumonia
Chronic pneumonia
264. The 7-years old child was hospitalized with complaints on: high body
temperature 38.5ºC, often moist cough, dyspnea at rest. What investigation will
resolve the diagnosis?
A. Clinical analysis of a blood
B. Bacteriological investigation of sputum
C. *Chest X-ray
D. Spirography
E. Bronchoscopy
265. The 9 months old child who has cough, dyspnea, subfebrile body
temperature was examined by district pediatrician. Focal bronchopneumonia
was suspected. What auscultation picture is typical for this case?
A. Diffuse dry rales
B. Rough breathing
C. Diffuse wet rales
D. Decrease breathing
E. *Local wet rales
266. The child is 10 years. He has influenza for 4 days. Stenosing
laryngotracheitis of the I stage was diagnosed. What from named medicine is
inadvisable to use?
A. Antihistamines
B. *Prednisone
C. Spasmolytics
D. Lapheron
E. Antiedematous inhalations
267. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the
child sharply worsened. Once again has increased the body temperature, has
appeared: moist cough with mucous-purulent phlegm, dyspnea. Breathing – 30
in 1 min, cyanosis of perioral triangle; in lower parts of the lungs, more on the
right, dullness of the lung sound, moist fine rales. Pulse – 120 in 1 min., heart
tones are weakened. What complication of influenza is possible?
A. Croup syndrome
B. *Pneumonia
C. Meningitis
D. Myocarditis
E. Obstructive bronchitis
268. The child is 7 years old. He has influenza for 5 days. The condition of the
child sharply worsened. Once again has increased the body temperature, has
appeared: moist cough with separation of mucous-purulent phlegm, expiratory
dyspnea. Breathing – 40 in 1 min. cyanosis of perioral triangle, intercostal
retractions, bandbox sound during percussion, coarse diffuse rales. Pulse – 120
in 1 min., heart tones are weakened. What complication of influenza is possible
in this case?
A. Croup syndrome
B. Pneumonia
C. Meningitis
D. Myocarditis
E. *Obstructive bronchitis
269. The 0.05 % Deoxyribonucleic solution is dropped into the nostrils of the 1
year child for treatment of adenoviral infection. What is the course of such
treatment?
A. 1 day.
B. 2 days.
C. 3 days.
D. *5 days.
E. 7 days.
270. The child, 1 year old, is treated in infectious department with diagnosis of
Parainfluenza. On the 2nd day of the disease his condition became worse. The
child is excited; inspiratory dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, acrocyanosis, cool
perspiration has appeared. Moderate intercostal retractions are noted at
breathing. What degree of larynx stenosis is present?
A. 1st
B. *2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th
271. The child, 2 years old, is treated from influenza. His condition suddenly
became worse: the body temperature has increased to 39.8 ºС, has appeared
rough barking cough, hoarseness of the voice, inspiratory dyspnea. What
complication of influenza has developed?
A. Pneumonia
B. Bronchiolitis
C. *Croup syndrome
D. Obstructive bronchitis
E. Pharyngitis
272. The child, 4 years old, complains of serous nasal discharge, frequent moist
obtruding cough, itching in eyes. Objectively: hyperemia and edema of the
nasal mucous membrane, soft palate, conjunctives. In lungs during auscultation:
harsh breathing. The body temperature is 38.2 ºC. What diagnosis is most
probable?
A. *Adenoviral infection
B. Rhinoviral infection
C. Influenza
D. Parainfluenza
E. Respiratory-syncitial infection
273. The child, 5 years old, complains of: increasing of the body temperature to
39.5 ºС, headache, poor sleeping. What single dose of panadol should be given?
A. *0.01 g/kg
B. 0.05 g/kg
C. 0.1 g/kg
D. 0.2 g/kg
E. 0.5 g/kg
274. The child, 7 years old, has measles for 10 days. He complains of increasing
of the body temperature to 39 ºС, general weakness, and periodic moist cough
with discharge of the mucous phlegm. Objectively: the general condition is
moderate skin is pale with pigmented rashes. In lower parts of both lungs – dull
sound, fine rales. What complication of the measles has appeared in child?
A. Tracheobronhitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. *Pneumonia
E. Pharyngitis
275. With approaching the influenza epidemic district epidemiologist makes a
request on prophylactic preparations. What from them will help to form an
active specific immunity and is the least reactogenic?
A. Living vaccine.
B. Killed vaccine.
C. *sub-unite vaccine.
D. Donor’s gamma-globulin.
E. leucocytic interferon
276. «Acute or chronic liver's disease, that is caused by a DNA-containing virus,
with the parenteral mechanism of transmission, that runs across in various
clinical-morphological variants: from a "healthy" carrying to the malignant
forms, chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis of liver and hepatocellular carcinoma», it is
the determination of:
A. Hepatitis A
B. *Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis С
D.
E.
Hepatitis Е
Hepatitis D
277. A 10-year-old child is sick with chronic viral hepatitis B with marked
activity of the process. Total bilirubin —70/mmol/L, direct - 26/mmol/L,
indirect — 44 mmol/L. AST — 6,2 mmol/L, ALT — 4,8 mmol/L. What is the
mechanism of the transaminase level increase in this patient?
A. *Cytolysis of hepatocytes
B. Failure of bilirubin conjugation
C. Intrahepatic cholestasis
D. Hypersplenism
E. Failure of the synthetical function of the liver
278. A 12-year-old girl complains of dull right subcostal pain, nausea, decreased
appetite. History: the disease has started with jaundice in 2 months after
appendectomy. She was treated in an infectious hospital. 1 year later present
complaints have developed. Physical examination: subicteric sclera, enlarged
firm liver. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Chronic viral hepatitis
B. Chronic cholangitis
C. Acute viral hepatitis
D. Calculous cholecystitis
E. Gilbert's disease
279. A 13 years old boy suffering with virus hepatitis B presents with increase of
jaundice and bloody vomiting after break of diet and nervous stress. Physical
examination: Ps 110 bmp, BP 80/50 mmHg. The liver is painful at palpation
and is reduced in size. What complication is the most likely being observed?
A. *Acute hepatic failure
B. Toxico-infection shock
C. Hemolytic crisis
D. Acute adrenal failure
E. Acute renal failure
280. A 14 y.o. patient was admitted to the gastroenterological department with
skin itching, jaundice, discomfort in the right subcostal area, generalized
weakness. On examination: jaundice, scratches, liver is +5 cm, spleen is 6x8
cm. In blood: alkaline phosphatase — 2, 0 mmole/(hour*L), general bilirubin
— 60 mcmole/L, cholesterol — 8,0 mmol/L. What is the leading syndrome in
the patient?
A. Cytolytic
B. Astenic
C. Mesenchymal inflammation
D. Liver-cells insufficiency
E. *Cholestatic
281. A 15-year-old patient was hospitalized in severe condition with complaints
of chills, high grade temperature, dryness in the mouth, multiple vomiting, pain
in the epigastrium, frequent watery, foamy, dirty green color stool of unpleasant
odor. The tongue and the skin are dry. BP — 80/40 mm Hg. What first aid is
necessary for the patient?
A. *Intravenous injection of sodium solutions
B. Hemosorption
C. Sympathomimetics
D. Fresh-frozen plasma transfusion
E. Poliglucin intravenously
282. A 7 years boy complains of general weakness, spastic pain in the lower parts
of his abdomen, mainly in the left iliac area, frequent defecations up to 18 times
a day, feces contain admixtures of mucus and blood. The illness began abruptly
3 days ago with chill, fever, headache. General condition is moderately severe,
body temperature is 37.8 °C. Sigmoid colon is spastic and painful. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Amebiasis
C. *Dysentery
D. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
E. Yersiniosis
283. A 8-year-old boy fell ill acutely: fever, weakness, headache, abdominal pain,
recurrent vomiting, then diarrhea and tenesms. Stools occur 12 times daily, are
scanty, contain a lot of mucus, pus, blood. His sigmoid colon is tender and firm.
What is your diagnosis?
A. *Dysentery
B. Escherichiosis
C. Salmonellosis
D. Cholera
E. Staphylococcal gastroenteritis
284. A baby, aged 2 years, has a syndrome of malabsorbtion. On ECG: S-T
segment depression, wave T inversion and high wave U. What is the cause of
these changes?
A. *decreased level of potassium
B. decreased level of magnesium
C. increased level of potassium
D. decreased level of calcium
E. decreased level of sodium
285. A boy of 10 years with complains of fever, for three days, general weakness,
insomnia, worsening of appetite, appealed to the pediatrician. A doctor has
suspected typhoid fever. What method of laboratory diagnostics most
expediently confirm the diagnosis?
A. coproculture
B. urine culture
C. biliculture
D. *hemoculture
E. mieloculture
286. A child, 1 year old, has rare vomiting after the meal, metheorism, defecation
12 times per day. Feces are yellow-orange, in a large amount, watery, with
gases, and small quantity of transparent mucus. Put the most probable
diagnosis.
A. Shigellosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Yersiniosis
D. *Entheroinvasive Escherichiosis
E. Paratyphoid fever B
287. A child, 5 years old, has dyspeptic syndrome, moderate intoxication
syndrome, and abdominal pain. Salmonellosis was diagnosed. What changes in
the general blood test are typical for this disease?
A. Leucopenia, aneosinophylia, lymphocytosis.
B. *Leucocytosis, neuthrophilia, ESR increasing.
C. Leucocytosis, lymphocytosis.
D. Leucopenia, neutrophlia, ESR decreasing.
E. Leucocytosis, lymphomonocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells.
288. A girl, 7 years old, complains of periodic colicky abdominal pains, increased
frequency of defecation, temperature 39.2 ºС. During objective examination is
revealed painful sigmoid colon. Feces are dark-green in a small amount, with
much mucus. Anus is closed. During feces bacteriological examination was
found Sаlmоnеllа enteritidis. What disease must be differentiated from this
form of salmonellosis?
A. *Shigellosis.
B. Typhoid fever.
C. Escherichiosis.
D. Acute appendicitis.
E. Staphylococcal enterocolitis.
289. A girl, aged 12, in severe condition was delivered to the admission ward of a
hospital on the 2nd day of illness. Examination revealed body temperature of
36,1 °C, acute features of face, dry skin, aphonia, convulsive twitching of some
muscle groups. Acrocyanosis is present. Heart sounds are muffled, Ps is 102
bpm, AP is 50/20 mm Hg. Abdomen is soft, sealed, painless. Anuria is present.
Stool is liquid in form of rice water. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Cholera
Intestinal amebiasis
Escherichiosis
Acute dysentery
Salmonellosis
290. A girl, aged 8, suddenly fell ill. There had appeared chills, sensation of heat,
fever 38,5°C, intermitting pain in the left iliac area, frequent liquid stool in the
form of rectal spit. On palpation: the left part of the abdomen is painful,
sigmoid colon is spastic. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. *Acute shigellosis
B. Cholera
C. Escherichiosis
D. Non-specific ulcerative colitis
E. Malignant tumor of the large intestine
291. A male, aged 17, intravenous drug addict complains of weakness, moderate
jaundice, sensation of heaviness in the right hypochondrium. The patient's
condition aggravated gradually. Biochemical tests: Total bilirubin - 48,2
µmol/L; ALT - 3,0 mmol/h*L. What examination will verify the diagnosis?
A. *Polymerase chain reaction (HCV -RNA)
B. Determination of HB antigen
C. Determination of ALAT in dynamics
D. Ultrasound examination of liver
E. Computer tomography
292. A patient is in a hospital. The beginning of the disease was gradual: nausea,
vomiting, dark urine, clay-colored stools, jaundice of the skin and sclera. The
liver was enlarged on 3 cm. Jaundice progressed on the 14th day of the disease.
The liver decreased in size. What complication of viral hepatitis has developed?
A. Infectious-toxic shock
B. *Hepatonecrosis
C. Meningitis
D. Relapse of viral hepatitis
E. Cholangitis
293. A patient is hospitalized in an infectious hospital on a 8th day of the disease
with complaints on head ache, general weakness. For serological research a
blood is taken. During Vidal's reaction it is positive in dilution 1 : 200 with Оdiagnosticum of Salmonella typhi. What diagnosis can be put, basing on this
test result?
A. Cholera
B. *Typhoid fever
C. Shigellosis
D. Leptospirosis
E.
Tuberculosis
294. A patient with suspicion on typhoid fever entered to the infectious hospital
on the 3rd day of disease. What method of microbiological diagnostics does it
follow to use?
A. Selection of coproculture.
B. *Selection of hemoculture.
C. Selection of urineculture.
D. Selection of biliculture.
E. Selection of mieloculture.
295. A temperature rose at 2 years old child. Vomit and multiple diarrhea has
appeared. After the use of fruit juices diarrhea aggravates and the patient's
condition worsened. Which from the enumerated agents could be the cause of
this disease?
A. enteroviruses
B. *rotaviruses
C. Escherichia coli
D. Salmonella
E. staphylococcus
296. Among the children of junior group of preschool the repeated cases of
intestinal infection are revealed. At fecal culture shigella revealed. Define tactic
of doctor concerning contact persons.
A. Contacts examination with estimation of feces character.
B. Supervision during 3 days with measuring of the body temperature.
C. Bacteriological inspection of feces for 3 days.
D. Supervision after those children who has increased temperature for 5
days.
E. *Supervision after contacts for 7 days and bacteriological inspection of
emptying.
297. Among the children of the closed child's establishment the flash of acute
dysentery is diagnosed. Among the children of what age category this disease is
more frequent?
A. Children under 1 year.
B. *Children elder than 1 year.
C. Junior schoolboys.
D. Senior schoolboys.
E. In any age.
298. Among the children of the closed child's establishment the flash of acute
dysentery is diagnosed. Contact persons are subjects to the supervision during:
A. 3 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of emptying
B. *7 days and 1 bacteriological inspection of emptying
C.
D.
E.
7 days and 2 bacteriological inspection of emptying
14 days and 2 bacteriological inspection of emptying
14 days and 3 bacteriological inspection of emptying
299. At a boy, 7 years, the cholera-like disease is revealed (vomits, watery
diarrhea). At fecal culture same types of the colonies grew on the Endo
environment: raspberry color, with metallic lustre. What microorganism is the
most credible agent of this disease?
A. Shigella sonnei.
B. Salmonella enteritidis.
C. Yersinia enterocolitica.
D. *Escherichia coli, enterotoxigenic type.
E. vibrio cholera
300. At a child of 1.5 year has developed the typical clinic of acute dysentery.
Choose a sign which is most characteristic for the clinic of this disease at the
children of early age.
A. Repeated vomits and frequent regurgitation.
B. Acute beginning from expressed toxic at the minimum diarrhea
syndrome.
C. *colitic character of emptying.
D. Frequent tenesms, hollow abdomen and expressed colitic syndrome.
E. mild disease's duration with predominance of local signs.
301. At a child with the acute enterocolitis escherichiosis is diagnosed. From
determination of which antigen does it follow to begin serological
authentication of parenteral escherichiosis?
A. K-antigen
B. M-antigen
C. *О-antigen
D. Н-antigen
E. В-antigen
302. At a child with the expressed signs of toxicosis with dehydration the acute
severe dysentery is clinically suspected. Give feeding recommendations to the
mother of her sick 10 months old child.
A. *To decrease the usual volume of meal in the first 2-3 days on 40-50 %,
to conduct the rejuvenation of the food.
B. Feed by the only strained breast milk.
C. At feeding to give advantage to the soul-milk adapted mixtures.
D. Water-tea pause during 6-12 hours, and farther usual feeding.
E. Frequent feeding by small portions, as a child wants to eat.
303. At the child of 4 months an acute bacterial dysentery is diagnosed. Name
antibiotics which apply in treatment of dysentery of moderate and severe degree
at the children of this age:
A. penicillin
B. gentamicin
C. cefasolin
D. *cefotaxim
E. ciprofloxacin
304. At the children of senior group of preschool (kindergarten) shigellosis is
diagnosed. At careful collection of epidemiology anamnesis the food way of
infection is proved. What from the representatives of shigella more frequent
infects by such way?
A. Sh. Flexneri.
B. *Sh. Sonnei.
C. Sh. dysenteriaе Grigor'ev-Shiga.
D. Sh. dysenteriaе Larg-Sax.
E. Sh. boydiі.
305. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What morphological
and tinctorial properties inherent to the representatives of these bacteria?
A. Gram-negative cocci
B. Gram-positive cocci
C. Gram-positive bacillus
D. *Gram-negative bacillus
E. Gram-negative spirochetes
306. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What from the pointed
representatives of the E.coli family cause the dysentery-like disease at children
elder 1 year and adults?
A. *enteroinvasive E.coli
B. enteropathogenic E.coli
C. enteroadhesive E.coli
D. enterohemolytic E.coli
E. E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine
307. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What from the pointed
representatives of the E.coli family cause the cholera-like diseases?
A. enteroinvasive E.coli
B. enteropathogenic E.coli
C. *enterotoxigenic E.coli
D. enterohemolytic E.coli
E.
E.coli, that belong to normal microbiocynosis of intestine
308. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed the pathogenic E.coli are revealed. What from the pointed
O-antigen factions causes serological specificity of E.coli?
A. Fats
B. Protein
C. Lipoproteins
D. *Polysaccharides
E. All answers are correct
309. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. How to differentiate relative-pathogenic E. coli from enteropathogenic
ones:
A. after biochemical signs
B. *after the antigen structure
C. after the selection of endotoxin
D. after pathogenicity for animals
E. after firmness to the antibiotics.
310. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. At determination of the family belonging of enterobacteria take into
account:
A. Breathing type
B. Food necessities
C. *Biochemical properties
D. Morphological properties
E. Cultural properties
311. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. Indicate the maximal term of delivery of selected in concervant feces,
to the bacteriological laboratory:
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. *12 hours
E. 16 hours
312. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. What correlation must be possessed between feces and concervant?
A. 1:50
B.
C.
D.
E.
1:25
1:10
*1:3
1:1
313. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. Indicate properties of enteropathogenic escherichia, determination of
which more authentic will confirm the diagnosis:
A. *Serological
B. Biochemical
C. Morphological
D. Cultural
E. Biological
314. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. What result of serologic research testifies the etiology of disease?
A. Titre of specific antibodies in agglutination reaction 1: 20
B. Titre of specific antibodies in indirect hemagglutination reaction 1:40
C. Titre of antibodies in the reaction of precipitation 1:100
D. Titre of antibodies in the reaction of precipitation 1:200
E. *Fourfold growth of specific antibodies titre in paired sera selected in the
dynamics of disease
315. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. Indicate its biochemical properties:
A. does not decompose lactose and saccharose.
B. *decomposes to acid and gas lactose, glucose, mannitol.
C. does not decompose mannitol and maltose.
D. rarefy gelatin.
E. does not restore nitrates to nitrites.
316. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. Material for research of colienteritis at children is:
A. *emptying, vomiting masses, swab from pharynx, nasopharynx.
B. blood.
C. spinal fluid.
D. urine.
E. bile.
317. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. Pathogenic serotypes of E. coli are identified:
A. by the reaction of precipitation.
B. by complement binding reaction.
C. by hemagglutination reaction.
D. by the reaction of neutralization.
E. *by the reaction of agglutination with the escherichia ОК-agglutinating
sera.
318. At the inspection of group of child's collective, where the flash of intestinal
infection is exposed from one of patients on the Endo environment E. coli was
selected. For speed-up authentication of pathogenic E. coli is used:
A. reaction of lysis.
B. complement binding reaction.
C. *immune fluorescence reaction.
D. reaction of precipitation.
E. reaction of neutralization.
319. At the inspection on S. typhi carrying in the blood serum antibodies to the
Vi-antigen are revealed. What from the enumerated reactions was used in this
case?
A. Binding complement.
B. Vidal.
C. *Indirect hemagglutination.
D. Immune-enzyme analysis.
E. Immune fluorescence.
320. Child of 4 years during 5 days is treated because of acute dysentery,
moderate degree. An effect from the received therapy is insignificant; continue
to be toxic and dyspepsia syndrome. Choose the adequate treatment.
A. To strengthen oral rehydration.
B. To apply parenteral rehydration therapy.
C. *To appoint netylmycine 5 mg/kg per day.
D. To apply immune modulators therapy.
E. To give enterosorbents in combined chart.
321. District doctor of rural medical department was called to a 12-year-old
patient. While examining the patient, the doctor suspected the dysentery. What
document must the doctor issue?
A. *Urgent notification of infectious disease
B. Statistical coupon of final (precise) diagnosis
C. Abstract of outpatient medical card
D. Infectious disease report
E. Report addressed to Head of the village
322. Fecal culture of 8 years child, who had typhoid fever 1.5 years ago was
positive for Salmonella typhi. How to describe the patient's status?
A. *Carrying.
B. Dysbiosis.
C. Reinfection.
D. Superinfection.
E. Relapse.
323. From feces of sick 6-month child, which was on the artificial feeding, the
culture of E.coli with the antigen structure O-111 is selected. What diagnosis
can be put?
A. *Colienteritis
B. Cholera-like disease.
C. Disease of urinary tract.
D. Meningitis of the new-born.
E. Dysentery-like disease.
324. In a boy the disease started with acute onset. Frequent watery stools has
appeared 6 hours ago. The body's temperature is normal. Then vomiting has
appeared. On physical examination: boy's voice is hoarse, eyes are deeply set in
the orbits. The pulse is frequent. Blood pressure is low. There was no urination.
What is the preliminary diagnosis?
A. *Cholera
B. Typhoid fever
C. Toxic food-borne infection
D. Salmonellosis
E. Dysentery
325. In a child, 2.5 years old, who was treated in pulmonological department
because of double-sided bronchopneumonia, has increased body temperature on
seventh day of the treatment to 39 ºС, has appeared diarrhea. Feces are fluid
dirty-green. What physician has to do?
A. Leave the patient in the department, perform bacteriological examination
of the feces.
B. Isolate the patient in separate ward in this department, prescribe the
etiological treatment.
C. *Transport the patient in the infectious department, send priority message
in sanitary station, and perform the bacteriological examination of this
child and contacts.
D. Send priority message in sanitary station, perform the bacteriological
examination of this child and contacts, and prescribe the etiological
treatment.
E. Perform the bacteriological examination of this child, discharge him
home for ambulatory treatment.
326. In a child, 7 years old, dysentery reveals itself by often defecation to 20-25
times per day, skin is pale, dry, elasticity is reduced, the body temperature is
38.9 ºС, repeated vomiting, colicky pain are present. What is the disease's
severity in this case?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. severe
D. severe degree with prevalence of toxicosis.
E. *severe degree with prevalence of the local manifestations.
327. The boy, 3 months old, is treated in infectious department because of
Salmonellosis, moderate degree, caused by Salmonellae typhimurium. Which
etiological treatment is reasonable to use?
A. Benzylpenicillin.
B. Erythromycin.
C. Cefasolin.
D. *Cefotaxim.
E. Oxacillin.
328. The child, 3 years old, is treated in infectious department because of acute
Shigellosis. During objective examination: the body temperature is 39.9 ºС,
skin is pale, dry, periodic tonic convulsions of the muscles, limbs are cool,
abdomen is sealed, sensitive in left inguinal region, anus is open. Name the
diagnose according to classification.
A. Shigellosis typical form, moderate degree.
B. Shigellosis, atypical form.
C. Shigellosis typical form, severe degree.
D. *Shigellosis typical form, severe degree with prevalence of toxicosis.
E. Shigellosis typical form, severe degree with prevalence of the local
manifestations.
329. A boy, 14 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and
tetanus. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case?
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. *DT
D. DT-m
E. D-m
330. A boy, 14 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and
tetanus, in anamnesis 2 years ago after opened trauma injection of tetanus
anatoxin was done. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case?
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C.
D.
E.
DT
DT-m
*D-m
331. A boy, 18 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and
tetanus. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case?
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. DT
D. *DT-m
E. D-m
332. A boy, 6 years, came in a policlinic for revaccination against diphtheria and
tetanus. Which from enumerated vaccines is used in this case?
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. *DT
D. DT-m
E. D-m
333. A boy, aged 6.5 years goes to school. Indicate how many diseases he was
vaccinated from in 6-years-old age.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. *6
E. 7
334. A child is 14 years. He is not vaccinated from measles, rubella, and mumps.
How many vaccinations does it follow to do, to complete vaccination?
A. *2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 1
335. A child of 1 year and 7 months in one-year age had whooping-cough. He is
vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for vaccination against diphtheria,
tetanus. Indicate what vaccine should be used in this case:
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. *DT
D. DT-m
E. D-m
336. A child of 2 years 10 months, who is vaccinated out of terms of calendar,
comes for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus, and whooping-cough.
Indicate what vaccine should be used in this case:
A. *DTaP
B. DTP
C. DT
D. DT-m
E. D-m
337. A child of 3 years has received treatment by glucocorticoids in the dose of 2
mg/kg daily during 10 days. He is vaccinated out of the calendar. He came to
the policlinic for vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus. Can the doctor permit
the vaccination?
A. Vaccination is contra-indicated
B. *Vaccination in obedience to a plan
C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist
D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist
E. Vaccination only by inactive vaccines
338. A child of 4 years is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for
vaccination against diphtheria, tetanus. Indicate what vaccine should be used in
this case:
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. *DT
D. DT-m
E. D-m
339. A child of 4 years is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, received the first
vaccination by DT-anatoxin. When should be done the second vaccination?
A. in 2 weeks
B. *in 1 month
C. in 5 months
D. in 6 months
E. in 12 months
340. A child of 4 years is vaccinated out of terms of calendar, received second
vaccination by DT. When the third vaccination should be done?
A. in 2 weeks
B. in 1 -2 months
C. in 3- 5 months
D. *in 9-12 months
E. in 12-18 months
341. A child of 5 years 2 months in one-year age had whooping-cough. He is
vaccinated out of terms of calendar, comes for vaccination against diphtheria,
tetanus. What vaccine does it follow to inject in this case?
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. DT
D. *DT-m
E. D-m
342. A child of 6 months is vaccinated from hepatitis B. What age does it follow
to do next vaccination against measles, rubella, mumps, according the calendar?
A. 9 months
B. *12 months
C. 18 months
D. 6 years
E. 11 years
343. A child of 7 years old is invited to visit a doctor for revaccination against
measles. The doctor make the conclusion that the vaccination is
contraindicated. What from listed below is a compelling reason for this?
A. *The presence of the measles antibodies in child’s blood
B. Positive Mantoux test
C. Acute viral hepatitis A 6 months ago
D. An intolerance of penicillin
E. Febrile convulsions in history
344. The newborn was vaccinated by BCG-M vaccine. Name the probable weight
and term of his gestation:
A. 4500, 40 weeks
B. 3800, 42 weeks
C. 3800, 40 weeks
D. 3100, 42 weeks
E. *2100, 35 weeks
345. A child with AIDS, clinical stage ІІ with severe immune suppression (CD4
<15%) came to policlinic, for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate such child?
A. yes, according to the calendar
B. *Vaccination is forbidden
C. only by anatoxin
D. only by inactivated vaccines
E. after consultation of immunologist
346. A child, 10 months, received the vaccination against Ніb-infection for the
first time. Through what time is it possible to do the second vaccination against
this disease?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*4 weeks
8 weeks
2 weeks
12 weeks
18 weeks
347. A child, 12 months, comes for immunization against measles, rubella, and
mumps. What vaccine will be used?
A. DTP
B. DTaP
C. IPV
D. *MMR
E. OPV
348. A child, 7 years, came for vaccination against tuberculosis. It is known from
anamnesis, that the vaccination against mumps is absent. Could a doctor enter a
vaccine against mumps in one day with BCG?
A. yes
B. *couldn’t
C. Enters simultaneously in different areas of body
D. Enters in a day
E. Enters through 2 weeks
349. A child, aged 3.5 years, has come to the family doctor for vaccination out of
the terms of schedule. Indicate what test is it necessary to do before
vaccination:
A. Sulkowitch Test
B. Shtange Test
C. Thorn Test
D. *Mantoux Test
E. Complete blood analysis
350. A doctor examining the child of 1 year 2 months concluded that the child has
temporary contraindication for routine vaccination against measles for 3
months. Which of the following was the decisive argument for such
contraindication?
A. *The injection of immunoglobulin to the child 1 month ago
B. Lack of child's weight 8%
C. Hyperemia and dry cheeks
D. O-shin deformity
E. Positive Mantoux test
351. A girl of 15 years came to laboratory for serological researches with the
purpose of determination of immunity to the virus of rubella. What does it
follow to define?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
*Ig G
Ig M
Ig E
IgA
IgD
352. A HIV-infected child came to the policlinic for vaccination against
poliomyelitis. Indicate on what day of postvaccinal period patronage of the
child by a medical worker should be done?
A. 1-2
B. *3-4
C. 5-6
D. 7-8
E. 9-10
353. A HIV-infected child came to the policlinic for vaccination against
poliomyelitis. Indicate on what day of postvaccinal period second patronage of
the child by a medical worker should be done:
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 5-6
D. 7-8
E. *10-11
354. A preterm child was born with body weight 1800 g, 34 weeks of gestation.
When does this child will be vaccinated against tuberculosis?
A. On 3-5 day of life
B. On 3-5 day of life in a half dose
C. In the age of 1 month
D. After achievement of 2000 g weight
E. In the age of 2 months
355. At a child of 5 months, which came for vaccination according the calendar,
in anamnesis was postvaccinal complication in 4 months age. Indicate what
vaccine does it follow to use for vaccination?
A. *DTaP
B. DTP
C. DT
D. DT-m
E. D-m
356. At teenager, aged 16 years, is absent information about immunization. The
first DT-m vaccination is done. In what time does it follow to give second
vaccination?
A. 25- 30 days
B.
C.
D.
E.
30-35 days
35-40 days
*30-45 days
35-50 days
357. At teenager, aged 16 years, is absent information about immunization. Third
DT-m vaccination is done. In what time does it follow to give revaccination?
A. 25- 30 days
B. 30-35 days
C. 1 year
D. *3 years
E. 5 years
358. At teenager, aged 17 years, is absent information about immunization.
Indicate the necessary number of vaccinations by DT-m anatoxin for complete
vaccination of teenager.
A. 1
B. 2
C. *3
D. 4
E. 5
359. At teenager, aged 17 years, is absent information about immunization.
Indicate which vaccine should be used in this case.
A. DTaP
B. DTP
C. DT
D. *DT-m
E. D-m
360. A child was born at the НВs Ag negative mother. The vaccination against
viral hepatitis В was not done in the first day. This vaccination is planned to
combine together with DTP vaccination. Indicate the schedule of vaccination
against hepatitis B in this case:
A. 0, 1, 6 months
B. 3, 4, 5 months
C. *3, 4, 5, 18 months
D. 3, 4, 8 months
E. 3, 9, 18 months
361. A child was born at the НВs Ag negative mother. The vaccination against
viral hepatitis В was not done in the first day. This vaccination is planned to
combine together with DTP vaccination. Indicate the schedule of vaccination
against hepatitis B in this case:
A. 0, 1, 6 months
B.
C.
D.
E.
3, 4, 5, months
*3, 4, 9 months
3, 4, 8, months
3, 9, 18 months
362. Child of 1 year 1 month received the vaccination against Ніb-infection for
the first time. Through what time is it possible to do the second vaccination
against this disease?
A. 4 weeks
B. *8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 2 weeks
E. 6 weeks
363. Child of 12 months was brought for vaccination. Against what diseases the
child of this age must be vaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Poliomyelitis, diphtheria, tetanus
C. *Measles, rubella, mumps
D. Measles, poliomyelitis, tetanus
E. Poliomyelitis, whooping cough, diphtheria
364. A child of 14 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of
this age must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps
C. *Tuberculosis, diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis
D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
E. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection
365. Child of 15 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of
this age must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B
D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
E. *German measles (girls) of, mumps (boys)
366. Child of 18 months came for the first revaccination against diphtheria,
tetanus, and whooping-cough. Indicate what vaccine is need:
A. DTP
B. *DTaP
C. DT
D.
E.
DTP-m
D-m
367. Child of 18 months was brought for vaccination. Against what diseases the
child of this age must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B
D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
E. *Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection
368. A patient of 18 years came for revaccination. Against what diseases the
patient of this age must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Tuberculosis
C. *Diphtheria, tetanus
D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
E. German measles (girls) of, mumps (boys)
369. A child of 3 months came for vaccination against whooping-cough,
diphtheria, tetanus. It is known from anamnesis, that in the postnatal period and
in the age of 1.5 months the child had cramps. Indicate is it possible to
vaccinate this child?
A. vaccination is contra-indicated
B. *vaccination by DT-anatoxin
C. vaccinate according to the calendar after a neurologist consultation
D. vaccinate according to the calendar after an immunologist consultation
E. vaccinate according to the calendar in the hospital
370. Child of 3 months was brought for vaccination. Against how many diseases
simultaneously the child in the age of 3 months should be vaccinated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. *5
E. 6
371. Child of 3 months was brought for vaccination. His mother is ill with
bronchial asthma, atopic form, in childhood she had the reactions on
vaccinations. What vaccine does it follow to vaccinate the child with the high
risk of postvaccinal complications development?
A. Hepatitis B
B. DTP + OPV + Ніb
C.
D.
E.
DTaP +OPV + Ніb
*DTaP + IPV + Ніb
DTP + IPV + hepatitis B
372. Child of 3 months was brought in a policlinic for vaccination by the
associated vaccine. Choose the associated vaccine among enumerated:
A. BCG
B. *DTP
C. Hepatitis A
D. Influenza (A, B)
E. poliomyelitis (I, ІІ, ІІІ)
373. Child of 4 months was brought for vaccination. His mother is ill with
polynosis, in childhood had the reactions on vaccinations. What vaccine does it
follow to vaccinate the child with the high risk of postvaccinal complications
development?
A. Hepatitis B
B. DTP + OPV + Ніb
C. DTaP +OPV + Ніb
D. *DTaP + IPV + Ніb
E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B
374. Child of 4 months was brought for vaccination. His mother in childhood had
the reactions on vaccinations. What vaccine does it follow to vaccinate the child
with the high risk of postvaccinal complications development?
A. Hepatitis B
B. DTP + OPV + Ніb
C. *DTaP +OPV + Ніb
D. DTaP+ IPV + Ніb
E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B
375. Child of 4months was brought for vaccination. Against how many diseases
simultaneously the child in the age 4 months is vaccinated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. *5
E. 6
376. Child of 5 months was brought for vaccination. Against how many diseases
simultaneously the child in age of 5 months is vaccinated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. *5
E.
6
377. Child of 5 months was brought to a polyclinic for vaccination by the
associated vaccine. Choose a correct answer concerning the associated
vaccines:
A. They contain antigens of bacteria and viruses
B. They contain different serotypes of one type of microorganism
C. They contain antigens of microorganisms and toxins
D. They contain antigens of bacteria and antigens of viruses, got with the
help of recombined technologies
E. The antigens of different viruses are contained on adsorbents
378. Child of 6 months was brought for vaccination. Against what disease the
child of this age must be vaccinated?
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Ніb-infection
D. *Hepatitis B
E. Rubella
379. Child of 6 months was brought to a policlinic for vaccination by the
recombined vaccine. To the recombined vaccines belong:
A. *Vaccine against hepatitis B on the basis of E.coli
B. antyidiotype against malaria
C. against poliomyelitis Seibin's
D. BCG
E. DTP
380. Child of 6 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this
age must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. *Diphtheria, tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B
D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
E. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection
381. Child of 7 years came for vaccination. Against what diseases the child of this
age must be revaccinated?
A. Hepatitis B
B. *Tuberculosis
C. Diphtheria, tetanus, Ніb-infection, poliomyelitis, hepatitis B
D. Diphtheria, whooping-cough, tetanus, poliomyelitis measles, rubella,
mumps
E. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb- infection
382. Child of 8 months, which gets immunosuppressive therapy, comes to
policlinic for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate this child?
A. Vaccination only in the hospital
B. *Living vaccines are contra-indicated
C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist
D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist
E. Vaccination by inactivated vaccines contraindicated
383. Child, aged 4 months, with hydrocephalus in the stage of decompensation,
comes to policlinic for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate this child?
A. *Vaccination is contra-indicated
B. Vaccination only in the hospital
C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist
D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist
E. Vaccination only by inactivated vaccines
384. Child, aged 7 months, with the innate combined immunodeficiency come to
polyclinic for vaccination. Could a doctor vaccinate this child?
A. *Living vaccines are contra-indicated
B. Vaccination only in the hospital
C. Vaccination after consultation of immunologist
D. Vaccination after consultation of neurologist
E. Vaccination by anatoxin
385. Child, aged of 4 months, was brought in a polyclinic for vaccination.
Indicate what immunity is created by vaccination:
A. Natural active immunity
B. Artificial passive immunity
C. *Artificial active immunity
D. Natural passive immunity
E. Natural specific immunity
386. In a maternity hospital a girl was born with medical contraindications for
vaccination. Indicate the dose of vaccine which it follows to apply for the
subsequent vaccination of the child:
A. 0.25 dose BCG
B. 0.3 dose BCG
C. *0.5 dose BCG
D. 0.75 dose BCG
E. 1 dose BCG
387. In a maternity hospital a girl was born with temporary contraindications for
vaccination. Indicate the place of subsequent vaccination of the child:
A. Maternity hospital
B.
C.
D.
E.
At home
In the hospital
*In child's policlinic
In regional child's polyclinic
388. A child with malignant tumor came to a polyclinic. He receives frequent
transfusions of blood preparations. In anamnesis there is absent the vaccination
against viral hepatitis. Could a doctor vaccinate this child?
A. Vaccination is not done
B. Vaccination by one dose of vaccine
C. Vaccination by the half dose of vaccine
D. *Vaccination by two doses of vaccine
E. Vaccination according the calendar
389. In the age of 1-month and 28 days a child was brought to a polyclinic for
vaccination against tuberculosis. Have a district pediatrician to do the Mantoux
test before the vaccination?
A. Must
B. *Must not
C. Must not in case of vaccination in the hospital
D. must not at presence of phtysiatrist consultation
E. Must not at presence of immunologist consultation
390. In the age of 2-months a child was brought to a polyclinic for vaccination
against tuberculosis. Must a district pediatrician appoint the Mantoux test
before the vaccination?
A. *Must
B. Must not
C. Must not in case of vaccination in the hospital
D. must not at presence of phtysiatrist consultation
E. Must not at presence of immunologist consultation
391. In January the parents brought the child of 6 months in the vaccination room
for routine DTP vaccination (third). The doctor recommend to parents to refrain
from vaccination. Which of the following was the temporary contraindication
for DPT vaccination?
A. *Influenza epidemic in the city
B. Insufficient weight gain of the Child (deficit 5%)
C. Dentition
D. An upper respiratory tract viral infection 1 month ago
E. Increased body temperature to 37,6 oC after the previous vaccination
392. In the blood of new-born antibodies to the virus of measles are revealed.
About the presence of what immunity can it testify?
A. Artificial passive
B.
C.
D.
E.
Natural active
*Natural passive
Artificial active
Inherited
393. On the 2nd day after the DPT vaccination mother had seen at the injection
site - in the upper outer quadrant of buttocks - infiltration with hyperemia of the
skin 2 cm in diameter; general condition of a child is not violated. What is the
most possible cause of infiltration?
A. *Variant of normal vaccination process
B. All of the above
C. Wrong choice of injection site
D. Allergic reactions to vaccine components
E. Lack of vaccination sites processing (secondary infection)
394. The child of 4 years is vaccinated out of the terms of calendar. Indicate the
recommended chart of vaccinations against hepatitis B for vaccination of
children out of terms of calendar:
A. *now, through 1, 6 months
B. through 3, 4, 5 months
C. through 3, 4, 9 months
D. through 3, 4, 8 months
E. through 3, 9, 18 months
395. The child was born in term in a maternity hospital. A mother renounced
from vaccinations, however after the discharge from maternity hospital changed
her mind. Indicate a vaccine and the dose which it follows to apply.
A. 0.25 dose BCG
B. 0.3 dose BCG
C. 0.5 dose BCG
D. *1 dose BCG
E. 1 dose BCG-M
396. The child was born in term in a maternity hospital. A mother renounced
from vaccinations, however after the discharge from maternity hospital changed
her mind. Indicate till what age of child vaccination against tuberculosis is done
without the previous Mantoux test:
A. to 2 weeks
B. to 1 month
C. *to 2 months
D. to 3 months
E. to 6 months
397. The child was vaccinated against tuberculosis in a maternity hospital. In oneyear age a district pediatrician did not find the vaccinal rib in the place of
injection. Indicate what time after vaccination (in case of rib absence) does it
follow to do the additional vaccination after negative Mantoux test:
A. 1 year
B. *2 years
C. 3 years
D. 6 years
E. 7років
398. The child, 12 months, in three days after the Mantoux test comes for
vaccination. What diseases does it follow to vaccinate a child from?
A. Whooping-cough, mumps, rubella
B. *Measles, mumps, rubella
C. Measles, whooping-cough, rubella
D. Whooping-cough, hepatitis, rubella
E. Rubella, whooping-cough, measles
399. The child, aged 3 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before
next vaccination against these diseases?
A. 2 weeks
B. *1 month
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
E. 12 months
400. The child, aged 4 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before
next vaccination against these diseases?
A. 2 weeks
B. *1 month
C. 5 months
D. 6 months
E. 12 months
401. The child, aged 5 months, was vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus,
whooping-cough, poliomyelitis, Ніb-infection. What interval is need before
next vaccination against these diseases?
A. Not less than 3 months
B. Not less than 6 months
C. Not less than 9 months
D. *Not less than 12 months
E. Not less than 18 months
402. The child, aged 6 years, a week ago was vaccinated against diphtheria,
tetanus, poliomyelitis, measles, rubella, mumps. In his family a patient with
tuberculosis is revealed. Indicate through what term after the vaccination it is
possible to do the Mantoux test:
A. on the next day
B. in 2 weeks
C. *in 1 month
D. in 2 months
E. in 3 months
403. The healthy child of 6 years from the HIV-infected mother came for
vaccination against poliomyelitis. What vaccine must receive this child?
A. *Only IPV
B. OPV
C. According to the calendar of inoculations
D. IPV or OPV by choice
E. Vaccination is not done
404. To the child of 18 months fourth vaccination against tetanus, diphtheria,
whooping-cough was done. It is known from anamnesis that after the third one
he has the febrile. What recommendation does it follow to give to the parents in
case of the credible increase of temperature?
A. *paracethamol during 1 day
B. paracethamol during 3 days
C. Aspirin during 1 day
D. analgin during 1 day
E. analgin during 3 days
405. To the child, 12 months, the first vaccination against measles, rubella,
mumps was done. What age will be done the second vaccination against this
disease?
A. 18 months
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. *6 years
E. 11 years
406. To the child, aged 6 months, which was born with temporary
contraindications for vaccination, in the conditions of child's polyclinic the
Mantoux test was done. In 72 hours after estimation of results, a district
pediatrician permitted on vaccination by the BCG-vaccine. Indicate the most
probable result of the Mantoux test:
A. *negative
B. hyperemia 2 mm
C. papule 2 mm
D. papule 3 mm
E. papule 4 mm
407. To the child, aged 6 months, which was born with temporary
contraindications for vaccination, in the child's polyclinic the Mantoux test was
done. In 72 hours after estimation of the results, a district pediatrician find in
the place of test only hyperemia of 2 mm. Is the vaccination against
tuberculosis possible in this case?
A. *Not to vaccinate
B. to vaccinate
C. to vaccinate only at presence of phtysiatrist consultation
D. to vaccinate in the hospital
E. to vaccinate only at presence of immunologist consultation
408. To the district pediatrician children aged from 3 months to 4 years come for
vaccination. What vaccinations does it follow to do to the children of 3 months?
A. Hepatitis B
B. DTP + OPV + Ніb
C. DTaP +OPV + Ніb
D. *DTP + IPV + Ніb
E. DTP + IPV + hepatitis B
409. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV
was done. How long does it follow to hold from injections, planned operations?
A. 15 days
B. 20 days
C. 25 days
D. 30 days
E. *40 days
410. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV
was done. What from enumerated is forbidden during next 40 days?
A. *Injections
B. Insolation
C. Introduction of weaning
D. Walks
E. Massage
411. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV
was done. What from enumerated is forbidden during next 40 days?
A. *parenteral manipulations
B. Insolation
C. Introduction of weaning
D. Walks
E. Massage
823. To the girl, aged 5 months, the vaccination against poliomyelitis by OPV
was done. What from enumerated is forbidden during next 40 days?
A. *Planned operations
B. Insolation
C. Introduction of weaning
D. Walks
E. Massage
824. What kind of immunity to rubella virus has the breast-fed baby of 5 months
if her mother at the age of 12 years had rubella?
A. *Passive natural
B. Active artificial
C. Active natural
D. Passive artificial
E. Immunity is absent
Tasks to photo
1 Fig. 6 shows how to check:
A *Kernig’s sign
B Lessague’s sign
C Upper Brudzinsky’s sign
D Middle Brudzinsky’s sign
E All of them
2 Where you should place the needle at this manipulation in children (Fig. 1):
A *The space between lumbar vertebrae 4-5
B The space between lumbar vertebrae 1-2
C The space between lumbar vertebrae 2-3
D The space between sacral vertebrae 4-5
E The space between sacral vertebrae 2-3
3 This manipulation (Fig. 1) is usually done for:
A Diagnosis of meningitis
B Differential diagnosis of serous and purulent meningitis
C Differential diagnosis of meningism (neurotoxicosis) and meningitis
D Diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage
E *All of these
4 In purulent meningitis the cerebrospinal fluid sampling during this
manipulation (Fig. 1) is done for:
A *bacteriological, biochemical, clinical research
B Bacteriological, biochemical research
C biochemical, clinical research
D virological, biochemical, clinical research
E bacteriological, virological, biochemical, clinical research
5 Name a pathological symptom in this patient (Fig. 43).
A *increased anterior cervical lymph nodes
B increased anterior and posterior cervical lymph nodes
C increased submandibular lymph nodes
D increased anterior cervical and submandibular lymph nodes
E generalized lymphadenopathy
6 Which disease is characterized by such changes in the patient (Fig. 43)?
A *Infectious mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr infection)
B Parotid infection (mumps)
C Influenza
D Rhinovirus infection
E Parainfluenza
7 Which disease is characterized by such changes in the patient (Fig. 43)?
A Acute tonsillitis (angina)
B Diphtheria oropharyngeal (tonsillar)
C Adenovirus infection (pharyngoconjunctival fever)
D Infectious mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr infection)
E *All of them
8 Which disease is characterized by such cough (Fig. 3), having paroxismal
character?
A *pertussis
B parainfluenza
C obstructive bronchitis
D pneumonia with obstructive syndrome
E measles in the catarrhal period
9 How long should be isolated the patient (Fig. 3), who is coughing so typically?
A *30 days from the disease onset
B 14 days from the disease onset
C 17 days from the disease onset
D 21 days from the disease onset
E 5 days from the attacks beginning
10 How long should be quarantine for person contacted with this patient (Fig. 3),
who is coughing so typically?
A 30 days
B *14 days
C 17 days
D 21 days
E 25 days
11 During a typical moderate course of the disease (Fig. 3) at the end of cough
paroxism will appear:
A Redness and edema of the face
B Sweating
C Lacrimation
D Possible vomiting
E *All of these
12 The complication of which infection has developed in this patient (Figure 4)?
A *Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningitis)
B Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningococcemia)
C Parotid infection (mumps)
D Infectious mononucleosis
E Meningococcal infection, localized form (nazopharyngitis)
13 What symptom is presented on this picture (Figure 4)?
A *Greffe
B Koplik's
C Filatov
D Pastia
E Moorson
14 The complication of which infection has developed in this patient (Fig. 5)?
A *Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningitis)
B Meningococcal disease, generalized form (meningococcemia)
C Parotid infection (mumps)
D Infectious mononucleosis
E Meningococcal infection, localized form (nazopharyngitis)
15 Which neurological symptom the hydrocephalus is complicated by in this
patient (Fig. 5)?
A *Paraplegia of the lower extremities
B Paraplegia of the upper extremities
C Tetraplegia
D Left-sided hemiplegia
E Right-sided hemiplegia
16 Fig. 6 shows how to check:
A Upper Brudzinsky’s sign
B Middle Brudzinsky’s sign
C *Lower Brudzinsky’s sign
D Lessague’s sign
E All of them
17 Fig. 7 shows how to check:
A *Upper Brudzinsky’s sign
B Middle Brudzinsky’s sign
C Lower Brudzinsky’s sign
D Lessague’s sign
E Kernig’s sign
18 Fig. 7 shows how to check:
A *Nuchal rigidity
B Middle Brudzinsky’s sign
C Lower Brudzinsky’s sign
D Lessague’s sign
E Kernig’s sign
19 Fig. 8 presents a pose of:
A *meningitis patient
B encephalitis patient
C patient with poliomyelitis, spinal form
D patient with poliomyelitis, pontine form
E healthy infant
20 Fig. 8 presents a pose of:
A a patient with purulent meningitis
B a patient with serous meningitis
C a patient with meningism (neurotoxicosis)
D a patient with meningoencephalitis
E *characteristic in all these diseases
21 In (Fig. 9) is represented a pose of:
A patient with purulent meningitis
B patient with serous meningitis
C patient with meningism (neurotoxicosis)
D patient with meningoencephalitis
E *is characteristic in all these diseases
22 What infectious disease is characterized by such rash (Fig. 10)?
A *Meningococcal infection (meningococcemia)
B Measles in the period of pigmentation
C Scarlet fever, severe form
D Varicella (chickenpox), bullous form
E Rubella
23 Name a symptom that is typical for rash, presented in this picture (Fig. 10)?
A Concentrated in the folds of the skin
B Is accompanied by the itching
C Appears by several waves
D *Not disappear with pressure
E Macular-papular
24 Name a symptom that is typical for rash, presented in this picture (Fig. 10)?
A It is rough (“sand paper”)
B Completely disappears without scarring or scaling
C Appears gradually for 3-4 days
D *Large rashes necrotizing in the center
E Typically is present on the scalp
25 Name a symptom that is typical for rash, presented in this picture (Fig. 10)?
A Further pigmentation of elements
B In the period of recovery occurs scaling of the epidermis
C It is polymorphic
D *Large rashes will scarring
E It is mainly localized on the face, upper extremities
26 Residual period of which disease you could see in this patient (Fig. 11)?
A *Poliomyelitis, spinal form
B Poliomyelitis, pontine form
C Meningococcal infection (meningitis)
D Meningococcal infection (meningococcemia)
E Varicella-Zoster (cerebellitis)
27 What neurological symptom is accompanied a residual period of poliomyelitis
in this patient (Fig. 1)?
A *Paraplegia of the lower extremities
B Paraplegia of the upper extremities
C Tetraplegia
D Left-sided hemiplegia
E Right-sided hemiplegia
28 Name the time of primary vaccination (child's age) for the prevention of this
disease (Fig. 11):
A *3, 4, 5 months
B 1 day, 1, 6 months
C 1 year, 6 years
D 3, 4, 5, 18 months
E 3-7 day, 7 years, 14 years old
29 Indicate which vaccine is used for primary vaccination (first and second) to
prevent this disease (Fig. 11)?
A Oral poliovaccine
B *Inactivated poliovaccine
C MMR
D DTP
E Acellular DTP
30 Indicate which vaccine is used for primary vaccination (third) and booster
vaccinations (revaccinations) to prevent this disease (Fig. 11)?
A Oral poliovaccine
B *Inactivated poliovaccine
C MMR
D DTP
E Acellular DTP
31 Which form of poliomyelitis has this patient (Fig. 12)?
A *spinal
B pontine
C bulbar
D meningeal
E inapparent
32 What disease can be assumed in this patient (Fig. 12)?
A *Poliomyelitis (paralytic)
B Enterovirus infection (epidemic myalgia)
C Enterovirus infection (summer flu)
D Meningococcal infection (meningoencephalitis)
E Measles (meningoencephalitis)
33 Name the date of revaccination (child's age) for the prevention of this disease
(Fig. 12):
A 3, 4, 5 months
B *18 months, 6, 14 years
C 18 months, 6 years
D 3, 4, 5, 18 months, 6, 14 years
E 7 years, 14 years
34 What disease can be assumed in this patient (Fig. 13)?
A *Poliomyelitis (paralytic)
B Enterovirus infection (epidemic myalgia)
C Enterovirus infection (summer flu)
D Meningococcal infection (meningoencephalitis)
E Measles (meningoencephalitis)
35 Which form of poliomyelitis has this patient (Fig. 13)?
A spinal
B *pontine
C bulbar
D meningeal
E inapparent
36 To the patient was diagnosed poliomyelitis, pontine form (Fig. 13), indicate
which pair of cranial nerves is damaged?
A 7th on the right
B *7th on the left
C 5th on the right
D 5th on the left
E 5th and 7th on the left
37 What disease this syndrome (Fig. 15) is typical for?
A *Infectious mononucleosis
B Hepatitis A
C Adenovirus infection
D Salmonellosis (gastrointestinal form)
E Shigellosis
38 What disease this syndrome (Fig. 15) is typical for?
A Infectious mononucleosis
B Hepatitis B
C Typhoid fever
D Salmonellosis (septic form)
E *All of them
39 Typical complication of what disease is shown in Fig. 16?
A *Shigellosis
B Salmonella infection
C Rotavirus infection
D Cholera infection
E Colibacteriosis (E. coli infection)
40 Indicate the reason for the development of this complication (Fig. 16) in
shigellosis:
A *Paresis of the rectal sphincter
B Rectal mucosa ulceration
C Separation of rectal mucosa from submucosa
D Necrosis of the rectal mucosa
E Spasm of the rectal sphincter
41 To which group belongs this medicine (Fig. 17)?
A *Fluoroquinolones
B Cephalosporins 2nd generation
C Cephalosporins 3rd generation
D Aminoglycosides
E Nitrofurans
42 Indicate the dose of this medicineg (Fig. 17) for salmonellosis treatment in a
child.
A *10-15 mg / kg
B 25-30 mg / kg
C 50-75 mg / kg
D 100-150 mg / kg
E 30-50 mg / kg
43 How many times per day should be given this medicine (Fig. 17) to child with
salmonellosis?
A *2 times a day
B 3 times a day
C 1 time a day
D 4 times a day
E 6 times a day
44 To which group belongs this medicine (Fig. 18)?
A Fluoroquinolones
B Cephalosporins 2nd generation
C Cephalosporins 3rd generation
D Aminoglycosides
E *Nitrofurans
45 How many times per day should be given this medicine (Fig. 18) to 4 years old
child for treatment of intestinal infection, moderate severity?
A 2 times a day
B 3 times a day
C 1 time per day
D *4 times a day
E 6 times a day
46 What changes are presented in Figure 2?
A Malnutrition
B Paratrophia
C *Reduced skin elasticity
D Reduced soft tissues turgor
E Normal skin elasticity
47 Reduced skin elasticity in this child (Fig. 2) is developed due to:
A *Dehydration
B Malnutrition
C Pylorostenosis
D Protein-deficiency anemia
E Reduced soft tissues turgor
48 What symptom of dehydration is shown in Fig. 2?
A *Reduced skin elasticity
B Sunken large fontanel
C Weight loss more than 5%
D Dryness of mucous membranes
E Oliguria
49 What form of Meningococcal infection is represented in fig. 25?
A Typical meningococcemia
B *Fulminant meningococcemia
C Meningitis with meningococcemia
D Nasopharyngitis
E Chronic meningococcemia
50 How long should be given this medicine (Fig. 21) to a child with diarrhea?
A 5-7 days
B 1-2 weeks
C 3-4 days
D *Not less than 14 days
E Not less than 1 month
51 Represented medicine (Fig. 21) belongs to:
A Enterosorbents
B Medicines for oral rehydration
C *Probiotics
D Medicines for parenteral rehydration
E Enzyme preparations of the pancreas
52 Name changes on the radiograph (Fig. 14).
A Right lower lobe pneumonia
B Right medial lobe pneumonia
C Right upper lobe pneumonia
D *Right-sided polysegmental pneumonia
E Right-sided pleuropneumonia
53 A radiograph of the chest cavity (Fig. 14) presents:
A *polysegmental pneumonia
B focal pneumonia
C interstitial pneumonia
D lobar pneumonia
E lobular pneumonia
54 4. Represented medicine (Fig. 22) belongs to:
A *Enterosorbents
B Medicines for oral rehydration
C Probiotics
D Medicines for parenteral rehydration
E Enzyme preparations of the pancreas
55 Name a dose of this medicine (Fig. 22) for a child with diarrhea:
A *100 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses
B 1000 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses
C 500 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses
D 10 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses
E 5 mg / kg / day in 3 divided doses
56 How long should be given this medicine (Fig. 22) to a child with diarrhea?
A *5-7 days
B 1-2 weeks
C 1-2 days
D 10-14 days
E Not less than 1 month
57 This medicine (Fig. 23) belongs to:
A Enterosorbents
B *Medicines for oral rehydration
C Probiotics
D Medicines for parenteral rehydration
E Enzymes of the pancreas
58 How long should be given this medicine (Fig. 23) for the first phase of
rehydration?
A *4-6 hours
B 8-10 hours
C 10-12 hours
D 14-18 hours
E 20-24 hours
59 What amount of boiled water should be used to prepare this solution (Fig. 23)?
A 1000 ml
B 500 ml
C *200 ml
D 400 ml
E 300 ml
60 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the first phase of oral
rehydration therapy in children with dehydration of the first degree?
A *50 ml / kg body weight of the child
B 100 ml / kg body weight of the child
C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child
D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child
E 230 ml / kg body weight of the child
61 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the first phase of oral
rehydration therapy in children with dehydration of the third degree?
A 50 ml / kg body weight of the child
B 100 ml / kg body weight of the child
C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child
D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child
E They need parenteral rehydration
62 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the first phase of oral
rehydration therapy in children with dehydration of the second degree?
A 50 ml / kg body weight of the child
B *100 ml / kg body weight of the child
C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child
D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child
E 230 ml / kg body weight of the child
63 How many of the prepared solution (Fig. 23) is used for the second phase of
oral rehydration therapy in children with dehydration?
A 50 ml / kg body weight of the child
B *100 ml / kg body weight of the child
C 150 ml / kg body weight of the child
D 200 ml / kg body weight of the child
E 230 ml / kg body weight of the child
64 A radiograph of the chest (Fig. 19) presents:
A *segmental pneumonia
B focal pneumonia
C lobular pneumonia
D lobar pneumonia
E destructive pneumonia
65 This radiograph (Fig. 19) is typical for:
A *segmental pneumonia
B lobar pneumonia
C focal bronchopneumonia
D staphylococcal pneumonia
E obstructive bronchitis
66 A radiograph of the chest (Fig. 19) presents pneumonia, which is known as:
A *bronchopneumonia
B interstitial pneumonia
C lobular pneumonia
D lobar pneumonia
E pleuropneumonia
67 Name changes on this radiograph (Fig. 20).
A Left lower lobe pneumonia
B Left pleuritis
C Left upper lobe pneumonia
D *Left polysegmental pneumonia
E Left pleuropneumonia
68 A radiograph of the chest (Fig. 20) presents:
A *polysegmental pneumonia
B focal pneumonia
C interstitial pneumonia
D lobar pneumonia
E lobular pneumonia
69 What form of Meningococcal infection is represented in Fig. 27?
A Typical meningococcemia
B *Fulminant meningococcemia
C Meningitis with meningococcemia
D Nasopharyngitis
E Chronic meningococcemia
70 What infectious disease can be diagnosed in this patient (Fig. 27)?
A *Meningococcal disease
B Measles
C Scarlet fever
D Chickenpox
E Pseudotuberculosis
71 What infectious disease can be diagnosed in this patient (Fig. 25)?
A *Meningococcal disease
B Measles
C Scarlet fever
D Chickenpox
E Pseudotuberculosis
72 Which form of Meningococcal infection is typical such localization of
exanthem (Fig. 27)?
A Typical meningococcemia
B *Fulminant meningococcemia
C Meningitis with meningococcemia
D Nasopharyngitis
E Chronic meningococcemia
73 What changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on figure 35?
A Cellular-protein dissociation
B Increased level of sugar
C Protein-cellular dissociation
D Pandy Reaction +
E Significantly reduced level of sugar
74 What microbiological changes are possible in a spinal fluid, presented on figure
35?
A *Presence of diplococcus
B Presence of micobacteria tuberculosis
C Presence of poliovirus
D Presence of enterovirus
E Absence of any agent
75 Represented medicine (Fig. 26) belongs to:
A *Enterosorbents
B Medicines for oral rehydration
C Probiotics
D Medicines for parenteral rehydration
E Enzyme preparations of the pancreas
76 What is the course of treatment by this medicine (Fig. 26) for a child with
diarrhea:
A *5-7 days
B 1-2 weeks
C 1-2 days
D 10-14 days
E Not less than 1 month
77 Presented on a fig. 35 spinal fluid is characteristic for:
A *Purulent meningitis
B Serous meningitis
C Meningism
D Tubercular meningitis
E Healthy child
78 What does a turbid spinal fluid testify about (fig. 35)?
A * About the high level of polymorphonuclear cells
B About the high level of chlorides
C About the high level of lymphocites
D About the high level of sugar
E About the presence of viruses in it
79 What biochemical changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on
figure 35?
A *Protein more than 1 g/l
B Increased level of sugar
C Protein less than 1 g/l
D Normal level of chlorides
E Significantly reduced level of sugar
80 What biochemical changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on
figure 35?
A *Pandy Reaction +++
B Protein-cellular dissociation
C Normal level of cells in it
D Increased level of sugar
E Significantly reduced level of sugar
81 Identify the disease in this patient (Fig. 28).
A *Left-sided parotitis
B Left-sided submaxillitis
C Left-sided cervical lymphadenitis
D Left-sided mastoiditis
E Perforated left-sided otitis media
82 Indicate the form of mumps in this patient (Fig. 28).
A *Isolated glandular
B Glandular combined
C Complicated
D Glandular isolated, complicated
E Glandular combined, complicated
83 Indicate what changes in the oral mucosa can be expected in this patient (Fig.
28)?
A *Hyperemia and edema of the external orifice of Stensen’s duct
B Hyperemia and edema of the internal orifice of Stensen’s duct
C Paleness of the external orifice of Stensen’s duct
D Paleness of the internal orifice of Stensen’s duct
E No changes
84 What disease has the child in Fig. 29?
A *Mumps
B Quincke’s edema
C Right-sided perytonsillar abscess
D Diphtheria of the pharynx, toxic form
E Cervical lymphadenitis
85 Indicate what specific symptom has the patient presented in Fig. 29 (right)?
A *Moorson sign
B Filatov sign
C Koplik sign
D Pastia sign
E Belsky sign
86 Name the way that Mantoux test is done (fig. 30).
A *Intracutaneously
B Subcutaneously
C Intramusculary
D By application on the skin
E By the skin scarification
87 Name the phenomen while tuberculin is injected, represented on this picture
(fig. 30):
A *Papule
B Macule
C Pustule
D Vesicule
E Urtica
88 What substance or vaccine is injected by this way (fig. 30)?
A *Tuberculin
B BCG-vaccine
C MMR-vaccine
D DTP-vaccine
E Hib-vaccine
89 Name the way that tuberculin is injected (fig. 30).
A *Intracutaneously
B Subcutaneously
C Intramusculary
D By application on the skin
E By the skin scarification
90 What amount of tuberculin should be input to the syringe for the Mantoux test
(fig. 30)?
A *0.2 ml
B 0.5 ml
C 0.4 ml
D 0.1 ml
E 0.3 ml
91 What amount of tuberculin should be injected to the patient for the Mantoux
test (fig. 30)?
A *0.1 ml
B 0.2 ml
C 0.5 ml
D 0.4 ml
E 0.3 ml
92 How many international units of tuberculin should be injected for the Mantoux
test (fig. 30)?
A 1
B *2
C 3
D 4
E 5
93 Name the way of this vaccine administration (fig. 31).
A *Intramusculary
B By the skin scarification
C Orally (by the mouth)
D Intracutaneously
E Subcutaneously
94 Name healthy child’s age, when this vaccine is given according the schedule
(fig. 31).
A *3, 4 months
B 3, 4, 5 months
C 3, 4, 5, 18 months
D 3, 4, 5, 18, month, 6 years
E 3 months only
95 Which vaccine is given by this way (fig. 32)?
A *OPV-vaccine
B IPV-vaccine
C Influenza-vaccine
D MMR-vaccine
E Hib-vaccine
96 Which vaccination (according the schedule) against poliovirus is given by this
way (fig. 32)?
A *3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th
B 1st and 2nd
C Only the 1st
D 1st, 2nd and 3rd
E All of them
97 Name healthy child’s age, when oral polio vaccine is given (fig. 32).
A *5, 18 month, 6, 14 years
B 3, 4 months
C 3, 4, 5 months
D 3, 4, 5, 18 months
E 3 months only
98 How many components does this vaccine include (fig. 33)?
A *4
B 5
C 3
D 6
E 7
99 Name healthy child’s age, when this vaccine (fig. 33) is given for primary
vaccination according the schedule.
A *3, 4, 5 months
B 3, 4, 5, 18 months
C 3, 4 months
D 3, 4, 5, 18 months and 6 years
E 18 months and 6 years
100 Name healthy child’s age, when this vaccine is given according the schedule
(fig. 34).
A *3-7th day after birth, 7, 14 years
B 3-7th day after birth only
C 7 years only
D 14 years only
E 3-7th day after birth, 7, 14, 18 years
101 What microscopic changes are characteristic for a spinal fluid, presented on
a picture 35?
A *the high level of polymorphonuclear cells
B the high level of lymphocytes
C Normal level of protein
D Significantly reduced level of sugar
E Erythrocytes cover all visual field
102 At a child of 2 months with congenital heart disease, deafness during the
inspection such changes fig. 36) were found. Which congenital infectious
disease is characterized by these changes?
A *Rubella
B Varicella
C Herpes simplex
D Cytomegalovirus
E Toxoplasmosis
103 One of the Greg’s triad components is represented on fig. 36. Name other
two.
A *congenital heart disease, deafness
B congenital heart disease, clift palate
C congenital heart disease, clift upper lip
D clift palate, deafness
E deafness, spina bifida
104 At a child of 1 month with congenital heart disease, deafness during the
inspection also such changes (fig. 36) were found. This triad is known as:
A *Greg’s triad
B Fallot’s triad
C Filatov’s sign
D Koplick’s sign
E Pastia’s sign
105 Which disease is characterized by the presented symptoms (Fig. 40)?
A *Tonsillar diphtheria, toxic form
B Mumps infection, bilateral submaxillitis
C Mumps infection, bilateral parotitis
D Bilateral cervical lymphadenitis
E Quincke’s edema
106 Indicate the form of diphtheria in this patient (Fig. 40).
A *Tonsillar diphtheria, toxic form
B Tonsillar diphtheria, spread form
C Nasopharyngeal diphtheria, toxic form
D Nasopharyngeal diphtheria, spread form
E Laryngeal diphtheria, laryngotracheobronchitis
107 This multicomponent vaccine (fig. 37) is given according the schedule for
healthy children predominantly in:
A 3, 4 months
B 3, 4, 5 months
C *3, 4, 5, 18 months
D 3, 4, 5, 18, month, 6 years
E 3 months only
108 How many diseases this multicomponent vaccine (fig. 37) will prevent?
A *5
B 6
C 7
D 3
E 4
109 What demonstrates this picture (fig. 24)?
A Places for comparative percussion of lungs
B Places for auscultation of lungs
C Places for cardiac valves auscultation
D Location of possible pleural effusion
E *Location of retractions in case of croup
110 Retractions, presented on this picture, are typical for:
A Bronchitis
B *Croup syndrome
C Uncomplicated pneumonia
D Tracheobronchitis
E Pleuropneumonia
111 How often children should be vaccinated by such vaccine (fig. 38)?
A *Once a year in september-october
B Once a year in december-february
C Twice a year in autmn and spring
D Twice a year in winter and spring
E Once in 2-3 years
112 This monovaccine (fig. 39) predominantly is given for:
A *Primary vaccination against Rubella in adolescent girls (15 years)
B Primary vaccination against Rubella in 12 month
C Primary vaccination against Rubella in 6 years
D Primary combined vaccination against Rubella, Measles and Mumps
E Primary combined vaccination against Rubella, and Mumps
113 In what age this monovaccine is usually used for primary vaccination (fig.
39)?
A *For 15 years girls
B For 15 years boys
C In 12 months
D In 6 years
E In 12 months, 6 years
114 This vaccine (fig. 39) belongs to live vaccines, name another live vaccine.
A *BCG
B IPV
C Hepatitis B
D Hib
E DTP
115 What means the "bull neck" symptom, presented in Fig. 40?
A Nuchal rigidity
B Meningitis posture
C *Swelling of the neck subcutaneous tissue
D Increased anterior cervical lymph nodes
E Swelling of the submandibular salivary glands
116 What disease the presented symptoms (Fig. 41) are typical for?
A Measles
B Rubella
C Mumps
D Thrush
E Chickenpox
117 What period of measles does this patient have(Fig. 41)?
A Catarrhal
B *Eruption (rashes)
C Pigmentation
D Scaling
E Residual
118 Indicate the day of the eruption period in this patient (Figure 41).
A 1st
B 2nd
C
D
E
119
A
B
C
D
E
120
A
B
C
D
E
121
A
B
C
D
E
122
A
B
C
D
E
123
A
B
C
D
E
124
A
B
C
D
E
125
A
B
C
D
E
3rd
4th
5th
Indicate the possible day of the disease in this patient (Fig. 41).
1-3rd
4-5th
6-7ht
8-10th
2 weeks
What disease is characterized by this symptom (Fig. 42)?
*Measles
Rubella
Mumps
Thrush
Chickenpox
Name the pathognomonic symptom of measles (Fig. 42).
Moorson’s sign
Filatov’s sign
*Koplik’s sign
Pastia’s sign
Kernig’s sign
What disease is characterized by the presented symptoms (Fig. 43)?
Tonsillar diphtheria, toxic form
Mumps infection, bilateral submaxillitis
*Infectious mononucleosis
Scarlet fever
Streptococcal tonsillitis
Describe the rash on Fig. 44:
*Polymorphic
Macular
Petechial
Papular
Erythema
Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 44) typical for?
*Varicella
Measles
Rubella
Scarlet fever
Pseudotubercullosis
What complication of chickenpox is presented on this picture (Fig. 44)?
Pustullosis
Erythema
Phlegmona
Scarring
*No complications
126 Which form of chicken pox the represented rash (Fig. 44) is characteristic
for?
A Hemorrhagic
B Bullosa
C Generalized
D Rudimentary
E *Typical
127 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 45) typical for?
A *Herpes simplex
B Varicella
C Herpes zoster
D Erysipelas
E Anthrax
128 Describe the rash on Fig. 45:
A Polymorphic
B Macular
C Petechial
D Papular
E *Vesicular
129 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 46) typical for?
A Herpes zoster*
B Herpes simplex
C Varicella
D Streptoderma
E Variola
130 Describe the rash on Fig. 46:
A Erythema
B Macular
C Petechial
D Papular
E Vesicular *
131 Which infectious disease is this rash (Fig. 47) typical for?
A Herpes zoster *
B Herpes simplex
C Varicella
D Rubella
E Measles
132 Describe the rash on Fig. 47:
A Erythema
B Macular
C Petechial
D Papular
E *Vesicular