Download 5 - Final Exam - Tse

Name: __________________
Science 10 Remedial
Date: _____________
Final Cumulative Exam (MC)
(Sustainability of Ecosystems, Chemical Reactions, Radioactivity, Motion, Energy Transfer in Natural Systems, and Plate Tectonics)
True or False and Multiple-Choice
Use the following climatograph to answer the question below.
1. Which world biome is represented by the data in the climatograph?
A. Desert
B. Tundra
C. Tropical rainforest
D. Temperate rainforest
2. Biosphere II was built in Tucson, Arizona. This multi-million dollar experiment enclosed several
mechanically maintained environments. These included a tropical rainforest, desert, grassland and a
4 million litre tropical ocean.
Which of the following is represented by the different
environments in Biosphere II?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Biomes
Food webs
Populations
Ecological succession
Use the following graphic of an aquatic ecosystem to answer the following two questions .
3. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
A. Fish
B. Frog
C. Plant
D. Water
4. What process is responsible for providing
energy to the ecosystem?
A. Decomposition
B. Commensalism
C. Photosynthesis
D. Bioaccumulation
Use the following diagram to answer question 5.
5. Which of the following sets of terms correctly represent each of the shaded boxes shown above?
6. Which of the following is an example of parasitism?
A. The red-billed oxpecker climbs over the skin of giraffes, searching for insects to eat. The giraffe
is helped because the oxpecker takes away the irritating pests.
B. The dodder is a plant that lives on other plants, getting nutrients from them. Dodders do not
have any chlorophyll necessary for photosynthesis and do not make their own food.
C. The remora fish has a suction disk on top of its head, which it uses to harmlessly attach itself to
sharks. It is then protected by the shark and can pick up scraps of food the shark drops.
D. Acacia ants protect the acacia tree in Costa Rica. They bite animals that try to eat parts of the
tree. In return, the tree provides the ants with a safe place to nest inside its large thorns. The tree
also produces a sweet substance for the ants to eat.
Use the following food chain to answer question 7.
7. If many hawks were killed, what would likely happen to the caterpillar population?
A. It would increase.
C. It would remain stable.
B. It would decrease.
D. It would increase, then level off.
Use the following information to answer the next two questions.
8. What is the experimental variable in this study?
A. Carbon
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Phosphorus
9. What would be an appropriate control for the experiment?
A. The plastic curtain
B. The amount of algae growth
C. A similar lake where nutrient levels were not altered
D. The amounts of phosphorus, nitrogen and carbon added to the lake
Use the following illustration of a marine ecosystem to answer question 10.
10. Which of the following would most likely be eradicated by bioaccumulation?
A. The gull
B. The smelt
C. The large fish
D. The zooplankton
Use the following sequence of diagrams showing change over time to answer question 11.
11. Which of the following is represented?
A. Biodegradation
B. Natural selection
C. Adaptive radiation
D. Ecological succession
Use the following graph of a deer population over time to answer question 12.
12. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the change in the number of deer from 1925
to 1935?
A. Food resources were depleted and starvation occurred.
B. Drought caused a large number of deer to enter the area.
C. Improved natural habitat provided additional protection from predators.
D. A number of predatory species drove the local deer population to extinction.
13. True or false? The diagram represents an isotope of lithium.
A. True
B. False
14. True or false? Different isotopes of the same element have different numbers of protons.
A. True
B. False
15. How many electrons does a sodium ion have in its outermost shell?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 7
D. 8
Use the following information from the periodic table to answer the question below.
16. Samarium-144 and samarium-148 are naturally occurring isotopes. Why is the atomic mass of
samarium greater than either of these two isotopes?
A. Samarium-144 has fewer protons than samarium-148.
B. There are only two naturally occurring isotopes of samarium.
C. Samarium-144 has the same number of neutrons as samarium-148.
D. There must be more than two naturally occurring isotopes of samarium.
17. True or false? SO2 is an ionic compound.
A. True
B. False
18. True or false? The name for the compound Pb(NO3)2 is lead(II) nitrate.
A. True
B. False
19. True or false? The chemical formula for calcium phosphate contains more oxygen atoms than the
chemical formula for sodium phosphate.
A. True
B. False
20. What is the formula for erbium oxide which is used to tint eyeglasses pink?
A. ErO
B. ErO2
C. Er2O3
D. Er3O2
21. What is the total number of atoms in a molecule of nitrogen trifluoride?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
22. Which of the following sets of coefficients will balance the equation?
_____ Al2(SO4)3 + _____ BaCl2  _____ AlCl3 + _____ BaSO4
A. 1, 2, 1, 1
B. 1, 2, 2, 2,
C. 1, 3, 1, 3
23. Which of the following represents the Bohr model for a magnesium atom?
D. 1, 3, 2, 3
Use the following information to answer the following four questions.
24. What is the chemical formula for the remedy the man used to treat his excess stomach acid (upset
stomach)?
A. HCl
B. H2O
C. Na2CO3
D. NaHCO3
25. The reaction that caused the exploding stomach is shown below: NaHCO3 + HCl  NaCl + +H2O
Which of the following is the missing gas in the equation?
A. H2
B. O2
C. Cl2
D. CO2
26. Which of the following is a balanced equation for the reaction that occurs when magnesium hydroxide is
used to treat an upset stomach?
A. MgOH2 + HCl  MgCl + H2O
C. Mg2OH + 2HCl  2Mg2Cl + H2O
B. Mg(OH)2 + HCl  MgCl + H2O
D. Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl  MgCl2 + 2H2O
27. Which type of chemical reaction would occur between an antacid containing aluminum hydroxide and
the hydrochloric acid in the stomach?
A. Synthesis
B. Neutralization
C. Decomposition
D. Single Replacement
28. Homo erectus (early man) made stone hand axes by chipping stones together.
True or false? Radioactive dating will determine the age of the stone, not the date the axe was made.
A. True
B. False
29. Which of the following radioactive isotopes would be best for dating samples of burnt wood from a
campfire in a prehistoric cave?
A. Argon-40
B. Carbon-14
C. Uranium-238
D. Potassium-40
30. The amount of daughter product increases as parent isotope decreases. Which graph shows the change
in amount of daughter product over time as an isotope undergoes radioactive decay?
31. Which of the following reactions would produce a proton?
32. The following distance–time graph shows a 100 m race among three friends.
What was the outcome of the race?
A. Al won the race
B. Bob won the race
C. Charlie won the race
D. The race was a three-way tie
33. Which of the following statements describe the relationship among displacement, time interval and
average velocity for an object travelling in uniform motion?
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
34. The following graph shows the velocity of a taxi as it travels to the airport. During which interval of
the journey is the taxi stopped?
A. From point A  point B
B. From point B  point C
C. From point C  point D
D. From point D  point E
Use the following information for a car moving with constant acceleration to answer the
following three questions.
35. The car has negative acceleration.
A. The statement is supported by
the information given.
B. The statement is refuted by the
information given.
C. The statement is neither
supported nor refuted by the
information.
36. Every second, the velocity of the car
increases by 5 m/s.
A. The statement is supported by
the information given.
B. The statement is refuted by the
information given.
C. The statement is neither
supported nor refuted by the
information.
37. The velocity of the car at X is 5 m/s.
A. The statement is supported by the information given.
B. The statement is refuted by the information given.
C. The statement is neither supported nor refuted by the information.
Use the following information to answer the following question.
38. Which of the following statements are supported by the diagram and experiment?
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
Use the data given in the table and the grid provided to answer the following question.
The data represents the motion of a powerboat. Use the grid provided to determine the acceleration of
the boat.
Time (s)
0.0
1.0
2.0
3.0
4.0
5.0
Velocity of Boat (m/s)
1.9
4.1
6.0
8.2
9.9
12.2
39. What is the acceleration of the boat?
A. 1 m/s2
B. 2 m/s2
C. 3 m/s2
D. 4 m/s2
40. In which of the following does convection occur?
I
II
III
IV
The ocean
The atmosphere
The mantle of the Earth
Space between the Sun and the Earth
A. I only
B. II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
41. Which of the following are primary sources of thermal energy for Earth?
I
II
III
IV
The Sun
The Coriolis effect
Radioactive decay
Residual energy from planet formation
A. I only
B. I, III, and IV only
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
42. Using the weather map below, which of the following describes the weather in Northern Manitoba and
Northern Quebec?
43. Consider the following graph indicating the atmospheric pressure measured at different altitudes.
What is the air pressure measured at 5 km
above the surface of the earth?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0 kPa
20 kPa
50 kPa
101.3 kPa
44. The change in direction of a moving object from a straight path or line, caused by the rotation of the
Earth, is known as which of the following?
A. Coriolis Effect
C. Kinetic Molecular Theory
B. Prevailing Winds
D. El Niño southern oscillation
45. In the early evening, offshore winds blowing from the land out onto the ocean take the tops off
incoming waves. Which of the following best explains this common occurrence?
A. Rapid cooling of land at night generates offshore breezes
B. Rapid cooling of water at night generates offshore breezes
C. Land remains warmer at night, generating offshore breezes
D. Ocean remains warmer at night, generating onshore breezes
Use the information below to answer the following question.
46. Which of the following best explains the tectonic
environment at X?
A. Hot spot under a continental crust
B. Convergence at an oceanic–oceanic plate boundary
C. Transform faulting at an oceanic–oceanic plate
boundary
D. Convergence at a continental–continental plate
boundary
47. What type of plate boundary would have caused the supercontinent, Pangea, to break apart?
A. Oceanic-oceanic divergent
C. Continental–continental divergent
B. Continental–oceanic convergent
D. Continental–continental convergent
Use the following maps to answer the question below.
48. Which of the following best explains why the Hawaiian Islands chain has changed during the last 7.5 Ma?
A. The Pacific Plate is diverging.
B. The plate has stopped moving in this area.
C. The Pacific Plate is moving over a hot spot.
D. The Hawaiian islands are subducting beneath the Pacific plate.
49. Rising magma can be found in which of the following locations?
A. Aleutian Trench
C. Juan de Fuca Ridge
B. San Andreas Fault
D. Queen Charlotte Fault
50. Which of these occur at a divergent plate boundary?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
51. The mountains of western Newfoundland are made up of oceanic crust and mantle rock that were
pushed onto the continental crust during the early Ordovician. Which of the following best describes
the oceanic crust and mantle rock?
A. Sedimentary rocks and dinosaur fossils
B. Sedimentary rocks containing Permian trilobites
C. Mid-ocean ridge volcanic rock above even denser rock
D. Sedimentary layers formed at the same time as the Grand Canyon
I
II
III
Trenches
Shallow earthquakes, 0 – 70 km deep
Deep earthquakes, 350 – 700 km deep
Use the following map to answer the following question.
52. Identify the type of plate boundary and the type of crust interaction found in New Zealand.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Plate Boundary
Divergent
Convergent
Transform
Convergent
Crust Information
Oceanic-oceanic
Oceanic-oceanic
Continental-oceanic
Continental-continental
Use the following map and image of the Himalayan Mountains to answer the following question.
53. Why is there no subduction zone at this plate boundary?
A. Subduction zones are rare.
B. Continental crust does not subduct.
C. The plate boundaries are too far from the ocean.
D. Volcanoes are necessary in order for subduction to occur.
Use the following map and photograph of Mt. Rainier and the city of Seattle to answer the question
below.
54. Which of the following helps Seattle avoid the destructive effects of earthquakes?
A. Using fire-resistant building materials in all structures
B. Building a safe distance from hazards such as volcanoes
C. Designing building codes to make structures withstand earthquakes
D. Building a safe distance from tectonic plate boundaries where earthquakes may happen